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<h1><span style="color: #0000ff; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><strong>Mistranslations to Help Paul or Paulinism</strong></span></h1>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">True translations often damage Paul or Pauline doctrine, if given proper consideration.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">John 1:11-12 </span></strong></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">As an introduction to this passage, be aware that in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=exodus+20%3A6&version=KJV">Exodus 20:6 KJV</a> Yahweh says: "I show mercy to those who love me and obey my commandments." </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">So it comes as no surprise that this passage of John 1:11-12 should read: </span></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">For all that received Him, He gave them the RIGHT (exousian) to become sons of God <span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">-- to the ones OBEYING UNTO (pisteuosin eis) His name</span>. </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">This would precisely parallel Revelation 22:14 written by the same human hand as wrote John 1:12: </span></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Happy [are] the ones <strong>doing His commandments</strong>, so that their <strong>right</strong> (exousia) will be to the tree of life, and they shall enter by the gates into the city. (</span><a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=rev+22%3A14&version=DLNT" style="color: #517291; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Rev 22:14</a><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">)(ALT) </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">This Revelation passage uses a synonym for obedience -- "doing his commandments," and then links those so characterized as enjoying their "right" to the tree of life. Salvation. This exactly parallels what John 1:12 properly translated as to PISTEUOSIN EIS would read in relation to the same word as in Rev. 22:14 - exousia.</span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">This also allows Revelation 22:14 to help prove the correct verb meaning of PISTEOUSIN EIS. For Revelation 22:14 clearly says "doing his commandments" and then links "exousia" to salvation, and thus one can see even more strongly why "obey unto" is the correct translation in John 1:12 of pisteuosin + eis. You can have a "right" to salvation based upon obedience in Revelation 22:14 as well as in John 1:12. </span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">Instead, this typically is rendered so a believer has a right to become a son of God by <strong>mere belief</strong>, with no other conditions necessary. See </span><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">ASV, NASB, NIV, and God’s Word Bibles.</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">However, <strong>pisteuosin</strong> <strong>eis</strong> truly means obey unto, not the shallower concept of "believe in." </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">How so?</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">In brief, EIS means <strong>unto</strong> in Greek. When directed at a person, and it follows the verb pisteuo it means <strong>Obey</strong> or <strong>Comply</strong> UNTO that person. It does not mean "believe" in facts about that person, or to simply have a "confidence" / faith in that person. <span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">See this </span><a href="/topicindex/161-chapter-26-1jwos.html" style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">link </a><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">on John 3:16 in which these same root words appea, and are similarly mistranslated. </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">In fact, the famous evangelical specialist in Greek, Marvin Vincent wrote about John 1:12 in particular: </span></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0px; margin-bottom: 0px; padding: 0px 0px 10px 30px; color: #494a44; font-family: Tahoma, Verdana, Geneva, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 14px; background-color: #ffffff;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">“‘believe on’ (<strong>pisteuosin eis</strong>) is more than <strong>mere acceptance of a statement</strong>. It is so to accept them practically....Hence, to believe on the Lord Jesus is <strong>not merely to believe the facts</strong><em><strong> </strong></em>of His historic life or His saving energy as facts, but to accept Him as Savior, Teacher, Sympathizer, Judge; to rest the soul upon Him for present and future salvation; and<strong> to accept and adopt His precepts and example as binding upon the life</strong>.” (Marvin R. Vincent, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Word Studies in the New Testament</span> (C. Scribner’s: 1905) Vol. 2 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=vBbDVQU3jOMC&lpg=PA50&ots=t9IkK_7JBY&dq=Vincent%20word%20studies%20o%20accept%20and%20adopt%20His%20precepts%20and%20example%20and%20binding%20upon%20the%20life&pg=PA49#v=onepage&q=Vincent%20word%20studies%20o%20accept%20and%20adopt%20His%20precepts%20and%20example%20and%20binding%20upon%20the%20life&f=false" style="color: #517291;">49-50</a>.)</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Vincent is beating about the bush. He says pisteuosin eis does not mean "belief in facts" about someone. What readily comes to mind is 1 Cor. 15:1-4 -- you "shall" be saved if you "keep in mind" three facts: Jesus died for sins, was buried, and rose from the dead. Instead, Vincent says that pisteusin eis means to "<strong>accept</strong> and <strong>adopt</strong> His <strong>precepts</strong> and example" as "<strong>binding</strong> upon life." Vincent, had he not feared the establishment, could have said piseuosin eis means OBEY, not FAITH ALONE. This then would support exousin means RIGHT.</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">But if instead we look at John 1:11,12 and used the shallower "believe" as the translation (incorrectly) to render pisteuosin, then <strong>exousin</strong> would have to mean <strong>power</strong> in this context, rather than "right." This is because we know from Jesus that faith alone is no guarantee of <strong>a right</strong> to salvation once disobedience creeps into a believer's life, e.g, Mark 9:42-47 ("believer in me...ensnared [by sin]...[has 2 choices] heaven maimed [or] hell whole").</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Thus, that alternative based upon "believe" (remember an error according to Vincent) would be POWER, not right. So I would render this way if <strong>believe</strong> were the correct translation (it is not): </span></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span>For all that received Him, He gave them the POWER (exousian) to become sons of God </span><span>-- to the ones who believe on (pisteuosin eis) His name</span><span>. </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px; background-color: transparent;">Thus, with that in mind, t</span><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px; background-color: transparent;">he </span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><strong>Bromiley International Bible Encylopedia</strong></span><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px; background-color: transparent;"> (Eerdman's 1979) Vol. 1 at </span><a href="https://books.google.com/books?id=wo8csizDv0gC&lpg=PA365&dq=exousian&pg=PA365#v=onepage&q=exousian&f=false" style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px; background-color: transparent;">365</a> <span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px; background-color: transparent;"> explains "exousia" derives from "exestin," a noun which in one of its senses means "power." It says an alternative is "authority." </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Other usages of exousia in the NT support that <strong>power </strong>in John 1:12 is an alternative to "right" in John 1:12<strong>.</strong> For example, in <a href="http://biblehub.com/matthew/10-1.htm">Matt 10:1,</a> Jesus gave the disciples "power" (exousia) over demons to defeat them. Both Moffatt & Godspeed concur it is "power" in 10:1. See <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew+17%3A20&version=DLNT">link</a>. </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Hence, "power" in John 1:12 would necessarily be the right translation if pisteuosin eis truly meant BELIEVE IN, because Jesus in Mark 9:42-47 gives a "believer in me" no automatic "right" to salvation if caught in sin: instead, Jesus says the believer must resolve the choice between "heaven maimed" or "hell whole" by choosing to cut off the body parts ensnaring him or her in sin, and thus go to "heaven maimed" rather than hell whole. </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Thus, one can see John 1:12 is mistranslated in two different ways to help Paul's doctrine, and <strong>not to match Jesus' doctrine</strong>. </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">For if faith alone were the correct meaning in John 1:12, then this could not possibly give one the "right" to become sons of God alone because Jesus said the Prodigal son was "alive again" when he repented of sin, and turned around, heading to the Father, and not at a moment of 'faith.' (See Luke 15.) Faith might give you the "power" to obey, but not the right of salvation. For Jesus said faith alone does not save the sinning Christian who had not cut off the sources tempting them in sin, as He three distinct times taught in his "heaven maimed" or "hell whole" lesson. (Mark 9:42-47; Matt 5; Matt 18.) </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">But more fundamentally, the verse actually means in its fullest most accurate sense, as Vincent pointed out long ago, <strong>obedience is what grants the right to become sons</strong> -- exactly as Revelation 22:14 reads. This was wholly adverse to Paul. Despite scholarship proving the meaning, the translators will not budge. Due to clear scholarly support, this is simply a continuing mistranslation to protect Paul.</span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt; color: #0000ff;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Romans 3:7 - Does Paul Admit He is A Liar, But Claims An Excuse? Or Is Paul Quoting Someone Else's Argument?</span></span></strong></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Paul in Romans 3:7 with one primary exception is always quoted as speaking about "my lie." And because it was to advance the gospel, Paul asks: "then why I am still regarded as a sinner?" Paul clearly says that his lying for the gospel was excused by the end achieved - the advancing of the gospel. </span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Is it debatable whether any gospel built on lies is any gospel at all? I hope not. But I digress.</span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1"><span style="color: #494a44; font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Rather than accept the verse as it exists in Greek the NIV changes this and unjustifiably <strong>ADDS</strong> "some might argue" without any Greek manuscript variant to support the idea. The NIV reads: </span></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-weight: bold; background-image: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-attachment: initial;">7 </span><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>Someone might argue</strong></span>, “If my falsehood enhances God’s truthfulness and so increases his glory, why am I still condemned as a sinner? (<a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=romans+3%3A7&version=NIV">Romans 3:7 NIV</a>.)</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="color: #222222;">As evangelical Christian Ray Stedman says in </span><span style="font-weight: bold; color: #222222;">Reason to Rejoice: Love, Grace, and Forgiveness in Paul's Letter to the Romans </span><span style="color: #222222;">(Discovery House, 2016) at this</span><span style="font-weight: bold; color: #222222;"></span><a href="https://books.google.com/books?id=a2aeCwAAQBAJ&lpg=PT73&ots=CpjDdliqCz&dq=romans%203%3A7%20NIV%20addition%20%22someone%20might%20argue%22&pg=PT73#v=onepage&q=romans%203:7%20NIV%20addition%20%22someone%20might%20argue%22&f=false"><span>link</span></a><span style="font-weight: bold; color: #222222;">:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #222222; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-weight: bold; background-image: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-attachment: initial;">"Translators of the New International Version erred by adding the phrase that is not in the original Greek text "Someone might argue...." </span><span style="font-weight: bold; background-image: initial; background-position: initial; background-repeat: initial; background-attachment: initial;">The New King James renders it more accurately:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #001320; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: #fdfeff;">For if the truth of God has increased through my lie </span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #001320; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: #fdfeff;">unto his glory; why am I also judged as a sinner?"</span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #222222;">You can verify for yourself that the NIV is improper by looking at the Bible.hub "Greek" tab, and you will see there is no such language "Someone might argue" supported tat the Greek tab for this verse. See</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><a href="http://biblehub.com/romans/3-7.htm">http://biblehub.com/romans/3-7.htm</a> </p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">What is ironic is that the NIV's justification for adding deceptively to the text can only be to protect Paul. Obviously the NIV thinks protecting Paul's reputation advances the gospel. Thus, the NIV believes <strong>lying</strong> that advances the gospel as it understands the gospel is no sin. Hence, the very deceptive action of the NIV can only be defended by the way the verse actually reads. This proves the NIV <strong>knows</strong> what Romans 3:7 actually says, and relies upon that principle to <strong>justify</strong> <strong>deceiving</strong> us. This is the only way the NIV can defend altering the verse to disarm detractors from the "gospel" who cite Romans 3:7 to discredit Paul. The NIV must think that its deceptive addition to Romans 3:7 to advance the so-called Pauline gospel (truly simply insulate Paul from a criticism) is justified and not condemnable. No doubt the NIV knows what Paul says; and the NIV is relying upon it; and the NIV thereby changes the verse so we don't think we have the same liberty to deceive for Christ that the NIV chose to perform on the text.</p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">The NIV is wrong that we are ever free to add to the text this radically. The Bible is clear, unless you are a valid prophet who is not guilty of apostasy (Deut 13:1-5), you cannot "add" or "subtract" from God's Holy Word. (Deut 4:2.) If the NIV truly thought Paul was inspired, they cannot add to Paul's words. By making this change, the NIV gained an advantage for why its volume correctly includes Paul. It need not explain why Paul is in the Bible when he defends lying to advance the Bible, saying it is no sin at all.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">But the Christian community has a right to know the true verse. We have a right to weigh whether Paul's admission into canon was right or wrong. What we see truly present in Romans 3:7 is evidence we all made a mistake somewhere back in time adding Paul.</p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><strong>2 Corinthians 12:16</strong></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Similar to the NIV in Romans 3:7, the ESV tampers with this passage by making it appear Paul is not owning being deceptive. Here Paul says truly:</p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; padding-left: 30px;">"But be it so, I myself did not burden you, but being crafty, I caught you with guile." <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2+Corinthians+12%3A16&version=ASV">ASV</a>.</p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">But the English Standard. Version (ESV) reads: </p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 24px;">"But be it so, I myself did not burden you, but being crafty, <strong>you say, </strong>I caught you with guile." <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2+Corinthians+12%3A16&version=ESV">ESV</a>. <br /></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 24px;"><br />But what I bolded -- <strong>you say </strong>-- is a deliberately false insert, as there is no "you say" in the Greek text underlying this passage. You can see for yourself looking at the Greek tab from Biblehub.com for this verse at this <a href="https://biblehub.com/text/2_corinthians/12-16.htm">link</a>. The NIV which was willing to falsify Romans 3:7 with such a similar deflection was not willing to do so here likewise. Instead the NIV correctly translates</span><span>:</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 24px;">"Be that as it may, I have not been a burden to you. Yet, crafty fellow that I am, I caught you by trickery." <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2+Corinthians+12%3A16&version=NIV">NIV</a>. <br /><br /></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 24px;">You can see nothing like "you say" appears in the NIV although the NIV falsified in the same way Romans 3:7. The NIV has Paul own his deceit. <br /></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 24px;">The ESV version is therefore an obvious fraud here. Its purpose can only be to help Paul not look bad, i.e., not appear to be a self-professed deceiver.</span></p>
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<p><span style="background-color: transparent;"></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><strong><span style="color: #0000ff;">John 13:16 - An Apostle Is Not Greater than His Master </span></strong></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">There is nothing remarkable about the correct translation of this verse. Jesus begins by saying in John 13:16 that a "servant is not greater than his master," and then adds "<strong>an apostle</strong> is not greater than the one who sent him."</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">The word "apostle" is unavoidable as the Greek word is "apostolos." </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Why is it omitted, rendered as "one who is sent" except in the Young's Literal, the Aramaic NT, Doay-Rheims, and <a href="https://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/vul/joh013.htm">Jerome's Vulgate</a>? All the latter versions have "apostle." Why do these texts render the noun <strong>apostolos</strong> in Greek as <strong>apostle in English</strong>?</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">First, it is the only possible honest translation.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Second, in context, Jesus contrasted the noun of "servant" with the noun of "apostle" in the same sentence. Neither a servant nor apostle has a status greater than their master. Hence, Jesus was telling the apostles, and not just servants in general, that they are not greater than the one who sent them: Jesus himself.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Thus, Jesus is nicely saying he is superior to the apostles, and not merely his general servants. The apostles therefore cannot contradict him, claim any superior message to his own, or compete for attention with Jesus, etc.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">But we all know there is a person who does this with the support of the clergy -- Paul. For we cannot forget that Luther began the Reformation believing Paul was "in advance" of Jesus, and wiser than him, and thus we are free to dismiss Jesus' teachings based strictly on listening to Paul. See <a href="/topicindex/196-luther-thoughts-on-inspiration.html">Luther Construes Moses and Jesus Subject to Higher Authority of Paul.</a></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Thus, a Paulinist believer who shares the young Luther's understanding will have a hard problem translating correctly this passage. It might trigger internal concern of the translator himself / herself about why the translator personally elevates Paul over Jesus. Thus, the standard translation, with the few exceptions listed above, renders the word "apostolos" not even by <strong>a noun</strong>, but by a verb phrase -- "he that is sent" <span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;"> (</span><a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+13%3A16&version=KJV" style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">KJV</a><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">) </span>-- making it <strong><span style="color: #ff0000;">much harder for the reader</span></strong> to realize Jesus is saying that<strong> He is more important than Paul</strong> or anyone else who claims the title of apostle.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">By contrast, see <span style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;">other versions which merely downplay "apostolos" by rendering it as "messenger," e.g., </span><a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+13%3A16&version=NIV" style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;">NIV</a><span style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;">, </span><a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+13%3A16&version=DLNT" style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;">DLNT</a><span style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;">, etc. </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Could the English-translators be self-aware that "he that is sent" is a wrong and misleading translation?</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Could they know they are indulging in such falsehood because they otherwise might have to be ashamed they have made Paul of much greater importance than Jesus?</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">I have mentioned multiple times that if you sat in attendance in any denomination of Protestantism, and record on paper -- a left column for Paul and a right column for Jesus -- how many times Jesus is quoted compared to Paul, the ratio rarely varies. It is 13 x for Paul and 1 x for Jesus. I kept logs for five years, in varying denominations. This ratio often did not even improve when Jesus' parables were the topic of a sermon.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;"></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Test me on this!</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">First, verify the Greek "apostolos" in John 13:16 by going to the Bible.hub <a href="http://biblehub.com/john/13-16.htm">link</a>.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Second, keep a log in your favorite church of how many times Jesus is quoted compared to Paul. Then you will see we all have been living in a Pauline Bubble designed so we cannot see outside the Bubble. Translations of Bibles were chosen by a denomination's founders to keep you (and even pastors) in the dark. </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Now consider looking outside the Pauline Bubble. What if we all knew this verse said "<strong>an apostle</strong> is not greater than the one who sent him," wouldn't we all be a bit more circumspect in our focus upon Paul's teachings over those of Jesus?</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Of course.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Thus, the obvious purpose of the mistranslation is to help Paul.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">But some would say it is an accidental assistance to Paul. However, that could be true only if the substitute translation for "apostle" is plausible. However, the common substitute is not plausible by any reasonable technique of translation. For you will <strong>never find anywhere in Greek to English translation</strong> that <span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>a noun</strong> </span>like "apostolos" would be translated solely by a verb clause. But that is what we find in John 13:16. In the KJV, NAS and ASV it has instead of "apostle" the following: "<strong>one that is sent</strong>" (KJV, NAS, ASV). See <a href="http://biblehub.com/john/13-16.htm">Biblehub.com</a>. These earliest translations post-Reformation omit any mention of the word "apostle" or even a plausible noun translation as "messenger."</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">If it said "one that is sent <strong>as a messenger</strong>" or "as apostle," you could not prove bias is involved. But omitting any noun -- whether "apostle" or "messenger" -- shows an <strong>intent to conceal the noun</strong>. Had the KJV said "messenger," those literate in classical Greek (as myself) would readily know "apostolos" is the underlying word. We could then assess whether Jesus meant he was greater than any "apostle" or did Jesus mean any "messenger," including an apostle.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">But translating it as "he that is sent" with no mention of "apostle" or "messenger" clearly and deliberately obscures any presence of a noun. It cuts off any guessing by educated readers who know Greek about what lies underneath the translation. The result is everyone continues to have their guard down that Jesus would be displeased by our quoting Paul so much more frequently than Jesus, and on points that contradict Jesus, e.g., Mark 9:42-47 versus Eph. 2:8-9.</p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">Hence, the biased intention in translating this verse is transparent when you peak under the covers.</p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="color: #0000ff;"><strong>2 Peter 1:10 Good Works Make Sure One's Salvation </strong></span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt;">The oldest Codex at the time of the King James was the Codex Bezae dating to circa 400 AD. The Codex Bezae versions -- two of them -- included in the Textus Receptus have 2 Peter 1:10 say that "good works" make sure your salvation. Despite this being available to the King James translators, they ignored it. (They ignored other verses like Luke 3:22 for obviously biased reasons as well. See <a href="/topicindex/235-hebrew-matthew-baptismal-account.html">Baptismal Account of Jesus</a>.) Despite this fact, only one translation in English preserves this original Textus Receptus: the Douay-Rheims. </p>
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<p style="margin-top: 14pt; margin-right: 0pt; margin-bottom: 7pt; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; background-color: #ffffff; text-indent: 45pt; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1"></span></p>
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<p style="margin: 14pt 54pt 7pt 60px; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; text-indent: 0pt; background-color: #ffffff; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">Wherefore, brethren, labour the more, that <strong>by good works</strong> you may make sure your calling and election. For doing these things, you shall not sin at any time. (<strong>Douay-Rheims</strong>.) </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">The Sinaiticus -- now the oldest extent New Testament discovered in the 1880s which dates to about 340 AD (60 years earlier than the Codex Bezae) -- likewise has "good works." So too the Latin Vulgate from 405 AD. Also the Alexandrinus. </span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 14pt; margin-right: 0pt; margin-bottom: 7pt; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; background-color: #ffffff; text-indent: 45pt; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1"></span></p>
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<p style="margin: 14pt 54pt 7pt 60px; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; text-indent: 0pt; background-color: #ffffff; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">Two ancient manuscripts, the Alexandrine and the Sinaitic, insert here, "Through your good works." (Pulpit Commentary.)</span></p>
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<p style="margin: 14pt 54pt 7pt 60px; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; text-indent: 0pt; background-color: #ffffff; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">"by good works", as the Vulgate Latin version and <strong>two copies of Beza’s read</strong>; or "by your good works" (Gill’s Exposition)</span></p>
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<p style="margin-top: 14pt; margin-right: 0pt; margin-bottom: 7pt; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; background-color: #ffffff; text-indent: 45pt; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">Despite this overwhelming manuscript evidence, every English version but Douay-Rheims reads otherwise. The American Standard Version is typical:</span></p>
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<p style="margin: 14pt 54pt 7pt 60px; padding: 0px 0px 10px; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 12pt; text-indent: 0pt; background-color: #ffffff; vertical-align: baseline;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">Wherefore, brethren, give the more diligence to make your calling and election sure: for if ye do <strong>these things</strong>, ye shall never stumble: (2 Peter 1:10 ASV.)</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Why isn't the fact every oldest text to support the Greek Textus Receptus, Sinaiticus, Vulgate, Alexandrinus version has "good works" not enough to compel correction? Those who recompiled the Textus Receptus on best sources had "good works" as well. See Textus Receptus of Stephanus (1550), and of Scrivener (1894). These were each top scholarly assessments on what was the original.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Why is it also not enough that the Critical Text of 1896 by Walcott Hort -- the inspiration for the text behind the NIV-- has"good works" not enough? Yet, the NIV will not budge and put in "good works."</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">As mentioned, in our modern editions, we see the words "good works' ommited, leaving "these things" later in the sentence left unexplained, such as in the NIV. </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">The Latin Vulgate of 405 AD also has "good works" (bona opera) but silence everywhere else other than the Douay-Rheims.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Can doctrine dictate this?</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">What other than doctrine explains why the King James have "these things" although the KJV is based upon the Codex Bezae within the Textus Receptus editions which both say "good works"? It had no alternative that was younger? Or if it turned to Latin, there again was "good works." </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">More oddly, no one even claims later Greek manuscripts are missing "good works." It appears simply a deletion to something that offends ones ears.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Regardless, we are no longer censors, are we? </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Why is the Sinaiticus discovery in the 1800s of a text from about 340 AD not enough to compound the proof that the earliest text read "good works?" </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">Oh yes, doctrine would <span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">be impinged. It is best to keep this secret. Perhaps this article will finally cause reconsideration. For more in depth discussion, see <a href="/topicindex/658-misleading-assurance-of-salvation-in-eternal-security.html">Misleading Assurance of Salvation</a>. </span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 24px;">How do we know it is bias to protect Paul that explains this? Because Daniel Whitby who died in <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Daniel_Whitby">1726</a> -- a well-respected scholar whose research was impeccable -- exposed this almost 300 years ago. The evidence has only gotten stronger since then in light of the find of the Sinaiticus Bible in 1898 -- the oldest Christian New Testament from about 340 AD. </span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Daniel <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Daniel_Whitby">Whitby</a> (1638-1726) explained in his work <strong>Election and Reprobation</strong>, Discourse I 3:1 (1801) at <a href="https://books.google.com/books?id=VtI9AAAAIAAJ&lpg=PA17&ots=Z-_YQkGp98&dq=whitby%20election%20and%20reprobation&pg=PA43#v=onepage&q=good%20works&f=false">page 43</a> that there are words in 2 Peter 1:10 that we do not see in the KJV (and now the NIV) but are supported by every ancient source imaginable, including the context:</span></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 60px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">“[Our final election] is to be made sure unto us, ‘by good works,’ according to that exhortation of St. Peter, (2 Pet. 1:10) ‘give diligence to make your calling and election sure, <strong>BY GOOD WORKS</strong>,’ as both the <strong>Fathers</strong>, the Syriac, the Vulgar [i.e., Vulgate], the Ethiopic, and many ancient copies read, and <strong>as the text requires</strong>, as the words following, being these, 'for if you do these things you shall never fall....”</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Thus, Whitby is saying the Syriac and Ethiopic Greek manuscripts and the Latin Vulgate all have <strong>by</strong> <strong>good works</strong> in the sentence. And 2 Peter 1:10 was quoted by the earliest Patristic writings of the so-called <strong>Fathers</strong> to include the phrase <strong>by good works</strong>. So what it actually says is “give diligence to make your calling and election sure <strong>by good works</strong>.” Now you can see why the KJV and NIV simply refuse to honor the text. It runs afoul of Paul's words that <strong>security</strong> comes by a one-time faith, and not by good works.</span></p>
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<p><span style="background-color: transparent;"></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">Acts 20:22, Paul's Spirit or the Holy Spirit Bound Paul?</span></strong></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">As another example, as I point out elsewhere, faithful Christian scholars concur that Paul disobeyed the messages given to a Prophet and to others by the Holy Spirit that Paul should not go to Jerusalem but Paul went anyway. On that trip, Paul's traveling companion entered the temple in an uncircumcised state, thereby defiling the Temple in violation of Ezekiel 44. See our <a href="/topicindex/356-did-paul-ever-truly-meet-jesus.html">link</a>.</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">But one mistranslation creates conflict so that, if you wish, you will ignore that Paul did not follow prophetic and Holy Spirit messages that Luke says took place. </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">One of the supporters of the Jesus' Words Only principle sent me an email explaining how the <strong>Amplified</strong> <strong>Bible</strong> translates the passages at issue 180 degrees opposite of all standard translations. This Amplified version just happens to thereby make it appear Paul was not disobedient to the Holy Spirit's message to a prophet and other believers. Here is what Rod explains:</span></p>
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<p style="color: #222222; font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 13px; line-height: normal; margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Wanna see how they even modify the Scriptures to save Paul from being exposed as disobedient???</span></p>
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<p style="color: #222222; font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 13px; line-height: normal; margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Check this from the Amplified Bible:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 60px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">And now, you see, I am going to Jerusalem, bound by the <span data-mce-mark="1">[Holy]</span> Spirit and obligated and compelled by the [convictions of <span data-mce-mark="1">my own</span>] spirit, not knowing what will befall me there. (Acts 20:22).</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Most versions simply say "bound by the Spirit." One other version says "bound by my spirit." See Biblos on <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/20-22.htm">Acts 20:22</a>: "And now I am on my way to Jerusalem, bound in <em><strong>my spirit</strong></em>, not knowing what I will encounter there." (Holman),</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">They added "Holy" to justify his trip as an act of obedience to the Holy Spirit.- But now check THIS:</span></p>
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<div style="color: #222222; font-family: arial, sans-serif; font-size: 13px; line-height: normal; margin-left: 30px;">
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<p style="margin-left: 60px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">And having looked up the disciples there, we remained with them for seven days. Prompted by the [<span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Holy</span>] Spirit, they kept telling Paul not to set foot in Jerusalem. (<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/21-4.htm">Acts 21:4</a>.)<br /></span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">-How could THE SAME HOLY SPIRIT bind Paul TO GO and at the same time tell Paul NOT TO SET FOOT THERE through the disciples??? Doesn´t fit, does it???</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Thus, be wary of efforts to protect Paul by mistranslation. </span></p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;" data-mce-mark="1">Acts 21:21, "Myriads" -- Is it "Thousands," or "Tens of Thousands." </span></strong></span></p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">In Greek, the number for 10,000 is myriad. It is the "highest Greek numeral." ("<a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parable_of_the_Unforgiving_Servant">Parable of the Unforgiving Servant</a>," Wikipedia.) </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Hence, there is no way one can mistranslate this as 1,000 or "thousands," right? I mean in the parable of 10,000 talents, Jesus' use of the word myriad is correctly rendered by its unquestionable singular meaning: 10,000. But in Acts 21:20-21, when James confronts Paul about rumours Paul is guilty of "aspostasia" (apostasy) from the Law, James in verse 20 begins by saying to Paul the he can see "many myrias of believers are among the Jews." (See <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts+21&version=MOUNCE">Mounce Interlinear</a> Acts 21:20-21.) The King James, NIV and all the rest except a rare few have "thousands." See Biblehub for <a href="https://biblehub.com/acts/21-20.htm">Acts 21:20</a>.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">The only ones among 30 versions of this verse on Bible Hub which use "ten thousand" is ISV, Aramaic Bible, Weymouth, and Contemporary English. All the rest play the game, and translate it as "thousands." (See Bible Hub <a href="https://biblehub.com/acts/21-20.htm">Acts 21:20</a>.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">The Young's Literal plays the game by hiding it by simply borrowing "myriads" as the word to render myriad in Greek, as if English-speakers know what myriads means in Greek. See <a href="https://biblehub.com/acts/21-20.htm">Acts 21:20</a>.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">Why is this done? Because in Luke's account, it is the home church that is the greatest evangelist movement if we knew James' language here. By contrast, Paul is barely mentioned in Acts converting any one, totalling perhaps under 100 if you add up the names, and treat "few" as more than three and "many" as at least 10. See our article on <a href="/topicindex/214-paul-or-james-church-greatest-evangelist.html">Who was the Greatest Evangelist in the Early Church?</a> </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;" data-mce-mark="1">So the only way to shorten the distance to make Paul appear a mighty evangelist by comparison is to knock down James' statement to "thousands" instead of "many tens of thousands." There is not a sliver of justification for doing so. None. </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="background-image: url('data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAAAcAAAAICAYAAAA1BOUGAAAAcklEQVQIW2NkwAMYp02bpsTMzBwBVfP9////OzMyMq6B+IwzZszwYGRk3A5kLwFKcAFpPyDfOz09fReypABQ4CNQ8SGg5CUgOwcuCdTVAhTkBurMBLJjgUavQZZcA5R4D5TYw8TEtB6o8zeGsciOxysJAFsxQAl0kP1+AAAAAElFTkSuQmCC');"><span style="background-color: transparent;"></span></p>
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<h1><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">John 10:27-28 - Does Listening & Following One Single Moment Secure Salvation? or Continuing to Do So?</span></strong></h1>
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<h1> </h1>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Paul is construed to teach eternal security, and any other view is a supposedly heretical works-based salvation. </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">However, the correct translation of John 10:27-28 reflects the continuous tense used for "listening" and "following." But you cannot find that suggested in any mainstream Bible; it only appears in literal translations. See <a href="/topicindex/658-misleading-assurance-of-salvation-in-eternal-security.html">Misleading Asssurance of Salvation in John 10:27-28</a>. </span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Mistranslation of Matthew 5:28 By Making It About Lust for Any Woman Rather than a Wife. </span></strong></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">To see how and why Matthew 5:28 was translated in the KJV as lust for a "woman" (rather than a wife) to insulate Paul's error in 1 Cor. 7:29 by justifying it with this mistranslation, see our article at this <a href="/topicindex/812-matt-528-mistranslated-to-be-about-lust-for-a-woman.html">link</a>.</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"></span><span style="font-size: 18pt;"></span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"></span></p>
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<hr />
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<h2><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Mistranslations of Original Testament Passages</span></strong></span></h2>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">You cannot find faith-alone doctrine in the Law or Prophets unless you use mistranslation, and often wilfully so.</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">One verse that contradicts faith alone is Isaiah 26:2, saying the "faithful" (obedient) enter the New Jerusalem. The Jewish Publication Society's Tanakh 1917 has the right translation of a passage on those entitled to enter the New Jerusalem:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a href="http://biblehub.com/isaiah/26-2.htm">26:2</a> Open ye the gates, that the righteous nation that keepeth <strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">faithfulness</span></strong> may enter in.</span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">The key Hebrew word is <span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><em>emunah</em>. It means obedient, faithful or trustworthy. There is nothing about "faith" in the sense of belief about facts (such as Paul explains saves you in 1 Cor. 15:1-4) implied in emunah. There is nothing about "truth." So as Strong's Concordance at this <a href="http://biblehub.com/hebrew/emunim_529.htm">link </a>shows, this word is properly translated by the KJV in Proverbs 13:17, 14:5, and 20:26 as "faithful" (a synonymn for obedient). <img src="http://www.history.com/news/wp-content/uploads/2011/09/dead-sea-scrolls-thumb.jpg" alt="" style="float: right;" /></span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Now watch how this is translated differently by the same KJV when it is used in a verse like Isaiah 26:2 where those who have the right to salvation are discussed. Here is the KJV of <a href="https://biblehub.com/isaiah/26-2.htm">Isaiah 26:2</a>: </span> <span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><br /></span></span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Open ye the gates, that the righteous nation which keepeth<strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"> the truth</span></strong> may enter in.</span></span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">So those who "keep faithfulness" (obedience) is changed in the KJV to be those who "keep truth"-- a synonym for "faith in facts." The mistranslation thereby allows Paul's view in 1 Cor. 15:1-5 -- belief in facts that Jesus paid for sin and resurrected saves you -- to appear tenable.</span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Due to the KJV taking such liberty, the NIV follows suit, and similarly mistranslates Isaiah 26:2 as:</span></span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Open the gates that the righteous nation may enter, the nation that <strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">keeps faith</span></strong>.</span></span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">This is how the Bible is re-translated to have a Paul-endorsing stamp when otherwise Paul would be contradicting Holy Scripture.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">One can see how this switch is exploited to confirm Paul in <a href="http://biblehub.com/isaiah/26-2.htm">Gill's Commentary</a>:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">that the righteous nation which keepeth the truth may enter in</span></strong>; not all the world, for there is none righteous, not one of them naturally, or of themselves; nor the Jewish nation, for though they sought after righteousness, did not attain it, unless when they will be converted in the latter day, and then they, and all the Lord's people, will be righteous, and appear to be a holy nation, and a peculiar people,</span><a href="http://biblehub.com/isaiah/60-21.htm" style="color: #0092f2; font-family: Trebuchet, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 14px; line-height: 20px; text-align: justify; background-color: #fdfeff;">Isaiah 60:21</a><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"> and being made righteous by the righteousness of Christ imputed to them, and sanctified by the Spirit, will be fit persons to be admitted through the gates into the city</span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">So instead of a nation being deemed righteous by "faithfulness" (obedience), they are deemed righteous supposedly by "keepeth the truth" -- who know a truth about Jesus as being our Savior who died for sin, etc., such as Paul says "shall" save us in 1 Cor. 15:1-4.</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"> But in the original of Isaiah, it says this is not about merely knowing a truth, but about faithfulness -- a synonymn for loyal obedience.</span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<h2><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Study Note: Septuagint Mistranslation of Isaiah 26:2</span></strong></span></h2>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">As is typical, the Septuagint mistranslated Isaiah 26:1 & 2 but in doing so, it preserved the concept that salvation was contingent on doing righteousness. Verse 2 speaks of a people who are allowed to enter because it "keeps righteousness, truth, and peace." See Wilson de Angelo Cunha, </span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><strong>LXX Isaiah 24: 1-26:6 as Interpretation and Translation: A Methodological Discussion</strong> (Society of Biblical Literature, 2014) at page <a href="https://books.google.com/books?id=zT4yBQAAQBAJ&lpg=PA183&ots=y5BHrwVs3s&dq=isaiah%2026%3A2%20septuagint&pg=PA183#v=onepage&q=isaiah%2026:2%20septuagint&f=false">186</a></span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">.</span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Werner's translation of the Septuagint is shorter: </span></span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">"Open the gates. Let enter a people keeping righteousness and keeping truth." See <a href="http://wernerbiblecommentary.org/?q=node/633">link</a>. </span></span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"></span></span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"></span></span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><strong style="color: #29303b; font-family: 'Trebuchet MS', Georgia, Times, 'Times New Roman', sans-serif; font-size: 12px; line-height: 16.8px; text-align: justify;"><br /></strong></span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">It is significant that Cunha recognizes regardless that in full context even with the word "truth" used in the Septuagint, it was distinct from keeping "righteousness," and hence the Septuagint preserved that requirement. This was evident from other contrasting and parallel verses even in the Septuagint. So he comments:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">This passage refers to the way of the godly which is to be taken sapientially as an indication of a people that <em><strong>morally keeps the "law."</strong></em> The people in Isaiah 26:2-3 contrasts with the "ungodly" who do not learn "righteousness," <em><strong>or</strong> </em>practice the "<em><strong>truth</strong></em>" (Isaiah 26:10.) They further stand in opposition to the "breakers of the law." (Isaiah 24:14.) ...[O]nly godly people can enter the city of Jerusalem / Zion, while the "<em><strong>breakers of the law" need to be kept out</strong></em>.... (Cunha, <em>LXX Isaiah</em> (2014) at <a href="https://books.google.com/books?id=zT4yBQAAQBAJ&lpg=PA183&ots=y5BHrwVs3s&dq=isaiah%2026%3A2%20septuagint&pg=PA183#v=onepage&q=isaiah%2026:2%20septuagint&f=false">186-187</a>.)</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Werner too recognizes that in the Septuagint that righteousness is not imputed by simply knowing the truth - a Pauline explanation. But rather, the saving righteousness is true actual loyal obedience of a righteous people (distinct from just keeping the truth) that allows entry into the New Jerusalem:</span></p>
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<p style="margin-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The gates were <em><strong>not to be opened to just anyone</strong></em>, the imperative to open them being for the purpose of granting a righteous nation or people to enter the city. These righteous ones would be <em><strong>living in harmony with God’s law</strong></em>. Their keeping “faithfulness” would mean remaining loyal to YHWH, not deviating from attachment to him and <em><strong>his requirements for those whom he approves</strong></em>. The Septuagint rendering indicates that they would<em><strong> keep</strong></em>, guard, or cherish <em><strong>righteousness</strong></em> or uprightness, <em><strong>and</strong></em> truth, trustworthiness, or faithfulness. They would <em><strong>demonstrate themselves to be upright and faithful in the life they lived</strong></em>. The Targum of Isaiah speaks of them as a righteous people who keep the “law with a complete heart.” Idem.</span></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">This excursion lets one recreate why the KJV took the liberty it did. Often when it wanted a verse to mean something else, if it could borrow from a Septuagint error, it could defend that it was a possible alternative meaning of the Hebrew word. But one can see, there was no meaning of 'truth' in the original Hebrew word, proven by the contrasting and parallel verses in the same context. Hence, the KJV translators took an unjustified liberty to use an obvious <strong>partial </strong>mistranslation in the Septuagint of <em><strong>emunah</strong></em> as "truth" in place of the well-known meaning of emunah. The KJV at the same time <strong>left out the correcting feature of the Septuagint</strong> that kept the total meaning of <span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><strong>emuna</strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><strong>h </strong>by translating it also as "keeping righteousness," and not merely as "keeping truth."</span></span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Why do you think the KJV did not borrow the Septuagint rendering of the first part -- "keeps righteousness"? </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 18pt;">Because obviously the "keeping the truth" matched Pauline doctrine, but "keeps righteousness" <strong>did not</strong>. Thus, the KJV borrowed only the meaning in the Septuagint that it liked, and rejected the equally present and more accurate meaning of "keeping righteousness." For clearly, in the Septuagint rendering of <em>emunah</em> in 26:1, it includes "keeps righteousness" as a distinct additional quality of these people entitled to enter the New Jerusalem. It was not simply based upon "keeping truth." Salvation in the New Jerusalem is based upon actual activity of mind and heart, and not just a belief. </span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">So the KJV kept the error in the Septuagint - using 'truth' for <strong>emunah's </strong>meaning - and not faithfulness, but did not use the accurate "keeps righteousness" to aid in the meaning lost by just using "truth."</span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"> Hence, the KJV version was wholly an unjustified lifting of "truth" out of the Septuagint of Isaiah 26:2 and implanting it into the KJV Bible to give a Pauline spin to the sentence.</span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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<p><strong><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Forgeries in Roman Catholicism to Help Paul </span></span></strong></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Paul was a support to Roman Catholicism's effort to abolish Sabbath, and move our day of rest to Sun-Day. To help accomplish this, Acts 15:24 was deliberately full-blown modified radically in the 10th Century, each time at total odds with the original early version of Acts 15:24. Each time it promoted Paul's view that the Law no longer applied to Christians. See <a href="/topicindex/750-deliberate-fabrication-in-acts-1524-by-10th-century.html">Deliberate Fabrication in Acts 15:24</a>.</span></span></p>
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<p> </p>
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