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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>The Entire Jesus' Words Only (Second Edition 2007) - Free</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This book will always remain entirely free online. Google Books converted it to JWO, and now offers JWO in an excellent EPUB conversion for $9.99 at this<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC"> link</a>. For your convenience, you can buy from <a href="/JWO/jesus-words-only-amazon.html">Amazon</a>, Barnes &amp; Noble or <a href="http://www.buybooksontheweb.com/product.aspx?ISBN=0-7414-2965-9">BBOTW</a> (the publisher). As of 3/2012, 727 copies have sold.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">I recommend everyone read chapter one - available in PDF or html below. Second, a very hard hurdle for Paulinism to overcome is chapter six -- Paul's teachings on idol meat. Third, the most popular chapter is thirteen - Did John's Epistles Identify Paul as a False Prophet? Finally, the chapter that settled all doubts for me is chapter fourteen on the Benjaminte Wolf prophecy - available in PDF and HTML below. It is dispositive because Genesis 49:27 is clearly God's guidance on the issue of Paul.</span></p>
<p>Chapter One: Introduction (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch1Introduction.pdf">PDF</a>) or <a href="/JWO/chapteroneintroduction.html">Eng. HTML</a> or <a href="/JWO/chapteronejwoitalian.html">Italian HTML</a> or <a href="/JWO/chapteronejwospanish.html">Spanish HTML</a> (<span style="color: #ff0000;">NEW</span>)<br />Chapter Two: Does Paul's Long Acceptance in NT Prove God's Will? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/Ch2.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-two-jwo-english.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Three: Must We Apply the Bible's Test of a True Prophet to Paul? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch3.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-three-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Four: Did Jesus Warn of False Prophets Who Would Abrogate the Law? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch4.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-fourt-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch4.pdf" target="_blank" title="Jesus' Words Only Ch Six Paul Contradicts Jesus About Idol Meat"><br /></a>Chapter Five: Did Paul Negate the Law's Further Applicability? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch5.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-five-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Six: Paul Contradicts Jesus About Idol Meat (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch6.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-six-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Seven: Why Does Jesus Mention Balaam in Rev. 2:14? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch7.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-seven-jwo.html">HTML)</a><br />Chapter Eight: Does Jesus Share Salvation Doctrine with Paul? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch8.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-eight-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Nine: Is Jesus' Salvation Doctrine in Revelation a Rebuttal to Paul? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch9.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-nine-jwo.html">HTML</a>) <br />Chapter Ten: Did Jesus Applaud the Ephesians for Exposing Paul as a False Apostle? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch10.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-ten-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Eleven: Was James Writing His Epistle for A Trial of Paul? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch11.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-11jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Twelve: The Ebionite Records on the Trial of Paul (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch12.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter12jwo.html">HTML</a>) <br />Chapter Thirteen: Did John's Epistles Identify Paul as a False Prophet? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch13.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-thirteen-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch13.pdf" target="_blank" title="Ch 13 Did John's Epistles Identify Paul as a Fale Prophet?"><br /></a>Chapter Fourteen: Who Is the Benjamite Wolf in Prophecy? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch14.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/benjamite-wolf.html">HTML</a>)<a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch14.pdf" title="Ch 14 Wh is the Benjamite Wolf in Prophecy?"><br /></a>Chapter Fifteen: Does Jesus End Up Marginalized To Make Room for Paul? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch15.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-15-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Sixteen: Long Tradition of JWO and Minimization of Paul (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch16.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-16-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Seventeen: Does It Matter If We Rely Only Upon Jesus? (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch17.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter17jwo.html">HTML</a>)<br />Chapter Eighteen: Conclusion (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch18 conclusion.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/chapter-18-jwo.html">HTML</a>)<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/ch18%20conclusion.pdf" target="_blank" title="Ch 18 Conclusion"><br /></a>Appendix A: Greek Issues (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/AppA Greek Issues.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/appendix-a-greek-issues.html">HTML</a>)<br />Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/app B how canon was formed.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/appendix-b-canon.html">HTML</a>)<br />Appendix C: Easter Error (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/AppC.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/appendix-c-easter.html">HTML</a>)<br />Appendix D: Abrahamic Covenant (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/Appendix D Abrahamic Covenant.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/appendix-c-jwo.html">HTML</a>)</p>
<p>Bibliography (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/bibliography final.pdf">PDF</a>) <br />Index of Topics (<a href="/images/stories/JWO_Online/master3IX index of topics.pdf">PDF</a>)</p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">These are made available for private non-commercial use. You may share copies as long as no cost is attached. (I encourage this!) To request re-publication rights in a paid subscription journal, contact
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<h2>NEW ARTICLES</h2>
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<div>1. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/marcionism.html">Marcionism</a><a href="/Recommended-Reading/marcionism.html"> </a>- Paulinism of 144 AD was then heresy (html)</div>
<div>2. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/second-peter-reference-to-paul.html">Second Peter &amp; Its Reference to Paul as "Scripture": What Does  This Mean?</a> (html)</div>
<div>3. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/trophimus.html">Trophimus - Was He Misled by Paul to Abominate The Temple in 58 AD?</a> (html)(June 26, 2010)</div>
<span>4. </span><a href="/Recommended-Reading/problempaulallfaithsfollowingjesus.html">The Problem of Paul to All Faiths From Following Jesus</a><span> (html intro w link to PDF)</span>
<div>5. Luther Killed Jesus' Words Only Movement in Reformation (<a href="/images/stories/Lessons/LutherCarlstadtAnabtistsJWOreformation%20splits.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/JWO/luther-killed-jwo.html">html</a>)</div>
<div>6. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/early-church-views.html">Early Church Views of Paul</a> (html)(June 27, 2010)</div>
<div>7. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/paulinisttares.html">Paulinist Tares: How To Treat Them?</a> (html)(May 28, 2010)</div>
<div>8. <a href="/JWO/paul-women-and-sex.html">Paul's Unique Principles on Women, Sex and Dress</a> (html)(June 4, 2010)</div>
<div>9. <a href="/JWO/jesus-on-church-structure.html">Jesus's Commands on Church Structure</a> (contradicted by Paul)(html)(June 5, 2010)</div>
<div>10. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/flawedchristologyofpaul.html">Paul's Flawed Christology</a> (html) (June 6, 2010).</div>
<div>11. <a href="/JWO/benjamite-wolf-research.html">More on Benjamite Wolf Prophecy &amp; Paul</a> (html)(June 15, 2010)</div>
<div>12. <a href="/Recommended-Reading/locke-jesus-over-epistles.html">John Locke: The Priority of Jesus /The Gospel Writings Over the Epistles</a> (html)(June 27, 2010)</div>
<div>13. <a href="/JWO/paul-endorses-jwo.html">Paul Is An Advocate of Jesus Words Only As A Test of Orthodoxy</a> (html)(June 30, 2010)</div>
<div>14. <a href="/JWO/romans-7-a-major-incongruity.html"><span>Paul in Romans 7 Claims The God of Sinai Is Dead</span></a> (html)(July 6th, 2010)</div>
<div>15.<a href="/JWO/pauls-contradictions-of-jesus.html"><span> Paul's Contradictions of Jesus</span></a> (html)(July 14, 2010)</div>
<div>16. <span><a href="/JWO/tolstoy-on-paulinism.html">Tolstoy Criticizes Paulinism</a></span> (html)(July 16, 2010)</div>
<div>17. <a href="/ot;index.php?option=com_content&amp;view=article&amp;id=186:pauls-trial-before-caesar-a-drama&amp;catid=1:jwo">Paul's Trial Before Caesar</a> - A Drama (html and audio)(July 17, 2010)</div>
<div>18.<span> <a href="/JWO/blasphemy-a-paul.html">Paul's Words Support Unwitting Blasphemies</a></span> (html)(July 25, 2010)</div>
<div>19. <a href="/JWO/carlstadt-research.html">Effort of Reformation Partner of Luther - Carlstadt - in 1520 to Elevate Jesus Over Paul</a> (html)(Aug. 12, 2010)</div>
<div>20. <a href="/JWOS/baptism.html">Jesus's Words on Baptism</a> (versus Paulinist dismissal of its importance)(html)(Aug. 13, 2010)</div>
<div>21. <a href="/JWO/thomas-morgan-moral-philosoph.html">Enemies of Christ Use Paul To Prove Fallibility of Both OT and NT, Unraveling All Scripture</a> (Aug. 18, 2010)</div>
<div>22. <a href="/JWO/paul-or-james-church-greatest-evangelist.html">Paul or James' Church: Which Was The Greatest Evangelist?</a> (Aug. 28, 2010)(links to html/pdf)</div>
<div>23. <a href="/JWO/gates-of-heaven-a-modern-pastor-seeks-entry.html">Gates of Heaven: A Modern Pastor Seeks Entry</a> (Drama Indicting Paulinism)(Sept 10, 2010)(html)</div>
<div>24. <a href="/JWO/pauls-terrible-influence-over-luther.html">Paul's Terrible Influence Over Luther In A Revealing Letter of 1530</a> (October 8, 2010)(html)</div>
<div>25. <a href="/JWO/paulinist-unwittingly-destroys-pauls-authority.html">Paulinist Attorney Gives Us Principles To Test Religious Claims That Unwittingly Destroy Paul's Validity</a> (11/20/10).</div>
<div>26. <a href="/JWO/jesus-on-paul-the-least.html"><span>Jesus Prophesied of Paulus which in Latin Means "Least" - the name prophesied in Matt. 5:19 to be that of the anti-law teacher</span></a> (1/8/2011)</div>
<div>27. <a href="/JWO/guile-in-paul.html">Guile Confessed By Paul, and How It Promotes Dissolution of Scripture and Jesus' Truth</a> (1/17/2011)</div>
<div>28. <a href="/JWO/habakkuk-prophecy-about-paul.html">Habakkuk 2:2-5 - A Prophecy About Paul?</a> (7/30/2011)</div>
<div>29. <a href="/JWO/paul-misunderstanding-jesus.html">Paul Misunderstands and Misstates Jesus' Points About The Two Top Commands</a> (2/7/2011)</div>
<div>30. <a href="/JWO/jesus-prophecy-about-who-identified-himself-as-jesus-to-paul.html"><span>Jesus' Prophecy About Person Who Identified Himself To Paul As "Jesus" In Acts 9</span></a> (2/17/2011) <a href="/JWO/que-se-identifico-como-jesus-a-pablo.html">Espanol</a></div>
<div>31. <a href="/JWO/pagan-influences-in-writings-of-paul.html">Pagan Influences on Paul</a> (July 17, 2011)</div>
<div>32. <a href="/JWO/paul-abolished-sabbath.html">Paul Abolished Sabbath</a> (July 23, 2011)</div>
<div>33. <a href="/JWO/pauls-command-not-to-help-young-widows.html">Paul's Queer lesson not to help Widows under 60 and all young widows are wanton</a> (Sept 2011)</div>
<div>34.<a href="/JWO/paul-errs-teaching-long-hair-is-shameful.html"> Is Long Hair Shameful As Paul Teaches?</a> (Sept 2011)</div>
<div>34b.<a href="/JWO/paul-claims-jesus-is-the-image-of-god.html"> Is Paul Right That Jesus is the Image of God?</a> (Sept 2011)</div>
<div>35. <a href="/JWO/paul-errs-teaching-childbirth-saves.html">Is Paul Correct Women Are Saved By Means of Giving Birth?</a> (Sept 2011)</div>
<div>36. <a href="/images/stories/JWOBook/Paul%20pamphlet-final2011.pdf">3-Fold 1 Page Pamphlet to Hand Out on Jesus' Prophecies to not listen to Paul</a> (Dec. 3, 2011) (PDF). For audio version, listen at Podomatic at this<a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-12-03T22_52_26-08_00"> link</a>.</div>
<div>37. <a href="/JWO/james-versus-paul.html">Was James' Epistle an Answer point-by-point to Paul? A table comparision</a> (Feb 25, 2012)</div>
<div>38. <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/anti-pauline-passages-in-matthew.html">Anti-Paul Passages in the Gospel of Matthew</a> (Feb 26, 2012)</div>
<div>39. <span><a href="/JWO/did-paul-ever-truly-meet-jesus.html">Why Did God Have to Send Prophets to Paul to not go to Jerusalem if Paul Knew The True Christ?</a></span> (3/4/2012)</div>
<div>40. <a href="/JWO/lightning-scorpions-and-paul.html">Of Lightning &amp; Skorpions: Jesus' Words in Luke 10 Point At Paul Again</a> (3/19/2012)</div>
<div>41. <a href="/JWO/skolops-sent-by-an-angel-of-satan.html">A Skolops Sent By An Angel of Satan To Keep Paul Humble--Its Importance</a> (3/21/2012)</div>
<div>42.<span> <a href="/JWO/spirit-of-python-promoted-paul-in-acts-16.html">Why Does The Spirit of Python, A Serpent-Demon, Promote Paul in Acts 16:16?</a></span> (3/25/2012)</div>
<div>43. <a href="/JWO/list-of-problems-with-paul.html"><span>The List of the Problems About The Validity of Paul</span></a> (3/26/2012)</div>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>The Author of Jesus' Words Only (2007).</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author is a California litigation attorney, in practice for thirty years. In school, he studied Classical Greek and Latin and achieved designation as a Classical Language Scholar. He is also fluent in Spanish and Italian. He graduated law school <em>cum laude</em> in 1981, and was on the board of Law Review.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The author became a Christian at age 15 at a campout of Faith Bible Church on a visit to Florida. Back home in New York City, he was baptized in a Baptist church, and attended a Baptist church for several years. Later, in Los Angeles, he joined the Westwood Hills Christian Church for several years and then for 15 years he belonged to a conservative Presbyterian Church. At each church in California, he served as legal advisor. </span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">A true scholar and prolific author, the author approaches his extensive treatises on spiritual faith from a truly unique perspective. As an accomplished attorney for many years, he advances each quest-to-substantiate through exhaustive research, meticulous analysis, thorough presentation of opposing points-of-view, and indisputable verifications in defining his own interpretations of Christianity and the Bible. In the end, he presents a faithful answer, providing an incomparable bottom-line truth of what is conveyed in the inspired Bible. (Written by K. Atred.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">To contact the author, go to the "Contact Us" tab.</span></p>
<h2>The Author's Beliefs</h2>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author regards himself today as an evangelical Christian whose doctrine is Sole Christus -- only what the words of Jesus teach -- which includes</span></span></p>
<ul>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">that we hallow the true name of God -- Yahweh (Matt 6:9);</span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">that the "Father dwells in" Jesus (John</span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span><a href="http://bible.cc/john/14-10.htm" style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">14:10</a><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">, "Father...dwells in me") which renders Jesus Divine; </span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">that Jesus died for our sins in fulfillment of the atonement principle of the Torah-Law; </span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">that we can go to heaven maimed by repenting of sin or we can go to hell whole,</span><em> <em>i.e.</em>,</em><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> by not repenting of sin, as Jesus taught (Matt 18:6-9; Mark 9:42-47); </span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">that the sin we commit is judged by the Law of which Jesus said "not one jot or title will be removed" until all things are accomplished; and that the "greatest in the kingdom" are those who teach the principles of the Law (Matt 5:17-19) - without man-made additions or subtractions, as the Pharisees wrongfully did. (Matt 15:6); </span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">And that as we walk in the light by repentance and obedience, the blood of Christ keeps us clean. (1 John 1:7,9.)</span></li>
</ul>
<hr />
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author believes that only the Law's provisions which apply to "sojourners" or "foreigners" intended to apply to Gentiles, </span><em>viz.</em><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">, most of the 10 commandments are repeated as applicable to them, <em>e.g.</em>, <a href="/Recommended-Reading/sabbathcommand.html">Sabbath observance</a>, and not provisions stated as applicable only to Israelites, <em>e.g</em>., Lev. 12:1-3 (circumcision). See<a href="/JWO/law-applicable-today.html"> Law Applicable to Gentiles</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author promotes non-denominationalism and home churches whose only recognized pastor and teacher is Christ in conformance with Jesus' doctrine that He was the "sole teacher" (Matt 23:8, 10) and "sole pastor" (John 10:16.) </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author also exhorts adherents of Jesus to support widows and orphans as the primary beneficiaries of their charity -- a virtue which Jesus exhorted as essential in the Parable of the Sheep &amp; The Goats. Several orphan charities unaffiliated with the author are identified <a href="/Recommended-Reading/sabbathcommand.html">here</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author does not seek / request or facilitate donations ever for his benefit. Nor does he run a church nor leads any group of believers in a 'movement,' nor desires to do so. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author seeks only to educate more people to find Christ, and those who find Christ to remain loyal to Him as King Messiah over them. A follower of Christ cannot become allegiant to doctrines from Paul which are not tied directly and exclusively to Christ's words. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The author has made available free online all his materials. For those who seek a printed-book or e-book, the author has made them available through Amazon and Barnes &amp; Noble, but they are not necessary to purchase if one utilizes the online materials. </span></p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<p><span style="color: #333399;"><span style="font-size: xx-large;">Hell Whole Or Heaven Maimed</span></span></p>
<p>Jesus gives us all, even "believers in me" (<em>i.e.</em>, Jesus), a stark choice between going to heaven maimed (<em>i.e.</em>, after severe repentance from sin) or we can go to hell whole. Here is Jesus's clearest message on salvation.</p>
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<div></div>
<h2>The Three Passages At Issue</h2>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(42) And whosoever shall cause one of these little ones that <strong><em>believe on me</em></strong> to stumble, it were better for him if a great millstone were hanged about his neck, and he were cast into the sea. (43) And if thy <em><strong>hand cause thee to stumble</strong></em>, <em><strong>cut it off</strong></em>: it is good for thee to enter into life maimed, rather than having thy two hands to go into<em><strong> hell, into the unquenchable fire</strong></em>. (44) where their worm dieth not, and the<em><strong> fire is not quenched</strong></em>. (45) And if thy foot cause thee to stumble, cut it off: it is good for thee to enter into life halt, rather than having thy two feet to be cast into hell. (46) where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched. (47) And if thine eye cause thee to stumble, cast it out: it is good for thee to <em><strong>enter into the kingdom of God with one eye</strong></em>, rather than having two eyes to be <em><strong>cast into hell</strong></em>; (48) where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched. (Mark 9:42-48 ASV.)</p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(29) And if thy right eye causeth thee to stumble, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: for it is profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not thy whole body be cast into hell. (30) And if thy right hand causeth thee to stumble, cut it off, and cast it from thee: for it is <em><strong>profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish</strong></em>, and not thy<strong><em> whole body go into hell</em></strong>. (Matt. 5:29-30 ASV.)</p>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"></div>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(6) But whoso shall cause one of these little ones that<em><strong> believe on me</strong></em> to stumble, it is profitable for him that a great millstone should be hanged about his neck, and that he should be sunk in the depth of the sea. (7) Woe unto the world because of occasions of stumbling! for it must needs be that the occasions come; but woe to that man through whom the occasion cometh! (8) And if thy hand or thy foot <em><strong>causeth thee to stumble</strong></em>,<em><strong> cut it off</strong></em>, and cast it from thee: it is <strong><em>good for thee to enter into life maimed</em></strong> or halt, rather than having<em><strong> two hands or two feet to be cast into the eternal fire.</strong></em> (9) And if thine eye causeth thee to stumble, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is<em><strong> good for thee to enter into life with one eye</strong></em>, rather than having two eyes to be cast into the hell of fire. (Matt. 18:6-9 ASV.)</p>
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<p>The literal meaning is clear. Jesus says a “believer in me” can “stumble.” (Mark 9:42: Matt. 18:6.) Jesus repetitively tells “you” that if you stumble, you had better cut off the body part causing you to sin or you will go to hell whole. In its most succinct sense, this teaches heaven maimed or hell whole.</p>
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<div></div>
<h2>In-Depth Exposition</h2>
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<p>If you sin against Gods standards, Jesus required “cutting off the body parts” that cause you to be “ensnared in sin” or you will be sent to hell. (Matthew 5:29, Matthew 18:8, and Mark 9:42-48.) You can go to “heaven maimed” or “hell whole.” Jesus specifically said this principle applies to “believers in me who become ensnared (or stumble).” (Mark 9:42; Matt. 18:6.) Jesus described the steps needed as cutting off the body part ensnaring you to sin.</p>
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<p>What does this passage mean?</p>
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<p>First, does “cutting off body parts” mean more than merely sorrow for sin?</p>
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<p>Yes, for Jesus taught one needs to actually take urgent steps to destroy the object from which the temptation grows. Jesus is pointing to physical steps consistent with an antecedent mental sorrow. Thus, Jesus insists that for <strong><em>“believers in me</em></strong>” who are “ensnared” that if they wish to go to heaven, they must do so actually “maimed.” Clearly, in context, Jesus is not talking about merely changing your mind about sin (<em>i.e.,</em> sorrow for sin). Nor is Jesus talking about changing your mind about Himself — faith. Rather, Jesus is talking about <em><strong>taking active measures to prevent sin</strong></em> in the future. You will then become obedient.</p>
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<div></div>
<p>What are these steps? Are they a species of works worthy of repentance? Is it successful obedience? Or is it literally separating from yourself the causes of temptation to make repeating sin impossible? We must search this out carefully. Jesus made your salvation absolutely indispensable on these steps: it is heaven maimed or hell whole. There is no third option for a “<strong><em>believer ensnared in sin</em></strong>” to go to heaven by faith alone. Thus, it is imperative to find Jesus meaning for the good of our own souls.</p>
<p>If you have lived with the cheap grace gospel in your consciousness as long as I have (over twenty-five years), then I venture to say this chapter will do you the most good. Why? Because Jesus is going to give you in these passages the medicine your soul needs so desperately to stay healthy and saved.</p>
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<h2>The Skandalon</h2>
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<div></div>
<p>We will now quote the same passages you read at the outset. However, this time, we will reveal the Greek verb <strong><em>skandalizo</em></strong> and the Greek noun <strong><em>skandalon</em></strong>. It is absolutely essential to note these words and their meaning to understand Jesus message. So please read these verses one more time:</p>
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<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(42) And whosoever shall cause one of these little ones that believe on me to stumble (<strong><em>skandalizo</em></strong>), it were better for him if a great millstone were hanged about his neck, and he were cast into the sea. (43) And if thy [your] hand cause thee to stumble (<strong><em>skandalizo</em></strong>), cut it off: it is good for thee [you] to enter into life maimed, rather than having thy two hands to go into hell, into the unquenchable fire. (44) where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched. (45) And if thy [your] foot cause thee [you] to stumble (<em><strong>skandalizo</strong></em>), cut it off: it is good for thee [you] to enter into life halt, rather than having thy two feet to be cast into hell. (46) where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched. (47) And if thine [your] eye cause thee [you] to stumble (<em><strong>skandalizo</strong></em>), cast it out: it is good for thee [you] to enter into the kingdom of God with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be cast into hell; (48) where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched. (Mar 9:42-48 ASV.)</p>
<div></div>
<p>Jesus repeats this in Matthew. He says:</p>
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<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(7) Woe unto the world because of offences (<em><strong>skandalon</strong></em>, plural)! for it must needs be that offences (<strong><em>skandalon</em></strong>) come; but woe to that man by whom the offence cometh! (8) Wherefore if thy hand or thy foot offend (<strong><em>skandalizo</em></strong>) thee, cut them off, and cast them from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life halt or maimed, rather than having two hands or two feet to be cast into everlasting fire. (9) And if thine eye offend (<em><strong>skandalizo</strong></em>) thee, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: it is better for thee to enter into life with one eye, rather than having two eyes to be cast into hell fire. (Mat 18:7-9 ASV.)</p>
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<h2>The Picture Of A Box Trap Missing In English</h2>
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<div></div>
<p>To understand Jesus here it is useful to note that the Greek word translated as <em>stumble</em> is from the Greek verb<strong><em> skandalizo</em></strong>. Our English word <em>scandalized</em> comes from it. Its best translation here is <strong><em>entrapped</em></strong>. And when the passage in Matthew speaks of <em>offences</em>, it uses the plural of <em>skandalon</em>. It means here <strong><em>snares</em></strong>.</p>
<p>A <strong><em>skandalon</em></strong> in Greek literally meant the wooden stick that would hold up one edge of a metal box-trap. (See Box Trap graphic immediately below as well as Photo of such a trap at end of this webpage.)</p>
<p>Food would be put under the box. An animal would be tempted by the food to enter the trap. Then the hunter would stay a significant distance away, hidden from view. The hunter would then use a small string that was holding the skandalon stick. The hunter would pull on the string, causing the skandalon stick to collapse. The box-trap would fall, and the animals whole body would normally be trapped inside. The animal would be skandlizo-ed.</p>
<p><img alt="hell whole shortened_img_0" height="375" width="381" src="/images/stories/Salvation/hell whole shortened_img_0.jpg" /></p>
<p>It is absolutely essential to understand the term <em>skandalon</em> in order to understand Jesus message. For sometimes an animal could escape the metal trap by letting a limb be ripped off. For example, if the trap fell on a tail. Or only on a leg. Or only on an arm. The animal would be trapped only partially. Before the hunter would run over, the animal would begin a desperate struggle for its life. By a great force of will to live, the animal would release itself from the trap by using its free limbs to pull away. In that process of pulling away, the<strong><em> animal would tear off the body part that was pinned under the metal trap</em></strong>. The animal would run away, maimed but still alive.</p>
<p>Jesus reference to this hunting-picture is clear from the message quoted above. In verses 43 and 45 of Mark 9, Jesus says you should “cut off” the body part ensnaring yourself. The word He uses is the verb form of the noun<em> skandalon</em>. You should behave like the animal that is ensnared (<em>skandalizo-ed</em>) by a single body part. Suffer the loss of a limb but live rather than hold onto the limb and be taken and killed by the hunter. The hunting imagery makes Jesus meaning plain.</p>
<div></div>
<h2>The Picture of Salvation At Stake For “Scandalized” Believers Is Unmistakable</h2>
<p>Jesus is very concerned about those “believers” in him who become “<em>skandlizo</em>-ed.” (Mark 9:42; Matt. 18:6.) Rather than Jesus telling us no Christian believer can ever become <em>skandalizo</em>-ed, Jesus bewails those who “shall cause one of these little ones that believe on me to stumble....” <em>i.e.</em>, be<em> skandalizo-ed</em>. (Mark 9:42; Matt.18:6.)</p>
<p>What is the price that one of these “believers in me” must pay for being skandalizo-ed? Jesus repeats three times the price is damnation.</p>
<p><img alt="table1_b_scandalizo" height="331" width="700" src="/images/stories/Salvation/table1_b_scandalizo.jpg" /></p>
<h2><strong>How Is One Saved In Jesus Lesson?</strong></h2>
<div></div>
<p>Jesus could not be more clear about the price of salvation for the “believer in me” who has become “ensnared” (skandalizo-ed). It is stern measures of the most severe sort.</p>
<div></div>
<p><img src="/images/stories/Salvation/tab2f.jpg" /></p>
<h2>What Are These Stern Measures?</h2>
<div></div>
<h3>The Stern Measure Given The Young Rich Man</h3>
<div></div>
<p>In Jesus answer to the young rich mans question on how to have eternal life, Jesus first tells the young man to “obey the Law.” (Matthew 19:16-26; Mark 10:17-31; Luke 18:18-26.)</p>
<p>Then, when the young man says he has obeyed it, Jesus next gives the young man a heaven-maimed command:</p>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Jesus said unto him, If thou wouldest be perfect (teleios, mature, complete), go, sell that which thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, follow me. (Matt. 19:21 ASV.)</p>
<p>There is no command in Scripture that one is not permitted to have wealth. But Jesus is insisting that this particular man give all his wealth to the poor. Why? Jesus word choice indicates that this is how this particular young man will reach a completed and perfect state.</p>
<p>Isnt this a stern measure? The man was very wealthy, the text says. What problem does wealth by itself cause, even if obtained legitimately?</p>
<p>Jesus once said:</p>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">No man can serve two masters; for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to one, and despise the other. Ye cannot <em><strong>serve God and mammon</strong></em>. (Matt. 6:24 ASV)</p>
<p>Jesus in Revelation speaks similarly, saying that riches blocked the productivity of the church members at Laodicea.</p>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(16) So because thou art lukewarm, and neither hot nor cold, I will spew thee out of my mouth. (17) Because thou sayest,<strong><em> I am rich, and have gotten riches, and have need of nothing</em></strong>; and knowest not that thou art the wretched one and miserable and poor and blind and naked: (Rev. 3:16-17 ASV.)</p>
<p>Jesus in the Parable of the Sower speaks similarly of the third seed. Its productivity is blocked by riches. Lets do a brief review of the Parable of the Sower on this issue.</p>
<p>In that parable, the first seed rejects the word and never believes. (Luke 8:12.) The second seed “believes for a while” but then falls into temptation and withers (dies). (Luke 8:13.) The third seed goes much farther in growth, but then is choked by thorns. Jesus tells us what are those thorns:</p>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">And that which fell among the thorns, these are they that have heard, and as they go on their way they are <strong><em>choked with</em></strong> cares and <strong><em>riches and pleasures of this life</em></strong>, and bring no fruit to perfection. (Luke 8:14 ASV.)</p>
<p>Thus, repeatedly, Jesus says that riches can block productivity. Riches become thorns and hence a snare. The root problem is that riches become ones priority, causing you to not produce for the Lord.</p>
<h3>How do these passages help us understand the heaven-maimed or hell-whole statement?</h3>
<p>Because Jesus evidently is giving the young rich man a cure that will prevent his serving his mammon any longer. By giving away all his wealth to the poor, and becoming poor himself, the young man will put an end to the source of his temptation. The rich man if turned poor can now become rich toward God.</p>
<p>In this example from Jesus ministry, the physical object that needed to be destroyed was the wealth itself. The desire for riches made the young rich man seek its service, not Gods service. The young man has sacrificed productivity to God in good works because they often cost money to do. Thus, the young rich man may think he has not transgressed any commands among the Ten Commandments. But the affirmative commands elsewhere in the Law of charity (good works) were being ignored. Productivity in good works are being sacrificed to the god of mammon that the young man loved.</p>
<p>Thus, heaven maimed for this young man meant cutting off his connection to his accumulated wealth. Starting over will give him a new outlook where Gods works are his goal rather than serving mammon.</p>
<div></div>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<div></div>
<p>Jesus hell-whole or heaven maimed warning is in stark contrast to the Modern Gospel of Cheap Grace. Jesus says unless you buffet your body to avoid sinning you will later be rejected. (Mark 9:42-48.) A Christian believer who is ensnared has only two choices: heaven maimed or hell whole. There is no compromising idea that faith or some initial obedience is all that matters. Jesus demands success. The price of heaven is precisely success in avoiding sin. You must take whatever measures that achieve this or you will suffer hell forever. Jesus is blunt.</p>
<p> </p>
<h2>Photo Example of 'Skandalizing' Animal Trap Used by Ancient Greeks</h2>
<p><img src="/images/stories/Salvation/hell whole shortened_img_2.jpg" /></p>
<div></div>
<p>While drafting this chapter, Kevin, a young Costa Rican neighbor, just happened to have created a classic animal trap similar to that used by the ancient Greeks. Kevin designed it to capture birds. The stick he is placing is the <em>skandalon</em>. The corn serves to entice the bird to enter. This is the imagery Jesus meant by His use of the noun <em>skandalon</em> and the verb <em>skandalizo</em>. When the string attached to the <em>skandalon</em> is pulled, the trap is sprung. If the bird is only partially pinned, it has to let go of bird feathers or limbs in order to escape.</p> </td>
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<p><a href="http://www.thewords.com">The Words of Jesus of Nazareth</a><a href="http://www.thewords.com/" target="_blank"></a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/" title="Jesus Focused Publishers" target="_blank">Jesus Focused Publishers</a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.myspace.com/50264805/music/albums/342">Only Jesus</a> (song by Big Daddy -scroll down)</p>
<p><a href="http://justhiswords.com/">Just His Words</a> (red letter only $7.25)</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p>(No affiliation with me or this website.)</p> </div>
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<h2>The Author of Jesus' Words Only (2007).</h2>
<p>The author is a California litigation attorney, in practice for twenty-nine years. In school, he studied Classical Greek and Latin and achieved designation as a Classical Language Scholar. He is also fluent in Spanish and Italian. He graduated law school cum laude in 1981, and was on the board of Law Review.</p>
<p>The author became a Christian at age 15 at a campout of Faith Bible Church on a visit to Florida. Back home in New York City, he was baptized in a Baptist church, and attended a Baptist church for several years. Later, in Los Angeles, he joined the Christian Church for several years and then for 15 years he belonged to a conservative Presbyterian Church. At each church in California, he served as legal advisor. In 1998-2001, the author served as a self-funded missionary abroad in Costa Rica with his wife. They served in an outreach to the very poor in a community known as Las Tablas. In this period, the author was exposed to the Assembly of God/Church of God, and fellowshipped regularly with them. As the author also explains, this is where a sub-group created a home church where Jesus was the Pastor and sole teacher. (For this experience, see<a href="/JWO/jesus-on-church-structure.html"> Jesus on Church Structure</a>.) Now back in California, the author first attended a Messianic congregation, but now currently fellowships at an Assembly of God church.</p>
<p>A true scholar and prolific author, the author approaches his extensive treatises on spiritual faith from a truly unique perspective. As an accomplished attorney for many years, he advances each <em>quest-to-substantiate</em> through exhaustive research, meticulous analysis, thorough presentation of opposing points-of-view, and indisputable verifications in defining his own interpretations of Christianity and the Bible. In the end, he presents a faithful answer, providing an incomparable bottom-line truth of what is conveyed in the inspired Bible. (K. Atred.)</p> </td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<p>A new project for 2011 is to put Jesus' Words Only completely in MP3 format. Some have told me that they read it out loud as part of weekly devotions. I want to help. Thus, below are chapters 1-4 as the beginning of placing the entire book, piece by piece onto the Internet in MP3.</p>
<p>Another new effort is to place these messages on Podcasts with Pod-o-Matic. Our link -- under construction -- is at this link: <a href="http://jesuswordsonly.podomatic.com">http://jesuswordsonly.podomatic.com</a> . There are only 5 small audios there at present. I will continue working on it. (8/20/2011.)</p>
<p>A new message is a 10 minute summary of the proofs that Jesus warns us not to follow Paul. Jesus did so in several prophecies. (It is in 1 page pamphlet available in PDF at this<a href="/images/stories/JWOBook/Paul pamphlet-final2011.pdf"> link</a>.) Here is link to Podomatic:</p>
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<p><a target="_self" href="/images/stories/Audio/Bentham - Jesus or Paul mp3.mp3">Introduction to Bentham's book <em>Not Paul But Jesus  (3 min)</em></a></p>
<p><a href="/images/stories/Audio/Renan - Revelation deliberate attempt to refute Paul.mp3">Renan's claim that Revelation was intended to refute Paul (3 min)</a></p>
<p><a href="/images/stories/Audio/Paley Others - Paul inimical to Jesus.mp3">Paley &amp; Others See Paul Inimical to Jesus' Doctrine (19 min)</a></p>
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<h2>Jesus' Words on Salvation</h2>
<p><a href="/images/stories/Audio/Tyndale and Importancemp3.mp3">Tyndale - Surprising Opponent of Faith Alone Doctrine (18 min.)<br /></a></p>
<p><a href="/images/stories/Audio/Tyndale - 2d sermon 12m.mp3">Tyndale - Extraordinay Education &amp; Translation Skills Yet Rejects Faith Alone (12 min)</a></p>
<p><a href="/images/stories/Audio/Repentance or Faith - Sermon 1 7min.mp3">Repentance or Faith: Which Is To Come First - Part I (7 minutes)</a></p>
<p><a href="/images/stories/Audio/Repentance or Faith - Sermon 2 11 min.mp3">Repentance or Faith: Which Is To Come First - Part II (11 minutes)</a></p>
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<td valign="top" >"In Acts...Paul is <em><strong>denied the title of Apostle</strong></em>." (Hengel &amp; Schwemer, <em>Paul between Damascus and Antioch</em> (John Knox Press, 1997) at 321.)</td>
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<td valign="top" ><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">"The Spirit of the Apostles is</span></span></span></span><strong><em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> not a guide equal or greater than the Lord</span></span></span></span></em></strong><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">, thus </span></span></span></span><em><strong><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">Paul within his letters</span></span></span></span></strong></em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> does</span></span></span></span><strong><em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> not have as much authority as has Christ</span></span></span></span></em></strong><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">." (Carlstadt, </span></span></span></span><em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">Canonicis Scripturis</span></span></span></span></em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> (1520))</span></span></span></span></td>
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<h2>What Did Jesus Mean in Matthew 15 and Mark 7?</h2>
<h3>The Corban Supplanted God's Law</h3>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In Matthew 15:6, Jesus says the Pharisees teach a Corban / Korban payment allowed a son to say to his parents 'with what I may have profited to you has been given to the Temple.' What did Jesus mean?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jesus said this oral teaching by the Pharisees violated the written command to 'honor' one's parents. Jesus meant that the Law commanded the duty to not allow one's parents to slip in poverty (where this exists we will discuss momentarily), and the Pharisees supplanted this Law by excusing a son from such a duty if he promised to give his money to the Temple instead, <em>i.e.</em>, as corban / korban (offering).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Law's command to honor one's mother and father -- one of the ten commandments -- was always interpreted to require support of one's parent if they fell into poverty. See Thomas F. McDaniel, Ph.D., <em><a href="http://tmcdaniel.palmerseminary.edu/Volume4_ShemTob+.pdf">New Testament Aramaic Names and Words and Shem Tobs Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</a></em> (2008) at 25. </span><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">For a direct link, see: </span><a href="http://tmcdaniel.palmerseminary.edu/Volume4_ShemTob+.pdf"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">http://tmcdaniel.palmerseminary.edu/Volume4_ShemTob+.pdf</span></a></p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For a first century stone with the Hebrew letters "KRBN" - meaning "korban" see this <a href="http://www.bible-history.com/archaeology/israel/korban-inscription.html">link</a> from bible-history.com.</span><br /><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">See also "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Korban">Korban</a>," Wikipedia.</span></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In the case of Mark 7:11, Jesus addressed the case where a man says to his parents that the <strong><em>financial support, which he should be giving them as a demonstration of his honoring them as required in the Torah</em></strong>, has instead been declared by him to be a Korban / Corban. Once the vow was made the man had a religious basis for denying his parents the kind of financial support they needed. <strong><em>The religious authorities place greater authority in the proclaimed Corban than in the commandment to honor ones parents</em></strong>. The reason for this prioritizing of the Corban above the Torah was obvious: the mans financial benefits covered by the Corban were given to the temple for use by the religious authorities, rather than to the mans parents.</span></p>
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<h2>Who Wrote The Epistle to the Hebrews?</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"The nearest approach to a tradition is one quoted by Tertullian as current in North Africa at the close of the 2nd century<em><strong> ascribing the epistle to Barnabas</strong></em>." (<a href="http://www.renaissance.com.pk/noderef972.html">New Commentary on Holy Scriptures</a>.) See Tertullian, De Pudicitia, 20.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Tertullian writes: "Hebrews,<em> a work of Barnabas</em>...." See Tertullian, <em>De Pudicitia</em> (Latin &amp; French translation by A.Picard)(1906 edition) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1fKmkDvdIAcC&amp;dq=tertullian%2C%20de%20pudicitia&amp;pg=PA184#v=onepage&amp;q=barnabas&amp;f=false">184</a> (Latin) and <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1fKmkDvdIAcC&amp;dq=tertullian%2C%20de%20pudicitia&amp;pg=PA185#v=onepage&amp;q=barnabas&amp;f=false">185</a> (French)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Tertullian does so again in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">On Modesty</span> <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf04.iii.viii.xx.html">XX</a> (ca. 207 AD):</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For there is extant withal an<strong> Epistle to the Hebrews under the name of Barnabas</strong>—a man sufficiently accredited by God, as being one whom Paul has stationed next to himself in the uninterrupted observance of abstinence...." </span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Tertullian is clearly referencing our Epistle to the Hebrews 6:1, 4-6 in the NT for he next quotes:</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Warning, accordingly, the disciples to omit all first principles, and strive rather after perfection, and not lay again the foundations of repentance from the works of the dead, he says:  “For impossible it is that they who have once been illuminated, and have tasted the heavenly gift, and <em><strong>have participated in the Holy Spirit</strong></em>, and have tasted the word of God and found it sweet, when they shall—their age already setting—have fallen away, should be again recalled unto repentance, crucifying again for themselves the Son of God, and dishonouring Him.”</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">More proof is as follows. Because this epistle to the Hebrews has the most excellent Greek in the NT, and Barnabas was known to have such erudition (being from Cyprus which was renown for excellence in writing Greek)(Barclay:<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=LcXwedfaPhUC&amp;lpg=PA8&amp;ots=n_4gcQjaGD&amp;dq=tertullian%20says%20barnabas%20wrote%20hebrews&amp;pg=PA8#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">8</a>), many Christian authorities support Barnabas as the author. These include:</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">i)     A.M. Stibbs, V. Principal, <em>The New Bible Commentary</em> (Oak Hill Theological College, London) at 1088</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">ii)     Dr. Allan J. McNicol, Prof. of N.T.,  <em>Harpers Bible Dictionary</em> (Bangalore, Inst. for Christian Studies, Austin, Texas, 1994) at 94.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">iii)     Myles M. Bourke, <em>The New Jerome Biblical Commentary</em> (Bangalore, 1994) at 920.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">iv)     Dr. Robert W. Ross, Dept. of History, N. W. College, Minneapolis, Minn., <em>The Wycliffes Bible Commentary</em> (1987) at 1403 f.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">v)     William Smith, <em>A Dictionary of the Bible</em> (Grand Rapids, Michigan, 1988) at 238.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">vi)     Dr. F. F. Bruce, Rylands Prof. of Biblical Criticism &amp; Exegesis, Manchestor University, in Peakes<em> Commentary on the Bible</em>, (Thomas Nelson Ltd, London, 1967) at 1008.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Source: "<a href="http://www.renaissance.com.pk/noderef972.html">Barnabas, His Gospel, Credibility</a>."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Bruce says Tertullian does not attribute the epistle to Barnabas as if he were merely expressing opinion, but rather as if it were a commonly held ascription among those of his circle. Thus, Tertullian attributes it to Barnabas as a matter of fact.</span></p>
<h2><strong>Different Teachings than Paul</strong></h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">However, in the later 200s, Origen said no one knows who wrote Hebrews. Then even later, in the 300s, many began saying Paul wrote it. Many today say this is unlikely because of the following differences in soteriology and Christology:</span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span><strong>P</strong><strong>aul's Patterns<o:p></o:p></strong></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><strong><span>Hebrew's Presentation<o:p></o:p></span></strong></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span> <o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span>Christ being the <em>Head</em> of the <em>Body </em>of believers (I Cor. 12:12-27; Eph. 1:22,23; 4:14,15; 5:23; Col. 1:18; 2:10,19).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span> <o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span>Christ is the <em>High Priest</em> over the<em>People of Israel</em> (Heb. 2:17; 3:1; 4:14,15; 5:5,20; 9:11,12,19-23; 13:11,12).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span> <o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span>The Believer's <em>unconditional </em>eternal union with Christ (Rom. 8:26-36; I Cor. 5:5; Eph. 1:3-5,13,14; 2:5-9; 4:30).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span> <o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span>The Believer's <em>potential to "fall away"</em> from eternal union with Christ (Heb. 6:4-6,9-12; 10:26-39).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span>Preoccupation with showing the<em>equal status between Jew and Gentile as the people of God </em>(Rom. 1:16; 3:9-11, 22,23; 4:9-12; ch. 9-11; I Cor. 1:24; Gal. 3:28; Eph. 2:11-22; 3:6; Col 3:11).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><span>Preoccupation with showing <strong><em>Israel as THE PEOPLE of God </em></strong>(2:17; 4:9; 5:3; 7:5,11,27; 8:8,10; 9:7,19; 11:25; 13:17).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><em><span>Use of the word WORLD over 40 times</span></em><span> with special reference to the global aspect of Christ's redemption (II Cor 5:19; Col. 1:4-6; I Tim. 3:16).<span> </span>Paul uses kosmos in a broad manner.<span> </span>It is a common Pauline term.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><em><span>Not one usage of the word WORLD</span></em><span> is in reference to Christ's act of redemption. <strong><em>Rather Israel is seen as the only beneficiary</em></strong> (2:17; 7:27; 13:12).<span> </span>Kosmos used only 5 times in a narrow context.<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><em><span>Israel's FALL</span></em><span> into a state of "Lo Ammi" (Rom. 11; Eph 2).<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><em><span>Israel's <strong>RISE</strong></span></em><span> into the promised Covenant (8:8-13; 10:16,29; 12:24; 13:20)<o:p></o:p></span></p>
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Source: "<a href="http://www.experiencegrace.com/Authorship_of_Hebrews.html">The Authorship of the Book of Hebrews</a>"
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This study of authorship gives us some idea of what caused Barnabas and Paul to split. Barnabas was pro-Israel, but Paul was perceived as anti-Israel.</span></p> </td>
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<p><a href="http://www.thewords.com">The Words of Jesus of Nazareth</a><a href="http://www.thewords.com/" target="_blank"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter 2: No Deliberate Ignorance</h2>
<h3>You Cannot Read Without A Dictionary</h3>
<p>The second major flaw in the common how-to-read-the-Bible books is the notion we can deliberately ignore the fact that the Bible in English is a translation. This flaw is evident in Torreys book<em> How To Study The Bible</em>.</p>
<p>He states unabashedly the following proposition:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The person who has<strong><em> no technical knowledge of Greek or Hebrew</em></strong> but has spiritual discernment is a <strong><em>far more competent critic of the Bible</em></strong> than one who has a rare, technical knowledge of Greek or Hebrew but no spiritual discernment. <em>Id</em>., at 9.</p>
<p>In other words, Torrey will not accept any information and input from someone who specializes in Greek or Hebrew who Torrey is not convinced shares his viewpoint on what makes you regenerate and a Christian. Instead, Torrey will rely upon his intuitive spiritual sense that the translation in English is correct. He therefore can reject what a specialist in Greek or Hebrew may tell him is what the passage actually says in the original tongue.</p>
<p>Torreys ideas mean that whatever traditional English translation has been popular must continue to guide the church for ever more. Torrey would have us do so even if the original English translation is demonstrably in error. At the very least Torrey implies that he would not accept the exposition of such error from someone he views as not born again based upon the now encrusted spiritually discerned truths which may indeed be based upon an erroneous translation.</p>
<p>This is not merely an academic point. There are many examples where scholars have learned that the original translation was defective. There were still many mysteries in the meaning of classical Greek when Tyndale first translated the New Testament in 1534. His work was an enormous influence on the King James Bible of 1611. Over<strong><em> 82 percent </em></strong>of its words, both in the New and Old Testament, are the exact words in the <strong><em>1534 translation by William Tyndale</em></strong>. But even with the best Oxford education that Tyndale received, subsequent thorough extensive study of classical Greek texts have provided additional meanings which require revision of various passages in the New Testament.</p>
<p>For example, one of the most glaring new meanings involves the verb <em><strong>pisteuo</strong></em>. At the time that Tyndale translated the New Testament, he thought this word only meant <em><strong>believe</strong></em> or<strong> </strong><em><strong>trust</strong></em>. However, we now know this word also meant <em><strong>obey</strong></em>.</p>
<p>Ever since that realization, scholars have been trying to change the translation of <strong><em>John 3:16</em></strong> to convey more than merely <em>believe</em> in the sense of mental assent. This is because the <strong><em>pisteuo</em></strong> is followed by <strong><em>eis</em></strong>, which would dictate <em>pisteuo</em> means <em><strong>obey</strong></em>. And this is underscored by the fact just twenty verses later — in John 3:36, <strong><em>pisteuo eis</em></strong> is used in direct antithesis to <em>apitheo</em>, which in Greek only meant <strong><em>disobey</em></strong>. The antithesis dictates that<em> pisteuo</em> means <em>obey</em> in that verse. And since the expression of 3:36 is identical to 3:16, <em>pisteuo</em> should be revised in 3:16 to mean <strong><em>obey</em></strong>. (See JWOS in html at parts <a href="/JWOS/chapter-26-1jwos.html">1</a>, <a href="/JWOS/chapter-26-2jwos.html">2</a> and <a href="/JWOS/chapter-26-3jwos.html">3</a>; or at the books.google version of JWOS at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4V8tMJ75bnwC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20on%20salvation&amp;pg=PA422">422</a> <em>et seq.</em>)</p>
<p>If such change is acknowledged, then Jesus had a salvation doctrine directly contrary to the standard interpretation of what Paul teaches. A notion of regeneration which turns on obedience is contrary to what Torrey believes regenerates you. As a result, even though these evangelical scholars defend <em>obey</em> as the correct meaning of <em>pisteuo</em>, Torrey would obviously reject their definition of<em> pisteuo</em> as present in John 3:16. This is because their view that<em> pisteuo</em> means <em><strong>obey</strong></em> would make them an unregenerated person in Torreys view.</p>
<p>The correct approach is actually stated by Torrey elsewhere. Instead, one must humble themself and <strong><em>not superimpose </em></strong>their view on a passage. We must listen to experts who know Greek or Hebrew better than ourselves. Torrey correctly says elsewhere:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Do not come to the Bible seeking <em><strong>confirmation for your own ideas</strong></em>. Come not to find a confirmation of your own but to be <em><strong>taught what God may be pleased to teach</strong></em>. If a man comes to the Bible just to find his notions taught there, he will find them. But if he comes, <em><strong>recognizing his own ignorance</strong></em>, just as a little child seeks to be taught, he will find something infinitely better than his own notions. <em>Id.</em>, at 16.</p>
<p>But if Torrey truly acknowledges these propositions in this just quoted text, he should never justify ignoring experts in Greek or Hebrew. To do so thereby opens the door to rely upon our <strong><em>presupposition</em></strong> about a doctrine to determine what a passage really means. We will wrongly reject the spiritually blind scholar because we know better.</p>
<p>Unfortunately, Torrey is not consistent about keeping preconceptions behind. He tells us how insignificant knowledge of the Greek or Hebrew is when understanding the Bible — despite the fact it is a 100% translated text! He amazingly states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">It is<strong><em> unfortunate</em></strong> that more<strong><em> emphasis is often placed on a knowledge of Greek and Hebrew</em></strong> in training for the ministry and his placed on a spiritual life and its consequence brick of the sermon. <em>Id.</em> at 9.</p>
<p>But how can one have any spiritual discernment if one has the wrong translation? What if what you assume is a spiritually correct reading is based on an error? Thus, you cannot put spiritual discernment ahead of knowledge of the authentic text. You can never have discernment without an accurate text.</p>
<p>This was <strong><em>Eves error</em></strong>. Satan knew the power of a misquote, as he employed against Eve a wrong account of Gods statements to her. Eves protection would have been to actually try to recall the <strong><em>true words</em></strong> of God rather than rely upon Satans misquote. Thats one of the moral lessons from that story. Go back to Gods original words, and double-check. The story in Genesis is not about Eve failing to have a mystical experience with the Holy Spirit and thereby failing to spiritually discern a misquote. Rather, her memory failed her, and thus in the future, we must scrupulously examine what God has said through the records of validated prophets.</p>
<h3>Poverty of Emphasis on Knowledge of Biblical Languages</h3>
<p>In reality, there is very little emphasis in the Christian community on knowledge of the Greek or Hebrew languages. Torrey is encouraging tolerance for this ongoing modern phenomenon.</p>
<p>However only several generations ago, Christians did have familiarity with classical languages as a means of assisting themselves in translating the Bible. They thought the Bibles language was Latin. The Bible had been translated into Latin in 411 A.D. Catholicism ingrained into everyone the assumption that this was the original language. With that assumption, all those who made serious study of the Bible were always anxious to know Latin so that they could read the Bible in what they thought was its most authentic form.</p>
<p>Now that we know better, and we realize the New Testament was written in Greek, we should put the same emphasis upon every Bible student to have an<em><strong> interlinear translation</strong></em> that shows the Greek and that they methodically use a reliable Greek dictionary.</p>
<p>Any other approach leaves the Bible student at the mercy of whatever politics may have influenced an English translation. It is indisputable that many passages are translated, even in the best English translations, with bias.</p>
<h3>Presence of Bias Necessitates Studying Underlying Languages</h3>
<p>It may be discouraging to learn some English translations suffer from bias. However, I trust anyone who has picked up this book about studying the Bible will not lose heart merely by learning human failings influence the translation. And if you are serious about studying the Bible, you have to know right now that bias has seriously corrupted several passages. The only way to escape such bias is to have your own resources to test the translation. And the only way to do this is to have an interlinear translation and a good Greek dictionary. All these resources are now free online. (See below for a link to download Interlinear Software.)</p>
<h3>Examples of Bias</h3>
<p>For example, the King James Bible deliberately corrupted the translation of<strong><em> Hebrews 6:46</em></strong>. The translators were dominated by the Puritan party. These gentlemen were strict Calvinists. They were locked in a doctrinal dispute with the Arminian party over the issue of whether a Christian can lose their salvation. The Calvinists contended that once one was regenerated, it was impossible to fall away to damnation. God would cause predestination and complete success. The Arminian party contended principally based on<em> Hebrews 6:46</em> that the contrary was true.</p>
<p>It is indisputable that the way Hebrews 6:46 reads in the Greek is that a group of people who already had been born of the spirit but who had fallen away by renouncing Christ will never repent again, and they are damned. Arminius was correct in how he read the passage. However, the Calvinist party tried winning the debate by using the influence of the King James Bible. They deliberately altered the translation so that it was now a hypothetical <strong><em>if</em></strong> they fell away. Also, instead of the Greek completed aorist tense (signifying a past completed event) which said they <em><strong>had fallen away</strong></em>, the King James translators made it an <strong><em>iffy</em></strong> subjunctive tense. It now read, “<em><strong>if</strong></em> they<strong><em> should</em></strong> fall away” instead of “those who fell away...”</p>
<p>This was used to remove from the Bible the true reading of a verse solely because it supported the anti-Calvinist position!</p>
<p>These and many other examples could be shown.</p>
<p>The problem is that if you start with Torreys approach, you easily could reject the correct translation of Hebrews 6:46. Its true translation clearly supports the Arminian doctrine of salvation. However, Calvinists and most modern evangelicals wed to eternal security doctrine believe the Arminians are heretics and lost. The Calvinists have been comforted by a false translation produced by their party leaders who edited the King James Bible.</p>
<p>Hence, if you use Torreys approach and you are Calvinist or such evangelicals, you will not listen to Greek experts who point out that Hebrews 6:46 lacks the <strong><em>if</em></strong> and the <em><strong>subjunctive tense</strong></em> which is present in the King James Bible. For you will conclude that those experts are not regenerate by the very salvation doctrine which you form in reliance upon the false translation. You will adhere to your spiritually discerned truth by the strength of the incorrect translation you are reading in the King James Bible!</p>
<h2>Recommendation</h2>
<p>As a result, you should not read the Bible without skepticism regarding the English translation. Instead, you must have a Greek interlinear available at all times, and access to a reliable Greek dictionary. I recommend for download software containing the Interlinear Greek New Testament at this website: <a href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/ Greek_Index.htm">http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/ Greek_Index.htm</a>.</p> </td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Genesis 1:1 Bible Study</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">These are notes I made to study Genesis 1:1 in a session with other believers.</span></p>
<h2><strong>Verse 1:1</strong></h2>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><span> </span>1<span style="font-size: 14pt;"> In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p> </o:p></span></p>
<h3><strong><span>Hebrew transliterated with verbs </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></h3>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>Genesis<a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/1-1.htm"> 1:1</a> in Hebrew reads: "Bereishit bara Elohim et hashamayim ve'et ha'aretz."</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The verb<em> bara</em> [translated made]  indicates third person <strong><em>singular </em></strong>masculine. For a plural, it would have been <em>baru</em>. Thus, it reads "Elohim...made" -- singular subject not plural.</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>The <em>heaven</em> of the first verse is actually a plural the <em>heavens</em>.</span></p>
<h3><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Beginning</span></strong></h3>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Beginning</span></strong><span>. <em>reshiyt</em>, the "head-part, beginning" of a thing, in point of time (Genesis </span><st1:time minute="10" hour="10"><span>10:10)</span></st1:time><span>, or value (Proverbs 1:7). Its opposite is <em>achariyth</em> Isaiah 46:10. (re'shiyth).</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"Iin the beginning," is always used in reference to time. Here only is it taken absolutely.</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>God</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>1:1 Message-ONE GOD CREATOR</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><strong><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">CreationWiki</span></span></strong></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>The major literary tradition bearing witness to <strong><em>monotheism</em></strong> began in the Hebrew Bible. It was established in the clearest form by the first verse of the Bible, Genesis 1:1. The tradition continued throughout the Old Testament, and carried over into the foundational writings of Christianity, the New Testament, and also into Islam's Qur'an. </span><span><span> </span></span><a href="/ http://creationwiki.org/Monotheism"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>http://creationwiki.org/Monotheism</a></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Geisler - 1:1 message is Monotheism</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p></o:p></span>Of the same view is the article entiled <em>PRIMITIVE MONOTHEISM</em> by Norman L. Geisler, Ph.D., found in the <em>Christian Apologetics Journal</em>, Volume 1, No.1 (Spring 1998) at page 1</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://www.ses.edu/Portals/0/journal/articles/1.1Geisler.pdf">http://www.ses.edu/Portals/0/journal/articles/1.1Geisler.pdf</a> Here is an excerpt:</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Bible teaches that monotheism was the earliest conception of God. The very first verse of Genesis is monotheistic: "In the beginning God created the heavens and<span> </span>the earth" (Gen. 1:1). All<span> </span>the patriarchs, Abraham,<span> </span>Isaac and Jacob, reflect an<span> </span>early monotheism (Gen. 12-50). This reveals<strong><em> one God who created the world and who, therefore, is prior to, more than, and different from the world</em></strong>. These are the essential elements of theism or monotheism. Likewise, long before Moses, Joseph clearly believed in a moral monotheism. His refusal to commit adultery was because it would be a sin<span> </span>against God. While<span> </span>resisting the<span> </span>temptation of Potiphar's wife he declared: "How<span> </span>can I do<span> </span>this great wickedness, and sin<span> </span>against God?" (Gen. 39:9). <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><span>The other book in the Bible<span> </span>that reflects an<span> </span>ancient<span> </span>pre-Mosaic period, Job,<span> </span>clearly has a monotheistic view of God. There is good evidence<span> </span>that the book of Job was set in<span> </span>pre-Mosaic patriarchal times (see below). It speaks of an "almighty" (see </span><st1:time minute="17" hour="17"><span>5:17</span></st1:time><span>; </span><st1:time minute="14" hour="18"><span>6:14</span></st1:time><span>; 8:3, etc.) personal God (cf. 1:7-8) who created the world (38:4) who is sovereign over it (42:1-2).</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>No other Creator</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>Isaiah <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Isaiah+44:24&amp;version=KJV">44:24</a>Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Jesus - greatest command - Lord is ONE</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>American Standard Version</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Mark <a href="http://bible.cc/mark/12-29.htm">12:29</a>-30. Jesus answered, The first is, Hear, O Israel; The Lord our God, the<em><strong> Lord is one</strong></em>:." [Jesus is quoting verse, Deut 6:4, saying "Yahweh is one." It did not get translated well there.]</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Barnes commentary on Jesuss remarks:</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>Barnes' Notes on the Bible</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>Hear, O </span><st1:country-region><st1:place><span>Israel</span></st1:place></st1:country-region><span>! - This was said to call the attention of the Jews to the great importance of the truth about to be proclaimed. See Deuteronomy 6:4-5.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>The Lord our God ... - Literally, "Yahweh,<strong><em> our God, is one Yahweh</em></strong>." The other nations worshipped many gods, but <strong><em>the God of the Jews was one, and one only</em></strong>.<span> </span>Yahweh was <em><strong>undivided</strong></em>; and this great truth it was the design of the separation of the Jewish people from other nations to keep in mind. This was the "peculiar" truth which was communicated to the Jews, and this they were required to keep and remember forever.</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>Jesus answered him, the first of all the commandments is,.... Christ replied at once, without taking any time to consider of it, that the chief and principal of all the commands of the law, and what is of the greatest importance is, hear, O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord. The Vulgate Latin, and Arabic versions read, "<strong><em>one God</em></strong>"; but the Syriac, and Ethiopic render it, "one Lord"; and that rightly, agreeably to the Greek text, and to Deuteronomy 6:4, from whence this is taken. This passage of Scripture, to the end of the ninth verse, is the first of the sections which were put into their phylacteries; See Gill on Matthew 23:5; and was repeated twice every day, morning and evening; which is by the Jews called from the first word , "the reading of the Shema":</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span><strong><span>Wikipedia on Elohim</span></strong></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> E</o:p></span><span>lohim is a plural formation of eloah, the latter being an expanded form of the Northwest Semitic noun il el [1]). It is the usual word for "god" in the Hebrew Bible, <strong><em>referring with singular verbs both to the one God of </em></strong></span><st1:country-region><st1:place><strong><em><span>Israel</span></em></strong></st1:place></st1:country-region><strong><em><span>,</span></em></strong><span> and also in a few examples to other singular pagan deities. With plural verbs the word is also used as <strong><em>a true plural</em></strong> with the meaning "gods".[2]</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The singular forms eloah and el are used as proper names or as generics, in which case they are interchangeable with elohim.[3]<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>****</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>In Hebrew the form of the word Elohim, with the ending -im, which normally indicates a masculine plural, however with Elohim the construction is <strong><em>usually grammatically singular</em></strong>, (i.e. it governs <strong><em>a singular verb or adjective</em></strong>) when referring to the<strong><em> Hebrew God</em></strong>, but <strong><em>grammatically plural</em></strong> (i.e. taking a plural verb or adjective) when used of pagan divinities (Psalms 96:5; 97:7).</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim">http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim</a><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Psalm 96:5 = Example of Elohim with plural verb to signify false gods</span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span>For all the gods of the peoples are idols; But Jehovah made the heavens. (ASV)</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Cross-reference of Hebrew for Gods in Psalm 96 </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://biblos.com/psalms/96-5.htm">http://biblos.com/psalms/96-5.htm</a> <span> </span>inks to</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><strong><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Strongs on Elohim</span></strong></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">http://strongsnumbers.com/hebrew/430.htm<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><o:p> </o:p></span>Transliteration: elohim</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Phonetic Spelling: (el-o-heem')<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Short Definition: God<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Word Origin<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">pl. of eloah<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Definition<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">God, god<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">NASB Word Usage<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">divine (1), divine being (1), exceedingly (1), God (2326), god (45), God's (14), goddess (2), godly (1), gods (204), great (2), judges (3), mighty (2), rulers (1), shrine* (1).<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">angels, exceeding, God, very great, mighty<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Plural of 'elowahh; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative -- angels, X exceeding, God (gods)(-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>see HEBREW 'elowahh</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Hebrew Matthew usage of Elohim </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Matthew ch. 16<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>(16)<span> </span>And Simon </span><strong><span>called Petros</span></strong><span> / Peter answered and said, Thou art the Messiah, </span><strong><span>that is the</span></strong><span> </span><strong><span>Kristo</span></strong><span> / Christ</span><a name="_ednref1"></a> ­<span> the Son of the living God (</span><strong><em><span>Ben-Elohim-Chaim</span></em></strong><span>) </span><strong><span>who has come into this world</span></strong><span>.<span> </span><span> </span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Matthew 19:<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>(26)<span> </span>And Jesus looking upon them said to them, With men </span><strong><span>the matter is difficult</span></strong><span> / </span><strong><s><span>this is impossible</span></s></strong><span>; but with God (</span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span>) all things are </span><strong><span>easy</span></strong><span> / </span><strong><s><span>possible</span></s></strong><span>.<span> </span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Matthew 22<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>(21)<span> </span>They say unto him, Caesars. Then saith he unto them, </span><strong><span>Return</span></strong><span> / </span><strong><s><span>Render</span></s></strong><span> therefore unto Caesar the things that are Caesars; and unto God (</span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span>) the things that are God's (</span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span>s).<span> </span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Matthew 22<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>(32)<span> </span>“I </span><strong><span>Yahweh </span></strong><strong><span>am the </span></strong><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span> / God of Abraham, and the </span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span> / God of Isaac, and the </span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span> / God of Jacob”? </span><strong><span>If so</span></strong><span>, God (</span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span>) is not the God (</span><strong><em><span>Elohim</span></em></strong><span>) of the dead, but of the living.</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Matthew 22<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>(37)<span> </span>And he said unto him, Thou shalt </span><strong><span>love Yahweh, your Elohim</span></strong><a name="_ednref3"></a><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><span> </span></span><strong><s><span>the Lord thy God</span></s></strong><span> with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind. <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Uniplural Nouns </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span>Elohim is similar to a <strong><em>uniplural noun</em></strong>. A uniplural noun can be used to indicate <strong><em>an object in the singular or plural sense</em></strong>. Example: The word sheep can be used to describe one sheep or many sheep. Example: Deer. One deer was at the lake. Many deer are in the woods. Even though Elohim is the plural form of the word, it is ALWAYS translated in the singular form when used in reference to the one true God. <o:p></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>http://www.whoisjesus.com/elohim.html</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Verb "created" - plural or singular? </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In <strong>http://www.israelofgod.org/elohim1.htm</strong>, we learn:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In Hebrew, a numerically plural noun has three characteristics:<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">It receives a plural suffix;<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">It receives a plural verb;<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">It receives a plural adjective<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span><span> </span>So the first thing we must check about Elohim is whether it gets a plural adjective and plural verb, because this will tell us whether or not it is a numerical plural denoting multiplicity. In the very first verse of the Torah we read ... "<strong>Elohim (he) created</strong>". Were Elohim a numerical plural, the verse would have to say ... "<strong>Elohim (they) created</strong>". Indeed, the word Elohim appears in its plural form over 2000 times throughout the Hebrew Scriptures and<strong><em> in virtually every instance it has a singular verb</em></strong>. It is always "And Elohim (he) spoke to Moses " and never "And Elohim (they) spoke to Moses ". The same thing can be found with the adjective. The adjective for Elohim is singular, not plural. Thus we find "righteous (sg) Elohim" (Ps </span><st1:time minute="10" hour="19"><span>7:10</span></st1:time><span>) and not "righteous (pl) Elohim".<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">****<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span>It is worth noting that the word Elohim is not always a majestic plural. When referring to the pagan gods, the term Elohim is usually a numerical plural. For example, the second commandment forbids us to worship "other (pl) gods". In this phrase, not only does <strong><em>Elohim have the plural suffix</em></strong>, but it receives a <strong><em>plural adjective</em></strong><span> </span>"other (pl)." This tells us that in the second commandment Elohim is used not as an majestic plural but as a numerical plural denoting multiplicity. The prohibition is not against a specific "other (sg) god" but against any "other (pl) gods"</span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Other references in Genesis to God/El/Elohim </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span>Genesis 17:1 And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God (El- -singular); Genesis 17:3 And Abram fell on his face: and God (Elohim- -plural) talked with him. God (El- -singular) appeared to Abram. Only one individual appeared in Genesis 17:1, but in 17:3, that same individual, God (Elohim- -plural), appeared to Abram. <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Isaiah 45:21 Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God (Elohim, plural) else beside me; a just God<span> </span>(El, singular) and a Saviour; there is none beside me. Verse 22: Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God (El, singular) and there is none else.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>http://www.whoisjesus.com/elohim.html</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Created </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Created</span></strong><span>. ba¯ra¯', "create, give being to something new." It always has God for its subject. Its object may be anything: matter Genesis 1:1; animal life Genesis </span><st1:time minute="21" hour="13"><span>1:21</span></st1:time><span>; spiritual life Genesis </span><st1:time minute="27" hour="13"><span>1:27</span></st1:time><span>. Hence, creation is not confined to a single point of time. Whenever anything absolutely new - that is, not involved in anything previously extant - is called into existence, there is creation Numbers 16:30. Any thing or event may also be said to be created by Him, who created the whole system of nature to which it belongs Malachi 2:10. The verb in its simple form occurs forty-eight times (of which eleven are in Genesis, fourteen in the whole Pentateuch, and twenty-one in Isaiah), and always in one sense.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>http://bible.cc/genesis/1-1.htm</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Strong's </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Transliteration: bara'<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Phonetic Spelling: (baw-raw')<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Short Definition: choose<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">choose, create creator, cut down, dispatch, do, make fat<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">A primitive root; (absolutely) to create; (qualified) to cut down (a wood), select, feed (as formative processes) -- choose, create (creator), cut down, dispatch, do, make (fat). <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>http://strongsnumbers.com/hebrew/1254.htm</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Heavens </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span>The heaven of the first verse is actually a plural the heavens.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">cfr. verse 8: heaven is different word in Hebrew:<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span>Gen 1: 8 And God called the firmament Heaven. And there was evening and there was morning, a second day.</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>Patrick 1695 Commentary </span></strong><span><o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><em>A commentary upon the first book of Moses, called Genesis</em> By Simon Patrick<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">(1695) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=xwIrAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PT15#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> 1</a>.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">http://books.google.com/books?id=xwIrAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PT22&amp;output=text#c_top<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Verse 1. <strong>In the beginnings</strong> The World is not eternal, but had a beginning, as all Philosophers acknowledged before Aristotle. So he himself informs us, L. 1. de Cœlo, cap. 2. ( speaking of the ancient Opinions concerning the Original of the World). They all say it had a. beginning : But some thought it might have no End others judged it to be Corruptible.<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>God created</span></strong><span>. He who is Eternal gave a Being to this great Fabrick of Heaven and Earth, out of Nothing. It is observed by Eusebius (in the beginning of his Book De Prœpar. Evang. p. a I, &amp; 25. Edit. </span><st1:city><st1:place><span>Paris</span></st1:place></st1:city><span>.) That neither the ancient Historians, nor the Philosophers, do so much as mention God,<span> </span>No, not so far as to name him, when they write of the beginning of the World. But this Divine Law-giver, designing to hang the whole Frame of his Polity, upon Piety towards God, and to make the Creator of all, the Founder of his Laws, begins with him. Not after the manner of the Egyptians and Phœnicians, who <strong><em>bestowed this adorable Name, upon a great Multitude</em></strong> : But puts in the Front of his Work, the Name of the <strong><em>sole Cause</em></strong> of all things the Maker of whatsoever is seen or unseen. As if he had told the Hebrew Nation, That he who gave them the Law contained in these Books, was the Ring and Law-giver of the whole World: Which was,like a great City, governed by him. Whom therefore he would have them look upon, not only as the Enacter of their Laws; but of those also which all Nature obeys. </span><span lang="NL">See L. VII. De Pr&lt;epar. Evang. c. 9,10. L. XII. c. 16. </span><span>&lt;<o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span><o:p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> </span></o:p></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="MsoNormal"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><span>The Heaven and the Earth</span></strong><span>. The Hebrew Particle Eth, put before both Heaven and Earth , signifies as much as with, if Maimonides understood it aright; and makes the Sense to be this: He created the Heavens, with <strong><em>all things in the Heavens,</em></strong> and the Earth with <strong><em>all things in the Earth</em></strong><span> </span>as his Words are in More Nevochim , P. II. cap. 30. Certain it is these two words, Heaven and Earth, comprehend the whole visible World. Some would have the Angels comprehended in the word Heaven particularly Epiphanius, Hære£ LXV. n. 45. But others of the Fathers are or a different Opinion, as Petavius there observes. It is a pretty Conceit of Theophilus Antiochenus, L. 2. ad Autolycum, That the Heavens are mentioned before the Earths to show that God's Works are not like ours: For <strong><em>he begins at the top, we at the bottom</em></strong> : That is, he <strong><em>first made the fixed Stars and all beyond them</em></strong>, (so I take the word Heaven here to signifie) for they had a beginning, as well as this lower World , though they do not seem to be comprehended in the fix,days Work,, which relates only to this Planetary World, as I may call it, which hath the Sun for its Center. And thus Philo understood the first word Berefchith, in the beginning, to respect <strong><em>the order wherein things were created</em></strong>. God began his Creation with the Heaven, as the most noble Body, and then proceeded to the Earth $ an account of which follows.</span><span> <o:p></o:p></span></span></p>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><!--[if !supportEndnotes]--><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><br clear="all" /> </span>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The following online free book offers a unique perspective on how <em>not</em> to study the Bible as it lays out the foundation for interpreting the Book independently, free of biased influences. With the tools found in the following chapters, you will put preconceived notions aside and discover the Word and its truth, ultimately leading to a deeper understanding of the Bible as God intended.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span style="color: #ff0000;">NEW</span>: Available as an <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=xyn37oJAxWYC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;pg=PA15#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Ebook</a> at Google Books - entirely free viewing.</span></p>
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<div>Chapter Two: No Deliberate Ignorance (<a href="/images/stories/How Not To Study the Bible/Ch 2.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/Bible/chapter-2-how-not-to-study-the-bible.html">HTML</a>).</div>
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<div>Chapter Four: No Throwing Away of Reason (<a href="/images/stories/How Not To Study the Bible/Ch 4.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/Bible/ch-4-how-not-to-study-the-bible.html">HTML</a>)</div>
<div>Chapter Five: Not By Piecemeal (<a href="/images/stories/How Not To Study the Bible/Ch 5.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/Bible/ch5-how-not-to-study-the-bible.html">HTML</a>)</div>
<div>Chapter Six: No Traditional Reading Order for the Original Testament (<a href="/images/stories/How Not To Study the Bible/Ch 6.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/Bible/ch-6-how-not-to-study-the-bible.html">HTML</a>)</div>
<div>Chapter Seven: No Traditional Reading Order for the New Testament (<a href="/images/stories/How Not To Study the Bible/Ch 7.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/Bible/ch-7-how-not-to-study-the-bible.html">HTML</a>)</div>
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</div>
<h2>Bible Study Topics</h2>
<p><a href="/Bible/genesis-11-bible-study.html">Gen. 1:1</a></p>
<p><a href="/Bible/genesis-11-bible-study.html"></a><a href="/Recommended-Reading/bible-studies-anger.html">Anger: What Does The Bible Teach?</a></p>
<p><a href="/Recommended-Reading/bible-studies-anger.html"></a><a href="/Recommended-Reading/bible-lesson-on-debt.html">What the Bible Says About Being in Debt</a></p>
<p><a href="/Recommended-Reading/bible-studies-doing-good.html">Doing Good: Is It Optional? Only for Rewards? Or Itself A Command of God Whose Violation is Sin?</a></p>
<p><a href="/Recommended-Reading/bible-study-on-whether-mocking-humor-to-friends-is-funny.html">Putdowns -- Are they Christian if in Jest?</a></p>
<hr />
<h2>Online Resources</h2>
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<ul>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/Greek_Index.htm"><span style="color: #000000;">Interlinear New Testament</span></a> - online English New Testament with Greek interlineated</span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://www.scripture4all.org/download/download_ISA20.php"><span style="color: #000000;">Interlinear New Testament Download</span></a> - same but in downloaded form</span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Liddell Scott Greek Dictionary (LSJ) - every word of New Testament linked to Greek. Start at this <a href="http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.01.0155:book%3DMatthew:chapter%3D7:verse%3D23">link</a>.</span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://www.e-sword.net/">E-Sword</a> - free Bible software. In version 9, some Bibles and components which used to be free now cost some money. The free materials -- see this<a href="http://www.e-sword.net/bibles.html"> link</a> -- still make this extremely valuable software. The items to purchase are also less expensive than published books.</span></li>
<li><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="http://www.vbvbc.org/bible-verse/genesis1-2">Verse by verse Bible commentary</a> -- freely contributed by layman ... interesting.</span></li>
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<title>Dawkins' Admission That Science Can Accept A Legitimate Limited Design Investigation With Specific Materialistic Assumptions</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor="#ffffff">
<br>
<br>
<font size="+1">Chapter One: Introduction</font><br>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1">
<a name="pgfId=915574">
</a>
<div>
<img src="CreatedbyIngeniousDesign-1.gif">
</div>
Dawkins' Admission That Science Can Accept A Legitimate Limited Design Investigation With Specific Materialistic Assumptions</h1>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936124">
</a>
Richard Dawkins is the leading defender today of evolution. He is the popular author of the recent book The God Delusion (2008).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936134">
</a>Dawkins in a radio interview in 2007 says
that life on earth may have been designed by creatures that evolved
elsewhere. This interview is preserved on the Internet by NPR and
available through YouTube.<a href="#pgfId=936127" class="footnote">
1</a>
He says this idea was pregnant all along within Darwininism because it
says matter can evolve to create "consciousness," which in turn can be
the designer of life as we know it on earth. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936139">
</a>Dawkins was captured on video saying the
same thing in Ben Stein's 2008 documentary Expelled: No Intelligence
Allowed. In that movie, we can both hear and see Dawkins relay the same
point. Seeing is believing. Dawkins says that it is actually possible
that life on earth was designed by beings evolved on other planets. He
agrees this is one possible legitimate avenue of investigating
intelligent design. Dawkins only cries foul against anyone who uses the
same evidence to prove this alien life fits the characteristics of God.
Such is not an endeavor of science. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936030">
</a>This is an amazing admission. Some
evolutionists no doubt think Dawkins gave away the store. Some
evolutionists might want to mock Dawkins as engrossing himself in an
Alien Design Theory. No doubt evolutionists also fear Dawkins'
admission will be used to allow Intelligent Design into the classroom,
and thus people of faith can surreptiously use it to prove the
existence of the dreaded being whose name begins with the letter G.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936069">
</a>Yet, what Dawkins said was quite
sensible. The discussion of design based upon an
evolved-extraterrestrial intelligent being as your fundamental
assumption is thoroughly scientific. The objective of the inquiry then
becomes to investigate the true natural origin of something such as DNA
without fear this will be construed as proving God's existence. A
fairly accurate summary of Dawkins' interview with Stein is captured in
this quote by an Intelligent Design (ID) think-tank: </p>
<p class="Quote">
<a name="pgfId=936147">
</a>Surprisingly, in a lengthy interview with
Ben Stein in Expelled, Dawkins says that living things on the Earth
could be actually (and not just apparently) designed - and that the
design might be detectable. Dawkins thereby concedes the central claim
of ID, though he insists that the designers - if there were any - must
have been highly evolved space aliens, not God.<a href="#pgfId=936091" class="footnote">
2</a>
</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936006">
</a>However, I would challenge one aspect of
this quote. It is true that Dawkins does concede the central claim of
ID, but with an important caveat. If the discussion of intelligent
design is used to prove the existence of a being who had no material
origin, such as God, then the discussion is outside science because
science can only investigate material causes. The use of science to
prove such a being as G-d exists is outside the purview of Science.
This would be a misuse of Dawkins' admission in a science classroom.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936176">
</a>However, what Dawkins does permit which
should please ID, if it would but change its objectives somewhat, is
that such discussions about the G-word could take place outside
Science. For example, the notion of G-d could be entertained and
discussed by experts in Metaphysics or Natural History. They could
debate whether this Alien Intelligence is singular, eternal,
non-materialistic or the opposite. But it is clearly not possible in
Science to prove the existence of a non-material being without
causation in our realm. Hence, ID can never be solely scientific in its
propositions if the objective is to prove the existence of God as
classically defined. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936255">
</a>On the other hand, ID claims it does not
seek to prove the existence of God. However, the judge in Pennsylvania
was not convinced in the Dover case. He did not think ID had divorced
itself from such a religious agenda. The judge deemed the teaching of
ID in the classroom as inherently religious.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936259">
</a>Indeed, many ID theorists do seek to
argue that Science is too narrowly defined to omit any discussion of
intelligent design. Yet, in context, it is clear they never were
arguing to prove an Alien Intelligence Theory, as Dawkins concedes is a
worthy avenue of Science They were evidently upset that the proof of
God's existence was being ignored. This is what convinced the judge in
Dover that ID had a religious agenda, and its teaching was a
surreptitious means to impose religious belief on children in violation
of the First Amendment.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936180">
</a>Hence, truly, if ID wants to be accepted
in Science, it must take Dawkins at his word and agree to his
appropriate limitations. If we solely opined about an alien
intelligence, then we are within Science. Any other kind of discussion
about G-d belongs in metaphysics or natural history courses, and not in
a Science classroom. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936446">
</a>However, ID believes that by being vague
on what is the Intelligence&nbsp;that designed a particular phenomenon,
it cannot be accused of being religious. This is not true. Being vague
is what opens the door to the student to imagine Science can posit a
non-material conscious being as a cause (i.e., God), and that His
existence can be just as scientific as a theorem that assumes an alien
which evolved on another planet did so. Yet, science cannot be so
vague, and hope to be called Science. It must specify a materialist
origin for intelligence as its assumption or it has lost its scientific
bearings.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936208">
</a>Thus, now that the door has finally been
opened by the leading evolutionist -- Dawkins, we now can pass through
it in a responsible manner. We can still be good scientists even if our
faith is driving our desire to find intelligent design. We must restate
our position as seeking to prove an Alien Intelligence, not Intelligent
Design. In this process, we can develop scientific evidence that is
useful in a course on Metaphysics or Natural History to determine
whether this Alien Intelligence is personal, eternal, all-powerful,
etc., or the opposite. But to use Science in a Science classroom to
prove directly or indirectly (by vagueness) a being whose
causation/origin cannot ever be explained by Science is to misuse
Science. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936209">
</a>Hence, in light of Dawkins' Alien
Intelligence Theory, we can see that the debate is not really about
design. All evolutionists know in their heart they are looking at
design in DNA. They can call it apparent design, a marvel of
trial-and-error, or whatever pleases them which keeps out the idea of
the G-word in science. But now that Dawkins has opened everyone's mind
to posit design as the product of consciousness of a material evolved
origin, we can now formulate a true theorem to explore the question. It
is no longer out of bounds. So what is the theorem that proves an Alien
Intelligence?</p>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
<a name="pgfId=936347">
</a>
The Right Theorem to Prove Intelligent Causation</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936225">
</a>
One can prove relevant actual design by an Intelligence beyond this world in the ancient past by proof of an ingenious design. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936221">
</a>Behe came close to suggesting the right
theorem of proof. He was trying to explain that the flagella of a
bacteria proves intelligent design. However, Behe came about this from
the premises of evolution. He thought the idea of simultaneous
evolution of multiple interworking parts begged credibility, and hence
it was intelligently designed. But this overlooked (or obscured) the
more important fact of the amazing design and engineering skill in the
various parts of the flagella. Demski and others like him focus on high
levels of improbability to prove intelligent design along with
specificity of information-rich biological entities. They believe it
can be mathematically quantified and determined.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936232">
</a>But the real proof of intelligent design
is, and always will be, ingenious&nbsp;design. No amount of statistics
or powers-of-trial-and-error can ever cross such a barrier. If we find
something that exists in nature which requires ingenuity to exist, then
we have ruled out it was the product of non-conscious processes, e.g.,
evolution. If it takes a Ph.D. to reverse engineer the irridiscence of
a butterfly, or it would take several Craig computers to fold a single
protein in a living cell in a trillion years (which your body does in
under a second for thousands of proteins), then we are talking about an
ingeniousness well beyond the power of trial-and-error.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936210">
</a>On the other hand, the evidence in this
book about ingenious design will no doubt provide information to help
answer in Metaphysics whether the designer is God or some Alien life
from another planet. But it is beyond the purpose of this book to
venture into such a metaphysical discussion. This book is all about
Science. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936384">
</a>Indeed, this book intends to stay within
the classic definition of Science. It plans to take advantage of the
breakthrough that Dawkins' admission provides. We can now engage in a
constructive sensible scientific investigation into the quality of
design in the universe, life, etc. </p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
<a name="pgfId=936388">
</a>
Disproofs of God Which Dawkins Offers Become Irrelevant</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936277">
</a>What this also means is that all of
Dawkins' disproofs of intelligent design based on imperfections in
nature fall away as irrelevant. What Dawkins was attacking was the
religious assumption that was unexpressed but always present in the
first intelligent design movement. Now, if we pass into the second
phase, as I suggest, which expressly divests itself from any religious
agendas and replaces them with solely scientific agendas, Dawkins'
comments become irrelevant. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936392">
</a>Thus, if we make this transformation, it
becomes insignificant whether the Panda's thumb is, in Dawkins' view,
defective. In a Science classroom, we are not trying to determine
anything about the characteristics of the Intelligence on another world
that would answer whether it is or is not G-d as classically defined.
If the Panda's thumb is poorly designed, Dawkins is hoping to prove the
designer could not be G-d by classic definition. However, that debate
on the significance of the Panda's thumb belongs outside Science. It
involves the metaphysical question on the nature of the designer. What
we want to know in Science on this topic is whether there are parts of
the Panda that require an ingenious&nbsp;designer, i.e., there are
parts which could not conceivably be the product of trial-and-error. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936355">
</a>Hence, our response to Dawkins must now
be wiser in the transformation I propose. We will not take the bait of
Dawkins' argument any longer. Instead, we will recognize his arguments
about the Panda's thumb belong in the Metaphysics classroom. In that
classroom, we will devise objective theorems on how to prove whether
this alien intelligence which can now be proven and recognized in
Science fits or does not fit the classic qualities of G-d. Any alleged
imperfection of some designs in nature belongs to metaphysics. Science
only cares whether certain designs match the level of what we call
ingenious, and hence are the hand of an Intelligence not of this world.</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1">
<a name="pgfId=936283">
</a>
<div>
<img src="CreatedbyIngeniousDesign-1.gif">
</div>
Of Miracles and Other Quotes On the Defiance of Physics</h1>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936361">
</a>One of the dead giveaways that
Intelligent Design had a religious agenda was how it accepted
evolutionists' leaps into pro-G-d statements. For example, Crick says
that given the extraordinary improbabilities of an evolutionary origin
of the DNA code and life itself, it almost appears life is a "miracle."
The ID person quotes Crick and then leaves it there. The ID person
wants the reader to think G-d did it. Crick's words are treated as a
glorious admission. Then the ID writer exploits the quote to its
height. However, the use of the quote thereby crosses the boundaries of
Science into Metaphysics.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936291">
</a>
What do we do with such quotes in a revised ID movement that focuses on proof of Ingenious Design by an Alien Intelligence?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936295">
</a>We must confess in such a quote that a
metaphysical aspect is inter-twined with a scientific aspect. We draw
out the science, and post-pone the metaphysical. We scrupulously remind
our reader that the objective here is to prove whether an alien
intelligence which evolved in some other part of existence consciously
designed the natural phenomenon at issue. That's Science. We must
address quotes such as the one from Crick carefully. We must tell the
reader that the quote means a discovery of ingenious design is under
discussion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936398">
</a>What Crick did was make a leap in logic,
and call it a miracle which in popular connotation means a divine being
did it. This was before Dawkins gave anyone a scientific way to speak
about such phenomena. What Crick is recognizing is that life represents
an amazing set of improbabilities and it appears virtually self-evident
that it was a miracle, but whether such a marvel of engineering and
encoding implies a divinity should no longer be the point of our
quotation. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936402">
</a>Instead, to be scrupulous, we must tell
the reader that there is no basis in Science as defined to leap to the
conclusion that because it was a miracle in one sense that we should
say science is studying God's miracles. Only metaphysics can posit such
a being's existence as classically defined, and hope to prove his
existence by appropriate theorems. The quote from Crick is still
useful, but we must keep the discussion to purely scientific questions.
The caveats must be given each time so that the discussion is
maintained as rigidly scientific.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936299">
</a>This transformation of the Intelligent
Design movement into a movement called Ingenious Design by an Alien
Intelligence (IDAI) movement must be honest. When I discuss this with
Christians, they hesitate. They do not want to engage in the discussion
if it means talking about an alien intelligence. But this is only due
to religious presupposition. They only want to discuss and prove a
personal G-d. But this new definition of the endeavor based on Dawkins'
admission troubles that agenda. The Judge in the Dover case was right. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936410">
</a>However, we as a community of Christians
can only prove the judge wrong by changing our Scientific agenda into a
purely Scientific Agenda, and then by placing our secondary agenda
inside of a Metaphysics or Natural History classroom. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936366">
</a>Once that transformation is made,
Ingenious Design can enter the classroom as a scientific discussion. I
share as much hope that this will lead to a metaphysical discussion of
whether such intelligence is divine or not. But I cannot let my biases
influence what I define as Science. If I do so, I am merely trying to
take what is a Metaphysical discussion and label it as Science so I can
elevate the credibility of my belief in G-d. But if I truly respect
G-d, I must approach the proof using proper stages of argument.</p>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
<a name="pgfId=936422">
</a>
This Means We Are Taking Chances</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936325">
</a>One of the other reasons we do not want
to do this is because there is a risk in such an endeavor. It may turn
out that in Metaphysics that the theorems will prove an Intelligence
unlike what we presuppose matches the classical definition of G-d. At
this point, I don't know. Science that proves Ingenious Design in this
book has not yet given me the answer. None of us have yet
systematically studied the evidence for Ingenious Design in the context
of metaphysical theorems. Thus, we don't know yet what kind of designer
such analysis will prove. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936370">
</a>Of course, I am excited and hopeful that
the scientific evidence of ingenious design will prove what I imagine
is the classical definition of G-d. But there is a risk that it will
not prove that, and I will be disappointed. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936440">
</a>Yet, regardless, not knowing how this
will end does not mean I should not make a beginning. In this book, I
will endeavor to provide the proof that Metaphysics will likely utilize
later to assess the meaning of the proofs of Ingenious Designs from
nature. They do tell alot. We will see the driving ideas behind certain
patterns in natural history which will later no doubt be useful in
determining what kind of Intelligence made this universe and life. </p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1">
<a name="pgfId=936475">
</a>
<div>
<img src="CreatedbyIngeniousDesign-1.gif">
</div>
Concluding Remarks</h1>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
<a name="pgfId=936329">
</a>Thus, if you love Science, I trust you
will love this book. If you love God, this book can raise your hopes
that God's existence and His claims on our life will be accepted by
everyone once Metaphysical theorems are applied to this evidence. I
cannot promise this is the outcome. Proof for the existence of G-d is
not the purpose of this book. But it may just turn out by dividing the
stages in argument as rigidly as I have done, we will finally break the
log-jam, and thus allow people to come to faith through science in
stage two. In that stage, we will examine the same scientific facts
using Metaphysical or Natural History analysis to prove the nature of
the ingenious designer. Hence, I pray this book will richly bless each
one of you, regardless of your current faith or non-faith. Indeed, the
marvels of nature are truly more marvelous than any puny effort of man.</p>
</div>
<hr>
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
1.</span>
<a name="pgfId=936127">
</a>See
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kNu8F01BD9k&amp;feature=related (Richard
Dawkins on "Fresh Air," WHYY on March 28, 2007.) You can listen to the
full program at www.npr.org/templates/story/story.php?storyld=9180871.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
2.</span>
<a name="pgfId=936091">
</a> Jonathan Wells, "Is the "Science" of
Richard Dawkins Science Fiction?, (Discovery Institute, April 21,
2008), at http://www.discovery.org/a/4809 (accessed 6/14/08).</p>
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<title>Calvin and Founding of America</title>
</head>
<body style="color: rgb(0, 0, 0); background-color: rgb(255, 192, 146);" alink="#000099" link="#000099" vlink="#990099">
<h1 class="Heading1">Did Calvin Found America? What Were The Religious Scruples of the Founding Fathers?</h1>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
Introduction</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Those who believe that there is no free-will, such as Calvinists, have
never promoted that there are God-given liberties that no human
government can infringe. There are, however, many Calvinists who
fantasize that they should be given the lion's share credit for the
American Revolution. These claims are ridiculous. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
In 1776, true Calvinists could not support any kind of revolt from the
King of England's rule in the colonies. Calvin insisted that a
Christian owed unjust rulers a duty of obedience unless the ruler
sought to prevent the true worship of God. (Calvin's Institutes
4.20.30-1.)<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930317" class="footnote">
1</a>
Because in the colonies no such prohibition was present, true Calvinists could not support any kind of revolt. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
John Zubly (1724-1781) was a Calvinist preacher and delegate from
Georgia in the Continental Congress. Based upon Calvinist doctrine, he
resisted any kind of independence from Britain.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930334" class="footnote">
2</a>
This call was heeded by the majority of Calvinists. Despite the
presence in the Colonies of significant numbers in the Calvinist
denominations (e.g., Puritan, Presbyterian and Congregational), they
are virtually invisible among the signers of the Declaration of
Independence in 1776, the Constitution of 1789, and the First Congress.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930374" class="footnote">
3</a>
</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
Calvinist Fantasies About A Calvinist-Driven American Revolution</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Despite the statistical evidence, Loraine Boettner in his <span style="font-style: italic;">Calvinism in History: Calvinism in America</span><a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930352" class="footnote">
4</a>
wishes to give the lion's share of responsibility for the American
Revolution to Calvinists. He, in fact, says it was a "Presbyterian"
revolution. However, this is a&nbsp;clearly exaggerated analysis. Most of the `proof' is based on
loose-statements by British enemies of the young colonies. They liked
to blame Calvinists precisely because of the sour-reputation of
Calvinists and their reputation as dissenters in England to the Crown.
By asserting the Revolutionists were Calvinists, the British
authorities could besmirch our Revolution with the bad taint of
Calvinism and make it also appear it was a sedition extension by
domestic opponents of the Crown in England. Boettern then relies upon
historians who then rely upon these weak second-hand claims to weave a
story that is wholly unrealistic. Yet, based on such sketchy evidence,
Boettner makes the following extraordinarily baseless claim: "History
is eloquent in declaring that American democracy was born of
Christianity and that that Christianity was Calvinism." Then, Boettner
quotes the most preposterous claim of all by Ranke, a scholar, who
said: "John Calvin was the virtual founder of America."<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930427" class="footnote">
5</a>
</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
Reality: Calvinism Inspires Tyrannical Behavior</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
One of the most important lessons of the Servetus Affair, and the
aftermath at Geneva, is about the origin of tyrannical behavior. Those
who believe in there being no free will, whether Calvinists or
materialists, will have no reason to resist making themselves tyrants.
Because Calvinism denies free will exists in man at all, true
Calvinists can never imagine by tyrannical behavior that they are
infringing on any God-given inalienable right to freedom of conscience
or thought. This is precisely because without a belief in a free-will,
then how could Calvinists believe a right&nbsp;to free-expression exists? A
right to freedom of religion exists? (This explains Calvin's behavior,
and it explains Fisher Ames' doctrine in 1804 as well, as discussed
below.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
As a result, it should not surprise us to find that except for a very
small number, none of the Founding Fathers of the U.S.A. were known
Calvinists.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
A website eager to find Calvinists among the Founding Fathers concedes there is scant evidence of their presence:</p>
<p class="Quote">
Despite the prevalence of Calvinism among Colonials, most Founding
Fathers were apparently not identified primarily by the label
`Calvinist.' Among all of the people who were signers of the
Declaration of Independence, signers of the U.S. Constitution, and
members of the very first U.S. Congress and Senate, there is only one
man whose religious affiliation is identified as `Calvinist:' Fisher
Ames.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=929974" class="footnote">
6</a>
</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
We have a lot to say about Fisher Ames in a short while.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930298" class="footnote">
7</a>
We will prove that as the lone open Calvinist in the early Congress,
Ames made it clear that he did not share in any of the American values
that shaped the United States Constitution. In 1804, Ames advocated
repealing almost every fundamental liberty of the young nation. He felt
it was an experiment that had run its course. The republic was
teetering upon collapse unless measures identical to those employed in
the Geneva Republic in Calvin's day were quickly put in place.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
Statistical Studies of&nbsp;Founders' Faith</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
If one examines those who signed the original Constitution, and judge among those whose religious affiliations are known,<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=929993" class="footnote">
8</a>
only five were Presbyterian (Calvinist) and one was Congregationalist
(Calvinist in that era). There was only one Lutheran. The remaining 80%
all belonged to denominations that believed in free will, and hence the
sanctity of freedom of conscience. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
If we move past the&nbsp;Declaration of Independence and the Constitution to the first elected
congress, then the numbers improve to 48. This means 29% of the first
congress belonged to Calvinist denominations.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930030" class="footnote">
9</a>
Yet, this leaves a significant 71% belonging to Christian denominations which believed in free-will.</p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle">
Founding Fathers of Denominations Believing in Free Will</h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellHeading">
Denomination</p>
</th>
<th rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellHeading">
Number</p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
Episcopalian</p>
</td>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
17</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
Quaker</p>
</td>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
3</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
Anglican</p>
</td>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
2</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
Methodist</p>
</td>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
2</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
Roman Catholic</p>
</td>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
1</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
Total</p>
</td>
<td rowspan="1" colspan="1">
<p class="CellBody">
25/31 = 80%</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
This is not intended to deprecate the many Presbyterians/Calvinists who
participated in valiant efforts as soldiers and even commanders in our
Revolutionary War. But this evidence proves the spiritual leadership
for the revolution came from Christians of a different stripe. Rather,
what is more fair to say is that the Calvinists in America who desired
to free the U.S. from Britain were numerous although a minority within
the Calvinist churches. They joined the American Revolution because
their motives aligned at significant points with other Christians. For
example, Calvinists had as much interest as anyone in preventing the
Anglican church becoming the official church in the colonies where
religious liberty reigned. Yet, Calvinists, unlike other Christians,
were dreaming of establishing localized Genevas where religion was
forced, mandatory, and rigorously enforced by the judiciary, e.g., as
witnessed at&nbsp;Salem under Winthrop beginning in 1629, etc.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930039" class="footnote">
10</a>
Thus, the Calvinists of America who supported the revolution did not
aspire to a freedom of religion for all citizens. They did not share
the spirit which animated the overwhelming majority of Christians who
were leading the American Revolution. These other Christians wanted
everyone to enjoy a freedom of religion even from an `enlightened' new
Geneva in America. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Consequently, the predominating Christian spirit in the Revolution came
from Christians who believed in human free will. They wanted freedom
from Calvinist church-and-state marriages as much as from any other
kind of marriage of church-and-state. </p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
Proof From Madison Contrasted to Ames</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
The difference between Calvinist Christians and the type of Christian
leading the American Revolution is demonstrable by comparing the views
of the lone self-avowed Calvinist in the early Congress -- Fisher Ames
-- to the views of James Madison. As you may know, Madison was the
actual writer/drafter of our Constitution and Bill of Rights. He is
sometimes called the Father of the Constitution.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
First, we will start with Madison. He
became President in 1809. He was of the stripe of man who regarded the
Christian religion as having been debased when it ever had been
entwined with the civil arm to persecute heretics. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
In 1784,&nbsp;Madison wrote in his Memorial and Remonstrance against Religious
Assessments his rationale for rejecting laws intended to establish the
Christian religion over other religions. In this speech, he declaimed
against the church-state bond that persecuted heretics in ages past
which resulted in "spiritual tyranny":</p>
<p class="Quote">
"During almost fifteen centuries has the legal establishment of
Christianity been on trial. What have been its fruits? More or less in
all places, pride and indolence in the Clergy, ignorance and servility
in the laity; in both, superstition, bigotry and persecution."</p>
<p class="Quote">
"What influence, in fact, have ecclesiastical establishments had on
society? In some instances they have been seen to erect a spiritual
tyranny on the ruins of the civil authority;<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930061" class="footnote">
11</a>
on many instances they have been seen upholding the thrones of
political tyranny; in no instance have they been the guardians of the
liberties of the people. Rulers who wish to subvert the public liberty
may have found an established clergy convenient auxiliaries. A just
government, instituted to secure and perpetuate it, needs them not."<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930064" class="footnote">
12</a>
</p>
<p class="Quote">
"Such a government will he best supported by protecting every citizen in
the enjoyment of his religion with the same equal hand which protects
his person and his property, -- by neither invading the equal rights of
any sect, nor suffering any sect to invade those of another." </p>
<p class="Quote">
****</p>
<p class="Quote">
"Torrents of blood have spilled in the Old World in consequence of vain
attempts of the secular arm to extinguish religious discord by
prescribing all differences in religious opinion. Time has at length
revealed the true remedy. Every relaxation of narrow and rigorous
policy, wherever it has been tried, has been found to assuage the
disease.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930070" class="footnote">"
13</a>
</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
The original purpose of the Founding Fathers in the&nbsp;First Amendment is thus clear. Among other purposes, it was to guard
the state from ever engaging in a Calvinist-scheme of controlling the
religion of man by persecuting heresy using the civil arm of the state.
It is a lesson lost on some prominent Christian voices today like Pat
Robertson.<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930075" class="footnote">
14</a>
</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Instead, Madison wanted a religious liberty which was at total odds
with Calvinist doctrine. It was this spirit at total odds with
Calvinist doctrine which was the fundamental driving force of the
Revolution. The American Revolution was thus not principally made by
those who shared Calvin's values, as Boettner claimed. It was made
primarily by the followers of Christ who saw the crimes of Calvin and
the church over centuries, and never wanted those kind of injustices to
ever be repeated again on the face of this earth. They wanted religious
liberty for everyone.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading2">
Ames' Calvinist Spirit At Odds With Madison's Constitution</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Fisher Ames, the lone self-professed Calvinist in Congress, in 1804 was
the first member of Congress who sought to undo the civil liberties
against religious establishment. He grounded this on Calvinist
doctrine. This demonstrates two spirits within Christian denominations
were at odds with each other. There was the Christian spirit of men
like Madison who wanted religious toleration of all. And then there was
the Calvinist spirit of men like Ames who lost patience very quickly
with the experiment, and suggested its repeal.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
This is set forth with subtlelty in&nbsp;Ames' 1804 The Dangers of American Liberty.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Ames began this piece, like Calvin would, by smearing the entire nation
he lived in as populated by libertines. Ames argued that the country
was suffering from a "licentiousness fatal to Liberty." As a result of
such decline, Ames claimed there has arisen an "hostility to our
religious institutions."<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930130" class="footnote">
15</a>
Then Ames says the cure is to reverse the course whereby our "religious
institutions" have been "abandoned by our laws." But religion, he said,
is the support of all governments. What should the government do now
that it can see that religion institutions are teetering? Ames said
with the government taking no proactive steps, the only basis to
religious institutions is mere habit. Ames says the only reason why
religious institutions have not yet collapsed was due to the
"tenasciousness of ...even a degenerate people" to their "habits."<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930134" class="footnote">
16</a>
</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Hence, in point one, Ames is arguing in a round-a-bout manner for the
state-establishment of religion, just as at Geneva. It is the only way
the laws no longer abandon the cause of religion, and the force of law
restore the languishing, almost dead state of religion (as Ames saw it).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Second, Ames will give us a further step to stop this decline. Speaking
just like Calvin, Ames says we must prefer in the appointment of judges
men who "profess the best moral and religious principles...." (Id. at
356.) In other words, legal acumen is not vital. Instead, because if
point one is established (i.e., state support for religious
institutions), now the judge himself must play a role in enforcing
morals and religious values. Hence, Ames says we need judges so trained
in religious and morals to end&nbsp;the "licentiousness" all about us. Thus,
Ames argued, just like Calvin would, that everyone around them is a
Libertines, and the only solution is to empower judges to enforce
morals and religion. To this end, the church would act as watchdogs of
religious and moral principles to feed fresh charges to the judges on a
regular basis. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Third, the paralell to Calvin's doctrine continues as Ames takes aim at
the press writers. Ames clearly expresses that such men deserve to die
for the words they utter. Rather than the Press serving as a tool to
fight tyrrany, Ames says the "press has been the base and venal
instrument of the very men whom it ought to gibbet [i.e., hang] to
universal abhorrhence." (Id., at 357.) Ames means the press writers
should be hanged for the things they say. Ames would bring back
Calvin's persecution of Servetus-like writers as an everyday occurence
had he the chance.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Fourth and finally, Ames would adopt Calvin's view on democracy. Calvin
said history proves that aristocracy and democracy is the best form of
government. (Institutes 4.8.)<a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.html.htm#pgfId=930471" class="footnote">
17</a>
What would Ames say about that?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Ames said the right to vote improperly belongs now to immoral corrupt
hands who cannot fathom the information necessary to make any informed
decision. "It is in vain, it is indeed childish to say, that an
enlightened people will understand their own affairs." (Works of Fisher
Ames, supra, at 364.) "How are these millions of students to have
access to the means of information?" (Id., at 364.) </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Hence, Ames leaves us to imply only one solution: the right to vote
should be restricted so only an informed elite can vote and elect from
their own elite members, i.e., an aristocracy. </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">
Thus, Ames, as the lone open Calvinist in the early Congress, reminds
us what Calvinists truly believed back then. They shared no agenda in
common with the majority on issues of free-will, freedom of speech,
freedom of the press, freedom of religion, and the right of universal
suffrage. Ames shows us the heart of the Calvinists would have been,
had they been the leaders of the Revolution, to restore the tyrannical
regime at Geneva under Calvin. In fact, it can be truly said that no
principles of liberty in any government was more antithetical to
Calvinist political values than the original United States of America
and its Constitution.</p>
</div>
<hr>
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
1.</span>&nbsp;This flows logically from Calvin's belief that God is sovereign over evil, and directs it. (See <a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20Fathers.#13355" class="XRef">
</a>
et seq.) Thus, to seek to overthrow an unjust ruler is to contravene the sovereign will of God.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
2.</span>&nbsp;"John Joachim Zubly," Wikipedia.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
3.</span>&nbsp;See <a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.#19283" class="XRef">
See Statistical Studies of Founders' Faith</a>
et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
4.</span>&nbsp;http://graceonlinelibrary.org/articles/full.asp?id=70%7C%7C868 (accesed 6/8/08)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
5.</span>&nbsp;Quoted without citation in Egbert Watson Smith, The Creed of Presbyterians (Baker &amp; Taylor Co., 1901) at 119.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
6.</span>&nbsp;"Famous Calvinists," http://www.adherents.com/largecom/fam_calvin.html (accessed 6/5/08).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
7.</span>&nbsp;See <a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20FathersHTML.#18542" class="XRef">
See Ames' Calvinist Spirit At Odds With Madison's Constitution</a>
.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
8.</span>&nbsp;http://www.bizforum.org/FFR.htm (accessed 6/8/08).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
9.</span>&nbsp;http://www.adherents.com/largecom/fam_calvin.html (accessed 6/8/08).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
10.</span>&nbsp;"John Calvin's system was the archetype of Winthrop's. In youth,
Winthrop studied carefully the works of John Calvin." John A. Taylor,
British Monarchy, English Church Establishment, and Civil Liberty
(Greenwood Publishing, 1993) at 34.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
11.</span>&nbsp;It seems most likely that Madison here is specifically referring to Calvin's role in the Servetus Affair.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
12.</span>&nbsp;William Cabell Rives, History of the Life and Times of James Madison
(1859) at 637, top para. and bottom para. However, Calvinists persist
in seeing in Madison "echoes of Calvin." But the idea of
checks-and-balances because of human proclivity to evil is based on
history, and not a religious doctrine of human depravity. </p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
13.</span>&nbsp;William Cabell Rives, History of the Life and Times of James Madison (1859) at 638.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
14.</span>&nbsp;While I strongly admire the spiritual work of Pat Robertson, I find it
troubling he says the "separation of church and state" is a "lie of the
left," and Christians must "work together .... [to win] back control of
the institutions that have been taken from them over the past 70
years." (Pat Roberston, Pat Robertson Perspective (Fall 1991).) Since
70 years ago, there was no official religion in the USA, I therefore
doubt Pat means what this quote sounds like. But Pat is wrong
factually. Our founders did understand the First Amendment to create a
wall of separation. How that was originally meant and how it is often
defined has diverged, and therein lies the problem. See <a href="file:///C:/Servetus/Appendix%20on%20Founding%20Fathers.#18701" class="XRef">
</a>
and accompanying text.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
15.</span>&nbsp;Ames, "Fisher Ames 1758-1808: The Dangers of American Liberty," in
Charles S. Hyneman, American Political Writing During the Founding Era:
1760-1805 (1983) vol. 2; Works of Fisher Ames (Little Brown, 1854) at
345, 356.</p>
<p class="Footnote">
Ames is an excellent writer, filled with brilliant wit. When Fisher
Ames talks about the dangers of democracy, as distinct from a
republican form of government, he is excellent. Yet, he saw the USA as
overcome by "democratic licentiousness" (Id., at 348), and that some of
the experiment had to be reversed.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
16.</span>&nbsp;Works of Fisher Ames (Little Brown, 1854) at 356.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote">
<span class="footnoteNumber">
17.</span>&nbsp;However, Calvin said that Scripture supports that obedience should only
be given "one man" to "whose will all others are subjected."
(Institutes 4.7.) </p>
</div>
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<big><big><big><big>Christmas &amp; Easter Errors</big></big></big></big><br>
<br>
<big><big>Does the Bible affirmatively prohibit a Christmas tree? Is
the portrayal of a person known as Santa Claus idolatrous by
Biblical-definitions?<br>
<br>
Does the name and worship-timing of Easter dishonor God?<br>
<br>
The answer to all three is <span style="font-style: italic;">yes</span>.<br>
<br>
<a href="/Lessons/Christmas%20Trees.pdf">The Christmas Tree (PDF)</a><br>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Gary Says Ananias' Quoting Jesus Proves Paul's Validity</h2>
<h3>Gary's Letter of October 15, 2010</h3>
<p>God himself chose Paul and said: Acts 9:15-16 "But the Lord said to him,: and "Go, for he is a chosen vessel of Mine to bear My name before Gentiles, kings, and the children of Israel. For I will show him how many things he must suffer for My name's sake."<br /><br />I'd say that sticking to Paul's teachings, that have withstood both tests and trials throughout two millennia, is better than to hold on to what some theologian has to say (Quote 2).</p>
<h3>My Reply</h3>
<p>As to the quote in Acts 9:15, how do you know Ananias is a prophet? I point out in my book that there is 0% evidence. In all other Scripture, a prophet must be proven, and not assumed. God gives specific tests so we are not misled, <em>e.g</em>., Deut. 13:1-5.</p>
<div></div>
<p>Thus, based upon a claim of Ananias as a prophet you then invest someone else who has no proof of prophecy -- Paul -- and you by circular evidence have made Paul a prophet by means of an unsubstantiated assumption that Ananias is a prophet.</p>
<p>This is unbiblical reasoning.... What do you think proves a prophet?</p>
<p>Blessings,<br />Doug</p>
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<h2>Dr. P. B. on Jesus's Words Only (December 2010)</h2>
<p>I was forwarded an email where a Dr. PB was asked to review <em>Jesus' Words Only</em> and give his criticism. I will include all of it below interspersed with my comments in blue.</p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>The writer of "Jesus words only" makes a comparison of Balaam to the Apostle Paul which is absurd because they both had a vision. Balaam and Paul were nothing alike and comparing meat offered to idols is ridiculous.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">This miscategorizes my argument, and thus becomes a straw man fallacy. To analyze whom Jesus meant by a Balaam in the NT Church in Revel. 2:14, I compared Paul to Balaam. I am asking the question whom did Jesus intend to identify. While PB makes it sound like the only similarility I draw is that both Paul and Balaam had a vision, this is misleading. Rather, I noted several other similarities: they both said it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols, they both permitted fornication. Balaam did so per Jesus in Rev. 2:14 and Paul did so when he permitted an abandoned wife to remarry without the certificate of divorce (or Paulinists, including apparently Dr. PB, say fornication is permissible now because Paul says the law is abolished); they were both stopped on a road where their vision took place, etc. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">PB then says the vision similarity is "absurd" and the eating idols "similarity" is "ridiculous. But he never articulates why. It is a simple question: are they similar or not? He does not prove they are dissimilar and hence how he deduces these comparisons are 'absurd' or 'ridiculous' is unknown. </span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>He twists scriptures to fit his narrow focus that "salvation by faith alone is clearly refuted." He says, "Salvation by endurance in good works to the end is crucial besides faith." Hundreds of theologians throughout the centuries have explained in detail from the Bible that salvation is the "gift of eternal life." His doctrine of salvation is more Freewill Baptist or Charismatic. This is why they try to get you resaved every week at church. This is why their statistics look good at the end of the year for the number of conversions. I have debated these guys before and quoting Greek terms goes over their head. So I end up saying, "<strong><em>Your concept of salvation is like a child's toy. You have it one day and the next day you can lose it</em></strong>." I think this viewpoint has more to do with their psychological issues than theological correctness. They have a fear of failure so they match their theology with their sporadic behavior (cognitive dissonance). What is interesting is that when I was in seminary, I read a review in a "Psychological Christian Journal" which said that in researching, many who hold this view are<strong> guilty of sexual moral issues</strong> and tend to be depressed more than any other target group in America (Christian bi-polarism).</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">This mocks the admitted plan of salvation in the Original Testament (OT) -- you have it one day and lose it by sin. He mocks this as a "concept of salvation like a child's toy." However, Ezekiel 33 makes it absolutely crystal clear that what Dr. PB mocks was the OT plan of salvation:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;"><sup>8</sup> When I say to the wicked, You wicked person, you will surely die, and you do not speak out to dissuade them from their ways, that wicked person will die for<sup>[<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Ezekiel+33&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-21289a" title="See footnote a">a</a>]</sup> their sin, and I will hold you accountable for their blood. <sup>9</sup> But if you do <em><strong>warn the wicked person</strong></em> to<em><strong> turn from their ways</strong></em> and they do not do so,<em><strong> they will die for their sin</strong></em>, though you yourself will be<strong><em> saved</em></strong>.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;"><sup>10</sup> “Son of man, say to the Israelites, This is what you are saying: “Our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are wasting away because of<sup>[<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Ezekiel+33&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-21291b" title="See footnote b">b</a>]</sup> them. How then can we live?”’ <sup>11</sup> Say to them, As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they<strong><em> turn from their ways</em></strong> and<em><strong> live</strong></em>. Turn!<em><strong> Turn from your evil ways!</strong></em> Why will you<strong><em> die</em></strong>, people of Israel?</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;"> <sup>12</sup> “Therefore, son of man, say to your people, If someone who is righteous disobeys, that persons former righteousness will count for nothing. And if someone who is wicked repents, that persons former wickedness will not bring condemnation. The righteous person who sins will not be allowed to live even though they were formerly righteous.  <sup>13</sup> If I tell a righteous person that they will surely live, but then they trust in their righteousness and do evil, none of the righteous things that person has done will be remembered; <strong>they will die for the evil they have done</strong>. <sup>14</sup> And if I say to a wicked person, You will surely die, but<em><strong> they then turn away from their sin and do what is just and right</strong></em>— <sup>15</sup> if they give back what they took in pledge for a loan, return what they have stolen, follow the decrees that give life, and do no evil—that person will surely live; they will not die. <sup>16</sup><strong> None of the sins that person has committed will be remembered against them. They have done what is just and right; they will surely live.</strong></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Hence, in the original testament from God, sinners are restored to life by repentance; and the righteous pass over into death by sin until they repent again. This is the plan of salvation that Dr. PB mocks as a "child's toy" which can come and go.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Following Dr. PB's reasoning about my motives, Ezekiel must have had some terrible sexual perversion that drove him psychologically to this message. But Ezekiel was a prophet, and Dr. PB's reasoning is itself a perverse scorning of the righteous plan at least in the OT. If it changes in the NT (I don't think so) is a different question. But no one can mock this plan of salvation without mocking God.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"> I regard, frankly, this comment by Dr. PB as blasphemy. In the OT any insult on the goodness of God is blasphemy. To insult God's words that everyone knows was true in OT times as a "child's toy" and suggest those advancing it are guilty of "sexual morass issues" (an Ad Hominem fallacy) is an insult on God's nature (and His prophets who proclaimed His truth) for having instituted this plan of salvation to Israel.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>He makes quotes from the following commentators and twists their words out of context to prove his pretext: A.T. Robertson.  Young.  Charles Stanley.  Martin Luther. Brown-Driver-Briggs. John MacArthur.</p>
<p>Not one of these writers would agree with this guy on his view of salvation and the Apostle Paul.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">I never said they agree with me on my view of salvation or Paul. PB engages therefore in the fallacy of a straw man (i.e., putting a weak claim in the mouth of the one he criticizes) so as to easily knock him down. But PB claims I said something ridiculous that I never said. This is unworthy logic in a serious discussion. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Furthermore, his argument proves I am citing the best quality proof against Paul. I cite witnesses who admire and follow Paul but I found statements where they admit facts that are damaging to Paul's credibility or consistency with our Lord Jesus. Hence, PB helps prove my sources are not my allies, but Paul's friends. And hence I am using sources that are trustworthy to Paulinists because their statements are admissions-against-interest when they do not want to admit problems in Paul's credibility/inspiration.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB:</strong></p>
<p>He makes sweeping generalizations throughout his book which are not true.</p>
<p>He said, "The KJV was a production of Calvinistic puritans." The KJV was not a production of Calvinistic puritans. It was a revision of the Bishops Bible which was affiliated with the Church of England and more Episcopalian and only the Greek "Textus Receptus" was used. I have seen the original KJV Bible in England and most Americans would have trouble reading it. I also have a copy of the Textus Receptus. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bishops%27_Bible</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>:  <span style="color: #0000ff;">While Dr. PB claims I make sweeping generalizations, this deflects attention from the fact that this is exactly what he is doing, not me. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">First, Dr. PB claims that the Calvinists had no hand in this because the compiled Greek text was the "Textus Receptus." But this is misleading, and his proof is actually an admission I am correct.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Dr. PB is correct the translators chosen by King James to do the King James Bible relied in translating the Greek New Testament on a compiled form of the Textus Receptus. However, contrary to what PB implies, this too was connected with Calvinists. The edition of the Textus Receptus they used was the version published in 1598 by Beza, the head of the Calvin Institute at Geneva. A scholarly article lists all the strange variants in this version of the Textus Receptus by Beza of the Calvin Institute -- a compilation of hundreds/thousands of Greek NT mss. It then says: </span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><strong><em>Codex Bezae Cantabrigiensis</em></strong> [<em>i.e.</em>, a version of the Textus Receptus] contains some extraordinary readings.<sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Codex_Bezae#cite_note-10"><span>[</span>11<span>]</span></a></sup> Below is a comprehensive enumeration of those readings, with text and translation. ("<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Codex_Bezae">Codex Bezae</a>," <em>Wikipedia</em>.)</p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">One extraordinary effort at tampering is the omission of Matt. 5:20--that one's righteousness must exceed that of the Pharisees to enter heaven. There is no known Greek mss that deletes this, but Beza did so. See "Codex Bezae," <em>Wikipedia</em>. This verse is a thorn for those who do not like the message of 5:19 that the "least" in the KOG teach not to obey the Law, and Jesus depicts the Pharisees in that way in Matt. 23:23. Hence, those who oppose the Law's relevance are not entering heaven if Jesus spoke 5:20. But Beza deleted it in his "Textus Receptus." Fortunately, the KJV translators did not allow Beza's brazen deletion to stand. But it shows you what chicanery was afoot. Likewise, Beza deleted "bound in heaven as on earth" --- with no mss support -- from Matt. 18:18 ("Codex Bezae," supra) for doctrinal reasons, which again the KJV translators realized and did not follow.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Moreover, even though the KJV translators were alert to Beza's trickery in assembling his version of the Textus Receptus, the King James translators did use the fact that the Calvin Institute did an English-language Geneva Study Bible in 1599 as grounds to <strong>wholesale adopt from it extraordinarily biased mistranslations in the KJV which supported Calvinism in place of traditional readings from the English Bishop's Bible</strong>. (See the long list below.)</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Second, Dr. PB claims the KJV was not a production of Calvinists. But the fact it was is beyond dispute. Some history will help clarify.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">King James himself was a Calvinist. He was the King of Scotland since 1567—long before becoming the King of England in 1603 upon the death of the English Queen. And when he reigned over England, he simultaneously was reigning over his homeland of Scotland. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">As King of Scotland, James superintended a state system that had already made the church founded by John Knox—the Presbyterian church—the<em><strong> state official Church</strong></em>. And what was that religion? Knox church was founded upon Calvinism. In fact, Scotland, in 1560, at an official general assembly at Edinburgh, and at the request of John Knox, decreed there <strong><em>“Presbyterian Calvinism was recognized as the established religion of Scotland</em></strong>.” (“Church of Scotland,” Encarta).</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">When King James reign was expanded in 1603 from Scotland to include England, he encountered a state Church of Anglicanism in England. Anglicanism was a Catholic system of masses and such. King Henry in 1529 broke the English Catholic church from Rome simply so he could divorce Catherine and get remarried without the Popes permission. However, when King James took over England, he changed the Anglican official state church in three ways: (1) it was now the official <strong><em>state</em></strong> religion; (2)<strong><em> the Puritans—the names for the Calvinists of England—were installed as the ministers and pastors</em></strong>; and (3) all Catholic aspects were removed. In time, the Anglican church <strong><em>adopted the Calvinist confessions as official credos</em></strong>. And in 1622, James ordered that no preaching was permitted any longer other than quotes from the Lords prayer or the <strong><em>official Calvinist confessions</em></strong>.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">With this context in mind, now lets look at the origin of the KJV. The leading Calvinist of England, John Rainolds, asked the King in 1604 to authorize a new English Bible. There were other English Bibles, but Tyndale and the others were not Calvinist in spirit. The King agreed, and appointed 54 translators. The first editor was Rainolds, who was the leader of the Puritans (British Calvinists) and ran a school for them. He died in 1609. Rainolds was replaced as main editor by Dr. Miles Smith.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Dr. Smith deserves some extended attention, for it might profit us to change the name of the KJV Bible one day to Dr. Smiths Bible. This way we will pay more attention to the actual hand on the Scripture than to some amorphous monarch. Of Dr. Smith, Gustavus Paine in <em>The Learned Men</em> (Thomas Crowell &amp; Co.: 1959) at page 50 writes in a totally complimentary light: </span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;">Because he was the final critic who looked for flaws and <strong><em>smoothed out the whole translation, there is perhaps more of Dr. Miles Smith in the King James version than any other man</em></strong>. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"><span> </span>Paine lets us know that Miles Smith was a Calvinist. At page 49 we read: </span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;">In the end he went over the whole Bible as editor, taking the greatest pains from first to last...Like John Rainolds,<strong><em> Smith was a Calvinist </em></strong>who conformed enough to meet the church of England [pre-James England] halfway.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Thus, the KJVs <em><strong>first editor-in-chief</strong></em>—to use our modern labels—was Rainolds,<strong><em> a Calvinist</em></strong> leader of England—and the <strong><em>second and final editor-in-chief</em></strong> was Dr. Miles Smith, also<strong><em> a Calvinist</em></strong>. Thus, when you find mistranslations that add or subtract words that support Calvinism, then you have every reason to infer these two editors inserted their Calvinist doctrines into the text. In other words, they biased the text. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"><span> </span>When you find such bias, you must conclude the KJV no longer can have authority on matters affecting doctrines that touch on Calvinist doctrine. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">1. You cannot cite the KJV to prove we are not regenerated by faith (a mistranslation of John 1:13) -- Calvinists insist our regeneration is simply an act of God having nothing to do with our will;</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">2. You cannot cite the KJV to prove limited atonement (a mistranslation of 1 John 3:5) -- Calvinists claim Jesus did not die for the whole world but only those God fore-ordained to salvation;</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">3. You cannot cite the KJV to prove we are not ever seen as sinning—so we must be covered always by Christ (a mistranslation of 1 John 3:5, 9); </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">4. You cannot cite the KJV to prove a one-time faith saves (a mistranslation of John 3:16, John 5:24) - the Calvinist contending a faith given us by God just once alone saves us irreversibly;</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">5. You cannot cite the KJV to prove those who one time heard and followed Jesus cannot be snatched from Jesus hand (a mistranslation of John 10:27-29) - the Calvinist contending the one act of regeneration by God saves us and guarantees our once hearing and listening suffices to save us; and</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">6. You cannot cite the KJV to prove that it is hypothetical that one who has renounced Christ is impossible to repent (a mistranslation of Hebrews 6:4-6) -- the Calvinists disputing Arminius who properly translated this verse to prove a Christian in fact can lose grace and salvation.</span></p>
<p><span><span style="color: #0000ff;"> </span></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"><span> </span>In almost any matter touching on salvation doctrine, you cannot rely upon Dr. Miles Smith's Bible—aka the KJV.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB:</strong></p>
<p>It is rather paranoid for him to say that the KJV was "protecting" Paul.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">How can I be expressing paranoia which means I have a persecution complex when I am saying the KJV translators were biased to harmonize Paul to Jesus? It has nothing to do with any feeling of my own to defend myself. It is a puerile attack to smear the mental stability of the person whose writings you are criticizing. A common fallascious argument is known as the Argument of Ridicule. It does not appeal to your reason but rather your fear to be associated with someone labeled 'crazy' or 'paranoid.' </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">What I have said is that Jesus has been mistranslated to sound more Pauline. In the example I discussed of John 3:16 versus Romans 10:9, I showed that our English present continuous tense should have been used in John 3:16 which would have shown a conflict with Romans 10:9. However, if you use the English simple tense for John 3:16 as does the KJV, NIV and others, our English present tense has one sense that it could mean a one-time event and match the aorist Greek tense of Romans 10:9. Hence, by that simple mistranslation step, the conflict between Jesus and Paul is obscured.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Now lets look at what I actually said to which Dr. PB is apparently referring. I explained how Luther was the origin of the wrong tense in John 3:16, but I explained it was partly due to German lacking a continuous tense. Then I said as to Luther's error: "It may have been <em><strong>a subconscious bias. It may have been simple error.</strong></em>" <a href="/JWO/chapter-15-jwo.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/JWO/chapter-15-jwo.html</a> Then I later said the KJV had the option of fixing this as we do have the English continuous tense (and Luther's German does not have such a tense):</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;">In the <a name="marker=464181"></a>German language, Luther could not express the Greek continuous meaning. There is <strong><em>no German verb form equivalent to the <a name="marker=464183"></a>Greek progressive tense</em></strong>, <em>i.e.</em>, the Greek Present Active tense. The German language "has no progressive mood."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464186"> 10</a> Thus, due to a weakness of the German language, Luther could not even unequivocally express a progressive meaning--continues to believe. (<strong><em>The King James translators in 1611 did a<a name="marker=464187"></a>similar slight of hand to believing in John 3:16</em></strong>.)<sup>11</sup> <em>Id.</em></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Then in footnote 11 I wrote:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464190"></a>The 1611 translators could have used the<strong><em> English Continuous Present </em></strong>("is believing"). Instead, they arrived at a translation that effaced the original meaning by rendering the Greek for is believing in John 3:16 as believes. In English, this is the Simple Present tense. In this context, it implies a one-time faith saves. This would have been correct if the underlying Greek had been in the aorist tense. However, the Greek was present participle active. (See Appendix A: Greek Issues.)</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Is this paranoia on my part? Of course not. These are valid points. Even Dr. PB has admitted that I am correctly explaining Greek verb tenses at play. (See next quote.) Dr. PB clearly has chosen verbal insults on my intelligence and emotional well-being rather than to discuss the facts. I have seen this all too often. It should not persuade anyone.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>Most of what he writes is correct about the Greek tenses but his application is all wrong trying to prove his narrow point about Paul being a false prophet. I do not know of a single seminary that would teach such a<em><strong> crazy</strong></em> thing. None of the major commentaries would agree with his "application" of the verses he used.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">PB offers more Argument from Ridicule. It again is being used to fallasciously avoid offering proof. I have said plainly the Greek continuous tenses when Jesus speaks in John 3:16 are at odds with Paul's aorist tense (one time action) in Romans 10:9. Salvation is contingent on continuing in faithfulness, obedience, and hearing (John 3:16; 5:24) if you listen to Jesus, but is complete on a single event of faith if you listen to Paul. (Romans 10:9.) It seems that PB agrees with my understanding of Greek (I did study Greek in school), but he seems to miss the point. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">What is astonishing is that he thinks it is remarkable that none of the major commentaries agree with my "application." Yes indeed, none have drawn the comparison between John 3:16 and Romans 10:9 to prove a contradiction. However, I cited commentaries that agree with me on each verse and the important tense differences. They each independently confirm what I say. They simply do not apply them to prove Jesus and Paul in these two verses are at odds -- visible when the tenses are translated correctly. But that does not prove the application is incorrect. It proves that no one has thought to make the application that I have made. It deserves a reasoned response, not merely jeering that no one thought of this issue before.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>Throughout his book, he has not followed the principles of basic hermeneutics:</p>
<p>HOW TO INTERPRET THE BIBLE</p>
<p>GENERAL PRINCIPLES;</p>
<p>Interpret the Bible on the assumption that it is the only source of authority - II Tim. 3:15-16</p>
<p>Let the Bible interpret itself by examining cross-reference Scriptures - II Tim. 2:15</p>
<p>Let the Holy Spirit guide you in interpretation and application of the Scriptures - Jn. 16:13</p>
<p>Make a distinction between what the Bible records and what it approves - Ps. 119:66</p>
<p>Recognize that the main purpose of the Bible is to change lives and not just to increase knowledge - James. 1:22</p>
<p>Imitate the people and examples found in the Bible only when followed by a command.</p>
<p>Notice the difference between Biblical commandments, Biblical prohibitions, and  Biblical  principles.</p>
<p>Let the Bible be the final authority for all beliefs and doctrines instead of tradition, feelings, experiences, or opinions - Jeremiah. 17:9 ; Gal. 5:24 ; Is. 55:8</p>
<p>Every Christian has the responsibility to interpret the Scriptures for himself - Acts 17:11</p>
<p>A clear passage of Scripture is to be given preference over an obscure passage in interpreting the Bible</p>
<p>GRAMMATICAL PRINCIPLES:</p>
<p>1.  Scripture has only one meaning and should be taken literally but can have many different applications.</p>
<p>2.  Interpret words in the light of their meaning at the time they were written.</p>
<p>3.  Interpret a word in relation to its sentence and context.</p>
<p>4.  Interpret a passage in harmony with its context.</p>
<p>5. Interpret a parable in the light of its central truth.</p>
<p>6.  Interpret passages dealing with prophecy literally unless the context or a related passage indicates otherwise.</p>
<p>7.  Recognize the parts of speech used in the passages:</p>
<p>a.  Parable - a short story illustrating a moral lesson</p>
<p>b.  Proverb - a short and wise saying with an obvious truth</p>
<p>c.  Simile - the use of "like" or "as" to compare similar things</p>
<p>d.  Metaphor - a comparison of two or more totally different things</p>
<p>e.  Hyperbole - an exaggerated statement for effect</p>
<p>f.  Irony - the use of words to express the opposite of what one really means.</p>
<p>g.  Personification - to represent a thing as a person</p>
<p>h.  Apostrophe - to address an abstract idea or inanimate object as if capable of understanding</p>
<p>i.  Euphony - a substitution of a pleasant expression for an unpleasant one</p>
<p>j.  Type - a person, thing, or event which was literally true but also symbolizes or represents someone or something yet to appear in the future. They are: persons, institutions, offices, events, actions, or things.</p>
<p>HISTORICAL PRINCIPLES:</p>
<p>1.  Scripture can be only understood in the light of biblical history. Answer the questions: who, what, when, where, why, and how?</p>
<p>Who</p>
<p>1.  Who is the writer of the book?</p>
<p>2.  Who is speaking in the passage?</p>
<p>3.  Who is being addressed?</p>
<p>What</p>
<p>1.  What is the central truth or main theme of the passage?</p>
<p>2.  What is the key verse?</p>
<p>3.  What is the promise to claim?</p>
<p>4.  What does this passage mean to you?</p>
<p>5.  What action does this passage want you to take?</p>
<p>When</p>
<p>1.  When was the book written?</p>
<p>2.  When is the passage talking about (past, present, or future)?</p>
<p>What time of the year is it?</p>
<p>3.  When in history did the events in the passage occur?</p>
<p>Where</p>
<p>1.  Where was the book written?</p>
<p>2.  Where did the events in the passages occur (country, city, etc.)?</p>
<p>Why</p>
<p>1.  Why was the book written?</p>
<p>2.  Why did the people do what they did?</p>
<p>How</p>
<p>1.  How is the person speaking (serious, sarcastic, etc.)?</p>
<p>2.  How can you apply to your life what you learned?</p>
<p>3.  How can you specifically change your attitudes or actions after studying this passage?</p>
<p>2.  Look to the Old Testament to aid in interpreting the New Testament.</p>
<p>3.  Historical facts or events become symbols of spiritual truths only if the Scriptures so designate them.</p>
<p>4. Determine the significance of the passage in its historical setting. Examine the geography of the land, cultures, and customs of the people that are related to the passage.</p>
<p>THEOLOGICAL PRINCIPLES:</p>
<p>1. Before you can understand the meaning of the Bible, you first must examine and understand the grammar of the text.</p>
<p>2.  A doctrine cannot be considered biblical unless it sums up and includes all that the Scriptures say about it.</p>
<p>3.  Accept biblical doctrines even though you may not fully understand them.</p>
<p>4.  A teaching merely implied in Scripture may be considered biblical when a comparison of related passages supports</p>
<p><strong>My reply</strong>. <span style="color: #0000ff;">My point is we must first determine canon before we determine doctrine. If something does not belong in canon, it must be removed before we develop doctrine from it. The above series of directions from Dr. PB <strong>apply only to authenticated canon</strong>. But until it is authenticated, these principles are improper. Dr. PB's view will perpetuate the error of long centuries of approving the canon based upon what we like, what doctrine we prefer, etc., rather than basing it on a Biblical-test that qualifies it as inspired.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Canon history thus is where I start in my book, not heremeneutics. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">What happened in the long period prior to the Protestant Reformation is the Roman Catholic Church created a canon that matched their doctrines rather than decide on a canon for its authentic Biblically-qualified origin first, and then let that decision shape doctrine. As Wescott who compiled the Greek manuscripts in the late 1800s said: “It cannot be too often repeated, that <strong><em>the history of the formation of the whole Canon</em></strong> involves little less than the history of <em><strong>the building of the Catholic Church</strong></em>.”</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>He really has an obsession about fornication for some reason that sounds more psychological than theological. His debate about the meaning of fornication goes to rather a ridiculous extreme viewpoint because what he says has no practical aspect today. Half of all Christians today get a divorce and remarry as a real fact unfortunately. To be specific, 52% of unsaved get a divorce and 53% of Christians get a divorce. So you have a 1% greater chance of getting a divorce as a Christian today.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">We find here more effort at Ad Hominem and Ridicule, suggesting a "psychological" reason for my paying attention to the issue of fornication. But Dr. PB knows better that I discuss fornication for a very serious reason. I cite Revelation 2:14 where our Lord Jesus said Balaam taught the Israelites to eat meat sacrificed to idols and to fornicate. Jesus says in that verse there is someone "like" Balaam among us in the NT. I am simply searching to find him. (Would PB say the same of our Lord that His attention to this issue of fornication suggests a pyschological defect in our Lord? One must wonder.) In the book JWO, I spend time proving Paul like Balaam permitted eating meant sacrificed to idols and fornication, or, as to the latter, it is perceived by eternal security advocates (like PB) to say Paul permits fornication as the Law is abolished. Thus, I was making was a very serious comparison, and one that Dr. PB does not properly respond to.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Now pay very close attention to the fact that<strong> Dr. PB himself implies that fornication is no longer a big deal</strong>, and it is impractical to address it any longer. He says Christians have become so much like the world in behavior that <strong>fornication can no longer be addressed</strong>, implying it should not be any longer our concern. A true Pauline approach, as Paulinism says the Law is dead to us. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">I can only deduce that Dr. PB indeed is another Paulinist besides the one I quoted in JWO (Mr. George) who agrees that Paul permits fornication. Dr. PB appears to be saying my attention is out-dated and I could never change the Christian community to think fornication is wrong. Dr. PB believes our Christian community is so far gone and so much like the world that it has "no practical aspect today." </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Specifically, do you see above where Dr. PB says I have a "ridiculous extreme viewpoint" because my focus on fornication "has no practical aspect today"? He says Christians divorce and remarry just like anyone else. There is a 1% improvement in being a Christian. He seems to imply that talking about fornication is outdated given Christians are conformed to a lifestyle that cannot practically be altered any more. Oh goodness me!!</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Dr. PB has proved my point. <em><strong>Paulinists permit fornication</strong></em>. I proved numerous quotes from Paulinists who say Paul meant that fornication, among other things, was permissible when he said the Law was abolished. It just might not be expedient, but these Paulinists I quoted said fornication was permissible --- relying upon Paul's words. Here you have it --<em><strong> more proof from Dr. PB</strong></em>.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>PART TWO</strong></span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB.</strong></p>
<p>His assertion that Paul was converted on the road to Damascus and later apostacized is absurd. The Bible does not agree with him nor does 2000 years of Christian history.</p>
<p>Church Tradition teaches that St Paul suffered martyrdom in Rome and was beheaded, whence the sword is his symbol.</p>
<p>According to Eusebius: "When the government of Nero was now firmly established, he began to plunge into unholy pursuits, and armed himself even against the religion of the God of the universe... Thus publicly announcing himself as the first among God's chief enemies, he was led on to the slaughter of the apostles. It is, therefore, recorded that Paul was beheaded in Rome itself, and that Peter likewise was crucified under Nero. This account of Peter and Paul is substantiated by the fact that their names are preserved in the cemeteries of that place even to the present day."</p>
<p>If the Apostle Paul was an apostate prophet and was martyred for his "weak (apostate)" faith then we are all in trouble. When I have asked Christians throughout my ministry, "Who is the greatest Christian the last 2000 years, they usually say "the Apostle Paul."</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">Dr. PB has not proven that Paul did not apostasize later. If Paul taught fornication were permissible due to the fact "the Law is dead to us" and we can eat meat sacrificed to idols, I do not see the fact Paul was killed for his faith as inconsistent with saying Paul apostasized. I did not say Paul stopped being a professing believer in Christ. Paul had a <strong>unique view that he could hold these apostate anti-Law views and still profess and teach Christ</strong>. A nonbeliever would not recognize that Paul's apostasy would be a reason to spare him from persecution. Paul would be martyred along with all other professing Christians. Dr. PB has cited therefore irrelevant facts that do not prove Paul did not apostasize.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Notice also that Dr. PB says if what I say is true, then Paul was martyred for his "weak faith." When did I say that? Another Red-Herring fallacy. Instead, in my book, I said I accept Paul was truly martyred for his faith. But again, non-Christians who kill us have no insight as to our disputes, and would martyr Paul for reasons other than his apostasy. Hence, that fact of martyrdom for Paul's faith proves nothing on this issue of whether Paul taught these two doctrines similar what Balaam taught.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>He takes several complex theological issues like the eternal security of the believer, what is fornication, and what is idolatry and combines them in a complicated manner. Many denominations have argued about these things for years using much greater arguments than this writer. But a clear verse always takes precedence over an unclear verse:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">John 3:16 "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life NIV</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">1 John 5:13 I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may know that you have eternal life. NIV</p>
<p>No matter how hard he tries, he cannot change or twist the meaning of the word "eternal." He just takes obscure verses whose interpretation is not clear. His doctrinal views are more Freewill Baptist. This is the why the denomination is dying very fast.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">I cannot be sure of his point. Is it about the word "eternal"? Or is it that these verses are supposed to support eternal security on a one time belief? I suppose the latter. With that assumption, I will respond.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">I demonstrated in JWO that the Greek word rendered as "believe" meant "continued to" and whatever the word means, either <em>believe</em>, <em>trust</em>, etc. Thus, it is not one time and now you are "eternally" saved, as Dr. PB apparently wishes to assert.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"> In <em>Jesus's Words on Salvation</em>, which I wrote second, I also demonstrated that the best scholarship concurs that in John 3:16 that it has the meaning of "obey unto" not "believe in." It is <em>pisteousin</em> followed by EIS, not EN. And John 3:36 -- 20 verses later -- makes this clear with an antithesis to<em> pisteousin</em> by the word for disobedience (<em>apitheo</em>). And I offered many more proofs, including the Septuagint usage of <em>pisteousin</em> (which is how modern scholars in the first place found the error in supposing <em>pisteousin</em> always means believing). I devote an entire chapter to proving this -- Chapter 26. See <a href="/JWOS/freejwoschaptersonline.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/JWOS/freejwoschaptersonline.html</a></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Incidentally, if you read 1 John 5:13, that verse uses the identical construction as John 3:16 -- "pistousin eis" -- meaning who "continue to obey unto the name / Son" etc. Thus, for the same reason, Dr. PB is in error in how he reads that verse.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong></p>
<p>His interpretation of the doctrine of Balaam is way out in left field. The historical and traditional meaning of Rev.2:14 is found in Clark's commentary:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Revelation 2:14</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The followers of Balaam, the Nicolaitanes, and the Gnostics, were probably all the same kind of persons; but see the note at verse 6. What the doctrine of Balaam was, see the notes at Num 24-25, and 31. It appears that there were some then in the church at Pergamos who held eating things offered to idols in honour of those idols, and fornication, indifferent things. They associated with idolaters in the pagan temples, and partook with them in their religious festivals. (from Adam Clarke's Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright © 1996, 2003, 2005, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">Clarke is not expositing on the verse here. He is telling you what was going on in the world at that time. Clarke admits Clarke is guessing on the full scope of their behavior by saying it "appears" to be x, y and z. Clarke does not know. Clarke is <em>guessing. </em> It is an educated guess, but it is still a guess, and Clarke does not conceal that fact.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB.</strong> In the first century, meat was purchased in the marketplace similar to many countries of the world today- not at a grocery store. There was no practical way to determine if the meat they bought had been offered to idols or not. This writer is a legalist to the nth degree. He would have rather go hungry than buy any meat in the public market. I agree with Paul in 1 Timothy 4:1-5</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The Spirit clearly says that in later times some will abandon the faith and<strong><em> follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons</em></strong>. 2 Such teachings come through <em><strong>hypocritical liars,</strong></em> whose consciences have been seared as with a hot iron. 3 They forbid people to marry and <strong><em>order them to abstain from certain foods</em></strong>, which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and who know the truth. 4 For everything God created is good, and <strong><em>nothing is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving</em></strong>, 5 because it is consecrated by the word of God and prayer. NIV</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">So Dr. PB makes the silly argument that prohibiting eat meat sacrificed to idols is unreasonable because we would have to go hungry if we could not purchase it in the marketplace. Pure childish argument. There are plenty of foods besides the types of meats sacrificed to idols. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">But I do thank Dr. PB for quoting Paul saying that we can be entirely "indifferent" to all foods we eat, which Clarke above said was the belief of the Nicolatians which Jesus condemned in Rev. 2. So you see, if the Paulinist cites enough authorities from their own allies, they backfire and prove Jesus in other contexts condemns the doctrines of their Paul.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong>. What is really interesting is that this passage of Scripture is addressed to those in the city of Pergmum which had the Pergamon altar or the altar of Zeus. On this altar, humans were sacrificed. In 1878 a German began to excavate this site in Turkey.  Germany actually bought the altar of Zeus and moved it to Berlin where they built the Pergamon museum.</p>
<p>The last 100 years, only 2 people have spoken from the altar of Zeus: 1) Adolph Hitler and 2) Barak Obama http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pergamon_Altar http://www.rumormillnews.com/cgi-bin/archive.cgi?read=151262</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">PB appears to be saying that there was available meat sacrificed to idols in the town in which the recipient Timothy lived. This only further accentuates the libertine message of Paul, making it corroborate the fact of Paul's indifference extended to eating meat sacrificed to idols. How that helps PB's argument, I cannot imagine.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB.</strong> The author was way out in left field about Rev.2:14 referring to Paul's doctrine related to Balaam. Balaam was paid by the King of Moab to tell him what the future was going to be for his kingdom. He wanted to hire him for a fee- Numbers 22:4-7.</p>
<p><strong>My reply</strong>. <span style="color: #0000ff;">How can Dr. PB get something so wrong when he took time to look up the passage? It does not say the King of Moab wanted to know the future. He wanted a curse upon Israel. Click <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=numbers%2022:4-7&amp;version=NIV">here</a> and read.</span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong>. At first he refused to go to the elders of Moab for a "fee of divination' (witchcraft) but Balaam finally gave in because he got greedy and that is when God was angry with him (Numbers 22:8-21).</p>
<p>The sin of Balaam was greed (1 Tim.6:9-10) and using divination to make prophecies (Joshua 13:22) instead of depending on the Holy Spirit. This is the doctrine of the last days with "prosperity theology" who teach this just for money.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>: <span style="color: #0000ff;">Balaam was indeed greedy. But Moses tells us that on this ocassion Balaam did not rely upon divination, but instead the Holy Spirit came upon Balaam several times (e.g., Nu 23:5,12,16, 18-24; 24:1) and Balaam truly spoke a blessing from God. Then Balaam gave the prophecy of Christ about a star rising over Israel which Matthew speaks about regarding the Magi in Matthew ch. 2.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">In fact, here is Numbers 24:1 when Balaam next blesses Israel:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #0000ff;"> <sup>1</sup> Now when Balaam saw that it pleased the LORD to bless Israel, he did not resort to divination as at other times, but turned his face toward the wilderness. <sup>2</sup> When Balaam looked out and saw Israel encamped tribe by tribe, the Spirit of God came on him <sup>3</sup> and he spoke his message:</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Compare this to what Dr. PB said -- Balaam was "using divination to make prophecies...instead of depending on the Holy Spirit." False! God's words are directly to the contrary! </span></p>
<p><strong>Dr. PB</strong>. The Israelites worshipped Baal by having sex with temple prostitutes (fornication), worshipping Baal, and eating meat offered to Baal at the temple. Numbers 25:1</p>
<p>Rev.2:14 is literally true what Israel did at the time of Balaam:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Nevertheless, I have a few things against you: You have people there who hold to the teaching of Balaam, who taught Balak to entice the Israelites to sin by eating food sacrificed to idols and by committing sexual immorality. NIV</p>
<p>This all occurred in the temple of Baal among the Moabites. Balaam was a poor example of serving God and not giving in to greed and compromising with idol worshippers and using divination to predict the future instead of the Spirit of Truth.</p>
<p><strong>My Reply</strong>. <span style="color: #0000ff;">Look at the quote from Jesus provided by Dr. PB from Rev. 2:14. Jesus is absolute in His prohibition with no exception that you could eat such meat at home purchased from a market.</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;"> What Dr. PB tries to do is diminish the words of our Lord by arguing that Jesus supposedly had that intended exception. Why does PB argue this? Because he knows Paul permits eating idol meat and he then apparently reads that to be at home with market-purchased meat. But there is no exception in our Lord's words. That's key. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Thus, Dr. PB saves Paul by diminishing and reading exceptions into our Lord's words. But Jesus says that some <strong><em>false prophet</em></strong> among us is like Balaam and tells us it is ok to eat idol meat. And if Jesus meant us not to look at Paul in this, <strong><em>all Jesus had to say</em></strong> is what Dr. PB says is mentioned in Numbers 25:1 -- that<em><strong> such eating took place at "the sacrifices to their gods."</strong></em> But Jesus does<strong><em> not express such an exception</em></strong>. Hence Jesus does not spare Paul. Jesus is thus <strong><em>obviously pointing directly at Paul.</em></strong></span></p>
<p><strong>My Final Observations to Christians at Large.</strong></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Our Divine Lord Jesus was attacked by His opponents in several ways. They claimed He had a demon, He was out of his mind, that He was a sinner (<em>e.g.</em>, the hand-washing issue, healings on Sabbath), etc. </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Jesus said we are blessed by God when we are persecuted for His name sake. Because a servant is not greater than His master, we can expect nothing better than the same treatment that Jesus received. But Christ has overcome the world. So rejoice when you receive criticism like I received above! </span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">More important, Dr. PB illustrates the modern dilemma for each Christian to make a choice. Dr. PB would keep Paul even if to do so he has to resort to insult, ridicule, and, in my view, even blasphemy (labeling as a "child's toy" what unquestionably was the plan of Salvation in the OT).</span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">Thus, when you see Paul defended in this way, it proves dear brothers and sisters that you have a clear choice whether to follow Christ or Paul. You can see Paul's followers must resort to such tactics to keep Jesus from being the "sole teacher" above any apostle. (Matt. 23:8,10). Hence, <strong>we can clearly see the desperation of those following Paul when Christ challenges them and insists on His prerogative to be the "sole teacher</strong>." It is not a good recommendation for their Paul. Thus, let's continue to follow Jesus and His glorious and righteous teachings as well as example! We still love Dr. PB and show him respect. And we bless him for what in essence are curses, insults and ridicule upon us. Christ commanded us to love our enemies, and we have no option but to treat PB with love. Let's pray for PB as I hope he prays for me.</span></p>
<p>Shalom and the Blessings of Christ, Doug</p> </td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We like to post anonymously emails of appreciation to encourage others who are lovers of Jesus to see questioning Paul is a reasonable position, and does nothing to destroy your love or relationship with Jesus.  So if you write your appreciation in a personal email, we may post it with your first initial of your name under 'Reviews" tab. If you don't want even an anonymous posting, please let me know. Yet, I would hope you would let me share your experience because it serves as a community encouragement to others to strengthen their bonds to Christ. By you sharing how the JWO principle here has helped you or your family, it will help others to walk closer to our Lord. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Under "Reviews" (see tab), there is not only email reviews of the two works I have written -- <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Jesus' Words Only</span> and <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Jesus' Words on Salvation</span>, but also there are professional reviews and online blog commentary of each book. So you may wish to read all the reviews on the Reviews tab.</span></p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Do We Really Have to Endure Persecution &amp; Isolation for these Views?</h2>
<p>C wrote me on July 15th 2012 a heartfelt complaint after suffering persecution for holding to her guns on the issue of Jesus' Words Only:</p>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">Hi Douglas,</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;"></span><span style="color: #660000;">My hubbie and I just got blasted from a friend </span><span style="color: #660000;">regarding the Paul issue this afternoon on Shabbat.  Told us we were going away from truth! </span><span style="color: #660000;">Oh brother!  We really need some others who are on the same page to share and talk.  What is </span><span style="color: #660000;">the use of sharing this info, if in the end you keep getting ostracized and blasted to pieces?  Only </span><span style="color: #660000;">to find yourself further away from any kind of fellowship.  This is not good.  We are to have fellowship </span><span style="color: #660000;">with like minded believers.  Where are they?  No one puts their email out there, or phone numbers </span><span style="color: #660000;">for good reason.  However........</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;"></span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">You must have emails of others who are in the same boat.  I know that others write to you, and</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">all I am asking again and again is please help us with others to have at the very least a phone</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">conversation via conference type call.  No Paulinists allowed, only for us who are totally over the</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">fence with the truth on Paul of T.  A place to fellowship.  There is a type of conference that you can</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">delete someone out if they are unacceptable.  Can't remember the name right now, but let know</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">if you are interested, and I will hunt it down.</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;"></span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">You say you are a Pastor.................a pastor hears the sheep and responds!  I am bleeping hard!!!  Baaaaah......</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;"></span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">Thanks and Shalom once again,</span></div>
<div><span style="color: #660000;">Chelsea</span></div>
<div></div>
<h2>My Reply</h2>
<div></div>
<p><span>C.</span></p>
<p>I outlined how to have a church starting in your own home with your spouse, and spreading it out to others. See our page <a target="_blank" href="/JWO/jesus-on-church-structure.html">Jesus on Church Structure</a>. I explained how you could attend Paulinist oriented churches to fellowship with those who also share a love for Christ (even though often misdirected). See our page <a target="_blank" href="/Recommended-Reading/paulinisttares.html">How to Treat Paulinist Tares</a>.</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p>Due to privacy laws and common decency, I cannot give out other people's information. Sorry.</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p>Turning to your problem, persecution is clearly unpleasant. Jesus endured it and it did not end well in terms of this earthly existence. All His friends abandoned him. His closest apostles denied knowing Him, <em>i.e.</em>, Peter. Even a friend betrayed him unto death, <em>i.e.</em>, Jesus called Judas "friend."</p>
<p>One way to feel less alone and bear persecution for following Jesus is to read the books of those who think like us and endured persecution too.</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p>I recommend you read Dietrich Bonhoeffer <em>Cost of Discipleship</em> and another of his works -- which <strong><em>directly answers your  question</em></strong> -- called "Life Together."  (Bonhoeffer ignored Paul in<em>Cost of Discleship</em>, and Bonhoeffer was obviously influenced by Kierkegaard who criticized any further attention on Paul's writings. See my <a target="_blank" href="/Recommended-Reading/kierkegaard.html">page</a>.)</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p>As Bonhoeffer suffered imprisonment at the end, he says that a Christian life is not supposed to be necessarily one in fellowship with fellow believers. If you have any fellowship with fellow believers, it is solely a gift of grace. "Not all enjoy this blessing" of fellowship, Bonhoeffer said. Instead, Bonhoeffer in <em>Life Together</em> (NY: Harper 1954) written circa 1943 quoted Martin Luther from 1525:</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"The kingdom is to be in the midst of your enemies. And he who will not suffer this does not want to be of the Kingdom of Christ. He wants to be among friends, to sit among roses and lillies, not with the bad people but the devout people. Oh your blasphemers and betrayers of Christ. If Christ had done what you are doing who would ever have been spared?" (Luther)</p>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"></div>
<div></div>
<p>Indeed, the Reformation would never have succeeded unless a few were willing to suffer persecution and isolation. Their original numbers were just 2 -- Luther and Carlstadt. Now there are millions whom they spawned.</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p>Bonhoeffer says Jesus' remark that His followers are to be joined from the four winds in Matt 24:31 implies we are scattered. Bonhoeffer writes:</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Until then, God's people remain scattered, held together solely in Jesus Christ, having become one in the fact that, dispersed among unbelievers, they remember Him in far countries."</p>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"></div>
<div></div>
<p>After saying that it is only a grace of God that gives us any fellowship and many do not have such a blessing, Bonhoeffer says:</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"The imprisoned, the sick, the scattered lonely, the proclaimers of the gospel in heathen lands, stand alone. They know the visible fellowship is a blessing...but they remain alone in far countries, a scattered seed according to God's will." (<em>Id.</em>, at 18-19.)</p>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"></div>
<div></div>
<p>Thus, if you are suffering persecution, count it all joy, as James says. It is a sign you are on the right track. And a servant is not above His master, and since Jesus suffered persecution, so will all those who follow Christ. Jesus however taught us to dust off our shoes and move to the next town. Not that we are weak, but then the pearls you have will no longer be trampled unworthily.</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<p>I hope this helps. Blessings and Shalom,</p>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div>Doug</div>
<div><br />
<div>
<div>PS Incidentally, I refuse to call myself a pastor. Instead, I say Jesus is the pastor. I am trying to teach what Jesus taught, elevating Him back to His rightful position of Pastor over us. I gather comfort from those like Bonhoeffer who share this special attachment to Jesus, and rely only upon Jesus for doctrine. Bonhoeffer went ahead of us into persecution, so I gain strength from knowing this</div>
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<td valign="top" ><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">"The Spirit of the Apostles is</span></span></span></span><strong><em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> not a guide equal or greater than the Lord</span></span></span></span></em></strong><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">, thus </span></span></span></span><em><strong><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">Paul within his letters</span></span></span></span></strong></em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> does</span></span></span></span><strong><em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> not have as much authority as has Christ</span></span></span></span></em></strong><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">." (Carlstadt, </span></span></span></span><em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;">Canonicis Scripturis</span></span></span></span></em><span><span><span style="font-family: arial, helvetica, sans-serif;"><span style="font-size: small;"> (1520))</span></span></span></span></td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>THAT'S BEEN FULFILLED!</h2>
<p>Daniel shared the following humorous story with me in an email:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: Arial;"><span style="font-size: small;">I have been talking to this fellow about Torah and it still being in effect, and he has been talking to his Pastor about it.</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: Arial;">Of course the peacher told him "Jesus fulfilled the law."</span></p>
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<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;">So I told the man "Ok, so lets test this. Tommorrow when the offering plate is passed around, when it comes to you stand up and say 'Pastor, Jesus fulfilled this command therefor it is abolished' and then hand the plate to the next person. "See what your pastor says then!"</span></div>
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<h2>Histerical YouTube on 'Jesus Did not Mean That'</h2>
<div>See "<a href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5mLOUWl-L-s">Jesus and the Interpeter</a>."</div> </td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>How Do I Reconcile OT to NT?</h2>
<p>On July 27, 2012, Cole writes:</p>
<p><span>Hello.  My curiosity is like this:  the god of the old testament seems quite content to damn the vast majority of humanity if for no other reason that the folks don't accept his existence or authority as truth.</span><br /><br /><span>Then Jesus comes along and his take on salvation is quite different.  He suggest that the god loves EVERYBODY, grace seems to be more about being kind to people rather than acceptance of the god and his instructions.  The way Jesus tells it, God's favor is not as exclusive, theres less of this favorite people business.</span><br /><br /><span>So I ask 1) what changed in God between the old and new testaments- as in what do you think changed God's outlook?</span><br /><span>2) What is your theological explanation for this apperent change in a god that is omniscient and perfect?</span><br /><br /><span>The god portrayed in the old testament threatens damnation left and right and is very specific about what the actions are that will get you cast into Hell.  So I ask 3) how do you view the difference in how or why people are damned between the old and new testaments, if any?  4)  Answer me this if you've only got a little time:  what is the difference betwen the god of the Jews at the time and what Jesus said, and ended up being killed for?</span><br /><br /><span>I guess all these questions are pretty interrelated.  But hit me up with what you think.</span></p>
<h2>My Reply</h2>
<p><span>Cole</span></p>
<p>I wrote a book free online proving the old and new testaments do not vary. See Jesus' Words on Salvation -- they were always 3 elements: faith, repentance and obedience. <a target="_blank" href="/JWOS/jesuswordssalvation.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/<wbr />JWOS/jesuswordssalvation.html</a></p>
<p>Paul came with a different Gospel than Jesus, and this is what you are influenced to believe creates a new god versus an old God. I wrote a book proving that Paul is not an inspired voice; was not accepted as inspired in the early church; and mostly was rejected in fact. Later, with Constantine in the 300s wishing to do away with Sabbath, Paul's anti-sabbath passages elevated him to a canonically strong position. For my book on this history and the truth about Paul, see my book free online entitled Jesus' Words Only. <a target="_blank" href="/JWO/jesuswordsonly.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/<wbr />JWO/jesuswordsonly.html</a></p>
<p>I have many recent articles that explain in essence Paul was a dupe of the blinding light figure he met on the Road to Damascus whom he assumed was Jesus but was not. Take a look at this specific webpage:<br /><a target="_blank" href="/JWO/jesus-prophecy-about-who-identified-himself-as-jesus-to-paul.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/<wbr />JWO/jesus-prophecy-about-who-<wbr />identified-himself-as-jesus-<wbr />to-paul.html</a></p>
<p>So I hope that this clears things up -- makes the steps to be acceptable to God easily comprehended -- faith, repentance and obedience. I hope this clarifies that nothing changed in Jesus' teachings about salvation from that original testament principle. A Pauline spin has been superimposed on top of Jesus' teachings, but just reading Jesus proves Jesus clarified misconceptions Pharisees had at the time, simplifying the obligations of the people to what was in the Law versus tradition.<br />Incidentally, for Gentiles, the Law had many fewer demands than on Israelites, and James in Acts 15 points that out about circumcision. (Levit 12:1-3 -- only command to Israel). It was later tradition of some to impose on a God-fearer to be circumcised as well, but James, obviously influenced by Jesus' sharp focus on the Law, noted this is an excessive non-Biblical extension of a Biblical passage.<br />Let me know if this satisfies your question.</p>
<p>Blessings,</p>
<p>Doug</p>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Jesus Was Sent To Israel -- What Does That Tell Us About The Mission to the Gentiles?</h2>
<h3>John's email of August 14, 2012 says:</h3>
<p><span>Jesus is our Lord, I have never found any contradictions in the bible yet. Mat.15:24 is a question for you.</span></p>
<h2>My Reply</h2>
<p><span>John</span></p>
<div>How is Matt 15:24 a question for me? It reads:</div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel."</span></p>
<div>At the same time, Isaiah said the Gentiles have seen a great light. And Jesus taught in His last words to the apostles:</div>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span id="en-NIV-24215" class="text Matt-28-19"><span class="woj"><sup> </sup>Therefore go and make disciples of <strong>all nations</strong>,<sup></sup>baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, <sup></sup></span></span><span></span><span id="en-NIV-24216" class="text Matt-28-20"><span class="woj"><sup>20 </sup>and <strong>teaching <sup></sup>them to obey everything</strong> I have commanded you. And surely I am with you <sup></sup>always, to the very end of the age.”</span></span> (Matt <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+28&amp;version=NIV">28:19-20</a> NIV)</p>
<div>So Jesus gave the original Apostles the task of making disciples of all "<em><strong>nations</strong></em>" (which in Hebrew would be <strong><em>Gentiles</em></strong>), and to "teach <em><strong>them</strong></em> to obey everything I have commanded you."</div>
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<div>Hence, while Jesus was sent to Israel, <strong><em>Jesus sent the original apostles</em></strong> (which means "messenger" in Greek) <strong><em>to the Gentiles to make them disciples and teach all His commands pre-Ascension</em></strong>. Jesus did not contemplate any post-Ascension commands coming from anyone but the original apostles pre-Ascension.</div>
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<div>Do you read this differently?</div>
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<h2>Are Barnabas and Paul Apostles of Jesus Christ Because of Acts 14:4, 14?</h2>
<h3>Adam's Email December 24, 2010</h3>
<p>Hey,</p>
<p>In general, how do you look at the book of Acts (reliable historical witness, purposely skewed to paint Paul in a good light, or what?)?</p>
<p>And specifically, what do you think of Acts 14:14 where Luke uses the term “apostles” for Paul and Barnabas?  Why do you think Luke would have done this?</p>
<p>Blessings,</p>
<p>Adam</p>
<h3>My Response December 24, 2010</h3>
<p><span><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Hi Adam </span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">I think Luke tried to give a balanced -- two-sided view -- of Paul. He was not neutral -- he was a fan. But Luke gave the good with the bad. And thus Acts is suprisingly negative on Paul if you read it with care. See <a href="/Recommended-Reading/early-church-views.html" target="_blank">http://www.jesuswordsonly.<wbr />com/Recommended-Reading/early-<wbr />church-views.html</a>.<br />For Paul to be an apostle of Jesus Christ, we need someone to hear this <em><strong>from Jesus Christ</strong></em> or the other apostles saying <strong><em>that is fact</em></strong>. The three vision accounts in Acts 9, 22 and 26 have Jesus Christ only saying Paul is a MARTUS (witness)--which I have no problem accepting--and does not say APOSTOLOS -- Greek for messenger.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><br />Now as to 14:4, one must realize APOSTOLOS is an ordinary Greek word meaning 'messenger.' One has to see the context to decide whether Luke intended us to understand the title of Apostle of Jesus Christ or not. If <em>of Jesus Christ</em>, then Barnabas should also be regarded as an apostle of Jesus Christ. But the proof no one ever understood Acts 14:4 this way is that no one in early church ever made the claim that Barnabas was an "Apostle of Jesus Christ." We never hear of "Apostle Barnabas." As Melissa Cutler, a fan of Paul and Marcion, even admits:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>"That verse (</span><em>Acts</em><span> 14:14) mentions '</span><span>the apostles Barnabas and Paul</span><span>,' since Barnabas is not an apostle in the more specific sense of the word, even here the author is not acknowledging Pauls status as an apostle." (<a href="http://www.original-bible.com/Root-of-Corruption.html">Marcionite Scripture</a>)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The reason is clear because in context, Paul and Barnabas are simply described in Acts 14:4 as messengers of Antioch church on the issue of circumcision just as Barnabas is described.... They are <em>apostles</em> with a small letter 'a'---not a capital "A"--as Christian scholar Ben Witherington concedes in the quote below.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Here is my extended explanation of 14:4 from fn 6 of my book JWO:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><br /><span><a name="12d1ad9e20d90fbe_pgfId=464155"></a></span><span>Luke does describe Paul and Barnabas as messengers from the church at Antioch. In </span><span><a name="12d1ad9e20d90fbe_marker=464156"></a></span><span><a name="12d1ad9e20d90fbe_marker=464157"></a></span><span>Acts 14:4 and 14, the Greek word for messenger is used for them,</span><span><a name="12d1ad9e20d90fbe_marker=464158"></a></span><span>apostoli. However, as the Christian historian Ben </span><span><a name="12d1ad9e20d90fbe_marker=464159"></a></span><span>Witherington explains: "The use of the term apostoli in [Acts] 14:4 and 14 seems to indicate that Paul and Barnabas are being viewed as agents/apostles of the Antioch church (cf. 2 Cor. 8:23), <em><strong>not apostles with a capital A</strong></em>." (Witherington,</span><span><em>New Testament History</em></span><span> </span><span>(Baker Academic: 2001) at 229.)</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>In fact, the context clearly shows Paul was merely a messenger (<em>apostolos</em>) of the church of Antioch. Paul was not one of the apostoli <em><strong>of Jesus</strong></em>. Even if Luke had called Paul an apostle of Jesus, Luke does not attribute such title as coming from the twelve apostles, or from Jesus in any vision that Paul relates. Thus, it would have been Luke's remark alone. Luke never claims he himself is a prophet. Nor even if he was a prophet, we still lack the second witness. Nevertheless, Luke's meaning was apostoli with a small<strong><em> a</em></strong>. Paul was a messenger from Antioch. That's all. </span></span><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Regardless, I believe Luke was a friend of Paul's, as Paul himself states. But Luke never says he is reporting under inspiration...and in fact disavows that in Luke 1:1 which is part 1 with Acts as part 2 (see Acts 1:1). .... Luke went to witnesses, not the Holy Spirit for the account.... So here Luke is likely relying upon Paul and/or Barnabas for Acts 14:4, but we know of no other. But in the Law, and Jesus's words, a self-witness is not sufficient.</span></p>
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<title>Created by Ingenious Design</title>
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<big><big><big><big>Created by Ingenious Design<br>
<small>by Douglas J. Del Tondo, Esq</small>.<br>
</big></big></big></big>
<br>
<big><big><span style="font-weight: bold;">Rigorously Scientific Assumptions Must Be Employed</span><br>
<br>
Richard Dawkins is the world's foremost defender of orthodox Darwinian evolution.<br>
<br>
Dawkins recently said in a radio interview on <a href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kNu8F01BD9k&amp;feature=related">NPR in 2007</a>
and again in a video&nbsp;interview captured in Ben Stein's <span style="font-style: italic;">Expelled</span>(2008)
that it is a proper scientific endeavor to detect whether&nbsp;life
originated on earth by a designer as long as&nbsp;we&nbsp;posit/assume
this designer
(or designers) evolved elsewhere. With that objective and that
assumption, the
investigation of design-features in life on earth, etc.,&nbsp;would be
a purely scientific venture. It would also fit within Darwinian theory.
That theory assumes and proves, Dawkins claims, the ability to create
consciousness from pure matter by means of trial and error. Thus, as
long as all assumptions are materialistic, Dawkins says science can
investigate
intelligent design as the root cause for life on earth.<br>
<br>
I accept Dr. Dawkins' &nbsp;honesty and his intention behind what some
mockingly call&nbsp;the Alien Design Theory. As long as I vigorously
assume I am investigating an alien non-terrestrial culture, and I do
not ascribe to it&nbsp;supernatural powers to solve knotty problems of
causation,&nbsp;I am engaging in a legitimate scientific endeavor. <br>
<br>
Hence, I will reverse engineeer the steps involved in various puzzles to show how an ingenious design is <span style="font-weight: bold;">absolutely</span> <span style="font-weight: bold;">necessary</span>
for various phenomena in Nature. I will prove they were established by
an ingenious design harnessing the known laws of physics. Such a
pursuit is what Dawkins concedes is legitimate, and this is what every
scientist should accept as a legitimate scientific inquiry. I am not
ruling out miracles can happen or that God exists. (I believe in both.)
Rather, I am merely exploring what phenomena <span style="font-style: italic;">require</span> intelligence as an explanation, but which <span style="font-style: italic;">do not require</span> any assumption of a miracle whereby the intelligence <span style="font-style: italic;">has to be</span> God by classical definition. <br>
<br>
As a result, my inquiry is bounded on two sides so that it cannot be
used to establish a religious belief. It does not depend on miracles,
and it assumes the designer/ers evolved from matter. Therefore, I
envision one day this theory of Ingenious Design by Non-Terrestrial
Intelligence (ID-NTI) could be legally taught in a classroom. That's my
opinion as a lawyer.<br>
<br>
The reason it can be taught is that there is no religious content in
ID-NTI. It can only be argued such an
inquiry&nbsp;can&nbsp;scientifically confirm&nbsp;a belief in an alien
intelligence elsewhere. No one can say this scientific inquiry will
prove <span style="font-style: italic;">necessarily&nbsp;</span>the existence of God as classicly defined.<br>
<br>
That is not to say that a person of faith will be discouraged by such
evidence. They may claim such a designer or designers revealed by this
investigation could also have supernatural powers, and thus be God. But
that can only be addressed in a Metaphysics classroom. Science cannot
study <span style="font-style: italic;">by definition</span> the supernatural, even if it were intelligent. That's why such discussion will not be found within the ID-NTI movement.<br>
<br>
I am not merely being coy and quiet about who I think is the likely
designer, as the current ID movement was found in the Dover case to
represent (whether rightly or wrongly).<br>
<br>
Instead, I am agreeing to a materialist assumption that I am
investigating an alien non-terrestrial intelligence. I am personally
not a materialist, but a theist. Yet, my theism is irrelevant for this
investigation. Instead, I will offer theories that are purely
scientific of how an intelligence could create mechanisms or a means to
manipulate matter to form,&nbsp;for example, the Sloan Great Wall.<br>
<br>
<span style="font-weight: bold;">The Example of the Sloan Great Wall</span><br>
<br>
The Sloan Great Wall is a good illustration of what ID-NTI represents.
This structure was discovered in 1985 by Geller and Huchra while
working as astrophysicists for the Harvard-Smithsonian Center of
Astrophysics. <br>
<br>
The Sloan Great Wall&nbsp;is a&nbsp;large scale space structure 1
billion light years over our North Pole. It is&nbsp;made of 11,000
galaxies who individually serve as nodes in a honeycomb structure.
Its&nbsp;overall exterior form is patterned, even in&nbsp;3-D, to
conform to the image of a&nbsp;little man with a head, two arms, a
torso and two legs (known as the Homonculus). <br>
<br>
In the chapter on the Great Wall, I will explain the origin of
this&nbsp;structure wholly by showing that some intelligence employing
the laws of physics in ingenious ways could levitate matter by
electromagnetism and stabilize it to conform precisely to the
Homonculus. By the same mechanism, an intelligent designer
could&nbsp;maintain the interior structure using 11,000&nbsp;galaxies
where each galaxy one-by-one is fitted as&nbsp;nodes within thousands
of&nbsp;hexagons. This is a&nbsp;feat that gravity alone could never
do, but an&nbsp;ingenious mechanism can do, and is the only plausible
and&nbsp;necessary explanation in <span style="font-style: italic;">Science </span>for the Sloan Great Wall.<br>
<br>
Thus, in the analysis of the Sloan Great Wall,&nbsp;I am not resorting
to explaining the unknown by miracles. My explanation does not depend
on the supernatural. Yet, at the same time, while I discuss this in
terms of an alien culture 1 billion light years from us,&nbsp;I am not
committed to materialism philosophically.&nbsp;I can discuss the same
facts later in Metaphysics. There I can&nbsp;propose non-scientific but
no less truth-seeking theorems to analyze whether&nbsp;this
intelligence is, in fact, God. But in science, I must make the
scientific assumption that consciousness is truly an emergent property
of matter, and that's all I am investigating in the Sloan Great Wall --
whether an intelligence one billion light years away exists, and I
assume it&nbsp;evolved naturalistically and lacks supernatural powers. <br>
<br>
<span style="font-weight: bold;">Ingenious Design by a Non-Terrestrial Intelligence</span><br>
<br>
This book/webpage
also seeks to establish&nbsp;the correct theorem to prove intelligent
design. The correct theorem, I believe, is&nbsp;to
prove simply an ingenious level of design. This is&nbsp;exhibited
in&nbsp;a
multitude of specific engineering marvels in our universe.&nbsp;If we
are willing to challenge ourselves, and truly think hard, we can
perceive GENIUS of an extraordinary magnitude in natural mechanisms
that was not
conceivably produced by trial and error or wholly
unintelligent&nbsp;processes. This is true of&nbsp;DNA,
fractals, protein folding, irridescence in butterfly wings, human
eyesight,
and the Sloan Great Wall, etc., to just mention a few such phenemona.
Only by employing all our greatest
scientific minds to explain the engineering principles latent in
biological and natural structures can we pay proper respect to the
alien designer (or designers) that Dawkins conceded may be the proper <span style="font-style: italic;">scientific </span>explanation for a natural phenemonon.<br>
<br>
Hence, in this book/webpage, I have no&nbsp;intention to
prove&nbsp;that anything was created by a divine
being. That is for metaphysicists and/or natural history to determine
from other theorems not presented in this work. I wish them well, but
they are pursuing a different line of study than what science examines.
<br>
<br>
<span style="font-weight: bold;">Intelligent Design Movement Must Re-Invent Itself</span><br>
<br>
Intelligent design, to be truly scientific, must be ID-NTI. This may
not please the supporters of ID as presently established.
However,&nbsp;those ID scientists committed to science must concede
ID-NTI is the only way that in <span style="font-style: italic;">science</span>
the topic can be legitimately discussed. Science cannot function or be
useful if it is ever permitted to resolve&nbsp;any difficulty by resort
to&nbsp;a supernatural explanation. This is why trying to change the
definition of Science to permit ID <span style="font-style: italic;">without limits</span> to <span style="font-style: italic;">materialist assumptions</span> will never succeed.<br>
<br>
This is a book which is a work in progress. For the latest version, click below.<br>
&nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp;<a href="Lessons/CreatedbyIngeniousDesign.pdf">PDF Version </a>&nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; &nbsp; <a href="CBID-webpage.html.html">HTML Version</a><br>
<br>
Latest edit: June 23, 2008 <br>
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<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/" title="Jesus Focused Publishers" target="_blank">Jesus Focused Publishers</a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.myspace.com/50264805/music/albums/342">Only Jesus</a> (song by Big Daddy -scroll down)</p>
<p><a href="http://justhiswords.com/">Just His Words</a> (red letter only $7.25)</p>
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<p>(No affiliation with me or this website.)</p> </div>
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<h2><a name="pgfId=547467"></a><a name="21841"></a> Calvin's' 1555 Subversion of Geneva's Democracy Repeated In The Dutch Republic of 1579<strong><a name="pgfId=484358"></a></strong></h2>
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<h1 class="Heading1">
<div></div>
</h1>
<h3>Precedent in Servetus' Case Unleashes Calvinists to Kill Political Opponents On Specious Heresy/Blasphemy Charges</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480825"></a> When Calvin and his party, mostly French, first came to Geneva, the city accepted them out of tolerance. When Calvin tried to exert a domineering influence, he was at first expelled in 1539. That year, Calvin had refused to give the entire town any communion on Easter Sunday in protest that the church Consistory could not excommunicate persons deemed `unworthy.'<sup><span class="footnote"> 1</span></sup> Rather than bow to Calvin, the city expelled him. Calvin stayed in Strasbourg for three years. In 1541, he was permitted to return.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482853"></a> Eventually, in time, Calvin in the 1550s would wreak his revenge, and take over Geneva. Calvin would subvert the democratic institutions of Geneva, as we will see, by taking a tiny election victory in 1555, and use it to oust the old order using the precedent the Servetus' execution provided. Calvin would then create a tyrannical regime that he controlled as President of the Consistory from which charges of heresy could be filed in the criminal court which the Calvinists now undisputedly controlled.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482647"></a> This is not denied by Calvinist scholars. This frank account of Calvin's path to tyranny by terror and subversion of democratic institutions is painstakingly demonstrated in William G. Naphy's <em>Calvin and the Consolidation of the Genevan Reformation </em>(London: Westminster John Knox Press, 2003) at 182 et seq. Naphy neutrally and dispassionately recounts this shocking story.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944573"></a> As we shall see later, the Calvinists repeated this subversion of democracy in the Dutch Republic after its constitution of 1579 had promised freedom of religion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=501383"></a> All this evil starts at its head with Calvin's criminal complaint that he filed through his assistant in 1553 against Servetus. Once the door was opened to kill a man for mere heresy, Calvinists were able to turn the power of killing opponents over to the magistrates' office at Geneva. This model was then followed in Salem, Massachussets and then again in the Dutch Republic. Because the Calvinists in 1555 dominated the Geneva magistrates on the Petit Conseil, the Calvinists used that office's power to kill as a means of using pretexts to eliminate by death their leading political opponents. The Geneva example became an example in subversion that Calvinists would repeat many subsequent times.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482640"></a> We can trust this information on what happened in Geneva because William <a name="marker=925122"></a> Naphy's 2003 book was published by Westminster John Knox Press. This means it is released by one of the most well-known and respected publishing houses specializing on Calvinist history.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480830"></a> Moreover, for those unfamiliar with <a name="marker=925123"></a> Naphy, when he wrote this book, he was the head of the Department of History and the Director of Teaching at the School of History and History of Art at King's College at the University of Aberdeen. His book is based on an extensive study into the archives at Geneva. This included looking at the minutes of governing bodies such as the Geneva Consistory, and the criminal court including its notary records.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480847"></a> With that background, let's now examine what William Naphy had to say about the case involving <a name="marker=925121"></a> Servetus.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=480855"></a> In the latter half of 1553, two new cases started which would and convulse Geneva for the remainder of the year and beyond. One, involving Michel Servetus, is undoubtedly the more famous today but of lesser importance in 1553. The premier case was Philibert <a name="marker=925120"></a> Berthelier's attempt to have the Petit Conseil overturn the ban of excommunication placed on him. The magistrates cooperated with the ministers in prosecuting Servetus while violently clashing with the ministers over the actual scope of Consistorial authority....</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=480870"></a> However, there are some aspects of Servitus case in which merit examination. First,... the action against Servetus was wholly a secular affair. Servetus did not appear before the Consistory[,] and <em><strong>ministers were brought into the case as theological specialists</strong></em> to dispute Servetus' opinions. It is also useful to recall that Servetus' case followed close on the heels of the Bolsec affair which had ended unsatisfactorily from Geneva's point of view; Bolsec had simply moved to Berne and <strong><em>continued his attacks on Calvinist doctrine from there</em></strong>. The issues involved were also of much greater importance; Bolsec disagreed with Calvin on predestination while Servetus rejected traditional Trinitarian doctrine and paedobaptism....</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=480889"></a> Servetus was arrested on 13 August 1553 after he was denounced by Nicolas de la Fontaine, Calvin's secretary. After an initial investigation, the lieutenant, Pierre Tissot, began the prosecution. On a 17 August, Germain Colladan appeared as a lawyer for De La Fontaine who was being held, according to Geneva law, until his accusations could be substantiated. At that point, the Lieutenant stepped aside and gave the case to his assistant, Philibert Berthelier, who was still excommunicated. The following day, for the first time, Calvin appeared as an expert witness to evaluate and refute Servetus' views. as it became apparent that Servetus would probably become <strong><em>the first person to be executed for heresy in Geneva</em></strong>, the city decided to seek advice of the other Swiss Protestant cities....[T]he Petit Conseil condemned Servetus; he was burned as a heretic the next day. (William G. Naphy, <em>Calvin and the Consolidation of the Genevan Reformation</em> (London: Westminster John Knox Press, 2003) at 182-183.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480929"></a> Please note that in the above quote there simply was an indictment based solely on a complaint from Calvin's personal employee. The only witness was Calvin. The penalty doled out by the civil authorities was death.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=925085"></a> What Willie Naphy also points out is that concurrent with the Servetus' case, Berthelier -- the one Naphy just identified as one of Servetus' early prosecutors<sup><span class="footnote"> 2</span></sup> -- was battling against excommunication by Calvin's Church-run <a name="marker=925080"></a> Consistory. (<a name="marker=925077"></a> Calvin was president; this board had 6 pastors and 12 elders.) The same court that was about to rule against Servetus was simultaneously put under every unfair means of external pressure that Calvin could bring to bear to get his way. Calvin denounced their decision from the pulpit. Calvin had his allies threaten mass resignation from the criminal court (Petit Conseil) itself, to cripple its function. Naphy explains this simultaneous sub-plot involving <a name="marker=925081"></a> Berthelier who now served as one of Servetus' prosecutors:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=480942"></a> The other important case of 1553, involving Berthelier, began a fortnight after Servetus's arrest. Berthelier launched a fierce assault on the Consistory's power to excommunicate. On September 1, while excommunicated, he appealed to the Petit Conseil; he asserted that magistrates had the authority to overturn the Consistory's ruling.... when the Conseil upheld its earlier ruling and supported <a name="marker=925082"></a> Berthelier, Calvin's reaction was swift, uncompromising and guaranteed to provoke a hostile response from his opponents. He presented an ultimatum against the ruling on to September and announced decision from the pulpit the next day. By 7 September all the other ministers had rallied to Calvin's inside, threatening the Council with mass resignation. <em>Id.</em>, at 184.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=925100"></a> As this debate raged over Berthelier in 1553, Calvin continually appealed on the Berthelier matter to ministers throughout Switzerland to support him while the non-Calvinist magistrates of Geneva were soliciting support from other magistrates throughout Switzerland to support themselves.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480992"></a> It turned out that the "other Swiss Protestant cities" did not support Calvin on this issue. "They clearly wished to avoid offending, but showed no desire to support his views on excommunication and ecclesiastical authority." (Naphy <em>id</em>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480993"></a> The magistrates who so opined were clearly correct as a matter of law in the Swiss cantons. William Naphy points out that the church throughout Switzerland always insisted excommunication was a civil affair of the state, and did not belong as a power of the church. If followed in this case, the church Consistory at Geneva had no final authority to excommunicate Berthelier. This law giving the state such jurisdiction was something that the Protestant faithful had initially sought to achieve in Switzerland, apparently designed to protect the individual from loss of a perceived civil liberty at the hand of the church.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=480994"></a> The first revised ruling in the case of <a name="marker=925072"></a> Berthelier was a face saving one. The Petit Conseil insisted that Berthelier was "free to receive communion but advised that he voluntarily refrain from doing so...." <em>Id.</em>, at 185.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481011"></a> However, the ministers/pastors at the urging of Calvin would not back down. The pressure became too great:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=481017"></a> Faced with the impasse created by the determined opposition of the ministers, the magistrates had little choice but to climb down unless the Petit Conseil had been willing to expel the entire company of pastors. Its members had no other option; the issue itself could not be settled. [They] were faced with historic reality that there was a practical limit to their ability to control the ministers. But simply, they had no effective means of forcing the creatures in the local supporters to give way; the best they could only hope to maintain the stalemate. <em>Id.</em>, at 186.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481030"></a> What this concurrent history with Servetus' case demonstrates is that the judicial system at Geneva was not comprised of merely civil authorities operating independent of Calvin's church. Instead, within the same civil authority of the Petit Conseil, many members of the decision-making body of the panel of magistrates were a significant number of Calvinist ministers. These ministers could vote and move as a block, and thereby pressure all the other magistrates to follow their will. The other magistrates could only hope to stalemate and check the Calvinist ministers. But such action had its practical limits because the ministers would use the pulpit to attack the magistrates for doing so.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481036"></a> In other words, the very same civil magistrates who decided the case involving Servetus were the very same group of magistrates who could not act independently of the Calvinist minister members on the Petit Conseil to assume jurisdiction over the Berthelier case of excommunication, as Geneva law had previously settled in favor of their civil jurisdiction.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481050"></a> Because these very same Calvinist ministers were being led by Calvin, this gave the denunciation of Servetus by Calvin's cook/student/secretary an enormous foot forward. There could be no realistic expectation of a fair neutral judiciary to decide the fate of Servetus.</p>
<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=481073"></a> Polarization by Calvin's Troops To Gain Power to Kill</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481095"></a> William Naphy points out these disputes at the time were "all polarizing the population throughout Geneva..." He continues: "the [Calvinist] ministers were in a position to drive home their message that their opponents were godless lovers of disorder and immorality, opposed to God's truth."<em> Id.</em>, at 186-87.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481098"></a> However, in reality, Calvin was stirring up friction over any disagreement with his views. He was willing to instigate criminal prosecutions against people solely because they did not acknowledge what Calvin taught was true. Thus, what is happening in the background is Calvin is actually trying to step up and begin using the church-court to inflict punishments which previously belonged exclusively to the state: excommunication and death. Calvin was stymied in this, and thus at this juncture he is relying upon the magistrates of the town council or Petit Conseil to inflict the punishments which can give Calvin de facto authority to eliminate opponents.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481110"></a> William Naphy points out that at this juncture "Calvin repeatedly stressed his view that his opponents were arrogant man who tolerated sin and delighted in wickedness." Id., at 188. Thus, Calvin's view allowed himself to see his political opponents as simultaneously sinners worthy of at least expulsion based on the mere fact of their opposition to Calvin. This was enough to smear them as <a name="marker=925067"></a> Libertines -- a label invented solely by the Calvinists to describe the opposition. (This epithet is used so often by Calvinist apologists in historical writings that one would think there was actually a political party called the Libertines at Geneva.<sup><span class="footnote"> 3</span></sup> Alas, there was no such party. It is simply a smear systematically employed first by Calvin and then by any historian of a Calvinist-bent to describe those in opposition to Calvin. It was an epithet to demonize opponents, and hence justify what is about to be done to them in 1555 -- death and expulsion.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481114"></a> In reality, Calvin was sowing violent discord and hateful abuse on opponents rather than seeking to convince by means of persuasion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481120"></a> Eventually, this led to political success for Calvin. The last stronghold of traditional Swiss independence crumbled as the French reformers who started as mere immigrants now took control of Geneva. For 1554 was the last time that the Swiss party was able to defeat at the polls the French immigrants led by Calvin. William Naphy explains the change:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=481124"></a> The first<strong><em> dramatic sign of a shift</em></strong> in the political landscape came on 24 January 1555, a week after... [an] execution for sodomy and in the midst of the trial for [an alleged] blasphemous procession. The Conseils des Soixante and Deux Cents overruled the Petit Conseil and accepted the ministerial interpretation of the [city] ordinances about excommunication; the [Church] Consistory's <strong><em>authority to discipline was secured</em></strong>. <em>Id.,</em> at 189.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=925032"></a> In other words, in 1555, as a result of Calvin's backdoor pressure, the civil magistrate authorities overruled Swiss practice, and now ruled that the church could inflict church discipline of excommunication without approval or review by the state/the courts.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=925033"></a> Prior to this change in 1555, there was one good effect of the lack of separation of church and state in Geneva. If you wanted to express yourself freely, you had some hope that the magistrates would shield you from the Calvinist influence over the city. The Petit Conseil could suspend any penalties the church-Consistory wanted to impose. However, that last hope of independence of the civil authorities from the Calvinist party was now in collapse in 1555. The Calvinists could now have their way, forcing the magistrates to accept findings of the Calvinist church-Consistory which had authority over every citizen due to the compulsory oath to the <a name="marker=925034"></a> Confession of Faith. Once the Consistory was given independent power to inflict discipline on members, this led the Consistory under Calvin's presidency to seek to undermine any independent influence at the Petit Conseil to check its power.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481153"></a> This came about because in February 1555, the Calvinist party won a slight but decisive triumph at the polls. It was the "evidence of an <strong><em>equally decisive shift in Geneva and politics</em></strong>." (Naphy, <em>supra</em>, at 189.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481154"></a> As a consequence, Calvinists were then being appointed in greater numbers to all magistrate councils including the Petit Conseil and the superior Conseil de Deux Cents. Id., at 190.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481161"></a> As a result, William Naphy could say "all the election results of 1555 show a substantial if not overwhelming shift towards the Calvinists." Id., at 190. Nevertheless, "it is essential to stress the slim majority the Calvinist had." As a result, such a "slender majority suggested the shift in the balance of political power in Geneva without implying an overwhelming realignment of public opinion." <em>Id.</em>, at 191.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481203"></a> Then a decisive subversion took place of the Swiss rulers by the French refugees loyal to Calvin. This is what allowed the Calvinists to take complete control. It was ingenious while at the same time bordering on diabolical. William Naphy explains this in neutral tones:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=481175"></a> The Calvinists were left with the problem of devising a means of securing and strengthening their position. The change they made to the councils and courts showed that they tried to entrench their supporters at every level of Geneva government.... Their greatest change was to the Conseil General.... The obvious answer to this problem [i.e., the risk of retrenchment to the Swiss traditional ruling families] was to alter the character and composition of this body in such a way as to guarantee Calvinist majorities. The method which the Calvinists chose involved the admission of substantial numbers of French refugees to the borgeoisie [entitled to vote].... The enfranchisement of a dedicated block of pro-Calvin refugees, coupled with the fortuitous chance to exile many of the opposition, gave the Calvinists just to change a desired before the next election in 1556 around 130 new bourgeois [voters] were admitted and over 50 [Swiss traditionalists] faced judicial action ranging from warnings and disenfranchisement to exile or death. In a city of 12,000 persons with an evenly divided electorate, the addition of so many new voters and the expulsion of the opposition's leadership was sufficient to alter Geneva's entire magisterial structure." (Naphy, <em>supra</em>, at 191-92.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481197"></a> In other words, by expanding French immigration, the power of the civil magistrates now fell into the hands of the Calvinists. They used this judicial power to accuse opponents of blasphemy or heresy. The effect was to then expel or kill opponents on `moral' grounds. The intention was clearly to then even more certainly centralize power and take undisputed control.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481234"></a> William <a name="marker=925008"></a> Naphy makes no bones about what was taking place. He states "there is no doubt that the admission of these bourgeois [i.e., immigrants] was a calculated political move to pack the Geneva electorate.... Recent history works have presented a very confused picture of the Calvinist victory and its aftermath. Bouwsma simply fails to give any explanation of the Calvinist triumph." Id., at 192.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481235"></a> Naphy is identifying facts which apologists for Calvin do not want to see. However, if the validity of Calvinism were not at stake, surely such Christian men would themselves be aghast over such subversive tactics to undermine a state to allow a religious faction to assume undisputed control. Such sedition and subversion of a peaceful God-fearing (Protestant) democratic community is wrong in every age and in every place. The Calvinist' desire to subvert such a city, driving out those Christians who differed from Calvin's doctrines, reveals something defective at the core of Calvinism. For in doing this, Calvinists at Geneva were transgressing the universally-recognized crime of sedition.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=546968"></a> Thus, the true Christian response is to recognize Calvin was making a calculated <a name="marker=924999"></a> Stalinesque effort to subvert a democracy, control the ballot box, and then kill and expel opponents so as to turn a democracy into a one-party regime.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481243"></a> For example, in mid-1555, Calvin criticized the Swiss traditional leaders of Geneva who had attended a sermon in a Bernese church. In that sermon, Calvin was attacked from the pulpit.<sup><span class="footnote"> 4</span></sup> Calvin was making himself a sacrosanct figure. Simultaneously, the old guard were shown what criticizing Calvin could mean. The magistrates now had André <a name="marker=924998"></a> Vulliod arrested upon Calvin's charge that Vulliod committed blasphemy. <a name="marker=924959"></a> Vulliod's statement was wholly innocuous. He simply said, "we have done a great wrong by the arrest of Jesus Christ, whom the Jews have rejected and given over to the Gentiles."<a href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579.html#pgfId=547012" class="footnote"> </a><span class="footnote"><sup>5</sup></span> Apparently, Calvin thought this was intended to criticize Calvin's arrest of all the good citizens in his grab for undisputed power. Yet, on its face, it lacks any such meaning.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=546982"></a> How did the slightest statement about Jesus end up in a blasphemy charge? Naphy explains why: the Petit Conseil (the magistrates) were now "dominated by the Calvinists..." <em>Id.</em>, at 193.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481250"></a> Then the <a name="marker=924958"></a> final shoe fell.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=481252"></a> In time the magistrates began to move decisively against the [traditional Swiss rulers of Geneva]. Throughout the summer [Swiss traditionalists] were fined, exiled or sentenced to death. <em>Id.,</em> at 194.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481253"></a> A very thorough list was compiled by William Naphy of the names of the Swiss traditionalists who were resisting the Calvinists and were put under threat. It is a frightening list of numerous names where next to their name we see often "sentenced to death, fled" or "executed." Included within the this list was one of those who vigorously fought his excommunication from the communion table -- <a name="marker=924957"></a> Berthelier. Next to his name, it says "sentenced to death, fled." <em>Id.</em>, at 195.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481288"></a> By this method, it is an undisputed fact that the Calvinists resorted to brazen killing of opponents for no other reason than they were opponents of Calvinism. Yet, Calvin and his party were on a mission to usurp all aspects of city government, and then use that political power to physically drive out their political opponents from Geneva. Berthelier had said it best when his brother, Francois Daniel, was executed at Geneva in June 1555. (His crime apparently was sympathy with those executed or exiled.) <a name="marker=924956"></a> Berthelier responded to his brother's death, saying that the city was now run by murderers. (Naphy, <em>supra</em>, at 196.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481316"></a> Upon their narrow election victory of February <a name="marker=924955"></a> 1555, the Calvinists quickly completed their goal of making Geneva a totalitarian religious regime. These tightening measures also had the advantage of ensnaring anyone who was not a strict Calvinist in thought or deed. For example, one of the first orders after the narrow election victory for the Calvinists was that as of February 1555 women must now sit apart from men in church. (Naphy, <em>supra</em>, at 198.) Because attendance at church was mandatory for every resident of Geneva<sup>,<span class="footnote"> 6</span> </sup>this separation decree would test whether the non-Calvinists would submit to another level of cruel oppression.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547411"></a> Cottret records the February 1555 explanation for this decree: "It has been brought to notice here that women mix among the men and men among the women at the sermon."<sup><span class="footnote"> 7</span></sup> In consequence, the people must no longer "mix with each other," but "each should take a place only for himself." (Cottret, <em>id.,</em> at 252.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547345"></a> In March 1556, those who broke measures barring the mixing of men and women were subjected to public humiliation in the collar -- a sort of pillory.<sup><span class="footnote"> 8</span> </sup>This was in keeping with Calvin's Geneva earlier having criminalized <a name="marker=924997"></a> dancing between a man and woman.<sup><span class="footnote"> 9</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547349"></a> In 1557, further interference in matters unquestionably private involved a ban on an older woman from <a name="marker=924996"></a> marrying. This was on the theory that a marriage union which would not produce children was fornication, the Calvinists forgetting the possibility that care, comfort and mutual support (i.e., love) could also be a primary purpose of a marriage union!<sup><span class="footnote"> 10</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547353"></a> These decrees and rulings are but a small glimpse at a parade of many other <a name="marker=924949"></a> tyrannies over innocent behavior which was never criminalized in the Bible, and which even the Bible endorsed!<sup><span class="footnote"> 11</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547357"></a> Then to effectuate totalitarian control, the Consistory -- the church's governing body with <a name="marker=924954"></a> Calvin as President -- established "spies and watchmen" who were to "report to the Consistory all breaches of discipline."<sup><span class="footnote"> 12</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547319"></a> Of course, none of this was a laughing matter. For indeed, since 1550, laughter was outlawed during any sermon. The penalty: three days imprisonment.<sup><span class="footnote"> 13</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547417"></a> By 1557, Geneva had become a cheerless tyranny. No dancing. No mixing of sexes. No laughter. No light.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=547288"></a> When the old Swiss<a name="marker=924950"></a> traditionalists were in a slight dominance, Calvin felt free to condemn them at every turn without fear anyone would accuse him of any un-Christian attack on those `in authority.' However, when Calvin (the Frenchman) used his fellow loyal French immigrants to subvert the city of Geneva, now anyone who spoke out against using this subversive tactic was deemed un-Christian. With the same power those new voters gave him, Calvin could use the Consistory's powers (over which he was President) to now drive out and expel anyone who spoke out. He labelled all his intended victims as political subversives or blasphemers. Calvin would now be able to rely upon his doctrine from his Institutes which taught that it is a Christian duty to submit to tyranny and not rebel. <a name="marker=924940"></a> Institutes 4:20.1 ("spiritual <a name="marker=924943"></a> liberty may very well consist with political servitude.") As a result, Calvin could now twist this principle to his advantage, so that "it was considered blasphemy to speak against the foreigners who had taken refuge at Geneva for the sake of religion."<sup><span class="footnote"> 14</span> </sup>In other words, any political speech that exposed the stratagem of how Calvin would subvert and eventually did subvert the city government was banned as blasphemy!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481292"></a> William Naphy does not hide all the evil that was afoot by Calvin and his cohorts. These stringent policies were used to effectuate the "mass explusion of... many leading citizens" to solidify Calvin's dominion. Id., at 197. In May 1555, just over a year after Servetus' execution and on the heals of the February 1555 prohibition on mixing-of-sexes during church services and other similar tyrannies, Perrin (the leader of the Swiss traditional ruling class) tried opposing the church now taking over the entire life of Geneva. This led to a melee, Perrin's expulsion and "the execution of four of his associates."<sup><span class="footnote"> 15</span></sup> All involved were tried without the benefit of being arrested and hence the right to defend their innocence. Yet, the final decrees ordered their death.<sup><span class="footnote"> 16</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=510314"></a> William Naphy sums up the whole pernicious process of how <a name="marker=924929"></a> Calvin and his `ministers' subverted the entire city government:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=481301"></a> It is essential to recall that the margin of the Calvinists' victory [in February 1555] and electoral swing which produced it were very slight. [The Calvinists exploited this slim margin and] they were ruthlessly willing to alter the Genevan electorate to secure their grip on power: and when presented with the chance, they were able and willing to crush [sic: kill] the opposition and expel a significant number of their fellow citizens. As the next chapter will show, the Calvinists were not content with this singular victory; they used their new-found political power to sweep away much in Geneva's ruling elite. <em>Id.</em>, at 199.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=485550"></a> Ironically, Calvin had committed the very wrongs that Tyndale, a leading reformer, said the Pope and the Catholic church had done to the civil governments of Europe.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=485559"></a> In <a name="marker=924922"></a> Tyndale's <em>Answer to More,</em> Tyndale proved the Catholic church has long been corrupt because the Pope had managed to subvert temporal power. Tyndale argued the Pope has become the true ruler of Europe. The monarchs of Europe were only his servants. Yet, look at Calvin in Geneva? He had subverted the civil system, and turned it into a power-mad servant of his lusts for killing to guarantee control. Remember, real people died for mere thoughts in Geneva's Republic during Calvin's Reign of Terror.</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=924797"></a> The Lesson This Teaches</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=924798"></a> Yet, in August 1553, Calvin's long-term strategy was not known. It was not clear how the killing of Servetus as a heretic would create a precedent -- a very dangerous precedent -- to steal the liberty of every Genevan. We cannot trust the motive of the learned or the religious when they come to take away our liberty of thought. Instead, we must guard the law from ever being used to infringe on the freedom of speech. Any such effort perverts the purpose of the law and allows the loss of every other protection offered by the law. For once a community loses freedom of thought due to overbearing laws or prosecutors, all other liberties can be destroyed. For freedom of speech is the foundation of all other liberties. Without it, all citizens are subject to the whim of the state. No one explained this principle better than Calvin himself, which proves his knowing violation of it in 1553. Prior to becoming a Christian, Calvin wrote a commentary in 1532 entitled <em>Seneca's book On Mercy</em>. There Calvin said:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=924806"></a> If there is anything free in man, it is his tongue. A man is thrust into<strong><em> utter slavery when his FREEDOM OF SPEECH is taken away.</em></strong> In a free city, says <a name="marker=924886"></a> Tiberius [Suet., Tib. 28.1], there must be free speech.<a href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579.html#pgfId=924842" class="footnote"> </a><sup><span class="footnote">17</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=924891"></a> All these words but the last sentence are Calvin's own thoughts at one time.<sup><span class="footnote">18</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=924804"></a> Thus, Calvin meant in 1532 that <strong><em>anyone who seeks to infringe on the freedom of speech of his neighbors</em></strong>, and wishes to cast them onto the fire for disagreement with their views, <strong><em>is nothing but a tyrant</em></strong> -- the enslaver of men. Ironically, these words belong to none other than Calvin himself. As our Lord Jesus said, "you will be judged by every word that comes out of your own mouth."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944587"></a> Yet, the lesson Calvin taught in 1553-1554, not 1532, is the one that his adherents followed, with deadly consequences. Next we shall see the example of subversion at Geneva was repeated in the Dutch Republic, leading to killings of heretics and loss of religious liberty.</p>
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</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1"><a name="pgfId=944356"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579-1.gif" /></div>
</h1>
<h2>Other Nightmarish Murders by Calvinists For Which Calvin's Precedent With Servetus Makes Calvin Morally Responsible</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944358"></a> Calvin's murderous precedent with Servetus and lesson in the Defensio of 1554 lived on among his most zealous followers. The first place this repeated itself outside Geneva was in the Dutch Republic in 1618 and 1659-1661.</p>
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<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=948884"></a> The Dutch Republic Turns To Murder of Non-Calvinists</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948871"></a> In the <a name="marker=948870"></a> Dutch Republic, freedom of conscience was enshrined in the 1579 <a name="marker=948872"></a> Union of Utrecht. This was the Republic's basic constitutional document. Article 13 of the Union specifically stated: "each person shall remain free, especially in his religion, and that no one shall be persecuted or investigated because of their religion."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948873"></a> However, by a series of subversions, the Calvinists gained hegemony. They began doing so in 1582 by means of censorship laws. With a Calvinist as governor over the most influential province of Holland, the Calvinists used censorship laws to persecute religious views different from strict Calvinism. As a result, the Dutch Reformed Church became the de facto but never de jure church of the Netherlands. All other denominations were suppressed.<sup><span class="footnote"> 19</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948877"></a> This persecution became murderous at Dort in 1619 and at Boston in 1656.</p>
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<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=948836"></a> The Murderous Council of Dort of 1618-1619</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948837"></a> The unchristian and murderous behavior of Calvin's heirs toward heretics is on full display in the <a name="marker=948838"></a> Council of Dort. (The Dutch name was Dordrecht.) This council was to determine policy for Holland--one of the seven provinces of the United Netherlands. It was not a natioanl council of the Netherlands, even though Holland was the most influential province.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948839"></a> We in the Reformed churches praise the rulings at the Council, but we are never told the same men who endorsed the five principles of Calvinism at this Council simultaneously ordered beheaded a famous pastor. This pastor's crime? He did nto believe in rigid predestination. All the others who dissented from strict Calvinism were banished.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948840"></a> How could leaders of Calvinism have the gospel truth but engage in judicial murder, contrary to our Lord's words in the <a name="marker=948894"></a> Parable of the Wheat and the Tares? Our Lord commands us to make this review, and reject as an authority in the church anything taught by men guilty of such misdeeds.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948842"></a> What is particularly deplorable about the Council of Dort is that many times we are taught in the Reformed Church that this council "settled" points of doctrine within the church. The way this is depicted is one would think this was a fair-minded discussion. However, what is instead true is the dissenting group of pastors at Reformed churches who did not accept rigid predestination and "eternal assurance" doctrine<sup><span class="footnote"> 20</span></sup> were invited to have a fair discussion and vote alongside the Reformed leaders invited from eight countries.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948935"></a> The deck was stacked from the beginning. The opponents of the Arminian Remonstrants invited as voting members to this church synod a superfluity of Calvinists from eight other countries. This created a total of 86 voters who likely could be counted upon to side with the Contra-Remonstrants. At the inception, the Arminian Remonstrants were given three seats with voting rights.<sup><span class="footnote"> 21</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=949145"></a> However, after arguments had been presented fairly by both sides for 26 sessions, on the 27th session everything was changed. The Synod displaced the three voting Arminians, and denied them their seats. Being forced to yield their chairs, now only the side opposing the Arminians were both the judge and witnesses.<sup><span class="footnote"> 22</span> </sup>The Arminians were cut off any longer from any ability to dispute doctrine as equals, and vote as judges. "[T]he Arminian representatives were detained and were not allowed to sit on the synod. Thus the judges were comprised entirely of individuals who had already rejected the Arminian view."<sup><span class="footnote"> 23</span> </sup>As one wry observer noted, the Arminian Remonstrants "were predestined to fail."<sup><span class="footnote">24</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=949068"></a> They were displaced effectively, contrary to the entire spirit of the meeting up to that point. Their opponents alone were thereafter permitted to be seated, vote and speak. The 86 remaining voting members of the synod, including the many foreigners who had been invived, then voted "unanimously" that the displaced Remonstrants were wrong in doctrine. The 86 then made pronouncements of imprisonment, banishment and through their influence over the States General death upon one famous supporter of the Arminians. Schaff--a Calvinist and famous historian--summarizes the results:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=949107"></a> The victory of orthodoxy was obscured by the succeeding deposition of about two hundred Arminian clergymen, and by the preceding though independent arrest of the political leaders of the Remonstrants, at the instigation of [Prince] Maurice. Grotius was condemned by the States-General to perpetual imprisonment, but escaped through the ingenuity of his wife (1621). Van Olden Barneveldt was unjustly condemned to death for alleged high-treason, and beheaded at the Hague (May 14, 1619). His sons took revenge in a fruitless attempt against the life of Prince Maurice. (Schaff, <em>Creeds of Christendom</em>, Vol. I, 514.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948843"></a> Hence, the Council of Dort is not a ruling we can raise as an honorable event, as is still done today in Calvinist denominations.<sup><span class="footnote"> 25</span></sup> Instead, it was conference tainted by murder, tyranny and oppression. The ones following the arguments of Arminius were, as the Freewill Baptist Quarterly relates, "persecuted with inveterate malice."<sup><span class="footnote"> 26</span></sup> All these 200 ministers in dissent from strict Calvinism "were accordingly silenced in their churches, or forced into exile" in the state of Holland. Id.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=949189"></a> In <em>Historia Quinquarticularis</em> (London: 1650), the famous English preacher Peter Heylin, D.D. (1600-1662) commented that at the Synod of Dort ".... what the Contra Remonstrants (strict Calvinists) wanted in strength, they made good by power .. they prosecuted their Opponents in their several Consistories, by suspensions, excommunications, and Deprivations, the highest Censures of the church."<sup><span class="footnote"> 27</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948940"></a> As one dispassionate summary states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=948850"></a> If we pass over into Holland [i.e., one of the seven provinces of the Netherlands], we shall also find that the reformers there, were, most of them, in the principles and measures of persecution.... the most outrageous<strong><em> quarrel </em></strong>of all was that between the Calvinists and Arminians.... The moment the two parties had thus got a dogma to dispute upon, the controversy became irreconcilable, and was conducted with the <em><strong>most outrageous violence</strong></em>. The ministers of the predestinarian party would enter into no treaty; the remonstrants [non-Calvinists] were the objects of their furious zeal, whom they denominated, mamalukes, devils and plagues;<strong><em> animating the magistrates to destroy them</em></strong>; and when the time of the new elections drew near, they prayed to God for such men as would be zealous, even to blood, though it were to cost the whole trade of their cities. At length, a synod being assembled, acted in the usual manner; they laid down the principles of faith with confidence, condemned the doctrine of the remonstrants; <em><strong>deprived their antagonists of all their offices</strong></em>; and concluded by humbly beseeching God and their high mightinesses, to put their decrees into execution, and to ratify the doctrine they had expressed. The states obliged them in this Christian and charitable request, for as soon as the synod was concluded, <em><strong>Barnwelt</strong></em> [Dutch: John of Olden Barneveld], a friend of the remonstrants and their opinions, <em><strong>was beheaded</strong></em>,<sup><span class="footnote"> 28</span></sup> and <a name="marker=948851"></a> <em><strong>Grotius condemned to perpetual imprisonment</strong></em>; and because the dissenting ministers would not promise wholly, and always to abstain from the exercise of their religious functions, the states passed a resolution for <em><strong>banishing them</strong></em>, on pain, if they did not submit to it, of being treated as disturbers of the public peace." (J.J. Stockdale, <em>The History of the Inquisitions </em>(1810) at xxviii, xxix.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=949161"></a> Yet, one often hears Calvinists claiming the Council of Dort was an ecumenical council, with broadminded input that then `settled' certain thorny issues, as if in a dispassionate manner. However, as the Court in <em>Groesbeeck v. Dunscomb</em> (New York Practice Reports, 1871), said, such a depiction of the Council of Dort as an "ecumenical council... wholly misrepresents" those proceedings. Instead, "it is perfectly notorious that it never pretended to settle doctrines of the Christian communion, but only some miserable controversies between Calvinists and Arminians." (Id. at 314). Some members of the church of England were invited, but they were without power of that church to commit to anything. "The decrees of the synod were never accepted in England, and were vigorously opposed by both the king and the archbishop of Canterbury."<em> Id</em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=949162"></a> In England, the condemnation of the Council of Dort long echoed throughout history. Samuel Parr (1747-1825) wrote that we are "shocked at the vindictive dispositions of those who presided at the Council of Dort."<sup><span class="footnote"> 29</span></sup> He went on:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=948857"></a> In England, we are disgusted by the sullen obstinancy of some puritans, at the brutal ferocity of others, and at the insolent domination of their headstrong and infuriated oppressors. <em>Id</em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=949177"></a> The horrors of the Council of Dort are thus more of the terrible legacy of Calvin.</p>
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<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=948751"></a> Calvinist Death Penalties At Boston: 1659-1661</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948752"></a> In 1656, the Quakers of Boston were threatened by death by the governor of the Massachusetts Bay Colony (MBC)--a Dutch chartered corporation which means it was directly controlled by the Dutch Republic. In 1656, Endicott, the MBC governor, threatened the Quakers<sup><span class="footnote"> 30</span> </sup>with the death penalty if they resisted the Dutch Reformed Church as the sole lawful church. "Take heed," he said, "ye break not our ecclesiastical laws, for then ye are sure to stretch by a halter."<sup><span class="footnote"> 31</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=948759"></a> The Dutch rulers were serious. Four Quakers were executed thereafter solely for their beliefs. These became known as the <a name="marker=948760"></a> Boston Martyrs. Three were English members of the Society of Friends (Quakers): Marmaduke Stephenson, William Robinson and Mary Dyer. The forth was the Friend William Leddra of Barbados. Each were "condemned to death and executed by public hanging for their religious beliefs under the legislature of the Massachusetts Bay Colony in 1659, 1660 and 1661."<sup><strong>3</strong></sup><span class="footnote"><sup><strong>2</strong></sup></span></p>
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<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=944596"></a> Murders by Calvinist Pilgrims of Massachusets: 1620-1693.</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944597"></a> In Massachusetts -- murderous Calvinists known as <a name="marker=944598"></a> Separatists (aka Dissenters) engaged in what is nothing less than mass murder. These were Puritans who morphed into `Separatist' <a name="marker=944599"></a> Pilgrims but who were still Calvinist Puritans in doctrine.<sup><span class="footnote"> 33</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944607"></a> In Salem, they restarted the pattern of Geneva. At first, they landed peaceably at Salem, Massachusetts from 1620-1630. Gradually, they passed laws that expelled "from the territory all those who did not profess what they called the orthodox faith" -- sending Priests, Quakers and other Protestants to resettle elsewhere.<sup><span class="footnote"> 34</span> </sup>But then by 1692-1693, this turned ugly. The violent practices of Geneva revived in Salem. During those two years, the church there initiated discipline over church members that resulted in the killing of 29 women as alleged <a name="marker=944611"></a> witches. (These were largely church-goers.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944612"></a> The Pilgrim-Puritan/Calvinist party saw themselves as in a new type of Geneva: "the Puritans [of Salem] had established a type of theocracy... in which the church ruled in all civil matters, including that of administering capital punishment for violations of a spiritual nature."<sup><span class="footnote"> 35</span></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=944616"></a> Thus, one sees here the Salem Church, like the Church Consistory of Geneva under Calvin, arrogated to itself the right to impose punishment upon church members. These punishments included death. This was in reliance on the practices that Calvin inaugurated at Geneva. Hence, we see once more that Calvin's misdeeds suffered repetition. The reason it took so long to undo this pattern is that Calvin's defenders over the Servetus Affair continued to promote the power of the church to kill those in dissent or who were perceived as heretics. Calvin bears on his ledger all those murdered at Salem as well.</p>
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<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 1.</span> <a name="pgfId=925135"></a> See <a href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579.html#10919" class="XRef"> </a> and accompanying text.</p>
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<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> <a name="pgfId=925104"></a> Berthelier was soon replaced. Calvin's modern apologists deceptively argue that Berthelier was the "attorney of Servetus," but in fact he was the prosecutor. However, he favored applying the law as currently written -- a punishment of expulsion. Consequently, at this early juncture before Calvin appeared as a witness, it very much appeared that the court would be inclined to simply banish Servetus. After Calvin appeared as a witness and began testifying, the prosecutorial team was reshuffled, and Berthelier was no longer involved, and now the penalty under discussion gradually shifted to death. Hence, one may infer that Berthelier was in favor of allowing Servetus to be banished. Given his own struggles against Calvin, one could foresee Berthelier being mild to Servetus.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> <a name="pgfId=937731"></a> For a deplorable example of such `historical writing, see "The Burning of Michael Servetus," at http://www.albatrus.org/english/potpourri/historical/burning_of_servetus.htm (accessed 6/29/08).</p>
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<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> <a name="pgfId=924961"></a> The Pastor of Berne, <a name="marker=924981"></a> Haller, strongly regarded Calvin's doctrine on predestination as virtually blasphemy of God's good nature. See <a href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579.html#31822" class="XRef"> </a> , and accompanying text.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> <a name="pgfId=547012"></a> Amédée Roget, <em>Histoire du peuple de Genève depuis la réforme jusqu'à l'escalade</em> (Geneva, J. Jullien, 1877) Vol. IV at 170 explains this incident in French: "By Le 10, André Vulliod, citoyen et notaire, est dénoncé par Calvin et les ministres comme coupable de blasphème. Ce personnage avait dit que «nous avons grand tort de nous arrester à Jésus-Christ, lequel les Juifs ont reffusé et livré aux gentils;» on lui reprochait aussi de s'être ingéré à recevoir la Cène, bien qu'elle lui eût été défendue. Il est banni pour trois ans par arrêt du Conseil."</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> <a name="pgfId=547337"></a> "Lives of Calvin," <em>London Quarterly</em> (March 1809) at 286 ("Attendance at sermons was rigidly insisted upon.")</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 7.</span> <a name="pgfId=547262"></a> Bernard Cottret, <em>Calvin: A Biography</em> (Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans, 2000) at 252.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 8.</span> <a name="pgfId=547181"></a> Bernard Cottret, <em>Calvin: A Biography</em> (Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans, 2000) at 253.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 9.</span> <a name="pgfId=547149"></a> Bernard Cottret, <em>Calvin: A Biography</em> (Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans, 2000) -- a sympathetic work to Calvin -- mentions the following facts:</p>
<p class="Footnote"><a name="pgfId=547157"></a> [1] in April 1546, Ami <a name="marker=924952"></a> Perrin was put on trial for refusing to testify against several friends who were allegedly guilty of having <a name="marker=924953"></a> danced. She was incarcerated for refusal to testify. (Id., at 189.)</p>
<p class="Footnote"><a name="pgfId=547158"></a> [2] on Thursday, June 23, 1547, several women are tried for having danced, this time including Ami Perrin. (<em>Id</em>., at 189.)</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 10.</span> <a name="pgfId=547276"></a> Bernard Cottret, <em>Calvin: A Biography</em> (Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans, 2000) at 253 ("The age of marriage depended on the ability to procreate. The union of the widow <a name="marker=924948"></a> Claude Richardot, said to be seventy years of age, with her servant Jean Archard, a "youngster of twenty-five or twenty-six" was forbidden. The Council gave the following decision (Tuesday, January 5, 1557): `Such a union would be against nature, and rather to support fornication than the marriage state, which should be kept holy....[T]he servant wanted to take his mistress, not for the principal objects of marriage, to have descendents or for reproduction or other comforts, but for riches. So that it is not according to God.")</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 11.</span> <a name="pgfId=547200"></a> In <a name="marker=924930"></a> Exodus 15:20, Miriam was <a name="marker=924941"></a> dancing to celebrate the victory God's power had brought at the Red Sea. In <a name="marker=924942"></a> 2 Samuel 6:12-16, it recounts David "danced before the Lord" to celebrate the Ark of the Covenant being brought back to Jerusalem. <a name="marker=924931"></a> Psalm 149:3 &amp; <a name="marker=924932"></a> 150:4 mention that we can praise or worship God through dance. There is no prohibition in the Law or Prophets or in Jesus' words on a man and woman dancing.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 12.</span> <a name="pgfId=547311"></a> "Lives of Calvin," <em>London Quarterly</em> (March 1809) at 286.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 13.</span> <a name="pgfId=547326"></a> "Lives of Calvin," <em>London Quarterly</em> (March 1809) at 286 ("To <a name="marker=924933"></a> laugh during a sermon was a matter which drew after it three days' imprisonment.")</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 14.</span> <a name="pgfId=547295"></a> "Lives of Calvin," <em>London Quarterly</em> (March 1809) at 286.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 15.</span> <a name="pgfId=510293"></a> David Sloan Wilson, <em>Darwin's Cathedral: Evolution, Religion, and the Nature of Society</em> (University of Chicago Press, 2002) at 115.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 16.</span> <a name="pgfId=547392"></a> According to Bernard Cottret, <em>Calvin: A Biography</em> (Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans, 2000) -- who is sympathetic to Calvin we learn at page 198, the following facts:</p>
<p class="Footnote"><a name="pgfId=547381"></a> On Monday, June 3, <a name="marker=924951"></a> 1555, several leading citizens were judged without even their presence in court or being put under arrest for the melee of May 1555. In that melee they were in protest against the new tyrranical laws. <a name="marker=924923"></a> Perrin was condemned to have the hand of his right arm cut off, i.e., the hand with which he grabbed the baton that represented the church-head's (syndic's) office. He and those involved in the melee were condemned to decapitation. Then the heads and Perrin's hand were to be nailed up in public and he and his friends' bodies were to be cut into four quarters. The brothers <a name="marker=924924"></a> Comparet received the sentence of decapitation and their bodies were also to be quartered. In response, most fled. Those who refused to be intimidated, and stayed eventually were executed. Two other men, Claude Galloys and Girard Thomas, were put in a sort of pillory in two different parts of town. Galloys also received the sentence of having to carry a torch and ask for mercy. <a name="marker=924927"></a> Berthelier's brother Francois-Daniel was among the victims of the repression. At the same time, <a name="marker=924928"></a> Calvin completely justified the severity of these sentences.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 17.</span> <a name="pgfId=924842"></a> John Calvin, <em>Commentary on Seneca's De Clementia</em> (1532) (Battles/Hugo translation)(1969) at 141.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 18.</span> <a name="pgfId=924903"></a> See <a href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579.html#22674" class="XRef"> </a> .</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 19.</span> <a name="pgfId=948876"></a> See our oline article http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/Lessons/Dutch %20 Republic%20 %20 Calvinist%20subversion %20of%20 freedom%20of%20religion.pdf.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 20.</span> <a name="pgfId=949039"></a> More specifically, the Remonstrants, as they were also called, were Reformed Pastors who taught election on the basis of foreseen faith, a universal atonement, resistible grace, and the possibility of lapse from grace. Schaff points out that the five points of the Remonstrants later became tenets of Wesley's Methodists and the Episcopalian Church. (Schaff, Creeds, Vol. I, 516.)</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 21.</span> <a name="pgfId=949147"></a> http://arminiantoday.blogspot.com/2007/09/synod-of-dort.html (accessed July 6, 2008).</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 22.</span> <a name="pgfId=948922"></a> William A. McComish, <em>The Epigones: A Study of the Theology of the Genevan Academy at the Time of the Synod of Dort</em> (Pickwick Publications, 1989) at 59.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 23.</span> <a name="pgfId=949058"></a> "Synod of Dort," <em>Wikipedia</em>, at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synod_of_Dort (accessed July 6, 2008).</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 24.</span> <a name="pgfId=949095"></a> Dewar, M.W., "The British Delegation at the Synod of Dort - 1618-1619," <em>The Evangelical Quarterly </em>(Ap-Je, 1974) 46: 103-16.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 25.</span> <a name="pgfId=948846"></a> If it is binding, then why do we not follow all its rulings? "Christmas, Easter, Ascension...holydays are all denounced by the assembly at Dort...." <em>Groesbeeck v. Dunscomb</em> (New York Practice Reports, 1871) at 302, 344.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 26.</span> <a name="pgfId=948849"></a> "The First Chapter of Ephesians, or Personal Predestination," <em>Freewill Baptist Quarterly</em> (Oct. 1868) at 388, 397.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 27.</span> <a name="pgfId=948959"></a> William A. McComish, <em>The Epigones: A Study of the Theology of the Genevan Academy at the Time of the Synod of Dort </em>(Pickwick Publications, 1989) at 48.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 28.</span> <a name="pgfId=948975"></a> McCormish calls this "a shameful judicial murder, when John of Olden Barneveld, the foremost citizen of the Netherlands, after forty years of the noblest public service, was beheaded on an absurd charge of treason...." McComish, <em>The Epigones: A Study of the Theology of the Genevan Academy at the Time of the Synod of Dort </em>(Pickwick Publications, 1989) at 124-25. He was killed</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 29.</span> <a name="pgfId=949165"></a> Samuel Parr, LL.D, <em>The Works of Samuel Parr</em> (Longman, Rees, Orme, Brown, and Green, 1828) at 212.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 30.</span> <a name="pgfId=948755"></a> "The Friends believed that God's grace did not filter through the hierarchy of the religious elite, but reached each person directly. In taking this theological approach, the Quakers bypassed the authority of clergy and rulers, and recognized that the common person could be elevated to the `priesthood of all believers.' This rendered the current cultural order obsolete and formed the core ideal of the American republic that would arise more than a century later." "The Flushing Remonstrance" in the Liberty Magazine, available online at http://www.libertymagazine.org/article/articleview/532/1/86/ (accessed 7/5/2008).</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 31.</span> <a name="pgfId=948758"></a> "The Flushing Remonstrance" in the <em>Liberty Magazine</em>, available online at http://www.libertymagazine.org/article/articleview/532/1/86/ (accessed 7/5/2008).</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 32.</span> <a name="pgfId=948763"></a> "Boston Martyrs," http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boston_martyrs (accessed 7/5/2008).</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 33.</span> <a name="pgfId=944603"></a> The difference between a <a name="marker=944602"></a> Puritan and a Pilgrim is simple. A Puritan wanted to purify the Anglican church. The Pilgrim was a Puritan who gave up the effort, and decided a life of pilgrimage to others lands to live a Christian life. See <a href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Calvin%201555%20Subversion%20of%20Geneva%20Democracy%20Repeated%20in%201579.html#36936" class="XRef"> </a> . Hence, Pilgrims were known as Puritans who separated from the Anglican church. See http://www.pilgrimhall.org/PSNoteNewPilgrimPuritan.htm (2/24/2008).</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 34.</span> <a name="pgfId=944610"></a> These are the editor's words in a footnote to Thomas Paine, <em>The Theological Works</em> (J.P.Mendum: 1859) at 181.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 35.</span> <a name="pgfId=944615"></a> "Salem Witch Trials," http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salem_witch_trials (accessed 2/18/2008). "Much, but not all, of the evidence used against the accused was `spectral evidence,' or the testimony of the afflicted who claimed to see the apparition or the shape of the person who was allegedly afflicting them." Id. The Rev. William Milbourne, a Baptist minister in Boston, publicly petitioned the General Assembly in early June 1692, challenging the use of spectral evidence by the Court. Milbourne had to post 200£ bond or be arrested for "contriving, writing and publishing the said scandalous Papers." Id. To the same effect was the petition on June 15, 1692 of twelve local ministers including Increase Mather, Samuel Willard, and Cotton Mather. It was entitled The Return of several Ministers to the Governor and Council in Boston, cautioning the authorities not to rely entirely on the use of spectral evidence, stating, "Presumptions whereupon persons may be Committed, and much more, Convictions whereupon persons may be Condemned as Guilty of Witchcrafts, ought certainly to be more considerable, than barely the Accused Persons being Represented by a Spectre unto the Afflicted."</p>
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<h2><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/didcalvinmurderservetusamazon.html"><em><img src="/images/stories/calvin.jpg" alt="calvin" style="float: right; margin-left: 5px;" height="233" width="175" /></em></a>Did Calvin Murder Servetus?</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In the 1540s, Miguel Servetus wrote Calvin a scribbled insult on a page of the Institutes. It said anyone who held Calvin's doctrine of infant baptism "had a demon." In 1546, Calvin announced that he would not let Servetus leave alive if he set foot in Geneva. Was Calvin's decision to kill Servetus based upon spiritual principles, or revenge? Standford Rives, a lawyer of many years in a Calvinist congregation, carefully examines the case, and finds out the terrible and shocking truth.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/didcalvinmurderservetusamazon.html">Ordering Print book information</a> Now available in <strong>Kindle </strong>for $9.99</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/calvinfreebookonline.html">Free chapters online</a> (from Standford Rives, Esq.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/did-calvin-murder-servetus-knol.html">Rive's Knol "Servetus &amp; Calvin"</a></span></p>
<p><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/didcalvinmurderservetusbackground.html"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Background Information on The Servetus Affair</span></a></p>
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<h2>Background Material on Servetus Affair of 1553</h2>
<h2>1. Founding of USA and Its Constitution</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Calvin revealed himself at Geneva, especially in the Servetus Affair, as less than an advocate of free speech and the freedom of religion. Yet, modern Calvinists claim our USA revolution was a Calvinist Revolution. Calvinists also claim the Christians who led our Revolution were Calvinists. Are these claims true? No.<br /><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Lessons/Appendix on Founding Fathers.pdf" title="Founding of the USA and Its Constitution"></a> <a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/founding-fathers.html">HTML Version</a></span></p>
<h2>2. Was The Spirit for Religious Freedom Among Calvinists or Anti-Calvinists?</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The first demands for freedom of religion in America were made in the 1657 Remonstrances by English citizens within the Dutch Republic. Even though article 13 of the Dutch Constitution protected the freedom of religion, the Calvinists had usurped that, and had persecuted those who resisted the Dutch Reformed Church in the Netherlands. By 1657, the Calvinists had extended this Calvinist persecution to Boston and New Amsterdaam (N.Y.) -- Dutch colonies. Thus, the 1657 Remonstrances was the first seed of religious liberty planted in America. It was specifically planted<strong><em> against Calvinist encroachment </em></strong>on the guaranteed freedom of religion in the Dutch Constitution of 1579. Thus, to say our revolution was Calvinist is absurd. We copied almost all of the Dutch Republic's institutions, but they were all formed prior to the usurpation of Calvinism in the Netherlands to take control. But to say our revolution, and its major concern over freedom of religion was spearheaded by the one denomination known for religious persecution, and which used the state to encroach on the freedom of religion in Connecticut, Massachusetts and New Hampshire (all state-imposed Calvinist churches in the colonies) is exceedingly silly.<br /><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Lessons/Dutch Republic - Calvinist subversion of freedom of religion.pdf" title="The Danger of Calvinism to the Freedom of Religion in the Netherlands"></a><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/dangerofcalvinism.html" title="The Danger of Calvinism to the Freedom of Religion in the Netherlands">HTML Version</a></span></p>
<h2>3. The Servetus Affair Teaches The Intent of the First Amendment</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jefferson mentioned four times the Servetus Affair in his writings. In the First Amendment, Jefferson unquestionably desired to separate church from state in the sense violated at Geneva in 1553. One can only understand Jefferson's rationale for the First Amendment, and his words about separation, when one reads Jefferson's attacks on Calvin's behavior in the Servetus Affair. <br /><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Lessons/Origin of Our First Amendment &amp; The Servetus Affair.pdf" title="The Origins of Our First Amendement &amp; the Servetus Affair"></a><a href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/ourfirstamendment.html" title="The Origins of Our First Amendment and the Sevetus Affair">HTML Version</a></span></p>
<h2>4. Books in the Public Domain on Servetus Affair</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Books/Chaufpierre The_life_of_Servetus__tr__by_J__Yair.pdf" title="Chauffpierre, Life of Servetus 1771 (Calvin Apologist)">Chauffpierre, Life of Servetus, 1771 [Calvin Apologist]<br /></a><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Books/Hodges Impartial_history_of_servetus 1724.pdf" title="Hodges, Impartial history of Michael Servetus, 1724 (Calvin Critic)">Hodges, Impartial History of Michael Servetus, 1724 [Calvin critic]<br /></a><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Books/WrightAn_Apology_for_Dr__Michael_Servetus 1809.pdf" title="Wright, An Apology for Dr. Michael Servetus, 1809 (Calvin Critic)">Wright, An Apology for Dr. Michael Servetus, 1809 [Calvin critic]<br /></a><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Books/Servetus article The_Encyclopaedia_Britannica vol 21 1888.pdf" title="&quot;Servetus,&quot; Encyclopedia Britannica, 1888 (Neutral)">"Servetus," Encyclopedia Britannica, 1888 [neutral]</a><br /><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Books/Mannapology_right_of_private_judgment_pseu_servetus_v_calvin_1775_pp_1-50.pdf" title="Mann, Cursory Remarks . . .or an Apology for the Private Right Judgment ">Mann, Cursory Remarks...or an Apology for the Private Right Judgment...by Michael Servetus, 1775 [Calvin critic]</a></span></p>
<h2>5. Calvin's Subversion of Geneva in 1555 and Responsibility For Later Killing of Heretics</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Calvin set the precedent of killing heretics in Geneva in 1553. This was then used in 1555 to kill political opponents, and gain hegemony over Geneva. This tactic was repeated again in 1581 to subvert the young Dutch Republic which guaranteed religious liberty in its Constitution. Calvinists usurped the laws of the Netherlands, and then created a de facto state church out of the Dutch Reformed Church. They then persecuted and killed Christians who dissented from their views. They did this in the Council of Dort in 1619, and then again with the Boston Martyrs in 1659-1661. This tendency to kill anyone who was suspected of being different also led to the Salem Witch Trials, again perpetrated by Calvinist Puritans trying to imitate the Geneva Republic. For a detailed 27 page analysis, see this <a title="Calvin Subversion" href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/calvin-subversion.html">webpage </a>hosted here.</span></p>
<h2>6. Calvin's Moral Responsibility for Catholic Slaughter of Calvinists</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Calvin bears moral responsibility for the Catholic decision to kill Calvinists in the Netherlands and in France between 1568 and 1572 while leaving the Lutherans alone. This is because Lutherans did not believe in persecuting heretics, while Calvin, due to the Servetus Affair of 1553, endorsed killing heretics in 1554 as a means of deflecting the charge of murder over killing Servetus. Calvin's failure to admit his failing led to this poor excuse. The consequent message to Catholics was that they were in danger if the French Huguenots or the Calvinists of the Netherlands rose in influence because then they were a threat to kill Catholics as heretics. The Catholics then predictably made a pre-emptive strike on the Calvinists of France in 1572 (at least 25,000 were killed) and the Netherlands in 1568 (20,000 were killed). For a detailed 22 page analysis see this <a title="Calvin Bear Responsibility" href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/calvin-bear-resonsibility.html">webpage</a> hosted here.</span><a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Lessons/Does Calvin Bear Responsibility for Later Slaughter by Catholics of Calvinists.html" title="Calvin's Moral Responsibility for Catholic Slaughter of Calvinists"><br /></a></p>
<h2>7. Lord Acton's Example Of A Christian's Duty To Expose Murder On Religious Pretexts</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Lord Acton was a Catholic who 300 years after the St. Batholomew's Massacre felt compelled to expose the Pope and his cardinals' responsibility for the murder of 25,000 to 100,000 French Huguenots. Lord Acton believed that because the Catholic Church claimed it was upolding true doctrine, it was important to remember it committed mass murder. It needed to repent. Lord Acton is an excellent example that Calvinists should imitate with respect to Calvin's role in killing Servetus. No matter how much time has gone by, it is imperative that those who claim to be the heirs of someone who turns out to be a murderer need to confess the crime, and seek repentance from all those following the criminal's doctrines and who honor his memory. For extensive analysis on Lord' Acton's exposure, see this <a title="Lord Acton Example" href="/Did-Calvin-Murder-Servetus/lord-acton-example.html">webpage</a> hosted here.</span></p> </td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>The Origins of Our First Amendment &amp; The Servetus Affair</h2>
<h2>A. Background of the US First Amendment</h2>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The phrase "[A] hedge or </span><em>wall of separation</em><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> between<em><strong> the garden of the church</strong></em> and the <strong><em>wilderness of the world</em></strong>" was first used by Baptist theologian </span><a style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;" title="Roger Williams (theologian)" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roger_Williams_(theologian)">Roger Williams</a><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">, the founder of the colony of </span><a style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;" title="Rhode Island" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rhode_Island">Rhode Island</a><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">, in his 1644 book </span><em><a class="mw-redirect" title="The Bloody Tenent of Persecution" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Bloody_Tenent_of_Persecution">The Bloody Tenent of Persecution</a></em><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">.</span> <span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In "The Bloody Tenent" Wikipedia, we read:</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>Using biblical reasoning, the book argues for a "wall of separation" between </span><a title="Separation of church and state" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separation_of_church_and_state">church and state</a><span> and for state toleration of various Christian denominations, including Catholicism, and also "paganish, Jewish, Turkish or anti-Christian consciences and worships."</span><sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Bloody_Tenent_of_Persecution#cite_note-0">[1]</a></sup><span> The book takes the form of a dialogue between Truth and Peace and is a response to correspondence by Boston minister, </span><a title="John Cotton (Puritan)" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Cotton_(Puritan)">John Cotton</a><span>, regarding Cotton's support for state enforcement of </span><a title="Religious uniformity" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Religious_uniformity">religious uniformity</a><span> in Massachusetts. Through his interpretation of the Bible, Williams argues that </span><a title="Christianity" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christianity">Christianity</a><span> requires the existence of a separate </span><a title="Civil authority" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Civil_authority">civil authority</a><span> that may not generally infringe upon </span><a class="mw-redirect" title="Liberty of conscience" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liberty_of_conscience">liberty of conscience</a><span> which Williams interpreted to be a God given right.</span><sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Bloody_Tenent_of_Persecution#cite_note-books.google.com-1">[2]</a><img style="float: right;" alt="bloudy_tenent_of_persecution_for_cause_of_conscience_by_roger_williams" height="292" width="220" src="/images/stories/JWOBook/bloudy_tenent_of_persecution_for_cause_of_conscience_by_roger_williams.jpg" /></sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In 1776, Jefferson and James Madison were delegates and close friends in colonial Virginia's legislature although Jefferson was eight years Madison's senior. In 1776, Madison proposed to Virginia's Constitution:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>[A]ll men are equally entitled to the full and </span><br /><span>free exercise of [religion], according to the </span><br /><span>dictates of conscience...." (Craig Smith, <a href="http://www.csulb.edu/~crsmith/mad.html">Madison and the Constitution</a>.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">From this point forward "the two became fast friends upon meeting in 1776 and remained friends until Jefferson's death fifty years later on July 4, l826." (<em>Id</em>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In 1779, Jefferson this time took the lead in the Virginia legislature to get such a bill passed. <span> I</span><span>n 1779 Jefferson presented a bill to guarantee full religious liberty to all Virginians—not merely tax exemptions to non-Anglicans. Jefferson met with resistance from those who deemed his measure too radical. Among them was Patrick Henry, who countered by proposing a “general assessment” on all citizens to support Christianity itself as the established religion of Virginia. “What we have to do I think is devoutly to pray for his [Henrys] death,” Jefferson joked in a letter to Madison.</span><span> (<a href="http://nationalhumanitiescenter.org/tserve/eighteen/ekeyinfo/sepchust.htm">National Humanities Center</a>.) The bill failed.</span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Jefferson and Madison were undaunted, and continued to press the Virginia legislature to grant the right of religious liberty. Madison responded to Henry that government's role was not to promote any religion. If Virginia sponsored all Christian religions, as Henry requested, it would be dangerous to liberty, for “Who does not see that the same authority, which can establish Christianity, in exclusion of all other Religions, may establish with the same ease any particular sect of Christians, in exclusion of all other Sects?” </span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>In 1785, Thomas Jefferson wrote </span><a target="_blank" href="http://historyofideas.org/toc/modeng/public/JefVirg.html"><em>Notes on the State of Virginia</em></a><span> (1785), and said in similar fashion: “The legitimate powers of government extend to such acts only as are injurious to others. But it does me no injury for my neighbor to say that there or twenty gods or no God. It neither picks my pocket nor breaks my leg.” (C.L. Heyrman, "<a href="http://nationalhumanitiescenter.org/tserve/eighteen/ekeyinfo/sepchust.htm">The Separation of Church and State</a>.")</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>In 1786, the Virginia legislature finally passed </span><a target="_blank" href="http://www.vahistorical.org/sva2003/vsrf.htm">Jeffersons bill for religious freedom</a><span>. It provided that “…no man shall be compelled to frequent or support any religious worship, place, or ministry whatsoever…<strong><em>nor shall otherwise suffer on account of his religious opinions or belief</em></strong>; but that all men shall be <strong><em>free to profess,</em></strong> and by argument to maintain, their opinion in matters of religion, and that the same shall in no wise diminish, enlarge, or affect their civil capacities.” (<em>Id.</em>)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The reasoning of the two men -- Madison and Jefferson -- were so identical on this issue that when Jefferson in 1789 sent his draft provision on what became the first amendment, it read almost identical to what Madison drafted -- even though Jefferson's version came late in the mails from France during 1789. In it Jefferson insisted that "all persons shall have full and free liberty of religious opinion; nor shall any be compelled to frequent or maintain any religious institution." (</span><a style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;" href="http://www.history.org/foundation/journal/spring07/jefferson.cfm">History.org</a><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Thus, by long collaboration in the Virginia Legislature on the identical terms of what became the First Amendment, it can fairly be said that <strong><em>both</em></strong> Madison and Jefferson were its drafters.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">On January 1, 1802, Jefferson explained the thinking behind the First Amendment to the Baptist Association of Danbury, Connecticut, and being the literate man Jefferson was, he alluded to Roger William's book of 1644 -- <em>The Bloody Tenent </em>which mentioned the goal of a 'wall of separation between church and state':</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>"Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between Man &amp; his God, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only, &amp; not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof, thus <strong><em>building a wall of separation between Church &amp; State</em></strong>."</span>(</span><span>Boyd, Julian P., Charles T. Cullen, John Catanzariti, Barbara B. Oberg, et al, eds. </span><a target="_blank" rel="external" class="external text" title="http://tjportal.monticello.org/cgi-bin/Pwebrecon.cgi?BBID=6323" href="http://tjportal.monticello.org/cgi-bin/Pwebrecon.cgi?BBID=6323"><em>The Papers of Thomas Jefferson</em></a><span>. Princeton: Princeton University Press, 1950 at </span><span>36:258. Source: <a href="http://www.monticello.org/site/research-and-collections/jeffersons-religious-beliefs#footnote9_7nwwu3x">Monticello.org</a>.)</span></p>
<h2>B. The Servetus Affair</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Servetus Affair helps us further understand our First Amendment. In fact, that episode with Servetus was an event mentioned many times by the first drafter of the First Amendment, Thomas Jefferson. It indubitably helps explain what he meant by the rationale for the First Amendment as creating a separation of church and state.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">What a history lesson teaches is that the modern practice of distinct boundaries -- the church having domain over conscience and the state over true crimes -- was the real objective behind the doctrine of separation of church and state as reflected in the First Amendment. (<em>Reynolds v. U.S.</em> (1879) (that metaphor "may be accepted almost as an authoritative declaration of the scope and effect of the amendment.") Thankfully, the First Amendment has largely succeeded in its original purpose.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">However, because many modern jurists have forgotten the Servetus Affair, they are also slowly losing grip on the true meaning of and purpose of the First Amendment. As a result, the law is slipping backwards as the explosion of hate-crime legislation proves.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Indeed, the concept of `separation of church and state' by Jefferson in his famous letter of 1802 was <strong><em>meant to reflect the lessons learned from the Servetus Affair</em></strong>. Jefferson was very familiar with the Servetus case, having written elsewhere that modern-day Calvinists were accusing a Dr. Cooper of "Unitarianism...as if it were a crime, and one for which, like <strong><em>Servetus</em></strong>, he should be burned...." <sup>1</sup> Jefferson also bemoaned modern day Calvinists who rely upon "their oracle Calvin who consumed the poor <em><strong>Servetus</strong></em>." <sup>2</sup> Jefferson spoke again of "the fire and faggots [<em>i.e.</em>, burning logs] of Calvin and his victim <strong><em>Servetus</em></strong>." <sup>3 </sup>In another allusion to the Servetus' case, Jefferson said "the Trinitarian idea triumphed not by reason but by the word of the fanatic Athanasius, and grew in the blood of thousands and thousands of martyrs." <sup>4</sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Only with that context can one deeply understand Jefferson's famous letter of 1802 (and Roger William's reference in 1644). Jefferson explains the rationale to the First Amendment was to form "<em><strong>a wall of separation between church and state</strong></em>." But this did not mean a wall at the public courthouse prohibiting entry of an emblem of the Ten Commandments. It did not mean we cannot put "in God we trust" on our coins. It did not mean our patriotic anthem cannot thank God for our blessings. These are<strong><em> childish applications</em></strong> of the literal words about `separation.' </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Rather, the prohibition on Establishing Religion or Abridging the freedom of religion in the First Amendment had primarily to do with the countours of <strong><em>punishment or state burdens (like taxes) over conscience</em></strong>. Jefferson explained in this same letter to the Danbury Baptist Association (Jan. 1, 1802) what he meant. It matches precisely the lessons learned from the Servetus Affair:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"All attempts to influence [religious thoughts] by <strong><em>temporal punishments or burdens</em></strong>, or by civil incapacitations, tend only to <em><strong>beget habits of hypocrisy and meanness</strong></em>, and are a departure from the plan of the Holy Author of our religion, who being both Lord of body and mind, yet chose <strong><em>not to propagate it by coercions </em></strong>on either, as was his Almighty power to do." <sup>5</sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, Jefferson meant that the state had no role any longer in imposing on the liberty of conscience (<em>i.e</em>., our First Amendment, transgressed by "meanness" in the Servetus Affair). Conscience was the domain of the church or private belief. At the same time, the church had no right to inflict in matters of conscience the punishments or burdens that belonged to the state, such as deportation, confinement, taxes or death (<em>i.e.</em>, transgressed by Calvin's use of the criminal courts to punish heresy). Hence, <em><strong>the powers of the state were kept from the church</strong></em>. They were not to be used in matters of conscience which belonged to the kingdom of God. Hence, a wall. Luther's theory in the 1500s of two kingdoms was a precursor of this view.<sup>6</sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">What was on his mind was the same concern when Jefferson the bill which got passed into the Virginia Constitution in 1776 which ended civil punishments for not attending church.<sup>8 </sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Similar changes took place outside Virginia during 1776-1777 as the legislatures repealed taxes which had been imposed on everyone to pay for the state churches in Massachusetts and Connecticut. See our discussion of the same under the "<a href="/JWO/glasites.html">Glasite</a>" movement which influenced such new ideals.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, the wall of which Jefferson spoke was <em><strong>not to separate any emblem of Law that comes from religion such as the Ten Commandments. </strong><span style="font-style: normal;">He would laugh if someone wished to take 'In God We Trust' off our coin.</span><strong> </strong></em>Rather, what was on the mind of the founders was the Servetus Affair, and the need to put<em><strong> a wall separating the church from any longer using the state's power to punish or coerce to force a religious belief or practice upon any single individual</strong></em>. If you failed to believe, or failed to attend church, or did not want to support a church body, the punishment or imposing a burden on your decision <strong><em>no longer belonged to the state</em></strong>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, reviewing the Servetus Affair helps remind us that the principle of 'separation of church and state' did not originate to remove symbols of religion on public land or buildings or coins. To think religion could be established by mere civic expressions of a generalized faith in God or appreciation for the Ten Commandments is silly. To think that prohibiting such activities was the First Amendment's intended purpose (or could ever be its intended meaning) is to lose sight of its true message that the state should not impose its terrifying penalties or painful burdens for wrong belief or failure to financially support a church. Putting up the 10 Commandments in Court imposes no penalties for looking away. Putting "in God we trust" on a bill does not reward its user for its use, or penalize anyone who does not agree with its statement.</span></p>
<h2>Implication on Hate Crime Legislation</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This is why modern hate crime legislation,<sup>9 </sup>which exacerbates criminal penalties based on hateful beliefs, is so inimical to the underlying premise of the separation of church and state. The true theory behind that phrase was that matters of private <strong><em>belief</em></strong>, whether religious or otherwise, would no longer be punished with criminal penalties. Once hate crimes were legitimized in the U.S.,<sup>10</sup> and now exist in 43 states, it was no surprise that<strong><em> expressive</em></strong> gestures that do no physical harm but which `intimidate' others can now be criminalized, so says the Supreme Court. <sup>11</sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The better solution is to use wholesome teaching on civic responsibilities, supported by appropriate civil damages after-the-fact and/or injunctions to correct the effects of invidious bias and socially-unacceptable ideas (<em>e.g</em>., false and misleading defamation, civil rights violations, etc.). On the other hand, it should be strongly presumed as<em><strong> wrong to use criminal penalties to change the way people think</strong></em>. Hate-crime legislation should be subjected to the heighest scrutiny, given the original goals of the First Amendment. It was originally intended to correct for the<em><strong> abuse of criminal laws over conscience</strong></em>, as the Servetus Affair was etched into the minds of those who drafted the amendment.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, whenever criminal penalties today are heightened purely on the basis of <em><strong>socially undesirable</strong></em> thoughts, that hits at the core of what the First Amendment sought to eradicate. Having lost the memory of the Servetus Affair has caused the loss of memory of what was the core purpose of the First Amendment. This memory loss has opened the door to approval of hate-crime legislation among other slips in upholding freedom of speech and religion.</span></p>
<h2>Side-Note on Jefferson's Support of Government Bequests to Christian Causes</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Many claim that Jefferson's own legislative policies prove the state can fund Christian causes in the USA without violating the Establishment of Religion Clause. They cite the fact Jefferson supported the federal government giving money to build a Catholic church for an Indian tribe, and supporting Congress giving missionary money to preach the gospel to the `heathen.'<sup>7</sup></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">However, Jefferson probably regarded support of a Christian religion among non-US citizens, <em>i.e.</em>, Indians (as they were then viewed as a 'foreign nation') and "heathen" in other lands did not transgress the Establishment of Religion clause of the First Amendment. It is doubtful he would have agreed on such expenses to promote a specific church or religion among US citizens inside the USA.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For more information, see "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Amendment_to_the_United_States_Constitution">First Amendment</a>,"<em>Wikipedia.</em></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><em>See also</em> Philip Hamburger, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=s1pzTh9oh2gC">Separation of Church and State</a> (2002)<br />--------------------------------------------------------------------------------</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">1. May 1820, quoted in <em>The Jeffersonian Cyclopedia</em> (1900) at 207.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">2. Edwin Scott Gaustad, <em>Sworn on the Altar of God: A Religious Biography of Thomas Jefferson</em> (Wm. B. Eerdmans, 1996) at 177.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">3. Thomas Jefferson, <em>Memoir, Correspondence, and Miscellanies: From the Papers of Thomas Jefferson</em> (F. Carr &amp; Co., 1829) at 45-46.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">4. Charles B. Sanford, <em>The religious life of Jefferson</em> (1984) at 90.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">5. <em>Social and Political Philosophy</em> (John Sommerville &amp; Ronald E. Santoni, eds.) (1963) at 247. The back-draft negative effect of zealous pursuit of mere heresy was that we lost the ability to prosecute the only religious crime which was ever legitimately also a public crime: blasphemy. But since we are not angels, and do not follow the Bible's requirement of two eye-witnesses, it appears we are far from ready to ever re-invigorate such a crime into modern codes.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">6. Justo L. Gonzalez, <em>The Story of Christianity </em>(Harper Collins, 1984) at 36.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">7. David E. Guinn, <em>Faith on Trial: Communities of Faith, the First Amendment, and the Theory of Deep Diversity</em> (Lexington Books, 2006) at 31.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">8. Marion Levy, Leonard W. Levy,<em> Seasoned Judgments: The American Constitution, etc</em> (Transaction Publishers, 1997) at 100.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">9. Once authorized by the Supreme Court in 1993, hate-crimes are now used in 43 states. They provide enhanced penalties if a defendant in committing the crime acted with a purpose to intimidate an individual or group of individuals because of race, color, gender, handicap, religion, sexual orientation or ethnicity. A hate crime is not a crime where the hateful motive is relevant to proving the elements of crime, contrary to how some explain these laws. So far, a hate crime is something already criminal which is<em><strong> punished more severely because the ideology (motive) behind the hate was a societally-rejected bias</strong></em>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">10. In approving hate-crime legislation, the Supreme Court engaged in a euphemism to resolve its contradiction of sound jurisprudence. It first admitted correctly this principle: "But it is equally true that a defendant's <strong><em>abstract beliefs</em></strong>, however <strong><em>obnoxious to most people</em></strong>, may not be taken into consideration by a sentencing judge." <em>Wisconsin v. Mitchell</em>, 508 U.S. 476, 485 (U.S. 1993). However, then by labelling the enhancement as punishing the <strong><em>evil motive </em></strong>of selecting a victim due to an ideology (there racism), the Supreme Court said this was not punishing thought, <em>i.e.</em>, abstract beliefs. Yet, it is indeed punishing thought, albeit a more dangerous thought that may lead to crimes.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Dr. Phyllis Gerstenfeld in <em>The Hate Debate and Policy Problems</em> (Sage Publications: 2004) mentions this criticism, and says "I admit to <strong><em>still feeling ambivalent</em></strong> on this matter myself." She adds: "I remain<strong><em> firmly on the fence</em></strong>." (<em>Id.</em>, at 3, 37.) In other words, she feels queezy about adding penalties to an act that is already criminal solely because of the kind of thoughts held by the perpetrator. Perhaps the biggest problem is that such a statute, in the wrong hands, is an evil weapon, which we saw how it worked in Calvin's hands in 1553. Today, any prosecution of any crime, if a prosecutor wishes to intimidate a defendant, can turn your life upside down. The prosecutor simply starts<em><strong> interviewing all your friends and family to find out any hateful thoughts you ever expressed about a person in the category of your alleged victim.</strong></em> If it is there, the prosecution becomes a vendetta against your abstract thoughts if they can fall into the category of 'evil motive.' Hence, we have arrived at punishing abstract thoughts on the pretense we are not doing so, and are merely punishing an evil motive. These are words without any distinction.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">11. "The First Amendment permits Virginia to outlaw cross burnings done with the intent to intimidate because burning a cross is a particularly virulent form of intimidation."<em> Virginia v. Black</em>, 538 U.S. 343, 363 (U.S. 2003)(held without such limitation, it was unconstitutional).</span></p> </td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2></h2>
<h2>Verses About Paul in Matthew<a name="pgfId=997349"></a><a name="pgfId=997350"></a></h2>
<p> </p>
<table border="1">
<caption>
<h2><a name="pgfId=997518"></a>List of Verses Prophesying / Warning About Paul in Matthew</h2>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=997524"></a>Verse</p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=997526"></a>Quote / Description</p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=997528"></a>Fulfillment in Paul</p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997530"></a>Matthew 5:17-19</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997532"></a>17`Do not suppose that I came to throw down the Law or the prophets -- I did not come to throw down, but to fulfill;</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997533"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997534"></a>18for, verily I say to you, till that the heaven and the earth may pass away, one iota or one tittle may not pass away from the Law, till that all may come to pass.</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997535"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997536"></a>19`Whoever therefore may loose one of these commands -- the least -- and may teach men so, least he shall be called in the reign of the heavens, but whoever may do and may teach [them], he shall be called great in the reign of the heavens." (Young's Literal)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997538"></a>As a Roman citizen from birth (Acts 22:28), Saul had to have a Roman name from birth, and it was "Paulus." This name in Latin means "least." Farrar notes: "Paulus, a contraction of Pauxillus, means `least.'" (Farrar:200.) See <a href="/JWO/jesus-on-paul-the-least.html">our article</a>.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997886"></a>Matthew 5:20</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997888"></a>In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus says that "unless your righteousness exceeds that of the Pharisees, you will not enter the kingdom of heaven."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997890"></a>Paul teaches if you try to be right with God by obeying the Law, "you are severed from Christ." (Gal. 5:4.)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997908"></a>"I am a Pharisee." (Paul in Acts 26:5 after 14+ years as a Christian.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997698"></a>Matthew 7:15</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997700"></a>15`But, take heed of the false prophets, who come unto you in sheep's clothing, and inwardly are ravening wolves." (Young's). COMPARE:</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997728"></a>Genesis 49:27: "Benjamin is a ravenous wolf; in the morning he devours the prey, in the evening he divides the plunder / spoils."</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997711"></a>Ez 22:26 "Her priests [of ravening wolves princes] have done violence to my law,..., neither have they caused men to discern between the unclean and the clean, and have hid their eyes from my sabbaths, and I am profaned among them."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997702"></a><a name="marker=997723"></a>Paul was a <a name="marker=997725"></a>Benjamite (Romans 11:1; Philippians 3:5). Paul started as a killer of Christians or as one who approved the killing of Christians (<a name="marker=997714"></a>Acts 7:58; 8:1-3, 9:1). Paul said the twelve gave him the exclusive right to recruit Gentiles as Christians while the twelve apostles supposedly would exclusively recruit Jews. (<a name="marker=997719"></a>Galatians 2:9.)</p>
<p class="CellBody">On Paul, like priests of ravening wolves in Ez 22:26, teaching sabbath is abolished, see "<a href="/JWO/paul-abolished-sabbath.html">Paul abolished Sabbath</a>." And Paul, like those same priests, taught all food is clean, even meat sacrificed to idols.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998870"></a>Matthew 7:21-23</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998872"></a>21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father who is in heaven.</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998873"></a>22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy by thy name, and by thy name cast out demons, and by thy name do many mighty works?</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998874"></a>23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work ANOMIA -- either "iniquity" or "negation of the Law of Moses."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998876"></a>Paul expressly said his validity was proven by "signs and wonders." (2 Cor. 12:12.; Romans 15:19.)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998877"></a>Paul was a worker of ANOMIA -- the negation of the Law, as Paul admits in 1 Cor. 9:20-21. There Paul says he "works" to appear "anomos" <em>i.e.</em>, without the Law around those who are Gentiles, saying Paul himself is `not under the Law.' In the very next verse, Paul defended being `all things to all men' to fit in with their morals. (1 Cor. 9:22.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997656"></a>Matthew 10:8</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997658"></a>"Do not take wages." (Shem-Tob) "Without cost you have received; without cost you are to give."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997660"></a>"I robbed other churches, taking wages of them that I might minister unto you." 2 Cor 11:8 ASV. "The elders who direct the affairs of the church well are worthy of double honor [<em>i.e</em>., payment] especially those whose work is preaching and teaching." 1 Tim. 5:7-18</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997611"></a>Matthew 13:25, 39</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997613"></a>25 and, while men are sleeping, his enemy came and sowed darnel in the midst of the wheat, and went away,...39 and the enemy who sowed them is the devil, and the harvest is a full end of the age, and the reapers are messengers. (Young's Literal)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997615"></a>"Enemy is in the<em> Pseudo-Clementine Recognitions</em> and <em>Homolies</em> a constant designation for Simon Magus by whom is meant Paul." "Gospels," <em>Encyclopædia Biblica</em> (1901) at 1787 fn.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997540"></a>Matthew 16:17-19</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997542"></a>17And Jesus answering said to him, `Happy art thou, Simon Bar-Jona, because flesh and blood did not reveal [it] to thee, but my Father who is in the heavens.</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997543"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997544"></a>18`And I also say to thee, that thou art a rock, and upon this rock I will build my assembly, and gates of Hades shall not prevail against it;</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997545"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997546"></a>19 and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the heavens, and whatever thou mayest bind upon the earth shall be having been bound in the heavens, and whatever thou mayest loose upon the earth shall be having been loosed in the heavens.'</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997548"></a>12 for neither did I from man receive it, nor was I taught [it], but through a revelation of Jesus Christ, (Gal. 1:12 YLT)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997587"></a>16 to reveal His Son<strong><em> in me</em></strong>, that I might proclaim him good news among the nations, immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood,</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997585"></a>17 nor did I go up to Jerusalem unto those who were apostles before me, but I went away to Arabia, and again returned to Damascus (Gal. 1:16-17)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997785"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997786"></a>Paul attacked Peter in Galatians as a hypocrite (Gal. 2:11-12), dismissing him as a "seeming" pillar of the church (Gal. 2:9) who "imparted nothing to me" (Gal 2:7) and "whatsoever they [<em>i.e</em>., Peter, James and John] were makes no difference to me," <em>i.e</em>., Paul is unimpressed by their stature with Jesus. Gal 2:6.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997550"></a>Matthew 23:9</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997552"></a>"and ye may not call [any] your father on the earth, for one is your Father, who is in the heavens" (Young's Literal)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997554"></a>"For even if you had ten thousand others to teach you about Christ, you have only one spiritual father. For I became your father in Christ Jesus when I preached the Good News to you." (1 Cor. 4:15, NLT)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997810"></a>Matthew 23:21</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997812"></a>Jesus said, in a correction of Pharisees who thought an oath offered "by" articles offered at the Temple were binding but not an oath by the Temple at Jerusalem itself: "And he who swears by the temple swears by it and by the one who dwells in it." (Matt. 23:21.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997814"></a>"God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and does not live in temples built by hands." (Acts 17:24)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997831"></a>The Temple at Jerusalem still was standing when Paul said this.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997556"></a>Matthew 23:23</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997558"></a>"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone." (King James)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997560"></a>Paul contrarily portrays Pharisees as strict legalists. He says in Philippians 3:5-6 that as a result of his time as a Pharisee that "as touching righteousness, found blameless." In Acts 26:5 Paul says "I conformed to the strictest sect of our religion, living as a Pharisee."</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997562"></a>Matthew 23:28</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997564"></a>28 so also ye outwardly indeed do appear to men righteous, and within ye are full of hypocrisy and lawlessness [<em>i.e.,</em> ANOMIA, abrogation of the Law."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997566"></a>1 Cor 9:20-21 ("to the Jews I became as a Jew that I might win Jews...myself not being myself under the Law....") Paul even extolled hypocrisy for the sake of gaining followers: "But be it so, I did not myself burden you; but, being crafty, I caught you with guile." (2 Cor. 12:16, ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=997853"></a>"All things are lawful but not all things are necessarily expedient." (1 Cor 6:12.) "Give no offense ...to the Jews... just as I also please all men in all things,...seeking...the profit of many, that they may be saved." (1Corinthians 10:31-33.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997568"></a>Matthew 24:26-27</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997676"></a>26`If therefore they may say to you, Lo, in the wilderness he is, ye may not go forth; lo, in the inner chambers, ye may not believe;</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997677"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997570"></a>27 for as the lightning doth come forth from the east, and doth appear unto the west, so shall be also the presence of the Son of Man;</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998856"></a>Cf 1 Kings 19:15. "And Yahweh said unto [Elijah] Go, return on thy way to the wilderness of Damascus." This is the only identification elsewhere in Scripture of the Road to Damascus. It is called a "wilderness."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=997572"></a>Acts 9:5-8 is Paul's encounter with someone on the road near Damascus (a wilderness per 1 Kings 19:15). It is (a) in the wildnerness and (b) not seen by every one on earth, and hence affirmatively could not be the true Jesus.</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998885"></a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998882"></a>Paul did not recognize this figure, but had to ask "who are you?" (Acts 9:5.) His companions heard the voice but did not see anyone. (Acts 9:7-8.)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=998880"></a></p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<h2>Jesus' Pharisees Criticisms Can Also Be Cited</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We could also cite each and every reference to the Pharisees by Jesus in Matthew. But it requires explanation.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">First, for many years into Paul's Christian walk, Paul still insisted "I am a Pharisee" (<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/23-6.htm">Acts 23:6</a>). Second, when you compare Paul's doctrine and tactics, you will see a direct match between the Pharisees Jesus condemned and Paul, the Pharisee-Christian -- an identification confirmed by Paul's own admission. In other words, Jesus gave us criticisms of the Pharisees which invariably are true also about Paul. Here is an article on the "<a href="http://www.reformedonline.com/view/reformedonline/Tribulation.htm">Tribulation</a>" from Reformed Online (4/10/2012) which unwittingly indicts Paul when summarizing what Jesus' views were about the Pharisees primarily from the book of Matthew:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The scribes and Pharisees were hypocrites (Mt. 23:13, 14, 15, 23, 25, 27, 29; 15:7) who through their false teaching "shut up heaven" (Mt. 23:13) and made their converts "sons of hell" (Mt. 23:15). They had perverted the doctrine of salvation to the extent that they were teaching damnable heresy and thus had completely lost the preeminent mark of the true church. No wonder Jesus said that their father was the devil (Jn. 6:44) and their synagogues were of Satan (Rev. 3:9). The scribes and Pharisees were also exceedingly wicked in their behavior. They were stealing from widows (Mt. 23:14) and putting on an insincere religious show (Mt. 23:14). They made up human traditions in order to circumvent the law of Moses (Mt. 23:16 ff.; Mt. 15:6). They neglected the weightier matters of the law to focus on trifles (Mt. 23:23-24). Thus they were "fools and blind" (23:17, 19), "blind guides" (Mt. 23:16, 24; cf. 15:7), "white-washed tombs" (23:27), "full of hypocrisy and lawlessness" (Mt. 23:28), "serpents" and a "brood of vipers" (23:33). They were the "sons [i.e., of like mind and behavior] of those who murdered the prophets" who will "persecute," "scourge," "crucify" and "kill" the "prophets, wise men and scribes" that Christ will send (Mt. 23:34).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">How does this summary apply to Paul?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul played the hypocrite in his evangelism, by his own admission. (See our article on "<a href="/JWO/guile-in-paul.html">Guile in Paul</a>"). Paul taught a salvation doctrine that similarly "circumvented the law of Moses" completely. (See our article "<a href="/JWO/pauls-contradictions-of-jesus.html">Paul's Contradictions of Jesus</a>.") Paul robbed widows -- by denying arbitrarily to any widow under 60 the support mandated in the Law given Moses. (See "<a href="/JWO/pauls-command-not-to-help-young-widows.html">Paul Denies Widows Suppport</a>.") And on and on the parallels can be proven. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, the book of Matthew (and needless to say parts of John's Gospel) talk of the Pharisees in a way that is a prophetic warning about one more Pharisee -- Paul. For despite his conversion Paul maintained his identity as a Pharisee -- telling a large crowed more than 14 years into his being a Christian, "I am a Pharisee" (<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/23-6.htm">Acts 23:6</a>). </span></p> </td>
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<h2>What Are The Dates Of The Oldest Mss of NT That Survive?</h2>
<h3>Overview of Manuscripts from 2d Century [100-199 AD]</h3>
<p> </p>
<p><strong>The New Testament fragments which survive from this period totally exclude Mark. They contain only the tiniest part of Acts and nothing from Revelation or 1 or 2 Peter. The numbered papyrus fragments are:</strong></p>
<ul>
<li><strong>P46, from the late second century, contains the Pauline epistles, including Hebrews (after Romans!), but not 1 or 2 Timothy or Titus. Interestingly, Romans 16:25-27 appears at the end of chapter 15!.</strong></li>
<li><strong>P4 contains parts of Luke 1-6.</strong></li>
<li><strong>P32 contains part of Titus 1-2.</strong></li>
<li><strong>P90 , is a fragment of John's Gospel containing parts of John 18:36-19:7.</strong></li>
<li><strong>P64 contains parts of Matthew 26:7-8 and 26:31, and fragments of verses 14-15, verse 10, verse 32-33 and 22-23.</strong></li>
<li><strong>P67 contains parts of Matthew 3:9, 3:15, 5:20-22, 5:25-28</strong></li>
<li><strong>P52 is from AD125. It is very, very tiny and contains parts of John 18:31-4 and John 18:37-8, but with a slightly different wording as compared to later manuscripts. It does not have two complete consecutive words written on it.</strong></li>
<li><strong>P98 contains parts of Acts 1:13-20  (Source: <a href="http://essenes.net/index.php?option=com_content&amp;task=view&amp;id=149&amp;Itemid=563">New Testament Alterations</a>.)</strong></li>
</ul>
<h3>Mark</h3>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Mark's gospel appears for the first time in the oldest extant manuscripts containing all four canonical gospels (p<sup>45</sup>)  which was written in the middle of the 3d century. No other manuscript evidence for Mark exists before the 4th century, where Mark is included in the oldest uncial manuscript of the entire Greek Bible." (Helmut Koester, <em>The Ancient Christian Gospels</em> (1990) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=DGK4sIPk4PYC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=Helmut%20Koester%20Ancient%20Christian%20Gospels&amp;pg=PA51#v=onepage&amp;q=proclamation&amp;f=false">273</a>.)</p>
<h3>Matthew</h3>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"In contrast to the gospel of Mark, the gospel of Matthew is quite well attested in the earliest tradition of the Christian communities. There are two early papyri written about 200 CE, containing at least the fragmentary text of the gospel of Matthew. Six more papyri were written in the third century. Rich attestation comes from the fourth century: six papyri, five uncial manuscripts, and of course, the two oldest manuscripts which present the entire text of the Bible." (Koester, <em>The Ancient Christian Gospels</em> (1990) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=DGK4sIPk4PYC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=Helmut%20Koester%20Ancient%20Christian%20Gospels&amp;pg=PA314#v=onepage&amp;q=proclamation&amp;f=false">314</a>.)</p>
<p>These papyri were republished in Volumes 64-66 of the Oxyrynchus papyri project. <span>They were recovered by Bernard P. Grenfell and Arthur S. Hunt in a series of expeditions from 1896/97 and 1903 through to 1907. (See this <a href="http://www.tyndale.cam.ac.uk/Tyndale/staff/Head/NTOxyPap.htm">link</a> from Tyndale House.)</span></p>
<p><span></span>The oldest of Matthew are three: P.Oxy 4405, which represents a new portion of P77, containing Matthew 23:30-34, 35-39, dating as early as the 2d or 3d century); P.Oxy 4403, containing Matthew 13:55-56, 14:3-5, again from the 2d or 3d century; P.Oxy 4404, containing Matthew 21:34-37, 43 &amp; 45, from the late second century. (See L.W. Hurtado, University of Edinburgh, "The New Testament in the Second Century," at this <a href="http://larryhurtado.files.wordpress.com/2010/07/nt-in-second-century-essay2.pdf">link</a> in PDF, at page 3.)<span> </span>    For more on these papyri, see <a href="http://www.papyrology.ox.ac.uk/POxy/">http://www.papyrology.ox.ac.uk/POxy/</a> For a comprehensive list of the papyri from that site of portions of all NT books, see this <a href="http://www.bibletranslation.ws/manu.html">link</a>.</p>
<p>These Matthew papyri have variants found in later sources which differ from our Greek text tradition. Then there are also unique variants also found in these fragments which are "only attested" in these versions." <em>Id.</em> If valid, then rather than confirming the Greek text, these recently discovered texts "may very well reflect very early readings that simply happen not to have survived in the extant Greek witnesses." (Hurtado, <em>id.</em>, at 4.)</p>
<p>After these papyri are two "Uncials" -- texts that comprise ONE entire New Testament -- the first is the Sinaiticus which was only found in the late 1800s, but is dated to about 340-380 AD. The next UNCIAL is the Alexandrian text from the 5th century, but it is missing the entirety of Matthew 1:1 to chapter 25:6, and thus leaves us no earlier complete Matthew than the Sinaiticus. See "Uncial Manuscripts" at this <a href="http://www.skypoint.com/members/waltzmn/ManuscriptsUncials.html">webpage</a>.</p>
<p>This then allows us to make a conclusion that other than these papyri fragments all Greek texts earlier than 340-380 AD have been lost. And one of the reasons is evident by looking at Matthew 28:19. All scholars and the RCC admit there was a forgery to add the trinity formula for baptism into the text. But because no post 340-380 AD Greek text omits it -- while it is omitted in the ancient Syriac and old African Latin and the Hebrew Shem-Tob Matthew which rely upon sources predating 340 AD, there must have been an effort to eradicate the earlier Greek texts of Matthew that conflicted with orthodoxy that was willing to alter Matthew 28:19 to sustain late doctrines. This is alluded to by Conybear:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"In the case just examined (Matthew 28:19), it is to be noticed that not a single manuscript or ancient version [in Greek] has preserved to us the true reading. But that is not surprising for as Dr. C. R. Gregory, one of the greatest of our textual critics, reminds us, 'the Greek MSS of the text of the New Testament were often altered by scribes, who put into them the readings which were familiar to them,' and which they held to be the right readings." (Conybear, <em>Canon and Text of the New Testament</em> (1907) at 424.</p>
<p>In other words, Conybear is saying that since scribes were freely altering texts to insert doctrines that were developing, the fact no conflicting text survived in Greek regarding Matthew 28:19 bespeaks that scribes did not want those texts to survive to challenge their work. The problem for those scribes is (a) we now have recovered fragments of earlier versions of passages other than Matthew 28:19 that show their corrupting efforts; and (b) the early church 'fathers' such as Origen, Justin, Tertullian etc., recorded in the 100s and 200s the early versions of Matthew and thus we can see that way the corrupting hand of scribes operated. Hence, this makes it necessary for Christians to exhort scholars to reconstruct faithfullly the original form of Matthew and the other gospels, to remove the hand of scribes who thought to 'help' in this improper manner.</p>
<p>For a site dedicated just to the issue of Matthew 28:19, see this<a href="http://jesus-messiah.com/apologetics/catholic/matthew2819.html#What Happened To The Earliest MSS"> link</a>.</p>
<p>A very detailed mss by mss catalogue, and the dates relating to Matthew you will find at this link - <a href="http://www.biblequery.org/mtMss.htm">http://www.biblequery.org/mtMss.htm</a></p>
<h3>Luke</h3>
<p>This is a gospel that the writer Ignatius of the 100s never once quoted. Nicholson:<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA72#v=onepage&amp;q=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;f=false"> 72</a>.</p>
<p>Some suggest it was a fairly late creation. What we do know is that Luke is a terribly mutilated text, sad to say.</p>
<p>Tertullian at 200 AD quotes from Luke a passage similarly found at Matthew 5:17, which reads: "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill." This verse <em>in Tertullian's scriptures preceded what remains in our Bibles at Luke 16:17</em>, which reads: "And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail". Now the verse comparable to 5:17 in Matthew is gone.</p>
<p>Tertullian also quotes the verse at Matthew 15:24, which reads: "But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel", as <strong><em>also contained in his copy of Luke</em></strong>. But now it is gone from Luke.</p>
<p>The Gospel of Luke also has evidence that eight chapters were added late.</p>
<p>When the Gospel of Luke was originally written, Luke 9:47-48 was connected with what is now Luke 17:1-2. The reason stems from something Origen wrote ca. 200 AD.</p>
<div>
<div>In Origen's <em>Commentary on Matthew</em>, he compares the narratives pertaining to the little ones in Matthew with their corresponding verses in Mark and Luke, Origen writes: "Next we must test accurately the meaning of the word 'necessity' in the passage, 'For there is a necessity that the occasions come,' and to the like effect in Luke, 'It is `inadmissible' but that occasions of stumbling should come,' instead of 'impossible"</div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div>In comparing the verses, Origen clearly speaks of the parallel between Matthew, Mark and Luke, and those in Luke 9:47-48 as being connected with those at Luke 17:1-2. We can then conclude that in the scriptures that Origen used, these verses were not separated by eight chapters as they are in our scriptures today.</div>
<div></div>
</div>
<h3>Causes</h3>
<p>To some significant degree, most of the early manuscripts were destroyed by Rome when it was an avowed enemy of Christianity.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Diocletian in 303AD ordered all the sacred books to be burnt, ...but enough survived to transmit the text (Swete in Variorum "Aids")."</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"One of the reasons why no early MSS. have been discovered  is that they were, when found, burned by the persecutors of the Christians:  Eusebius writes: "I saw with mine own eyes the houses of prayer thrown down and razzed to their foundations, and the inspired and sacred Scriptures consigned to the fire in the open market place (H.E. viii 2.)."</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Among such senses he could not fail to learn what books men held to be more precious that their lives." (Dr. Westcott:  General Survey of the History of the Canon of the N.T., at 383).</p>
<h3>To Conceal Prior Changes</h3>
<p>Another possibility is that in the 300s, the Roman empire wanted to obliterate rival versions to the official Greek and Latin versions so as to give a single more current text exclusive authority. The efforts at alterations prior to the 300s is well-established in the professional literature dating prior to the more skeptical modern era.</p>
<p>Dr. F. H. Scrivener writes that: "In the second century we have seen<em><strong> too many instances of attempts to tamper with the text of Scripture</strong></em>, some merely injudicious, others positively dishonest". Scrivener states that "it is no less true to fact than paradoxical in sound, that the worst corruptions to which the New Testament has ever been subjected, originated within 100 years after it was composed: and that Irenaeus and the African Fathers, and the whole Western, with a portion of the Syrian Church" used inferior manuscripts (F.H.Scrivener, Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament).</p>
<p>Dean Burgon quotes Gaius (AD175-200) who speaks of the source of corruptions that survive in the early papyri: "The Divine Scriptures these heretics have audaciously corrupted. Laying violent hands upon them, <em><strong>under pretense of correcting them</strong></em>." (Burgon, The Revision Revised, p. 323).</p>
<p>Eusebius (Eccleastical History), citing the second century Church Father Clement of Alexandria: "The worst corruptions to which the New Testament has ever been subjected originated within one hundred years after it was composed."</p>
<p>In the words of Colwell (<em>What is the Best New Testament Text?</em>, p.119)  "The first two centuries witnessed the creations of the large number of variations known to scholars today.  In the manuscripts of the New Testament most variations, I believe, <em><strong>were made deliberately</strong></em>."</p>
<p>G.D. Kilpatrick (<em>Atticism and the Text of the Greek New Testament</em>, at 125-131) states:  "Deliberate changes in all text types appear to antedate A.D. 200...as distinct from errors... all categories of deliberate alteration...  are present in both groups. Tatian is the last author to make deliberate changes. The vast majority of deliberate changes were older then A.D. 200.  They came into being in the period A.D. 50-200."</p>
<h3>To Conceal The Jewish Orientation of Early Christianity</h3>
<p>Another possibility is that Rome did everything it could to erase the historical truth that Christianity is Jewish at its core. Hence, erasing any and every memory of that period was necessary. So passages that emphasize this had to be removed, written without them, and leave us with a Jesus more palatable to Gentiles and pagans.</p>
<p>There are systematic examples of this.</p>
<p>First, Jerome translated into Greek and Latin in the late 300s the Gospel According to the Hebrews. It was a Hebrew / Hebrew letters text kept at the library of Caesarea and its custodians claimed Matthew wrote it. Jerome believed this, and had great faith its variants were the valid original.</p>
<p>But now both translations by Jerome are gone even though 49 quotations from this gospel exists among the early patristic writers -- from Origen, Hegesippus, Epiphanius, Eusebius and Jerome. Why is it gone? No one dares say the obvious: it offended the post-Constantine church which sought to savage all Jewish influence in Christianity. Passover was changed to Easter, for example, -- the day of the goddess Eostre -- by Constantine's direct goal to divorce Christianity from Judaism. See our link to the discussion of the "<a href="/JWO/easter-error.html">Easter Error</a>."</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Similarly, the extensive biography of James the Just done by Hegesippus is entirely gone, along with most of Hegesippus' writings which extensively quoted the Gospel According to the Hebrews. Nicholson mentions some of this in passing while discussing other points:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Now we know that <em>Hegesippus </em>wrote largely about James the Just, and his Memoirs were still in existence at least as late as the 6th cent. It is the more probable that his account of James <em>did </em>include this story because we have already seen that<strong><em> he used the <span class="gstxt_hlt">Gospel according </span>to the </em></strong><span class="gstxt_hlt"><strong><em>Hebrews</em></strong>. (Edward Nicholson, <em>The Gospel According to the Hebrews</em> (1879) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA65#v=onepage&amp;q=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;f=false">65</a>.)</span></p>
<p>Accordingly, it appears there were systematic efforts to conceal the original Gospel According to the Hebrews after most patristic fathers showed it great respect and deference through the 390s.</p>
<p>And one of the ways to prevent its influence was to destroy every copy of earlier mss. of Matthew, Luke, etc., that had passages reminiscent of that earlier gospel. This is sad to say, but it makes it no less true.</p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<h3>Earliest MSS of Latin Vulgate</h3>
<p>The oldest surviving manuscript of the Latin Vulgate translation of the New Testament is known as Codex Fuldensis. It was commissioned by Victor, the bishop of Capua in Italy in 546 A.D. Incidentally, it includes the apocryphal Epistle to the Laodiceans as a part of the New Testament. “The Old Testament Apocrypha,” World Internet Bible College at <a href="http://internetbiblecollege.net/Lessons/The%20Old%20Testament%20Apocrypha.htm">http://internetbiblecollege.net/Lessons/The%20Old%20Testament%20Apocrypha.htm</a> (accessed 5/28/2011).</p>
<h2>Manuscripts from 200-299 AD</h2>
<p> </p>
<p><strong>These manuscripts are more complete than the earlier ones, and some may date from the end of the previous century. Three are of particular note:</strong></p>
<p><strong><span>P66</span>, from about AD 200, contains these portions of John's Gospel:</strong></p>
<ul>
<li><strong>John 1:1-6:11</strong></li>
<li><strong>John 6:35 - 14:6 and 14:26 and 14:29-30</strong></li>
<li><strong>John 15:2-26</strong></li>
<li><strong>John 16:2-4 and 16:6-7 and 16:10-20</strong></li>
<li><strong>John 20:22-23 and 20:25 - 21:9</strong></li>
</ul>
<strong>One scholar, in 'The Unauthorized Version', says of these P66 fragments:</strong><span></span>
<blockquote><strong><span>"We have two early papyri which overlap across seventy verses of John's Gospel, and even if the plain errors of their copyists are excluded, they differ at no less than seventy small places.".</span></strong></blockquote>
<strong><span>P72</span>contains Jude and 1 and 2 Peter and sundry non canonical works, such as The Nativity of Mary, the eleventh Ode of Solomon, Melito's Homily on the Passover, the Apology of Phileas etc.</strong><span></span>
<p><strong>In 2 Peter 1:2, other manuscripts read "May grace and peace be multiplied to you in the knowledge of God and of our Lord Jesus." p72 deletes the "and' to read "God, our Lord Jesus". P72 also differs from the present Jude 5 to say that the savior of the people from Egypt was "the God Christ". p72 also differs from 1 Peter 5:1 to state that Peter was a witness to the "sufferings of God", and not the "sufferings of Christ", as all later manuscripts read.</strong></p>
<p><strong><span>P75</span>, usually dated at 175 AD - 225 AD contains the following from John's and Luke's Gospels:</strong></p>
<ul>
<li><strong>Luke 3:18-22</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 3:33-4:2</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 4:34 - 5:10</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 5:37 - 6:4</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 6:10 - 7:32 and 7:35-39 and 7:41-43</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 7:46 - 9:2</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 9:4 - 17:15</strong></li>
<li><strong>Luke 17:19 - 18:18 and Luke 22:4 - 24:53</strong></li>
</ul>
<ul>
<li><strong>John 1:1 - 11:45 and 11:48-57</strong></li>
<li><strong>John 12:3 - 13:1 and 13:8-9</strong></li>
<li><strong>John 14:8-30 and 15:7-8  (Source: <a href="http://essenes.net/index.php?option=com_content&amp;task=view&amp;id=149&amp;Itemid=563">New Testament Alterations</a>)</strong></li>
</ul>
<h2>Roman Rulers Erase Earlier Texts</h2>
<p>[from <a href="http://essenes.net/index.php?option=com_content&amp;task=view&amp;id=149&amp;Itemid=563">New Testament Alternations]</a></p>
<p> </p>
<p><strong>The early fourth century was a time when the Roman branch of Christianity gained almost total dominance over other rival branches, including the true remnants of original Nasarene "Christianity". They immediately began legislation and persecution against these rival philosophies and their manuscripts. In an attempt to bring these groups and manuscripts in line with the new orthodox position, Pope Damasus I, the year 382, had Jerome begin revision &amp; unification of Latin Bibles. In 384 Jerome presented Pope Damascus I with new Latin Gospels which become the Vulgate Latin Text recognized as the standard Western Christian Bible. Once in possession of this new "orthodox" bible, the orthodox church systematically eradicated all divergent texts and those who used them, creating the scarcity of first, second and third century source material which now plagues modern Essene scholarship.</strong></p>
<p><strong>Prof. Eberhard Nestle, an expert in original evangelical texts, comments on this situation in his Einf~hrung in die Textkritik des griechischen Testaments:</strong></p>
<blockquote><strong><span>"Learned men, so called Correctors were, following the church meeting at Nicea 325 AD, selected by the church authorities to scrutinize the sacred texts and rewrite them in order to correct their meaning in accordance with the views which the church had just sanctioned."</span></strong></blockquote>
<strong>The Danish professor of religious history, Detlef Nielsen, says further:</strong><span></span>
<blockquote><strong><span>"We have to handle many, partly contradictory texts which were written in the time period of 50 - 150 AD. In the New Testament were no less than four evangelical texts included. One tried to bring about some kind of unity which was presented as an unadulterated, true narrative of the life and teachings of Jesus, complementing each other, and which together -- though apparently unsimilar -- formed the only true evangelical text. In order to bring the various passages in harmony of each other, they were subjected to a thorough revision. As a first measure one rewrote the evangelical handwritten manuscripts, disregarding parts which did not conform, and wrote comments to make them compatible with each other. One then took to the clerical art of interpretation in order to explain the contents in such a way that</span></strong> <br /><strong><span>a unified evangelical text could be created."</span></strong></blockquote>
<strong>One of the oldest evangelical texts is Mark, written by the interpreter of Peter in Rome. Papias is communicating this in his epistle to the presbyter, Johannes:</strong><span></span>
<blockquote><strong><span>"Mark, the interpreter of Peter, recorded with great energy, if not with great accuracy, everything that he could remember had been told about Jesus. He himself had never seen the Master. He was just the interpreter of Peter, and could only retell what he had heard at various instances; not always had he got everything well explained to him and commented. One should therefore not reproach Mark ..."</span></strong></blockquote>
<strong>Edgar Hennecke says:</strong><span></span>
<blockquote><strong><span>"It is known that the wording of the Greek texts, which we use as a base, originate from the 5th century"</span></strong></blockquote>
<strong>Alphred Resch says:</strong><span></span>
<blockquote><strong><span>"Probably many of these manuscripts were kept in old monasteries in the 4th century, like Codex Cantabrigeniensis D. and Codex Syrus Sinaiticus which both marvelously survived. At the time, 382 AD during the pope Damasos, the canonical texts were adopted and in this connection all old documents were destroyed."</span></strong></blockquote>
<strong>Many fragments and smaller manuscripts exist from these centuries. The five main western manuscripts of this period are:</strong><span></span>
<ul>
<li><strong>Codex Vaticanus about AD 350. This has lost the New Testament from Hebrews 9 onwards. (Includes 1-4Maccabees - Psalms of Solomon - Ps151 + 27NT), and is missing Gn1-46:28, Ps105:27-137:6, 1Tm-Phm, Heb9:14-end)</strong></li>
<li><strong>Codex Sinaiticus about AD 350. This manuscript, the most complete, lay hidden in a monastery until the end of the last century. It includes the Shepherd of Hermas and the Epistle of Barnabas. Nine correctors worked on it until the 12th century. It also includes works from the Old Testament which are rejected by Christians today, such as 4 Maccabees. (Has 2-3Maccabees - Psalms of Solomon - Ps151 + 27NT + Barnabas + Hermas), is missing Hermas31.7-end)</strong></li>
<li><strong>Codex Alexandrinus about AD 400. This also includes 1 Clement and contained 2 Clement and the Psalms of Solomon. It has lost Matthew 1-24 , John 7-8. (Includes 1-2Maccabees + 14_Church_Odes + 27NT + 1-2Clement), missing 1K12:17-14:9, Ps49:20-79:11, Psalms of Solomon, Mt1-25:6, Jn6:50-8:52, 2Cr4:13-12:6, 1Clement57.7-63.4, 2Clement12.5b-end)</strong></li>
<li><strong>Codex Bezae about AD 420. This contains (in this order) Matthew, John, Luke, Mark, 3 John and Acts.</strong></li>
<li><strong>Codex Washingtonensis (5th century). This contains (in this order) Matthew, John, Luke, Mark.</strong></li>
</ul>
<strong>Around 400 the Peshitta Bible become the standard Syrian Christian Bible. This is the Syriac (Aramaic) Vulgate, Syr(p), (OT + 22 NT, excludes: 2Pt, 2-3Jn, Jude, Rev.). This text may be of more interest to many modern Essenes due to its Aramaic language and preservation of idioms.</strong><span></span><center>
<p><strong>About this time, around 400, some think the pericope of the Adulteress, John 7:53-8:11, was probably added to Bible. From this same time period we also have the Codex Bobiensi which has "shorter", and perhaps the original, ending of Mark which does not contain the Resurrection story of Mark 16:9-20. (Jerome, circa 400, cites the "expanded" ending of Mark found after Mk16:14).</strong></p>
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<h2>Who Were The Ebionites?</h2>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">An early church commentator, Irenaeus writing bout 180 CE, clearly states that the Ebionites were Christians who rejected Paul and followed the Law. In <em>Against the Heresies</em>, 1.26 Irenaeus says:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">"Those who are called Ebionites agree that the world was made by God; but their opinions with respect to the Lord are similar to those of Cerinthus and Carpocrates. They use<em> the Gospel according to Matthew only, and repudiate the Apostle Paul,</em> maintaining that he was an apostate from the law. As to the prophetical writings, they endeavor to expound them in a somewhat singular manner: they practice circumcision, persevere in the observance of those customs which are enjoined by the law, and are so Judaic in their style of life, that they even adore Jerusalem as if it were the house of God."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>This is comparable to Eusebius who reported that the Ebionites "thought that it was necessary to </span><strong><em>reject all the epistles of [Paul], whom they called an apostate from the Law.</em></strong><span>" Eusebius, </span><em>Church Hist</em><span> 3:26 325 AD.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Several sources say the Ebionites practiced circumcision. Tertullian, in <em>de Praescriptione Haereticorum</em> 33,  in his poem, <em>Carmen adversus Marcionitas</em>, lists circumcision specifically as an Ebionite practice. Origen says the same in his <em>Homilia</em> in Genesim 3.5. So does Jerome in <em>Epitulae</em> 116.16 and in his commentary on Galatians (3.5.3), as does Rufinas' <em>Commentarius in Symbolum</em> 39. Epiphanius is not an unbiased source on Ebionites, but even he says the Ebionites practiced circumcision. (<em>Panarion</em> 30.2.2).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Elsewhere the following sources say the Ebionites were observant of Torah/the Law: Irenaeus, Origen, in Contra Celsum 5.61,<em> Commitarius in Matthaeum</em> 11.12 (Greek);  Hippolytus in <em>Refutatio Omnium Haereses</em> 7.34, 10.22; Eusebius in <em>Historia Ecclesiastica</em> 3.27, 6.17; Jerome in <em>de Situ et Nominibus Locorum Hebraicorum</em> 112, <em>Commentarius in Esiam</em> 1.1.12, and <em>Commentarius in Matthaeum</em> 2.12.2; and Epiphanius <em>Panarion</em> 30.2.2.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">For this, Ebionites are deemed apostates by modern Christians. But notice that, as the Jewish Encylopedia explains, in Judaism that those who were not observant of the Law were apostates. It says <strong><em>apostasy</em></strong></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">is applied in a religious sense to signify rebellion and <strong><em>rebels against</em></strong> God and <strong><em>the Law</em></strong>, desertion and deserters of the faith of Israel... Accordingly it is stated in I Mace. 2:15 that “the officers of the king compelled the people to apostatize,” that is, to revolt against the God of Israel; and Jason, the faithless high priest, is “pursued by all and hated as <strong><em>a deserter of the law</em></strong>.” (II Mace. 5:8)... [Gratz in <em>History of the Jews</em> explains apostasy as:] “those of the Jewish race who voluntarily <strong><em>apostatized</em></strong> from the holy God and <strong><em>from the law of God</em></strong>, transgressing the divine commandments for the bellys sake.” (“Apostasy and Apostates from Judaism,” <em>Jewish Encyclopedia</em> (editors  Isidore Singer, Cyrus Adler) (Funk and Wagnalls, 1912)  at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=X3ae4K2S9jQC&amp;dq=repudiate%20the%20Apostle%20Paul%2C%20maintaining%20that%20he%20was%20an%20apostate%20from%20the%20law&amp;pg=PA13#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">13</a>.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">For links to all early church texts on Ebionites, see <a href="http://www.earlychurchtexts.com/main/irenaeus/ebionites.shtml">http://www.earlychurchtexts.com/main/irenaeus/ebionites.shtml</a></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Hence, the derision the Ebionites received for following the Law by Epiphanius in the 300s is a persecution they suffered for what our Lord said was obeying and following His words, <em>e.g.</em>, Matt. 5:17-19.</span></p>
<h2>Eusebius on the Ebionites' View of Christ</h2>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Roman Catholicism by 325 AD came to a docetic view of Jesus -- He only appeared to be human but His flesh was divine from birth. Instead of Jesus being a man indwelled by God as Jesus Himself repeatedly said He was (John 14), the Roman Catholics eventually taught that Jesus supposedly came only in the appearance of a man. (Protestants who see this error correct this by claiming Jesus was 100% God and 100% man. More accurately, a 100% man was filled fully 100% by God's Shekinah presence.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Eusebius in the<em> History of the Church</em> wrote that the Ebionites were heretics for insisting Jesus was a true man:</span></p>
<div class="gtxt_column">
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_column gtxt_lineated"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">CHAPTER XXVII. <br /><em>The Heresy of the Ebionites </em></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_column"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>The </span>evil demon, however, being unable to tear certain others from their allegiance them, for he draws his information largely from Justin Martyr to the Christ of God, yet found them susceptible in a different direction, and so brought them over to his own purposes. The ancients quite properly called these men Ebionites, because they held<strong><em> poor and mean opinions concerning Christ</em></strong>. For they considered him <strong><em>a plain and common man</em></strong>, who was justified only because of his superior virtue, and who <strong><em>was the fruit of the intercourse of a man with Mary</em></strong>. In their opinion the observance of the ceremonial law was altogether necessary, on the ground that they could <span class="gstxt_hlt">not </span>be saved by faith in Christ alone and by a corresponding life. There were others, however, besides them, that were of the same name, but avoided the strange and absurd beliefs of the former, and did <span class="gstxt_hlt">not </span>deny that the Lord was born of a virgin and of the Holy Spirit. But nevertheless, inasmuch as they also refused to acknowledge that he pre-existed, being God, Word, and Wisdom, they turned aside into the impiety of the former, especially when they, like them, endeavored to observe strictly the bodily worship of the law. These men,  moreover, thought that it was necessary to <strong><em>reject all the epistles of the apostle [i.e., Paul], whom they called an apostate from the law; and they used only the so-called Gospel according to the Hebrews</em></strong> and made small account of the rest. The <span class="gstxt_hlt">Sabbath </span>and the rest of the discipline of the Jews they observed just like them, but at the same time, like us, they celebrated the Lord's days as a memorial of the resurrection of our Savior. Wherefore, in the consequence of such a course, they received the name of Ebionites, which signified the poverty of their understanding. For this is the name by which a poor man is called in Hebrew. (Eusebius, "Ebionites," <em>Church History</em> 3:27 exceprted <em>A Select Library of Nicene &amp; Post-Nicene Writings of the Christian Church</em> (ed. Philip Schaff &amp; Edward Wace)(Christian Literature Co.: 1890) Vol. 1 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=RdsIAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Christians%20must%20not%20judaize%20by%20resting%20on%20the%20Sabbath&amp;pg=PA158#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">158</a>-59.)</span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">A link to all Patristic mention of the Ebionites is at this <a href="http://www.earlychurchtexts.com/main/irenaeus/ebionites.shtml">link</a> -- the original Latin texts.</span></p>
<h2>Ebionites On Authority of Apostles</h2>
<p>I<span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">n the<em> Recognitions of Clement</em> (<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clementine_literature">transl 400 AD by Rufinus</a>) which is typically ascribed to the Ebionites from the 200s, we read through a speech of Peter to Simon Magus (a cipher, scholars concur, for Paul) that their view (from the mouth of Peter) is that <em><strong>an Apostle only had authority to relay Jesus's words</strong></em>, and a true Apostle would never inject any new teaching:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Then Peter:  “Do not rashly take exception, O Simon, against the things which you do not understand.  In the first place, I shall answer your assertion, that I set forth the words of my Master, and from them resolve matters about which there is still doubt.  Our Lord, when He sent us apostles to preach, enjoined us to teach all nations<sup><a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf08.vi.iii.iv.xxxiii.html#fnf_vi.iii.iv.xxxiii-p2.1" class="Note">628</a></sup><span id="fnf_vi.iii.iv.xxxiii-p2.1" class="mnote"><sup><a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf08.vi.iii.iv.xxxiii.html#fna_vi.iii.iv.xxxiii-p2.1" class="Note NoteRef">628</a></sup><span class="Footnote"> <a name="_Matt_28_19_28_20"></a>.</span></span>the things which were committed to us.  We cannot therefore speak those things as they were spoken by Himself.  For<strong><em> our commission is not to speak, but to teach those things</em></strong>, and from them to show how every one of them rests upon truth.<em><strong> Nor, again, are we permitted to speak anything of our own</strong></em>.  For we are sent; and of necessity<strong><em> he who is sent delivers the message as he has been ordered, and sets forth the will of the sender</em></strong>.  For<em><strong> if I should speak anything different from what He who sent me enjoined me, I should be a false apostle</strong></em>, not saying what I am commanded to say, but <em><strong>what seems good to myself</strong></em>.  Whoever does this, <strong><em>evidently wishes to show himself to be better than he is by whom he is sent</em></strong>, and <em><strong>without doubt is a traitor</strong></em>.  If, on the contrary, he keeps by the things that he is commanded, and brings forward most clear assertions of them, it will appear that he is accomplishing the work of an apostle; and it is by striving to fulfil this that I displease you.  Blame me not, therefore, because I bring forward the words of Him who sent me.  But if there is aught in them that is not fairly spoken, you have liberty to confute me; but this can in no wise be done, for He is a prophet, and cannot be contrary to Himself. (Recognitions of Clement <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf08.vi.iii.iv.xxxiii.html">XXXIII</a>.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">For we apostles are sent to expound the sayings and affirm the judgments of Him who has sent us; but <strong>we are not commissioned to say anything of our own, but to unfold the truth, as I have said, of His words</strong>.” (<em>Recognition of Clement</em> <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf08.vi.iii.iv.xxxiv.html">XXXIV</a>.)</span></p>
<h2><strong>Ebionites on Paul</strong></h2>
<span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"> Irenaeus (200s), Eusebius (early 300s) and Epiphanius each describe the Ebionites as regarding Paul as an apostate for his position on the Law's abrogation. </span>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Christian scholars rarely quote or mention these references, apparently in the hope that by not mentioning them, we--the flock--will not have any questions about Paul arise in our mind. As Hyam Maccoby--a Jewish scholar--said:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">"In considering the background of Paul, I have returned to one of the earliest accounts of Paul in existence, that given by the Ebionites ["the poor"], as reported by Epiphanius. This account has been neglected by scholars for quite inadequate and tendentious reasons " (Hyam Maccoby, <em>The Mythmaker Paul and The Invention of Christianity</em> (Harper &amp; Row, 1987) at xii.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The quotes to which Maccoby is referring are these:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">“And these reckoned that all the epistles of the apostle ought to be denied,<em> <strong>calling him an apostate from the law</strong></em>, and, using only the<span style="text-decoration: underline;"> </span><em>Gospel called according to the Hebrews</em>, they make little of the word of the rest.” (Eusebius, History of the Church 3.27.4.) See http://www.textexcavation.com/gospelhebrews.html</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">"[The Ebionite] thought that it was necessary to <strong><em>reject all the epistles of [Paul], whom they called an apostate from the Law</em></strong>.” (Eusebius, <em>Church His</em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">t</span> 3:26.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">They use the Gospel according to Matthew only, and <em><strong>repudiate the Apostle Paul, maintaining that he was an apostate from the Law</strong></em>." (Irenaeus <em>Against Heresies</em> 1.22, 1.26.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">They declare that he (<a name="marker=464273"></a><strong><em>Paul) was a Greek.</em></strong>.. He went up to Jerusalem, they say, and when he had spent some time there, he was seized with a passion to marry the daughter of the priest. For this reason he became a proselyte and was circumcised. Then, when he failed to get the girl, he flew into a rage and <em><strong>wrote against circumcision and against the sabbath and the Law</strong></em>. (Epiphanius,<em> Panarion,</em> 30.16. 6- 9.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Thus, these are quotes rarely related in the history of the early church by Christian historians.</span></p>
<h3>The Coded Language of the Recognitions of Clement</h3>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Scholars are unanimous in their view that the Ebionites used the name Simon Magus in their work <em>Recognition of Clement</em> as a cipher for Paul. They were forced to use a key like this so as to preserve their works from destruction. This rewrite may have happened around 325 AD, as Eusebius and others regarded them now as heretics.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>As Alexander Roberts, the editor of <em>The Anti-Nicene Fathers</em>, explains: "This passage has therefore been regarded as a covert attack upon the Apostle Paul."  Roberts explains that t</span><span>he wording in Homily 17 of the Clementine Homilies is where Peter says his opponent claims he "stands condemned." Roberts says this is a clear allusion to Paul's telling Peter he "stands condemned" in </span><a name="marker=464389"></a><span>Gal. 2:11. Roberts then explains: "This passage has therefore been regarded as a covert attack upon the Apostle Paul."</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>Likewise, Robert Griffin-Jones, a pro-Pauline scholar, admits Paul is the true adversary in this passage: "Paul is demonized...in a fictional dispute [in the Clementine Homilies] in which Peter trounces him." <span>(</span></span><span>Robert Griffith-Jones, </span><em>The Gospel According to Paul</em><span> (San Francisco: Harper Collins, 2004) at 260.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>Finally, Bart Ehrman concurs in this Homily that "Simon Magus in fact is a cipher for none other than Paul himself."<span> (</span></span><span>Ehrman, </span><em>Peter, Paul and Mary Magdalene</em><span> (Oxford: 2006) at 79.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Another code word for Paul other than Simon Magus was the label "Enemy."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In the Preface to the <em>Clementine Homolies </em>we find a letter of Peter to James that refers to an enemy with lawless teachings. It now is in code--referring to an unnamed "enemy," and it says:</span></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="CellBody"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">"For some among the Gentiles have rejected my lawful preaching and <strong><em>have preferrred a lawless and absurd doctrine of a man who is my enemy</em></strong>. And indeed some have attempted, while I am still alive to distort my word by interpretation of many sorts,<strong><em> as if I taught the dissolution of the Law</em></strong> ... But that may God forbid! For to do such a thing means to<strong><em> act contrary to the Law of God which was made to Moses and was confirmed by our Lord in its everlasting continuance</em></strong>. For He said: `For heaven and earth will pass away, but not one jot or tittle shall pass away from the Law.'" <em>Letter of Peter to James</em>, 2.3-5 (presumed 92 A.D.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=465161" class="footnote"><sup> </sup></a></span></p>
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<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">There is a history in those times about using coded writing. It was designed to preserve one's points to a generation after censorship was lifted who could decipher the original persons to be identified, or the sense in which false praise was made. Just so we know this is not dishonesty in the Ebionites, let's see the example of Eusebius -- later in life -- had to feign praise when he was, as we can decipher now, criticizing Constantine. To decipher this, we must find the code Eusebius was using.</span></p>
<h3>Eusebius' Coded Writing Close in Time Typifies The Technique</h3>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Specifically, Eusebius, a bishop at Rome, and himself earlier a critic of the Ebionites in 325 AD, by 337 AD was trapped. He had to write a servile biography of the Roman Emperor Constantine who by now transformed the church into a very pagan institution. Unable to speak out against Constantine, Eusebius copied the Ebionites' technique to express dissent to Constantine's changes by using coded language.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Eusebius used slobbery praise that was so excessive that we today can see we should not take it at all seriously. It could pass the attention of a deluded and egotistical monarch like Constantine. So to interpet Eusebius correctly, one must find the key, and for this "<em><strong>one must strip away all his sycophant comments about Constantine he gave in his 'Introduction</strong></em>' ...and one will be left with some revealing information that shows the real character of Constantine and the actual type of government that Eusebius thought Constantine was introducting." (Ernest Martin, <em>The Secrets of Golgatha</em> (1996) at 221.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Eusebius tipped off his readers who were cogently reading. He mentioned in his Introduction to the life of Constantine that Scripture itself is often written in a "<em><strong>disguised form</strong></em>" or in a "<em><strong>veiled way</strong></em>." <em>Id. </em>at 222. Eusebius mentions in the same context that when Plato spoke to the "unitiated" he would refer to "gods," but among the "initiated," who could accept his belief in one God, he would speak of "God." <em>Id.</em>, at 224. Eusebius was confessing thereby, amidst glowing and almost incessant praises of Constantine, to the necessity to<strong><em> speak one way in front of those unaware / uninitiated while hoping the initiated might gather the true meaning of his words</em></strong>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Eusebius' struggle, and the one of the Ebionites before Eusebius, is hard for us to appreciate in the USA. We do not know what it is like to live under censorship. But the Ebionites, like Eusebius after them, had <strong><em>no choice but to veil their meaning if their writings were to survive</em></strong>. And by the time of <em>Recognitions of Clement </em>were written or re-written<em>, </em>their writings would have been destroyed had the name Paul been used rather than Simon Magus. While censorship may have been possible in the 200s, we know for certain Paul had become a hero in Rome in the early 300s. Why? Because his words preached the abolition of Saturday Sabbath. (See "<a href="/JWO/paul-abolished-sabbath.html">Paul Abolished Sabbath</a>.") By then, Paul had become a pivotal charachter for Constantine to support. Constantine wanted Sun-Day -- the day of rest he commemorated to his God-of-the-Sun (Sol Invictus) -- to become the new Sabbath. So at least by that era, the Ebionites had to rewrite their stories to appear to be about Simon Magus so the Ebionites could preserve for a different era, and an astute audience, about whom they were speaking.</span></p>
<h2>Ebionites On Birth of Christ</h2>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The Ebionites insisted Jesus was sired in the flesh by a David heir - Joseph. By 180 AD, due to an obvious mistranslator's illicit license with the text, a virgin birth account, had been added to Matthew. Later a single line was added to Luke to inject a virgin birth account. See our article "<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/virgin-birth-issues.html">Virgin Birth Issues</a>."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Irenaeus circa 180 AD criticized the Ebionites for insisting Jesus father was Joseph and not solely conceived by a virgin. (This is the first documented reference to the virgin birth account in church history -- but we are presuming his writings themselves were not tampered with.) Irenaeus explains:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">God, then, was <strong><em>made man</em></strong>, and the Lord did Himself save us, giving us the token of the Virgin. But not as some allege, among those now presuming to expound the Scripture, [thus:] “Behold, a young woman shall conceive, and bring forth a son,” [Isa. 7. 14] as Theodotion the Ephesian has interpreted, and Aquila of Pontus. Both Jewish proselytes. The Ebionites, following these, assert that <strong><em>He was begotten by Joseph</em></strong>; thus destroying, as far as in them lies, such a marvellous dispensation of God, and setting aside the testimony of the prophets which proceeded from God. (Philip Schaff, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martin and Irenaeus</span> (Edited Alexander Roberts and James Donaldson) Vol. 1 Ch. 21 http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.ix.iv.xxii.html.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Indeed, <em>almah</em> in Iaiah 7:14 means "young maiden." Only had it said "<em>bethulah</em>" would "virgin" have been intended.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Next, near 236 AD Hippolytus wrote of the Ebionites -- again presuming no tampering with Hippolytus' writings:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">They live conformably to the customs of the Jews, alleging that they are justified according to the Law, and saying that <strong><em>Jesus was justified by fulfilling the Law</em></strong>. And therefore it was, (according to the Ebionæans,) that (the Saviour) was named (the) Christ of God and Jesus, Or, “that the Christ of God was named Jesus” (Bunsen) since not one of the rest (of mankind) had observed completely the Law. For if even any other had fulfilled the commandments (contained) in the law, he would have been that Christ.... They assert that<em><strong> our Lord Himself was a man in a like sense with all </strong></em>(the rest of the human family). (Hippolytus, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Refutatio Omnium Haeresium</span> 7.22.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">This implies that the Ebionites did not have a virgin birth account.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Finally, Epiphanius in the mid-300s says:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The Ebionites, following these, assert that <strong><em>He was begotten by Joseph</em></strong>.... http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.ix.iv.xxii.html</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Hence, the Ebionites contended Jesus was a man begotten by Joseph. Therefore, it appears that there was no virgin birth account in the Gospel of Matthew they used.</span></p>
<h2>Fate of Ebionites aka Essenes</h2>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Some modern followers of Ebionite doctrine call themselves Essenes. They believe the Essenes of whom Josephus spoke most closely aligns with their views, and they believe these were the true Ebionites. At the website Essene.net, we read a verifiable conclusion on the fate of the "Essenes" aka Ebionites:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><strong>It is apparent that many of the doctrines, traditions, and writings of the earlier Nasarene disciples of Yeshua were either destroyed or altered over time by those adhering to Roman, rather than Essene, culture. "The Way" of the early nature loving Nasarenes eventually began to be labeled heretical, and all who held to these original beliefs were persecuted and their scriptures banned and burned. This persecution, so systematic and state supported, resulted in the rewriting of history and scripture and in the recasting and reinterpretation of the meaning and mission of the Essene Yeshua. (<a href="http://essenes.net/index.php?option=com_content&amp;task=view&amp;id=149&amp;Itemid=563">New Testament Alterations.</a>)</strong></p>
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<td valign="top" >"In Acts...Paul is <em><strong>denied the title of Apostle</strong></em>." (Hengel &amp; Schwemer, <em>Paul between Damascus and Antioch</em> (John Knox Press, 1997) at 321.)</td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Quotations of Gospel of the Nazarenes</h2>
<p>If one is differentiating quotations of the "Gospel of the Nazarenes" as if not identical to the "Gospel according to the Hebrews" by Matthew, here is an excerpt taken from this webpage of the key quotes from <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/nazoreans-ogg.html">Earlychristianwritings.com</a>:</p>
<p> </p>
<center>
<h2>The Gospel of the Nazoreans</h2>
</center><span>The following selection is excerpted from Ron Cameron's </span><em>The Other Gospels: Non-Canonical Gospel Texts</em><span> (Philadelphia: The Westminster Press, 1982), pp. 99-102. Philipp Vielhauer and George Ogg of </span><em>New Testament Apocrypha</em><span> originally made the translation.</span>
<p> </p>
<hr />
<p> </p>
<ol>
<li>To these (citations in which Matthew follows not the Septuagint but the Hebrew original text) belong the two: "Out of Egypt have I called my son" and "For he shall be called a Nazaraean."
<p>(Jerome, <em>De viris inlustribus</em> 3)</p>
</li>
<li>Behold, the mother of the Lord and his brethren said to him: John the Baptist baptizes unto the remission of sins, let us go and be baptized by him. But he said to them: Wherein have I sinned that I should go and be baptized by him? Unless what I have said is ignorance (a sin of ignorance).
<p>(Jerome, <em>Adversus Pelagianos</em> 3.2)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel has not "into the holy city" but "to Jerusalem."
<p>(Variant to Matthew 4:5 in the "Zion Gospel" Edition)</p>
</li>
<li>The phrase "without a cause" is lacking in some witnesses and in the Jewish Gospel.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 5:22, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>In the so-called Gospel according to the Hebrews instead of "essential to existence" I found "<em>mahar</em>," which means "of tomorrow, so that the sense is: "Our bread of tomorrow" - that is, of the future - "give us this day."
<p>(Jerome, <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> 1 [on Matthew 6:11])</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel reads here as follows: "If ye be in my bosom and do not the will of my Father in heaven, I will cast you out of my bosom."
<p>(Variant to Matthew 7:5 - or better to Matthew 7:21-23 - in the "Zion Gospel" Edition)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel: (wise) more than serpents.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 10:16, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel has: (the kingdom of heaven) is plundered.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 11:12, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel has: I thank thee.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 11:25, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>In the Gospel which the Nazarenes and the Ebionites use, which we have recently translated out of Hebrew into Greek, and which is called by most people the authentic (Gospel) of Matthew, the man who had the withered hand is described as a mason who pleaded for help in the following words: "I was a mason and earned (my) livelihood with (my) hands; I beseech thee, Jesus, to restore me to my health that I may not with ignominy have to beg for my bread."
<p>(Jerome, <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> 2 [on Matthew 12:13])</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel does not have: three d(ays and nights).
<p>(Variant to Matthew 12:40 in the "Zion Gospel" Edition)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel: corban is what you should obtain from us.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 15:5, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>What is marked with an asterisk (i.e., Matthew 16:2-3) is not found in other manuscripts, also it is not found in the Jewish Gospel.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 16:2-3, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel: son of John.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 16:17, ibid.)</p>
</li>
<li>He (Jesus) said: If thy brother has sinned with a word and has made three reparations, receive him seven times in a day. Simon his disciple said to him: Seven times in a day? The Lord answered and said to him: Yea, I say unto thee, until seventy times seven times. For in the prophets also after they were anointed with the Holy Spirit, the word of sin (sinful discourse?) was found.
<p>(Jerome, <em>Adversus Pelagianos</em> 3.2)</p>
<p>The Jewish Gospel has after "seventy times seven times": For in the prophets also, after they were anointed with the Holy Spirit, the ord of sin (sinful discourse?) was found.</p>
<p>(Variant to Matthew 18:22 in the "Zion Gospel" Edition)</p>
</li>
<li>The other of the two rich men said to him: Master, what good thing must I do that I may live? He said to him: Man, fulfil the law and the prophets. He answered him: That have I done. He said to him: Go and sell all that thou possessest and distribute it among the poor, and then come and follow me. But hte rich man then began to scratch his head and it (the saying) pleased him not. And the Lord said to him: How canst though say, I have fulfilled the law and the prophets? For it stands written in the law: Love thy neighbor as thyself; and behold, many of the brethren, sons of Abraham, are begrimed with dirt and die of hunger - and thy house is full of many good things and nothing at all comes forth from it to them! And he turned and said to Simon, his disciple, who was sitting by him: Simon, son of Jona, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of heaven.
<p>(Origen, <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> 15.14 [on Matthew 19:16-30])</p>
</li>
<li>In the Gospel which the Nazarenes use, instead of "son of Barachias" we have found written "son of Joiada."
<p>(Jerome, <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> 4 [on Matthew 23:35])</p>
</li>
<li>But since the Gospel (written) in Hebrew characters which has come into our hands enters the threat not against the man who had hid (the talent), but against him who had lived dissolutely - for he (the master) had three servants: one who squandered his master's substance with harlots and flute-girls, one who multiplied the gain, and one who hid the talent; and accordingly one was accepted (with joy), another merely rebuked, and another cast into prison - I wonder whether in Matthew the threat which is uttered after the word against the man who did nothing may not refer to him, but by epanalepsis to the first who had feasted and drunk with the drunken.
<p>(Eusebius, <em>Theophania</em> 22 [on Matthew 25:14-15])</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel: And he denied and swore and damned himself.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 26:74 in the "Zion Gospel" Edition)</p>
</li>
<li>Barabbas. . . is interpreted in the so-called Gospel according to the Hebrews as "son of their teacher."
<p>(Jerome, <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> 4 [on Matthew 27:16])</p>
</li>
<li>But in the Gospel which is written in Hebrew characters we read not that the veil of the temple was rent, but that the lintel of the temple of wondrous size collapsed.
<p>(Jerome, <em>Epistula ad Hedybiam</em> 120.8)</p>
</li>
<li>The Jewish Gospel: And he delivered to them armed men that they might sit over against the cave and guard it day and night.
<p>(Variant to Matthew 27:65 in the "Zion Gospel" Edition)</p>
</li>
<li>He (Christ) himself taught the reason for the separations of souls that take place in houses, as we have found somewhere in the Gospel that is spread abroad among the Jews in the Hebrew tongue, in which it is said: "I choose for myself the most worthy: the most worthy are those whom my Father in heaven has given me."
<p>(Eusebius, <em>Theophania</em> 4.12 [on Matthew 10:34-36])</p>
</li>
</ol>
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<td valign="top" ><span>"The presence of anti-Pauline texts in [Matthew's] Gospel</span><span>, point</span><span> inevitably towards the conclusion that the evangelist himself [sic: really Jesus] was anti-Pauline</span><span>." D.C. Sim [2002:780]</span></td>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Baptismal Account in Hebrew Matthew</h2>
<p>In the Hebrew Matthew, there are two variants to the baptismal account which are different from the Greek text tradition. The first adds "today I have begotten thee."</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px; ">After saying many things, this Gospel continues: “After the people were baptized, Jesus also came and was baptized by John. And as Jesus came up from the water, Heaven was opened, and He saw the Holy Spirit descend in the form of a dove and enter into Him. And a voice from Heaven said, You are my beloved Son; with You I am well pleased. And again, <em><strong>Today I have begotten You</strong></em>. “Immediately a great light shone around the place; and John, seeing it, said to Him, Who are you, Lord? And again a voice from Heaven said, This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased. Then John, falling down before Him, said, I beseech You, Lord, baptize me! But He forbade him saying, Let it be so; for thus it is fitting that all things be fulfilled.’” (Epiphanius, <em>Panarion</em> 30.13.7) [<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authentic_Gospel_of_Matthew">Wikipedia</a>]</p>
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<p>The second has God refer to Jesus as his "first-begotten Son."</p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;">In the <strong><em>Gospel written in the Hebrew script</em></strong> that the Nazarenes read, the whole fount of the Holy Spirit descends upon Him, for God is Spirit and where the Spirit resides, there is freedom. Further in the Gospel which we have just mentioned we find the following written: “When the Lord came up out of the water the whole fount of the Holy Spirit descended upon Him and rested on Him saying, My Son, in all the prophets was I waiting for You that You should come and I might rest in You. For You are My rest. You are <em><strong>My first begotten Son</strong></em> that prevails forever. ” (Jerome, <em>Commentary on Isaiah</em> 4) [<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authentic_Gospel_of_Matthew"><span style="color: #000000;">Wikipedia</span></a>]</p>
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<h2>Historical Evidence That "This Day I have begotten thee" is Correct</h2>
<h3>A. Old Mss. of Matthew</h3>
<p>Also, “this day I have begotten thee” appears in the following Greek of Matthew: D (Greek) and the Old Latin. (E.B. Nicholson, <em>The Gospel according to the Hebrews</em> (1879) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA40#v=onepage&amp;q=juda&amp;f=false">40</a>.) Also, in "Codex Bezae and most of the old Latin manuscripts...the voice instead cites Psalm 2:7: <em><strong>'This day I have begotten thee.</strong></em>" (Barbara Aland, Joël Delobel, <em>New Testament textual criticism, exegesis, and early church history</em> (Peeters, 1994) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Z4xXSlE_ZvcC&amp;lpg=PA121&amp;ots=K380wpl4Fq&amp;dq=juvencus%20this%20day%20i%20have%20begotten%20thee&amp;pg=PA120#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">120</a>.)</p>
<h3>B. Luke 3:22 In Old Manuscripts</h3>
<p>The baptismal account of Jesus in Luke 3:22 in old manuscripts likewise had this account that the Father spoke from heaven to Jesus: "This day I have begotten you."</p>
<p>A modern study Bible comments on Luke 3:22: "Other ancient authorities read You are my Son,<strong><em> today I have begotten you</em></strong>." (Wayne A. Meeks, Jouette M. Bassler, <em>The HarperCollins Study Bible: New Revised Standard Version</em> (HarperCollins: 1997) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=aMkEa-Z4shEC&amp;lpg=RA1-PA1962&amp;ots=SWWdDM1c0V&amp;dq=%22Other%20ancient%20authorities%20read%20You%20are%20my%20Son%22&amp;pg=RA1-PA1962#v=onepage&amp;q=%22Other%20ancient%20authorities%20read%20You%20are%20my%20Son%22&amp;f=false">1962</a>.)</p>
<p>The New American commentary reads: “You are my beloved Son; with you I am well pleased: this is the best attested reading in the Greek manuscripts. The <strong><em>Western</em></strong> reading, You are my Son, this day <strong><em>I have begotten you</em></strong>, is derived from Psalm 2:7.” <a href="http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/luke/luke3.htm">http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/luke/luke3.htm</a> (last accessed 2005.)</p>
<p>This reference to a "Western" text that reads "begotten thee" is because it appears in the Greek Western type text known as Codex D. It also appears in many other texts of Luke 3:22.</p>
<p>Throckmorton in <em>Gospel Parallels</em> (1992) explains that  this variant (“this day I have begotten thee”) exists in some of the oldest versions of Luke such as P4, meaning Paris Papyrus, “third century” (<em>id</em>., x, xviii, 14); S, meaning Sinaiticus, “middle fourth century” (<em>id</em>., xiv, 14); A B, Codex Alexandrinus, “5th century” and Codex Vaticanus, “4th Century” (id., x, 14), and W Manuscript (5th century).</p>
<p>Interestingly, Matthews version of the baptism at Matthew 3:17 in the same Codex reads differently than it does today. It mentions the Holy Spirit descending as a dove upon Jesus. It is interesting that Epiphanius says the Hebrew version of Matthew of the Ebionites had that language too. This reading is also present in the DuTillet Hebrew Matthew. Hence, Codex D which contains Luke's 'begotten thee' language also contains other language in Matthew that matches the Hebrew Matthew but varies from our current Lucan language,<em> i.e.</em>, the mention of the dove in the Matthew tradition.</p>
<h3>C. The Epistle to the Hebrews</h3>
<p>The original baptism language of "this day I have begotten thee" is quoted in the NT in Hebrews 1:5 and 5:5.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son,<em><strong> this day have I begotten thee</strong></em>? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? (Heb. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=hebrews%201:5&amp;version=KJV">1:5</a>, KJV)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son,<em><strong> today have I begotten thee</strong></em>. (Heb. 5:5, KJV)</p>
<p>A more vague allusion is seen in Acts. “God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son,<strong><em> this day have I begotten thee</em></strong>.” (Acts 13:33 KJV.)</p>
<h3>D. Patristic Sources 95-325 AD Repititiously Quote 'this day I have begotten thee'</h3>
<p>There is no doubt how the original baptism-of-Jesus once read to include the quote from Psalm 2:7. As quoted at length below, the original version is <em><strong>quoted numerous times</strong></em> in the following early patristic writings between 96 A.D. and 325 A.D.: <em>First Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians</em>;<em> Dialogue of Justin with Tryphon, A Jew</em>; <em>The Instructor</em>; <em>The Banquet of the Ten Virgins; or, Concerning Chastity</em>; and <em>Acts of the Holy Apostles Peter and Paul</em>. The Luke version is specifically quoted in the 300s by the heretic Faustus but without dispute on the validity of the Lucan quote when Augustine does a point-by-point rebuttal to Faustus. Faustus also insisted it was in Matthew's account, which indeed it was clearly in the Hebrew Matthew.</p>
<p>Let's review these proofs, and provide a link to the online versions of the original sources.</p>
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<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">160 AD, Clement</span></p>
<p>First, the original baptism-of-Jesus account is quoted in Book One, Chapter VI of The Instructor, a work of 160 A.D. by Clement of Alexandria: “For at the moment of the Lords baptism there sounded a voice from heaven, as a testimony to the Beloved, Thou art My beloved Son,<strong><em> to-day have I begotten Thee.</em></strong>’” “Ante-Nicene Fathers/Volume II/CLEMENT OF ALEXANDRIA/The Instructor/Book I/Chapter VI,” at <a href="http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Ante-Nicene_Fathers/Volume_II/CLEMENT_OF_ALEXANDRIA/The_Instructor/Book_I/Chapter_VI."><span style="color: #000000;">wikisource</span></a></p>
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<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">300 AD, Methodius</span></p>
<p>Methodius (A.D. 260-312), in Part 9, chapter IX in his work, The Banquet of the Ten Virgins; or, Concerning Chastity, is similarly quoting the original baptism-of-Jesus account when we read: “Now, in perfect agreement and correspondence with what has been said, seems to be this which was<strong><em> spoken by the Father from above to Christ</em></strong> when He came to be baptized in the water of the Jordan, Thou art my son: <strong><em>this day have I begotten thee</em></strong>.’” “Ante-Nicene Fathers/Volume VI/Methodius/Banquet of the Ten Virgins/Thekla/Part 9,” <a href="/ http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Ante-Nicene_Fathers/Volume_VI/Methodius/Banquet_of_the_Ten_Virgins/Thekla/Part_9"><span style="color: #000000;">wikisource</span></a> (Schaff)</p>
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<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">300 AD, Lactantius</span></p>
<p>Again, in the words of Lactantius (A.D. 260-330), in his The Divine Institutes, book IV, chapter XV, he quotes the original uncorrupted version of the baptism-of-Jesus account: “Then a voice from heaven was heard: Thou art my Son,<strong><em> today have I begotten Thee</em></strong>. Which voice is found to have been foretold by David. And the Spirit of God descended upon Him, formed after the<strong><em> appearance of a white dove</em></strong>.” .“Ante-Nicene Fathers/Volume VII/Lactantius/The Divine Institutes/Book IV/Chap. XV,” <a href="http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Ante-Nicene_Fathers/Volume_VII/Lactantius/The_Divine_Institutes/Book_IV/Chap._XV"><span style="color: #000000;">wikisource</span></a> (from Schaff).</p>
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<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">234 AD, Acts of...Peter and Paul</span></p>
<p>In the Acts of the Holy Apostles Peter and Paul (234 A.D.), it says: “Him therefore to whom the Father said, Thou art my Son, <strong><em>this day have I begotten</em></strong> Thee, the chief priests through envy crucified.” .“Ante-Nicene Fathers/Volume VIII/Apocrypha of the New Testament/Acts of the Holy Apostles Peter and Paul/Acts of the Holy Apostles Peter and Paul,” <span style="color: #000000;"><a href="http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Ante-Nicene_Fathers/Volume_VIII/Apocrypha_of_the_New_Testament/Acts_of_the_Holy_Apostles_Peter_and_Paul/Acts_of_the_Holy_Apostles_Peter_and_Paul">wikisource</a></span></p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">230 AD (est.), Origen</span></p>
<p>The same verse also once apparently existed in Johns gospel. In Origens Commentary on the Gospel of John, section 32, Origen (died 254) writes evidently quoting Johns gospel upon which he was commenting: “None of these testimonies, however, sets forth distinctly the Saviors exalted birth; but when the words are addressed to Him, <strong><em>Thou art My Son, this day have I begotten Thee</em></strong>, this is <strong><em>spoken to Him by God</em></strong>.” <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/origen-john1.html">(Early Christian Writings</a>)</p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">96 AD, Clement</span></p>
<p>In the <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.ii.ii.html">First Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians</a> from 96 A.D., written by Clement—a man who was a direct disciple of the Apostle Peter—it says: “But concerning His Son the Lord spoke thus: <strong><em>Thou art my Son, to-day have I begotten Thee</em></strong>.’”  (<a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.ii.ii.html">Ccel.org</a>)</p>
<p><span style="color: #0000ff;">165 AD, Justin</span></p>
<p>Lastly, in a writing by Justin (died 165 A.D.) known as the Dialogue of Justin with Tryphon, A Jew, in chapter LXXXVIII, Justin writes about Jesus, clearly referencing the Gospels baptism accounts:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">He was in the habit of working as a carpenter when among men, making ploughs and yokes; by which He taught the symbols of righteousness and an active life; but then the Holy Ghost, and for mans sake, as I formerly stated, lighted on Him in the<em><strong> form of a dove</strong></em>, and there came at the same instant from the heavens a voice, which was uttered also by David when he spoke, personating Christ, what the Father would say to Him: Thou art My Son:<strong><em> this day have I begottenThee</em></strong>. (Justin, <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/justinmartyr-dialoguetrypho.html">Trypho</a>)</p>
<p>Justin then goes on to explain to Trypho the Jew—once more obviously quoting the original form of Matthew 3:17 and Luke 3:22:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">For this devil, when [Jesus] went up from the river Jordan, at the time when the voice spake to Him, “Thou art my Son: <strong><em>this day have I begotten Thee</em></strong>,” is recorded in the memoirs of the apostles to have come to Him and tempted Him, even so far as to say to Him, “Worship me;” and Christ answered him, “Get thee behind me, Satan: thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and Him only shalt thou serve.” Id., ch. CII.</p>
<p>Others who found the same passage in Matthew are Juvencus,<span style="text-decoration: underline;"> Evangeliorum Libri Quattor</span>, I 360-64 and Hilary, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">De Trinitate</span>, VIII, 25, Tyconius, Reg. 1</p>
<h3>E. Christians Quote Matthew and Luke Against Church Orthodox Views But Quote Accepted As Fact From Luke</h3>
<p>Similarly, the phrase this day I have begotten thee was quoted by Faustus ca. 400 AD from both Matthew and Lukes Gospel as having been uttered at Jesus baptism. Faustus was unorthodox in his view that Jesus, the Son of David, was not born Son of God but became Son of God at his baptism.</p>
<p>This ran afoul of the late doctrines of the Roman Catholic Church that Jesus was the 'eternal' Son of God, which doctrine emerged at Nicea in 325 AD under Emperor Constantine's influence. (His goal was to alter Jesus to match Constantine's favored deity - Sol Invictus. See our "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/council-of-nicea-of-325-ad.html">Council of Nicea</a>".)</p>
<p>Augustine in his point-by-point rebuttal in 400 A.D. does not dispute this is how Luke read. In 400 AD approximately, he disputes only how Matthew then read. (Remember, however, the Hebrew Matthew originally had the 'This day I have begotten thee" at Jesus' baptism. See above.)</p>
<p>We find this Faustus-Augustine exchange in Schaffs Augustin: <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf104.iv.ix.xxv.html?highlight=this%20day%20i%20have%20begotten%20thee#highlight">The Writings Against the Manicheans and Against the Donatists</a>, in Book XXIII (1890) at 313. Schaff recounts Faustus points about the Matthew passage when read in light of Luke:</p>
<p>Faustus recurs to the genealogical difficulty and insists that even according to Matthew Jesus was not Son of God until His baptism. Augustin sets forth the Catholic view of the relation of the divine and the human in the person of Christ.</p>
<p>[Faustus wrote]</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">2. I will, for the present, suppose that this person was right in saying that the son of David was born of Mary. It still remains true, that in this whole passage of the generation<strong><em> no mention is made of the Son of God till we come to the baptism</em></strong>; so that it is an injurious misrepresentation on your part to speak of this writer as making the Son of God the inmate of a womb. The writer, indeed, seems to cry out against such an idea, and in the very title of his book to clear himself of such blasphemy, asserting that the person whose birth he describes is the son of David, not the Son of God. And if you attend to the writers meaning [<em>i.e.</em>, Matthew's meaning] and purpose, you will see that what he wishes us to believe of Jesus the Son of God is not so much that He was born of Mary, as that <strong><em>He became the Son of God by baptism at the river Jordan</em></strong>. He [<em>i.e.</em>, Matthew] tells us that the person of whom he spoke at the outset as the son of David was baptized by John, and <strong><em>became the Son of God on this particular occasion</em></strong>, when about thirty years old, according to Luke, when also the voice was heard saying to Him, “Thou art my Son; <em><strong>this day have I begotten Thee</strong></em>.”</p>
<p>Schaff provides Augustines complete reply. <em>Id</em>., at 318 et seq. Augustine disputes only how Matthew read but not how Luke read. However, he quotes Matthew back at Faustus: “when He was baptized by John, a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.’” Augustine says these words do not “imply that He was not the Son of God before.” <em>Id</em>., at 315. Augustine ignores the quote from Luke which made Faustus case. (For further discussion of this portion of Faustus, see Barbara Aland, Joël Delobel, <em>New Testament textual criticism, exegesis, and early church history</em> (Peeters, 1994) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Z4xXSlE_ZvcC&amp;lpg=PA121&amp;ots=K380wpl4Fq&amp;dq=juvencus%20this%20day%20i%20have%20begotten%20thee&amp;pg=PA121#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">121</a>.)</p>
<p>Based on Epiphanius and Jerome's account of the Hebrew Matthew, it must have been altered instead of Luke. Only after Augustine did not want to cope with Faustus's argument any longer, Catholic authorities also erased the Luke 3:22 version as well.</p>
<h3>When And Why Did This Change Happen?</h3>
<p>It takes no genius to figure out why this text was deleted about "this day I have begotten thee." It conflicted with a doctrine first adopted in 325 AD at Nicea that Jesus was the '<strong><em>eternal son</em></strong> of God.' While no verse expressly supports that idea, it became fixed dogma. Hence, it is no coincidence that all the texts prior to that era have 'this day I have begotten thee' in the baptism account and all those after 325 AD are missing it.</p>
<p>This is demonstrable simply by examining Charles Hodge's SYSTEMATIC THEOLOGY (1871) Vol. 1. He addresses what would be the problem if this verse were in Scripture. He says if this language from Psalm 2:7 could be applied to Jesus, it is a "more plausible" objection to the 'eternal son' doctrine. He says:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">More plausible objections are founded on certain passages of the Scriptures. In Psalm 2:7, it is said, “Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.” From this it is argued that Christ or the Messiah was constituted or <strong><em>made the Son of God in time, and therefore was not the Son of God from eternity.</em></strong> (Vol. 1<a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/hodge/theology1.iv.vi.vi.html"> section 6</a> at ccel.org.)</p>
<p>Initially, notice that Hodges only has to address that it exists in a Psalm. He does not have to cope with the fact that Matthew's Gospel ascribed this to the voice of Yahweh from heaven at Jesus' baptism.</p>
<p>Hence, certainly this verse once was present in Matthew, and most certainly it was deliberately removed.</p>
<p>But this is not an isolated incident.</p>
<p>Professor Bart D. Ehrman (a Christian) catalogs a whole series of similar alterations (some small, but some big) to the New Testament in his book<em> The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture</em> (Oxford University Press, 1993). There he warns us that: “...theological disputes, <em><strong>specifically disputes over Christology</strong></em>, prompted Christian scribes to alter the words of scripture in order to make them more serviceable for the polemical task. Scribes modified their manuscripts to make them more patently orthodox and less susceptible to abuse by the opponents of orthodoxy.” <em>Id</em>., at 4.</p>
<p>The Fourth Century church became embarassed that Jesus's sonship took place at his baptism. Proof of this embarassment comes from Jerome. Even though he is aware of the variant 'this day I have begotten thee,' Jerome appears to believe it is the valid version, but then in <em>Enchiridion </em>49 Jerome "explains that <strong><em>J</em></strong><strong><em>esus did not really become God's 'Son' on that day</em></strong>; the 'today' is instead<em><strong> an eternal day</strong></em>." (Barbara Aland, Joël Delobel, <em>New Testament textual criticism, exegesis, and early church history</em> (Peeters, 1994) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Z4xXSlE_ZvcC&amp;lpg=PA121&amp;ots=K380wpl4Fq&amp;dq=juvencus%20this%20day%20i%20have%20begotten%20thee&amp;pg=PA121#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">121</a> n. 14 (quoting Jerome.)</p>
<p>Thus, from some misapprehension of what it meant to say Jesus was begotten by God as His Son at Jesus baptism, pious Fourth Century Christians rewrote Luke 3:22. They also removed the original begotten language from the baptism account in Matthew. (Our oldest complete versions of Luke and Matthew date to the Fourth Century.)</p>
<p>The fact this verse was originally present is too well-attested from too many sources, including the Epistle to the Hebrews in our very own NT of today, to deny it once was what it originally said. Accordingly, it matters little that the oldest surviving manuscripts do not agree. All of the original texts pre-existing the Fourth Century have been lost (or were deliberately destroyed). Only fragments survive. We thus can recover the original and older text by resort to the much earlier sources such as the Epistle to the Hebrews and the patristic writings.</p>
<p>What can we say of those early church leaders who did not think it wrong to change the text? They were forgerers and hence sadly willing to use guile. They deserve our censure. As the orthodox church leader Tertullian said about Marcion in 200 AD and his followers who changed the earlier gospel accounts:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">[W]e take up arms against heretics for the faith of the gospel, maintaining... that<em><strong> a late date is the mark of forgers</strong></em>, and...<strong><em>truth must needs precede the forgery</em></strong>, and proceed straight from those by whom it has been handed on. (Tertullian, Agains Marcion, Bk. 4, ch. <a href="http://www.gnosis.org/library/ter_marc4.htm">5</a>.)</p>
<h2>Arian Controversy and Council Of Nicea Explains Alterations</h2>
<p>It was only post 325 A.D. that the standard texts of Matthew and Luke were revised to omit "today I have begotten thee" from Jesus' baptism by John-the-Baptist. You will not find it any longer in the KJV, ASV, NIV, etc. This was because of the controversy with Arius in 306 A.D. who claimed the 'begotten' passages meant Jesus was not the "Eternal Son of God." However, the Roman Catholic church by 325 A.D. felt it was imperative to assert this about Jesus even though no verse in the NT ever calls Jesus the 'eternal Son of God.' For background, see Wayne A. Grudem, <em>Systematic theology: an introduction to biblical doctrine</em> (Zondervan, 1994) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=DA8xl4eagDcC&amp;lpg=PA243&amp;dq=arius%20col.%201%3A15&amp;pg=PA243#v=onepage&amp;q=arius%20col.%201:15&amp;f=false">243</a>.</p>
<p>Hence, words from the original account were let slip in reproductions, to the point we do not any longer see them in our NT.</p>
<p>But it never made any sense. To say Jesus was the "Eternal Son" begotten of God, as was developed in the 300s and beyond, was a contradiction in terms. As Adam Clarke, a Methodist, explained in his commentary:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"…it is demonstrated that the doctrine of the <strong><em>eternal Sonship of Christ</em></strong> is<strong><em> absolutely irreconcilable to reason</em></strong>, and contradictory to itself. ETERNITY is that which has had no beginning, nor stands in any reference to time: <em><strong>SON supposes time, generation, and father</strong></em>; and time also antecedent to such generation: therefore the rational conjunction of these two terms, Son and eternity, is absolutely impossible, as they imply <strong><em>essentially different and opposite ideas</em></strong>" (<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/13-33.htm">Adam Clarke Commentary</a>).</p>
<p>Hence, at Jesus's water baptism, God-the-Father gave Jesus a new birth as Son of God (a unique status), declaring from heaven "This day I have begotten thee." This was an example of how baptism would have similar effects on ourselves although obviously we would not become Divine as Jesus uniquely was indwelled by the Father/Word. (John 1:1, 14:10.)</p>
<h2>Email On This Topic</h2>
<p>Amy wrote me on November 3, 2010 as follows:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The original gospel of Matthew clearly had Jesus being told by YHWH "this day I have begotten thee" and the holy spirit in the form of a dove descended, and entered Jesus. At that point, Jesus became the Son of God indwelled in a unique SHekinah sense by God Himself. Jesus was a man, and continued to be a man despite that experience. Every word or act he saw heard from the Father, he repeated / acted out, as Jesus says in John's Gospel. God knew our feebleness and used a man whom we can see in person, hear in person, who would uniquely be filled by God whom we would listen to....Daniel in Daniel 7 speaks of the Son of Man (a human) coming to earth in time of judgment on clouds of glory, holding God's power in his hands.....but his title and the passage makes it clear this is a MAN -- a man on "clouds of glory" (a synonymn for God's presence)</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>The Original Gospel of Matthew</h2>
<h3><strong>Introduction</strong></h3>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459355"></a><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The Ebionites were a Christian sect that claimed to preserve the original autograph of apostle Matthew in Hebrew. It is quoted often by Epiphanius in the 300s. He said its official title was "The Gospel according to Matthew." (Epiphanius, <em>Panarion</em> 30, 13, 2-3.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458942"></a>Papias, a pupil of Apostle John, around 90 A.D. explained about this book of Matthew: "<strong><em>Matthew</em></strong> put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the <strong><em>Hebrew language</em></strong>, and each one interpreted them as best he could." (Eusebius, Hist. Eccl. iii. 39, quoting <em>Exposition of the Oracles of the Lord</em>, which in turn quotes Papias.) Irenaeus likewise says: "<em><strong>Matthew</strong></em> also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect." (Irenaeus, <em>Against Heresies</em>, Book III, Chapter I, quoted in Eusebius, <em>Ecclesiastical History</em>, Book V, Chapter VIII.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Origen near 236 AD refers to the sole tradition handed down about the origin of the Greek Matthew -- it was a translation of a Hebrew original. When read in context, one realizes the importance of Origen's comment:</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span>Concerning </span>the four Gospels which alone are uncontroverted in the Church of God under heaven, <em><strong>I have learned by tradition that the Gospel according to Matthew</strong></em>, who was at one time a publican and afterwards an Apostle of Jesus Christ, was written first; and that<em><strong> he composed it in the Hebrew tongue and published it for the converts from Judaism</strong></em>. The second written was that according to Mark, who wrote it according to the instruction of Peter, who, in his General Epistle, acknowledged him as a son, saying, " The church that is in Babylon, elect together with you, saluteth you ; and so doth Mark my son." And third, was that according to Luke, the Gospel commended by Paul, which he composed for the converts from the Gentiles. Last of all, that according to John. (Origen, <em>Commentary on the Gospel of Matthew </em>in <em>Anti-Nicene Fathers</em> at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=7zgMAAAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Montague%20Rhode%20James%20The%20Apocryphal%20New%20Testament&amp;pg=PA412#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">412</a>.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Next, Jerome around 404 A.D. wrote of the original Hebrew version that he was able to see: "The <em><strong>Hebrew [Matthew]</strong></em> itself has been preserved until the present day in the library at Caesarea which Pamphilus so diligently gathered." (Jerome,<em> Lives of Illustrious Men</em>, Chapter III.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458944"></a>Is there any reason to believe this is significantly unlike our current Greek Matthew? Between Jerome and Epiphanius, we have twenty-eight quotes. With Origen and others we have 49.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Jerome is always intrigued by the differences and has no charge of unorthodoxy. You can find Jerome's full quotes in footnotes to Matthew in the <em>Gospel Parallels </em>edited by Throckmorton. (This editor identifies the source as Gospel of the Ebionites but Jerome referred to it as the Hebrew Matthew from the Ebionites-Nazarenes.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In 1879, Edward Nicholson wrote<em> The Gospel According to the Hebrews</em>—a scholarly collection and defense of the orthodoxy of the forty-nine quotes from it in the early church. He synopsizes that the early church overwhelmingly accepted this gospel as authoritative and canonical—a fifth gospel. He explains:</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The Fathers of the Church, while the Gospel according to the Hebrews was yet extant in its entirety, <strong><em>referred to it always with respect, often with reverence</em></strong>: some of them <em><strong>unhesitatingly accepted it as being what tradition affirmed it to be—the work of Matthew</strong></em>—and even those who have not put on record their expression of this opinion have not questioned it. Is such an attitude consistent with the supposition that the Gospel according to the Hebrews was a work of heretical tendencies? This applies with tenfold force to Jerome. After copying it, would he, if he had seen heresy in it, have translated it for public dissemination into both Greek and Latin, and have continued to favour the tradition of its Matthaean authorship? (Nicholson: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA82#v=onepage&amp;q=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;f=false">82</a>.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458945"></a>Epiphanius, however, complained that the geneology in the Greek Matthew was absent in the Hebrew version of Matthew. For him this made it "incomplete, corrupt, [and] mutilated."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Bible%20-%20was%20Eternal%20Sec%204%20Interlinear/Hebrew%20Matthew%20Introhtml.html#pgfId=458948" class="footnote"><strong>1</strong></a><sup> </sup>However, scholars now realize the absence of portions of this geneology would enhance the validity of the Hebrew Matthew just as its presence weakens the validity of the Greek Matthew.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Bible%20-%20was%20Eternal%20Sec%204%20Interlinear/Hebrew%20Matthew%20Introhtml.html#pgfId=458951" class="footnote"><sup><strong>2</strong></sup></a></span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458953"></a>Putting aside this one difference, all the other differences raised by Epiphanius are slight. In fact, what is often overlooked is that Epiphanius was nit-picking at just a few slight differences. Otherwise, the verses he quotes from the Ebionite Matthew in Hebrew read identical to our Greek Matthew. This demonstrates the balance of the Ebionites' Gospel according to Matthew must have been virtually identical to the Greek version we all have now. Otherwise Epiphanius would have skewered them on those variances as well. Epiphanius' failure to do so allows an inference the Hebrew Matthew of the Ebionites otherwise matches our current Greek version.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458954"></a>Jerome appears convinced the Hebrew Matthew to which the Nazarenes gave him access was the true autograph of Matthew. Jerome notes how it was protected in a private library at Caesarea. He writes in <em>On Illustrious Men</em> ch. III (404 A.D.):</span></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458955"></a><strong><em>Matthew</em></strong>, also called Levi, apostle and aforetimes publican, composed a <strong><em>gospel of Christ at first published in Judea in Hebrew</em></strong> for the sake of those of the circumcision who believed, but this was <strong><em>afterwards translated into Greek</em></strong> though by what author is uncertain. The <strong><em>Hebrew itself has been preserved until the present day</em></strong> in the library at Caesarea which Pamphilus so diligently gathered. I have also had the opportunity of having the volume described to me by the Nazarenes of Beroea, a city of Syria, who use it.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Bible%20-%20was%20Eternal%20Sec%204%20Interlinear/Hebrew%20Matthew%20Introhtml.html#pgfId=458958" class="footnote"> 3</a></span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458959"></a>The Hebrew version of Matthew which Jerome had access to from the Nazarenes of Beroea is most likely identical to the version from the Ebionites. Jerome thought they were identical. In Jerome's <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> (Matt. 12:13), he begins a remark, stating: "In the Gospel which the Nazarenes and Ebionites use which <em><strong>I have lately translated into Greek from the Hebrew</strong></em> and which is called by many people<strong><em> the original of Matthew</em></strong>...."</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458960"></a>In this quote, we can see Jerome even included mention that some believe this version is the more authentic original version. Jerome appeared to regard it this way. He did not excoriate the Ebionites or Nazarenes for heresy based on the variances between the Greek and Hebrew Matthew, as Epiphanius had done. Instead, Jerome treated this Hebrew Gospel of Matthew seriously and respectfully. Jerome's<em> Commentary on Matthew</em> demonstrates twenty variances with the Hebrew version of Matthew from the Greek version. Yet, not once does he suggest there is something wrong in the outlook of the Hebrew Matthew.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Bible%20-%20was%20Eternal%20Sec%204%20Interlinear/Hebrew%20Matthew%20Introhtml.html#pgfId=458963" class="footnote"> 4</a></span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458965"></a><a name="32043"></a>What proves Jerome's high regard for this Hebrew Matthew is Jerome translated the entire Hebrew version. "I have <em><strong>lately translated into Greek from the Hebrew</strong></em>...." (Jerome, <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> (Matt. 12:13).)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458966"></a>Yet, mysteriously, this translation of the Hebrew Matthew among all of Jerome's works has<strong><em> alone failed to survive</em></strong>. Likewise, nowhere in Western Christendom did this Hebrew version of Matthew survive. (It did apparently survive among Jews who were critical of it, and that is how it has been preserved. More on the Shem Tob version later.)</span></p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=458984"></a>
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More Proofs that The Hebrew Matthew Is More Valid than the Greek</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458985"></a>There are more reasons to believe this Hebrew Matthew of the Ebionites and Nazarenes is a true autograph of the apostle Matthew. In Matthew 23:35, in our Greek version, Jesus utters an incorrect statement. Jesus is attributed to having said "upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of<strong><em> Barachias</em></strong>, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar." However, this is wrong. <strong><em>Jehoiada</em></strong> was the father of Zechariah the prophet, a high priest. It was not Barachias. (2 Chronicles 24:20.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458986"></a>By contrast, let's see whether the Hebrew Matthew is correct. Jerome in his<em> Commentary on Matthew </em>23:35 says: "In the [Hebrew] gospel [of Matthew] which the Nazarenes use, for `son of Barachiah' we find written, `son of Jehoiada.'" The Nazarene-Ebionite version of Matthew is the correct account. Zechariah was not the son of Barachiah. The Greek version of Jerome's day and our own is incorrect.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=458987"></a>Thus, this demonstrates the Ebionites-Nazarenes must have been preserving the original autograph of the apostle Matthew himself.</span></p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=459108"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Bible%20-%20was%20Eternal%20Sec%204%20Interlinear/Hebrew%20Matthew%20Introhtml-1.gif" /></div>
Shem Tob Differences From Original Hebrew Matthew</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459307"></a><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Shem Tob's version does not appear to be 100% identical to the original Hebrew Matthew. The geneology of chapter one is missing in the Hebrew Matthew which Epiphanius mentions in the 300s. Yet Shem Tob's has it. Also, Shem Tob's version does not contain the correct description of Zechariah's father in Matthew 23:35. Shem Tob's follows the Greek text's error in that regard. Yet, we know <strong><em>from Jerome</em></strong> that the true Hebrew Matthew had Zechariah's father correct in Matthew 23:35. Thus, someone tampered with the Hebrew Matthew that Shem Tob used. They changed it to fit the Greek, even though the Greek text was wrong. This was not likely Shem Tob's alteration. Thus, the error in Matt. 23:35 most likely was because someone altered the Hebrew Matthew upon which Shem Tob relied to fit the canonical <em>Greek</em> Matthew.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459086"></a>Despite there being some reversion to the errors in the Greek text, the Shem Tob Gospel of Matthew in Hebrew once more proves the Greek Matthew is flawed and needs slight corrections to restore the true original inspired text. This fact also highlights that the original Hebrew version was inspired and 100% accurate.</span></p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=459130"></a>
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Shem Tob Is The Closest To The Original</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459011"></a><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">What the Shem Tob Gospel of Matthew represents is the closest to the original Matthew that we will find. It reads almost identical to our Matthew, but with minor and subtle differences. There is nothing heretical.</span></p>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=459136"></a>Howard's Claim of Significant Issues on Claim of Messiah</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459150"></a>George Howard tries to find significant differences in Shem Tob's Hebrew Matthew and our Greek Matthew. However, he largely takes them out-of-context and then exaggerates its meaning. He tries to claim, for example, that the Hebrew Matthew never claims Jesus is Messiah ("never equated with Jesus.") (<em>Id.</em> at 212.) Yet, this is completely false. To do this, he makes much of the fact the Greek Matthew has five times the word Christ used with Jesus's name, but it is missing in the Hebrew. (Matt. 1:1, 1:17, 1:18, 11:2 and 16:21). Yet, this is just as likely an addition by the Greek translator.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459242"></a>Moreover, the assertion that Jesus is Messiah is blatant in the Hebrew Matthew. For it clearly says Jesus is Messiah expressly in Matthew 16:16. This is Peter's declaration that Jesus is Messiah. Howard acknowledges this, but then claims it was "clearly" an addition. (<em>Id.</em> at 218.) However, he cites as proof his own argument at page 183. When you go there, you find sheer speculation of how Shem Tob's comments should be interpeted to imply an original text missing this claim. Why would Shem Tob add it? He was trying to find fault with Matthew. He would not add such a passage. This is nonsensical.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459249"></a>Furthermore, even if the Messianic assertion were not in the Hebrew version of Matthew 16:16, the Hebrew Matthew <em><strong>often implies Jesus is Messiah</strong></em>. Not only are all the Messianic prophecies cited in the Hebrew Matthew as in the Greek Matthew, but there are many other clear references. For example, John the Baptist tells Jesus he should be baptized by Jesus, obviously because Jesus was on a higher level. (Matt. 3:14.) Jesus is the light to shine to the Gentiles. (Matt. 4:16.) Jesus is "worshipped" without comment. (Matt.8:2.) John the Baptists' followers ask if Jesus is the Christ, to which Jesus gives an implicit affirmative, citing the blind see, the lame walk, etc. (Matt. 11:1-5.) The Son of God is not merely akin to us. He alone knows the Father. (Matt. 11:22.) And on and on it goes. (See Matt. 21:9 "savior of the world"; Matt.23:10, "one is your Rabbi, Messiah;" Matt. 24:23.) Howard's motives are unclear, but his conclusion is misdirected.</span></p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=459138"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Bible%20-%20was%20Eternal%20Sec%204%20Interlinear/Hebrew%20Matthew%20Introhtml-1.gif" /></div>
Proof Of Antiquity Of Shem Tob Hebrew Matthew</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459137"></a><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The proof of its antiquity is multifaceted. Its variants are found in some very early Greek translations. Its variants are what early Christian bishops and leaders were quoting. Furthermore, the Greek majority text we use today and trace back to the 4th century clearly derived from a Hebrew text just like Shem Tob's Gospel of Matthew. We can deduce this because it is obvious in over eight places that the Greek translator mistook a single letter in Hebrew and then rendered the Greek equivalent of that unconscious mispelling in his head. (Howard, <em>Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</em> (1995) at 226-28.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459071"></a>For example, Jesus actually says in Hebrew "blessed are those who <em><strong>wait</strong></em>" but if you mistakenly read just one little letter of Hebrew, it comes out "blessed are those who<strong><em> mourn</em></strong>." (Matt. 5:4.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459430"></a>Likewise, Jesus at the Last Supper says one of them will "sell me" in Hebrew, but if you mistake just one little letter, it comes out "betray me." (Matt. 26:23.) The Shem Tob Matthew clearly demonstrates it is more original than the Greek version we depend on today.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459289"></a>The Shem Tob Matthew contains the obvious original substratum upon which our Greek Matthew is based. This means it is the translation closer to the Apostle Matthew than any other of which we know.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=459290"></a>If we take the Shem Tob Hebrew Matthew, and restore some of the Hebrew Matthew mentioned by Jerome, then we are rediscovering the closest text to the original autograph of Matthew. When we do this exercise, we see the Hebrew Matthew is the only text that rescues Jesus from flagrant error in Matthew 23:35 (son of Barachias defect) and 27:9 (30 pieces prophecy incorrectly cited to Jeremiah). There are no Greek variants at all that provide any kind of escape. Hence, the Hebrew Matthew deserves serious attention.<a name="pgfId=458939"></a></span></p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">A recent work by Nehemiah Gordon, <em>The Naming of Jesus in Hebrew Matthew</em> gives further important background. For our discussion of the same, see this <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/naming-of-jesus-in-hebrew-matthew-by-gordon.html">link</a>.</p>
<p> </p>
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<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<hr />
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=458948"></a>Epiphanius, Panarion 30.13.1-30.22.4. See also, "The Gospel of the Ebionites [i.e., the Book of Matthew in Hebrew],"<em> Lost Scriptures: Books That Did Not Make It Into the New Testament</em> (ed. Bart Ehrman) (Oxford University Press: 2003) at 13-14. Of the eight quotes listed in this compilation of this Hebrew version, there are only two variances from our Greek version. The first variance omits the genealogy that begins Matthew. Id., at 13, # 2. The second has Jesus saying "I have no desire to eat the meat of the Passover lamb with you." Id., # 8.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=458951"></a>Christian historian Ben Witherington III, in <em>New Testament History: A Narrative Account</em> (Baker: 2001) at 70 admits this <a name="marker=458952"></a>genealogy in the Greek version of Matthew is problematical. Not only are there incongruities between Matthew's and Luke's genealogy, but the Greek Matthew is missing names that belong in the list which are mentioned in Hebrew Scripture. Yet, the Greek Matthew's list is portrayed as a complete list, as it numbers the generations. This list is plainly inaccurate. Since New Testament Scripture to be valid must be consistent with the Hebrew Scriptures, the genealogy in the Greek version of Matthew can not be valid scripture. It follows that a truer version of Matthew was apparently the one kept by the Ebionites and deposited at Caesarea.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=458958"></a>This is available many places on the Internet, e.g., http://www.ucalgary.ca/~vandersp/Courses/texts/jerviris.html</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=458963"></a>The variances Jerome found are footnoted in <em>Gospel Parallels</em> (Ed. Burton H. Throckmorton, Jr.) (5th Ed.(Nelson: 1992). A list of these variances is available via the internet. http://www.angelfire.com/al2/truthchapel/naz.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=458997"></a>Zechariah 11:12-13 (KJV) reads: "(12) And I said unto them, If ye think good, give me my price; and if not, forbear. So they weighed for my price thirty pieces of silver. (13) And the LORD said unto me, Cast it unto the potter: a goodly price that I was prised at of them. And I took the thirty pieces of silver, and cast them to the potter in the house of the LORD."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=459000"></a>Matt 27:3-9(KJV) reads in pertinent part:</p>
<p class="Footnote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=459001"></a>(3) Then Judas...brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders,....(5) And he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself. (6) And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said,...(7) And they took counsel, and bought with them the potter's field, to bury strangers in....(9) Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value.</p>
<p class="Footnote"><a name="pgfId=459002"></a>Adam Clarke laments this error: "but it must be owned, that Jeremy is in all the Greek copies, in the Vulgate Latin, Arabic, and Ethiopic versions...."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=459005"></a>This is noted in http://www.paleotimes.org/whatsNew/2003/july_29_2003.htm.</p>
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<h3>Library Resources</h3>
<h2>Shem-Tob Manuscripts</h2>
<p>The University of Leiden in the Netherlands has a complete copy of one of the revised editions of his original work from 1584. This work is described as “a discussion on the articles of Christian belief. The thirteenth book, exhibited here (incorrectly called the twelfth book) is a translation and a critique on the Gospels, starting with Matthew” (University of Leiden Bible Collection<a href="http://ub.leidenuniv.nl/bc/ tentoonstelling/Judaica/object7.htm"> http://ub.leidenuniv.nl/bc/</a></p>
<p><a href="http://ub.leidenuniv.nl/bc/ tentoonstelling/Judaica/object7.htm">tentoonstelling/Judaica/object7.htm</a> accessed 15 July, 2005</p>
<p><em>Hebrew Mss at Cambridge</em> described at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MDuYkcahsq8C&amp;pg=PA480&amp;lpg=PA480&amp;dq=shem+tob+leiden+university&amp;source=bl&amp;ots=kTfekVIY6H&amp;sig=m9F9wgEy6Q08Cf1sdfkm5s5rszs&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=uyyHTJ6uJM3YnAeum6XECw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=9&amp;ved=0CD4Q6AEwCDgK#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">480</a></p>
<p>See also "<a href="http://www.torahresource.com/Dutillet.html">Hebrew Matthew Project</a>" - collection of Shem-Tob mss.</p>
<h2>Why Ignored Until Now?</h2>
<p>NCCRG.Org explains:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The language is very much 1st century Hebrew, now...there are some translation corrections from later centuries in the manuscript, but these are very obvious due to the striking language change, and so, we are able to tell quite well how the origional text reads even in these cases.  The aritcle I have is from Bible Review, Winter 1986, [actually, over a year now since the discovery], and it was found amongst the writings of the 14th century Hebrew treatise written by Rabbi Shem-Tob ben Shaprut, called Even Bohan, the Touchstone. Written in 1380, revised in 1385-1400+.  The reason it was overlooked for so long, as<strong><em> it was always assumed to be a 14th century Hebrew translation of Matthew untill looked at closely in the last couple of years.</em></strong> And also because in 1690, Richard Simon in <em>Histoire Critique des Versions du Nouveau Testament</em>, [Rotterdam R.Leers, 1690, p.231] mistakenly identified the Hewbrew Matthew in Shem-Tob's work with the Hebrew Matthew in Munster and du Tillet.  So, was ignored till of late. <a href="http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTINTR.txt">http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTINTR.txt</a></p>
<h2>Author of Polemic That Includes Shem-Tob</h2>
<p>Shem-Tov ben Joseph ibn Falaquera (ca. 12251295) bio at  <a href="http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/falaquera/">http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/falaquera/</a></p>
<h2>Authentic Original?</h2>
<p>Ministry of Rev. Ron Jones, <a href="http://hebrewgospel.com/Jeromes%20Scholarly%20Speculation.php">The Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</a> - website dedicated to topic</p>
<p>Lynn Boughton sympathizes Shem-Tob is very early in Tyndale Bulletin (<a href="http://www.tyndalehouse.com/.../TynBull_1997_48_2_04_Boughton_CupInSynoptics.DOC">word doc</a>)</p>
<p>Wilhelm Schneemelcher, <em>New Testament Apocrypha: Gospels and related writings</em> (Westminster John Knox Press, 1991) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=TDW0PeFSvGEC&amp;lpg=PA142&amp;dq=recently%20translated%20by%20me%20into%20Greek%20and%20Latin&amp;pg=PA140#v=onepage&amp;q=recently%20translated%20by%20me%20into%20Greek%20and%20Latin&amp;f=false">140</a> - discusses original patristic commentary on the Gospel Acc. to the Hebrews.</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=AhM3AAAAMAAJ">http://books.google.com/books?id=AhM3AAAAMAAJ</a></p>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_Gospel_of_Matthew">Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</a>," Wikipedia</p>
<p>Howard, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4tdEBdVXg3AC&amp;lpg=PA43&amp;dq=%22do%20not%20take%20wages%22&amp;pg=PA43#v=onepage&amp;q=%22do%20not%20take%20wages%22&amp;f=false">The Hebrew Matthew</a> (books.google.com with preview)</p>
<p>Howard, <a href="http://rosetta.reltech.org/TC/vol04/Howard1999.html">Reply to Petersen</a></p>
<p>Horbury, "The Hebrew Text in Shaprut's Shem Tob....," <em>A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on St. Matthew's Gospel </em>(1997) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ZXIV2WOTVvMC&amp;lpg=PA729&amp;ots=dgfm4ApvkP&amp;dq=A%20Note%20on%20Codex%20Sinaiticus%20and%20Shem-Tob's%20Hebrew%20Matthew&amp;pg=PA729#v=onepage&amp;q=A%20Note%20on%20Codex%20Sinaiticus%20and%20Shem-Tob's%20Hebrew%20Matthew&amp;f=false">729</a>. Good summary of Shaprut's work and Howard's publication of it. Horbury mentions 269246 for Matthew 1:1 to 23:33 and Jewish Theological Seminary of America M.S. 2426 for the rest of the gospel. <em>Id.</em>, at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ZXIV2WOTVvMC&amp;lpg=PA729&amp;ots=dgfm4ApvkP&amp;dq=A%20Note%20on%20Codex%20Sinaiticus%20and%20Shem-Tob's%20Hebrew%20Matthew&amp;pg=PA730#v=onepage&amp;q=A%20Note%20on%20Codex%20Sinaiticus%20and%20Shem-Tob's%20Hebrew%20Matthew&amp;f=false"> 730</a>. Horbury admits it is possible Howard is correct the original substratum of our Greek text was a Hebrew original, but he posits a more "likely" explanation. He believes there is an underlying Latin origin.</p>
<p>Lange, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=GHYPAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA143&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=lk97TPunBMe2ngeU4ZidCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=6&amp;ved=0CE0Q6AEwBTgo#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">The Life of the Lord Jesus</a> - brings out all the testimony of early church commentators that there was a Hebrew Matthew original. Lange at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=GHYPAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA143&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=lk97TPunBMe2ngeU4ZidCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=6&amp;ved=0CE0Q6AEwBTgo#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">143</a> points out that quotes of the OT inserted by Matthew are all original Hebrew-OT, but quotes of Jesus are in LXX. Lange at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=GHYPAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA143&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=lk97TPunBMe2ngeU4ZidCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=6&amp;ved=0CE0Q6AEwBTgo#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">144</a> agrees we must admit that the Greek Matthew is a translation, and thus permit belief of slight emandations of the text due to translation. Lange at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=GHYPAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=PA145#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">145</a> notes that Westcott in his <em>Introduction</em> (NT) collected all the sayings from the Hebrew Gospel.</p>
<p>Higginson, <em>The Spirit of the Bible</em> (1839) -at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=kqkRAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=PA261#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">261</a> Greek translator of Matthew used Hebrew OT except (a) when Mark wrote on same topic, in which case Mark's version was used (indicating Greek Matthew post-dates Mark), and only when Mark not have an item in common, translator borrowed from Luke.</p>
<p>Fraser's Magazine --at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=lNwRAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA57&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Hld7TLe6JYiWnAeNkvT4AQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=1&amp;ved=0CC0Q6AEwADhG#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">58</a> in one instance Hebrew Matthew as quoted in Patristic readings "gave a right reading" which had "perplexed orthodox" doctors of church -- namely when Jesus refers to Zachariah the Son of Barachiah. But the Ebionite Hebrew Matthew mentions Zachariah son of Jehoidah which is found in the OT.</p>
<p>Dillinger, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=9bFuru3YyVUC&amp;pg=PA136&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Cz97TNH-FsH6nAebvbWdCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=10&amp;ved=0CGAQ6AEwCTgK#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false"></a>- carefully details Jerome's words, and shows he speaks only of one original Hebrew instead of an Aramaic and Hebrew. Jerome said the Hebrew Matthew only quotes the Hebrew version of the OT rather than the Septuagint.</p>
<p>Gibbon, <em>Rise and Fall</em> -- Hebrew Matthew preserved original teachings but "unaccountably" lost -- <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Hy8OAAAAQAAJ&amp;lpg=PA778&amp;ots=PGkLYsSs4k&amp;dq=secret%20and%20authentic%20history%20has%20been%20recorded%20in%20several%20copies%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20St.%20Matthew%2C%20which%20these%20sectaries%20long%20preserved%20in%20the%20original%20Hebrew%2C%20as%20the%20sole%20evidence%20of%20their%20faith&amp;pg=PA778#v=onepage&amp;q=secret%20and%20authentic%20history%20has%20been%20recorded%20in%20several%20copies%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20St.%20Matthew,%20which%20these%20sectaries%20long%20preserved%20in%20the%20original%20Hebrew,%20as%20the%20sole%20evidence%20of%20their%20faith&amp;f=false">778</a></p>
<p>Fulke, <em>A Defense of the sincere and true translations of the NT</em> -- at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=AjYJAAAAQAAJ&amp;dq=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=PA50#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false"> 50</a> discusses Jerome's statement that Matthew in Hebrew version never follows LXX, and in particular the Hebrew is the source of 2 quotes not found in the LXX.</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=SLwCAAAAQAAJ">The Oldest Gospel </a>(1870) by Matthew (an attempt to find sections in the Greek NT version)</p>
<p>Tillet, A<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=HGx7PQAACAAJ">n old Hebrew Text of St. Matthew's Gospel </a>(1927) - no google preview</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=To1HAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA531&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=0j17TN2RGsTYnAeszfX3AQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=3&amp;ved=0CDwQ6AEwAg#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Dictionary of the Bible by Smith</a> - St. Matthew originally written in Hebrew</p>
<p>Arthur Carr, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zLA8AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=PA11#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Gospel of Matthew</a> - evidence written in Hebrew</p>
<p>"<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1AgjAQAAIAAJ&amp;pg=PA59&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=0j17TN2RGsTYnAeszfX3AQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=8&amp;ved=0CFsQ6AEwBw#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Matthew</a>," <em>Catholic Encylopedia</em> - affirms written in Hebrew, and Jerome used to clear up interpretation</p>
<p>Kitto, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=7DAHAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=PA111#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">A Cyclopedia</a> - argues against that we have a mere translation</p>
<p>Alexander Roberts, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=9KU_AAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA366&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Cz97TNH-FsH6nAebvbWdCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=3&amp;ved=0CDgQ6AEwAjgK#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Discussions</a> - reveals where our Greek Matthew renders Septuagint and sometimes not -- with citations. Roberts thinks this proves not a translation but inconclusive</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Rs4LAQAAIAAJ&amp;pg=PA13&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Cz97TNH-FsH6nAebvbWdCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=8&amp;ved=0CFQQ6AEwBzgK#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Cambridge Bible</a> - it shows the Septuagint is only used when it lines up with other gospels, but when no parallel, the quotes follow the Hebrew version of texts.</p>
<p>France, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ttTgacXnLV8C&amp;pg=PA23&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=lk97TPunBMe2ngeU4ZidCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=3&amp;ved=0CDsQ6AEwAjgo#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Gospel According to Matthew</a> - makes similar comment that Septuagint is used in Greek Matthew used only when it matches Mark. Otherwise, the Hebrew original is in the Greek NT.</p>
<p>Bloomfield, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=uSFMAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA2&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=7EF7TJOQBsKCnQf3k7D4AQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=2&amp;ved=0CDUQ6AEwATgU#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">He Kaine</a> -- Greek Matthew has many marks of being a translation</p>
<p>Fallows, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=bJfwsFxFPD8C&amp;pg=PA1126&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Cz97TNH-FsH6nAebvbWdCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=4&amp;ved=0CD4Q6AEwAzgK#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">The popular encyclopedia</a> - cites critics of Papias' claim to a Hebrew Matthew</p>
<p>Adam Clarke,<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=GeY8AAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA21&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Cz97TNH-FsH6nAebvbWdCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=6&amp;ved=0CEoQ6AEwBTgK#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false"> The Holy Bible </a>(1825) - history favors a Hebrew original</p>
<p>Butler, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=O0BOAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA284&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=7EF7TJOQBsKCnQf3k7D4AQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=6&amp;ved=0CE0Q6AEwBTgU#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Lives of Primitive Fathers </a>- Jesus spoke Hebrew, not Greek, and all the early 'fathers' said Matthew was written in Hebrew. Absurd opinion of some that Greek is the original.</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=YLbPAAAAMAAJ&amp;pg=RA1-PA266&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=VEN7TP9yw6acB6PA-PcB&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=1&amp;ved=0CCcQ6AEwADge#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">The Edinburgh Review</a> - Justin Martyr quotes 5 x the Hebrew Gospel. Close affinity to our gospel, but with a few interesting twists. These 5 quotes are not often mentioned elsewhere The "Variations are so trivial and the verbal identities so striking" that only prejudiced deny the relationship. At page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=YLbPAAAAMAAJ&amp;pg=RA1-PA266&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=VEN7TP9yw6acB6PA-PcB&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=1&amp;ved=0CCcQ6AEwADge#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">267</a>, the review covers in great detail the variations. One interesting variant has "be ye merciful even as your father in heaven is merciful."</p>
<p>Edward Gibbon, <em>History of Christianity</em> at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=EmEAAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=PA185#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">185</a> - says Eusebius affirms 6x existence of Hebrew Matthew, and all the early 'fathers mention.' Papias defended.</p>
<p>Seisenberg, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=l35AAAAAIAAJ">Practical Handbook</a> -- says Eusebius dates Matthew to 41 AD, and was before Matthew went and preached in other lands</p>
<p>Lardner, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=EWxGAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=RA1-PA338&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=lk97TPunBMe2ngeU4ZidCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=5&amp;ved=0CEYQ6AEwBDgo#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Works of Nathanial Lardner</a> - Papias's note that the Hebrew Matthew was interpreted as everyone was able implies there was no Greek NT translation for some time</p>
<p>Horne, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=cy0XAAAAYAAJ">An Introduction to Holy Scripture</a> - the Ebionites did not have the first 2 chapters that appeared in the Greek NT, but the Nazarenes did, including the virgin birth. [I believe Horne misreads Epiphanius, and there were first to chapters, but missing certain parts.]</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=FjYXAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PA107&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=C1R7TNLOO4rmnAeW052dCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=2&amp;ved=0CDMQ6AEwATg8#v=onepage&amp;q=Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">Proceedings of Liverpool</a> -- not suprising that Hebrew Matthew lost when Josephus's works, originally written in Hebrew, also are all lost. Because many suppose a translation cannot be inspired, many resist accepting fact of a Hebrew original</p>
<p>Penny Encyclopedia - "<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ehLnAAAAMAAJ&amp;pg=PA16&amp;dq=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=C1R7TNLOO4rmnAeW052dCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=4&amp;ved=0CD8Q6AEwAzg8#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Gospel of Matthew</a>" (1839)</p>
<p>Smith, <em>Dr. William Smyth's Dictionary</em> - at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=G6ArAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=An%20Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;pg=RA2-PA3393#v=onepage&amp;q=An%20Old%20Hebrew%20Text%20of%20St.%20Matthew's%20Gospel&amp;f=false">3393</a> - says in 12th Century Syrian church they claimed a Syriac version translated from a Hebrew version of Matthew. Explains the <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curetonian_Gospels">Curetonian Syriac gospels</a> are closer to original Hebrew and were translations of the Hebrew original. (Henry Harmon claimed these were translations of a Greek original. See this <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curetonian_Gospels">link.</a>)</p>
<p>The Syriac version was translated into English in 1904 -- as <em>Evangelion Da-mepharreshe</em> -- see books.google.com at this <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1YzNAAAAMAAJ">link.</a> Syriac Matthew is at this link - ch.<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1YzNAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=Burkitt%2C%20Evangelion%20da-Mepharreshe%2C%20The%20Curetonian%20Version%20of%20the%20Four%20Gospels%20(Cambridge%20University%20Press)%201904.&amp;pg=PA11#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> 3</a>,</p>
<p>Hilgenfeld in 1866 though there was an Hebrew original underlying Greek -- See 2009 work <em>Gospel According to the Hebrews </em>at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=NVlnjKRS2L8C&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;pg=PA2#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">2</a>.</p>
<p>E.B. Nicholson, <em>Gospel According to the Hebrews </em>(1879) - <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA14#v=onepage&amp;q=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;f=false">14 fn</a>. says Epiphanius known for being destitute of logical power and dishonest in disputing heretics.</p>
<p>Baeda in 5th Century thought it improper to view as apocryphal the Gospel According to the Hebrews, but instead an 'ecclesiastical historical document' worthy of consideration:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Baeda at the beginning of the eighth century, does not seem to have known any more of this <span class="gstxt_hlt">Gospel </span>than what he learnt from Jerome. After speaking of Apocryphal Gospels, he says ' Here it must be noted that <em>the </em><span class="gstxt_hlt"><em>Gospel according </em></span><em>to the </em><span class="gstxt_hlt"><em>Hebrews, </em></span>as it is called, is not to be reckoned among apocryphal but among ecclesiastical histories : for it seemed good even to the very translator of Holy Scripture, Jerome, to use very many evidences from it, and to translate it into the Latin and Greek language.' §§ The words <em>ecclesiastical </em>and <em>histories </em>are doubtless borrowed from our last passage of Jerome. E.B. Nicholson, <em>The Gospel according to the Hebrews</em> (1879) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA23#v=onepage&amp;q=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;f=false">23</a>.]</p>
<p>Todd, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=HfTYAAAAMAAJ">The Gospel according to the Hebrews</a> (1933) - no preview</p>
<p>Howard's Texts: 1. <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ktjYAAAAMAAJ">The Gospel of Matthew acc to a Primitive Hebrew Text</a> - no preview</p>
<p>George Howard, <em><a href="http://www.jstor.org/pss/3267296">The Textual Nature of the Shem-Tob's Hebrew Matthew</a></em> <em>Journal of Biblical Literature </em>(The Society of Biblical Literature) Vol. 108, No. 2 (Summer, 1989) at 239-257 - Jstor (purchase $14)</p>
<p>Helmut Koester, <em>The Ancient Christian Gospels</em> (1990) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=DGK4sIPk4PYC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=Helmut%20Koester%20Ancient%20Christian%20Gospels&amp;pg=PA316#v=onepage&amp;q=proclamation&amp;f=false">316</a> says it is "certain" there was no Hebrew Matthew because of the "Greek literary style of the Gospel of Matthew and its use of Greek sources (Mark and Q)." But Koester is circular, for those views were arrived at without knowledge of the Hebrew Matthew which shows the Hebrew idiom underlying the Greek text and proves why Mark did not have the Sermon on the Mount -- he could not read Hebrew -- destroying the Marcan priority claim that did not factor in an original Hebrew version of Matthew.</p>
<p>Variant list in Wikipedia from patristic references to Gospel of the Nazarenes. See <a href="http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Nazaraeans">http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Nazaraeans</a></p>
<p>On the appearance 21 times in the Shem Tob of Yahweh - referenced as "the Name" -- see Banak's article at this<a href="http://www.paleotimes.org/whatsNew/2003/july_29_2003.htm"> link</a>.</p>
<p><a href="http://translate.google.com/translate?hl=en&amp;sl=es&amp;u=http://luminariasdelosnatzratim.files.wordpress.com/2010/07/glosario-toldot-iehoshua-luminarias-de-los-natzratim-chile.pdf&amp;ei=JW7DTLiyO4XEnAeN0JWJCg&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=translate&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=7&amp;ved=0CCwQ7gEwBjgK&amp;prev=/search%3Fq%3DKarnasiah%2Bisrael%26start%3D10%26hl%3Den%26sa%3DN%26prmd%3Divb">Matthew in Hebrew</a> by Toldot -- Spanish rendered in English via google</p>
<p>Lataster,<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=hY1lguX6oo8C&amp;lpg=PA76&amp;dq=gamlo%20rope%20eye%20needle&amp;pg=PA76#v=onepage&amp;q=gamlo%20rope%20eye%20needle&amp;f=false"> Was the New Testament Really Written in Greek?</a> (2009)</p>
<p>Throckmorton, <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/gospelhebrews-throck.html">Hebrew Matthew citations in Gospel Parallels</a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.onlinetruth.org/Articles%20Folder/hebrew_gospel_of_matthew.htm">Online Truth</a> - mentions Panteus brought gospel to India in Hebrew form. It includes this excellent synopsis of Shem Tob (which has much in common with Horbury's scholarly article cited above):</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Notes on Shem Tov's Hebrew Matthew</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>The 14th century polemical treatise Even Bochan [Isaiah 28:16] written by Shem-Tob ben-Isaac ben-Shaprut Ibn Shaprut], a Castilian Jewish physician, living later in Aragon. 12th/ 13th book contains a Hebrew version of the complete text of Matthew. EB completed in 1380 CE, revised in 1385 &amp; 1400. This is not to be confused with the Sebastian Münster (1537; dedicated to Henry VIII under title The Torah of the Messiah); or Jean du Tillet (1555) versions of Hebrew Matthew. In 1690 Richard Simon mistakenly identified Shem-Tob's Matthew with the version sof Münster and du Tillet.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Howard's edition based on nine manuscripts of ST dating from 15th to 17th centuries; namely British Library Add no. 26964 for chapters 1:1-23:22; and JTS Ms. 2426 for 23:23-end.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Shem-Tov's text is basically BH (Vav Consecutive predominates) with a mixture of MH and later rabbinic vocabulary and idiom. In addition the text reflects considerable revision to make it conform more closely to the standard Greek and Latin Gospel texts. The underlying text, however, reflects its original Hebrew composition, and it is the most unusual text of Matthew extant in that it contains a plethora of readings not found in any other codices of Matthew. It appears to have been preserved by the Jews, independent from the Christian community.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">**** The Pseudo-Clementine writings (Recognitions and Homilies) when quoting or referring to Matthew occasionally agree with ST Hebrew Matthew against the canonical Greek versions.</p>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish-Christian_Gospels">Jewish Christian Gospels</a>," Wikipedia -- discusses Ebionites, Nazarenes, GAH, etc.</p>
<p>Dr. <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_Tabor">Tabor</a>, "<a href="http://religiousstudies.uncc.edu/people/jtabor/shemtovweb.html">The Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</a>," - scholarly analysis and background but brief.</p>
<p>Cureton, <em>Remains of a very antient recension of the four Gospels in Syriac</em> (1858) - defends there was an original version of Matthew in Hebrew at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4rlWUMJL5vYC&amp;dq=cureton%20syriac%20gospels&amp;pg=PR76#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> lxxvi</a> -- argues most likely reflected in Syriac translation, not Greek.  Article in Journal of Sacred Literature 1859 -- tried to pick apart Cureton's thesis as merely accepting 'reports', and supposedly no first hand proof from Jerome etc., at this <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=uVhjl838XJEC&amp;lpg=PA464&amp;dq=jerome%20library%20caesarea%20matthew&amp;pg=PA461#v=onepage&amp;q=jerome%20library%20caesarea%20matthew&amp;f=false">link</a> But all history involves such analysis.</p>
<p>"Hebrew Gospel of Matthew" - scholarly notes on Howard's Shem-Tob translation - <a href="http://www.onlinetruth.org/Articles%20Folder/hebrew_gospel_of_matthew.htm">webpage</a>.</p>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_Gospel_of_Matthew">Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</a>" Wikipedia</p>
<p>On Moses's seat, another Hebrew expert spotted it says "he says," not "they say," and thus misread. See Ross Nichols, "The Seat of Moses: A Note on Matthew 23:2-3 According to Shem Tobs Hebrew Matthew," <a href="http://www.bibleinterp.com/opeds/nichols357923.shtml">http://www.bibleinterp.com/opeds/nichols357923.shtml</a></p>
<p>Hasting's Dictionary 1915 on<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ztYMAAAAIAAJ&amp;lpg=PA493&amp;ots=b8TVVmE48J&amp;dq=osanna%20barrama&amp;pg=PA492#v=onepage&amp;q=osanna%20barrama&amp;f=false"> Uncanonical Matthew</a>-- scholarly</p>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish-Christian_Gospels">Jewish Christian Gospels</a>," Wikipedia</p>
<p>"Jewish Christian Gospels"  with great links at <a href="http://jewish-christian-gospels.co.tv/#cite_note-38">http://jewish-christian-gospels.co.tv/#cite_note-38</a></p>
<p>"<a href="http://www.datingthenewtestament.com/Matthew.htm">Dating New Testament - Matthew</a>." Among other issues, this article points out: "<span>The book looks as if the Hebrew has been updated from what it would have been in the first century A.D. In some cases, this has wiped out Hebraisms that actually remain in the Greek text of the book. For example, the Greek New Testament always says “amen” (A Hebraism) for “truly”, as in Matt 5:20, while the Shem Tov Matthew says “in truth” (bemeth)."</span></p>
<p>Another interesting point raised in this article is as follows which points to Q (really the original Hebrew Matthew) as the source for the Greek Matthew &amp; Luke:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>In the canonical New Testament, the Sermon on the Mount in Matthew 5-7 is a single long message spoken by Jesus, without any narrative interruption. However, in the Shem Tov Matthew, the Sermon on the Mount is interrupted 16 times by the introductory phrase “Again Jesus said to His disciples”, or something similar. These interruptions occur in Matt 5:13, 5:17, 5:20, 5:25, 5:27, 5:31, 5:43, 6:2, 6:5, 6:16, 6:19, 6:24, 7:6, 7:13, 7:15 and 7:24. The location of the interruptions is significant when placed in parallel with Lukes usage of the same verses. Every time the Hebrew has an interruption, Luke either jumps to a different place in his gospel, or Luke does not have those verses. This curious fact may suggest that a common source or sources for the sayings of Jesus stand behind both Matthew and Luke. In a way, these interruptions could be considered fingerprints of the famous Q source. But if so, it would point to a Hebrew language Q. A similar thing happens in the Olivet discourse of Matthew 24-25. The Shem Tov version of Matt 24:27 interrupts Jesus' talk with the narrative “Again Jesus said to His disciples.” This ends a section that appears also in Mark, while the following passage (Matt 24:27) does not appear in Mark. Interruptions also in Matt 24:37 (Luke diff spot, Mark doesnt have it), 24:42 (Mark has it, diff spot, Luke does not), 25:1 (not in Mark or Luke), 25:14, 25:31 (not in Mark or Luke).</span></p>
<h2>Online Versions of Shem-Tob</h2>
<p><a href="http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTINTR.txt">http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTINTR.txt</a> -- introduction to Shem-Tob</p>
<p><a href="http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTCH15.TXT">http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTCH15.TXT</a> - comparison KJV to Shem-Tob</p>
<p><a href="http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTCH15.TXT">http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTCH15.TXT</a> - Messianic evangelicals</p>
<p><a href="http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTCH23.TXT">http://nccg.org/shem_tov/MATTCH23.TXT</a> - Chapter 23</p>
<p><a href="http://www.scripture.net.nz/chapter_mty_13_hebrewenglish.html">http://www.scripture.net.nz/chapter_mty_13_hebrewenglish.html</a> - chapter 13 Shem Tob with each Hebrew word actively linked to Strong's number in Hebrew. Plus aliterated</p>
<p><a href="http://www.scripture.net.nz/chapter_mty_12_hebrewenglish.html">http://www.scripture.net.nz/chapter_mty_12_hebrewenglish.html</a> - chapter 12 Shem Tob</p>
<p><a href="http://www.scripture.net.nz/">http://www.scripture.net.nz/</a> -- main page</p>
<h2>Translation Alternatives</h2>
<p><a href="http://tmcdaniel.palmerseminary.edu/Volume4_ShemTob+.pdf">http://tmcdaniel.palmerseminary.edu/Volume4_ShemTob+.pdf</a></p>
<p>B'sorot Matti, The Good News According To Matthew, From An Old Hebrew Manuscript.  Hebrew/Aramaic New Testament Research Institute. Post Office Box 471, Hurst, Texas 76053</p>
<h2>Critics</h2>
<p><a href="http://oneinmessiah.net/HEBREWMATTHEW.htm">Critics of Shem Tob Matthew</a> - highlights variants that displease him, and Howard's unorthodox interpretations (which are unfounded)</p>
<p><a href="http://www.toolong.com/pages/text_note.htm">Verse differences construed negatively</a></p>
<p><a href="http://fortheloveoftruth.wordpress.com/kabbalah-talmud-toldoth-and-the-shem-tov/">Kabbalah and Shem Tob</a></p>
<p><a href="http://www.toolong.com/pages/text_note.htm">Too long.com Criticism</a> -- comparison of Shem Tob against KJV</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=kxGxVNaPVoY">Jesus Words in the Aramaic Gospel</a> -- critical of the Shem Tob -- see page 192</p>
<ul>
<li><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=kxGxVNaPVoYC&amp;pg=PA192&amp;dq=Karnasiah+israel&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=3WaETJL0Bsj9nAfh-dzTAQ&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=5&amp;ved=0CDYQ6AEwBA#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Cites examples of Latin aids as proof Latin original</a> - at 192</li>
<li><a href="http://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jsource/vjw/Macedonia.html">Jews lived in Macedonia 100 BCE</a>.</li>
<li><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=LH8_AAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PA648&amp;ots=nPKWZQ-MPk&amp;dq=hebrew%20word%20for%20macedonia&amp;pg=PA648#v=onepage&amp;q=hebrew%20word%20for%20macedonia&amp;f=false">Kittim represents Macedon in Hebrew Bible</a> -- Bible Dictionary</li>
</ul>
<h2>Gospel Apocrypha</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/gthlamb.html">Gospel of Thomas</a> (English translation) for comparison</p>
<p><a href="http://reluctant-messenger.com/essene/gospel_intro.htm">Gospel of the Perfect Life</a> (Tibetan version of Matthew) - found by Rev. Ousely 1881 - for comparison. Also called "Gospel of the Holy Twelve."</p>
<h2>Greek Manuscript Discoveries</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.khouse.org/articles/2001/333/">Magdalen Papyrus</a> -- Matthew 26 in Greek</p>
<p>Variants in Wieland Willker, <a href="http://bijbelstudie.110mb.com/BW/40Mt/Anderen/Willker%20-%20A%20Textual%20Commentary%20on%20Matthew.pdf">A Textual Commentary on the Greek Gospels</a> -- PDF -- excellent</p>
<p>Washingtonianus 1906 -- Dr. Lee Woodard uses it to date Matthew to 37 AD and Mark to 68 AD. See <a href="http://washington-codex.org/">http://washington-codex.org/</a></p>
<h2>Hebrew v. Aramaic Issue</h2>
<p><a href="http://ccsom.org/languageofjesus/EloiLamaShabachtani.htm">Last words of Jesus on Cross</a> - argues for Hebrew as original</p>
<p>Evidence that Hebrew spoken and in Matthew -- <a href="http://webbpage.bravehost.com/Yavo/evidenceforhebrew.html">bravehost</a></p>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic_of_Jesus">Aramaic of Jesus</a>,' Wikipedia (takes it as proven Jesus primarily spoke Aramaic)</p>
<h2>Syriac Comparison</h2>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Curetonian_Gospels">Curetonian Gospels</a>," <em>Wikipedia</em></p>
<p>The Syriac Gospels in the translation entitled <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1YzNAAAAMAAJ">Evangelium Da-mpharreshe</a> (University Press, 1904)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Matthew ch. 13 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=1YzNAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=Burkitt%2C%20Evangelion%20da-Mepharreshe%2C%20The%20Curetonian%20Version%20of%20the%20Four%20Gospels%20(Cambridge%20University%20Press)%201904.&amp;pg=PA71#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">71</a></p>
<p>Cureton <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4rlWUMJL5vYC&amp;dq=cureton+syriac+gospels&amp;source=gbs_navlinks_s">Remains of a very antient recension of the four Gospels in Syriac, hitherto unknown in Europa</a> (1858)</p>
<p>Article critical of Cureton<em> Journal of Sacred Literature</em> (1859) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=uVhjl838XJEC&amp;pg=PA464&amp;dq=jerome+library+caesarea+matthew&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=RIE7Tfv5HoL0tgOfptS1Aw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=2&amp;ved=0CDEQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&amp;q=jerome%20library%20caesarea%20matthew&amp;f=false"> 464</a>.</p>
<p>"F.C. Burkitt published an English translation of this ancient Syriac text of Matthew in 1904 that is out of print but in the public domain and available on the web at www.trends.ca/~yuku/bbl/aramat1.htm  " (Tabor, The Jesus Dynasty (2010) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=CKFUFtnnffgC&amp;lpg=PA349&amp;ots=UOA-M-roep&amp;dq=howard%20shem%20tob%20locusts&amp;pg=PA349#v=onepage&amp;q=howard%20shem%20tob%20locusts&amp;f=false">349</a>.)</p>
<p>[This does not work]</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=COIUAAAAYAAJ&amp;pg=PR38&amp;lpg=PR38&amp;dq=burkitt+translation+syriac&amp;source=bl&amp;ots=0h8TL-m3GC&amp;sig=CFT2PeLirJV0JDLFIBGLhAp-2iE&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=PblETerROor4swOEnJS8Cg&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=6&amp;ved=0CC4Q6AEwBTgK#v=onepage&amp;q=burkitt%20translation%20syriac&amp;f=false">The Syriac New Testament</a> (1896) Matthew at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=COIUAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PR38&amp;ots=0h8TL-m3GC&amp;dq=burkitt%20translation%20syriac&amp;pg=PA1#v=onepage&amp;q=burkitt%20translation%20syriac&amp;f=false">1</a>.</p>
<h2>Aramaic Comparison</h2>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><a href="http://www.peshitta.org/">Online Interlinear</a> to Aramaic Peshitta text at www.peshitta.org</p>
<h2>Variants Mentioned by Patristic Fathers</h2>
<div>Expositary Times at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=SZbNAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=bread%20of%20the%20morrow&amp;pg=PA185#v=onepage&amp;q=bread%20of%20the%20morrow&amp;f=false"><span style="color: #000000;">185</span></a> - discusses Jerome's finding about 'tomorrow's bread and proves Aramaic influence</div>
<div>E.B. Nicholson, The Gospel of the Hebrews (1879) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QVAVAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;pg=PA6#v=onepage&amp;q=some%20things%20out%20of%20the%20Gospel%20according%20to%20the%20Hebrews%20and%20the%20Syriac&amp;f=false"><span style="color: #000000;">6</span></a>.</div>
<div>Text Excavations - breakdown of each by designation and source - see this <a href="http://www.textexcavation.com/jewishgospels.html"><span style="color: #000000;">link</span></a></div>
<div>Text excavations - Nazareans Gospel -- at this<a href="http://www.textexcavation.com/nazoraeangospel.html"><span style="color: #000000;"> link</span></a></div>
<div>Bernhard Pick, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=VX_w4ZGzs-kC">Paralipomena: remains of gospels and sayings of Christ</a> (1908) - at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=VX_w4ZGzs-kC&amp;dq=The%20Gospel%20According%20To%20The%20Hebrews%20Bernhard%20Pick&amp;pg=PA1#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">1</a> --  the Gospel According to the Hebrews</div>
<div>Baring-Gould, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Vxs3AAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=baring-gould%20jehoiada&amp;pg=PA138#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">The lost and hostile gospels </a>(1874)</div>
<div>Variants from mss -<strong><span><a href="http://www.biblequery.org/mtMss.htm">Bible Query - Early Manuscripts of Matthew</a> </span></strong>February 6, 2010 catalogued 2010</div>
<div></div>
<h2>Variants in Talmud</h2>
<div><span class="addmd">By Robert Travers Herford </span><em>Christianity in Talmud and Midrash</em> at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=tA9WAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=R.%20Travers%20Herford%20Christianity%20in%20Talmud%20and%20Midrash&amp;pg=PA154#v=onepage&amp;q=%22brutal%20parody%22&amp;f=false">154</a></div>
<div><span class="addmd"></span></div>
<div></div>
<h2>Apostolic Approval of Hebrew Version of Matthew</h2>
<div>Bartholomew took this Gospel to "India" and Pantaenus brought back to Alexandria in 180 AD.</div>
<div>See "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pantaenus">Pantaenus</a>," <em>Wikipedia</em> and "<a href="http://www.catholicplanet.com/TSM/NT-Matthew.htm">The Writing of the Gospel of Matthew</a>."</div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div>Pantaenus account in<em> Hebrew and Christian records: an historical enquiry concerning the</em> ..., Volume 2 By John Allen Giles at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=egHNEcFZ-x0C&amp;dq=pantaenus%20demetrius%20jerome&amp;pg=PA156#v=onepage&amp;q=pantaenus%20demetrius%20jerome&amp;f=false">156</a>.</div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div><a href="http://www.onlinetruth.org/Articles%20Folder/hebrew_gospel_of_matthew.htm">Webpage</a> discussing Pantaenus.</div>
<h2>Word Studies in Shem Tob</h2>
<p>Macedonia, Magedon, Armageddon</p>
<ul>
<li><a href="http://www.bible-history.com/links.php?cat=40&amp;sub=508&amp;cat_name=Bible+Cities&amp;subcat_name=Armageddon">Armageddon</a> - Mountain of Megiddo</li>
<li>Brook, Foss - The Greek New Testament - <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=tlUxMO_WSAgC&amp;lpg=PA784&amp;ots=ptyY5EBGPS&amp;dq=magedon%20macedonia&amp;pg=PA784#v=onepage&amp;q=magedon%20macedonia&amp;f=false">Har-Magedon</a></li>
</ul>
<h2>Gospel According to the Hebrews (Ebionite)</h2>
<p>See "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Matthew">Gospel of Matthew</a>," Wikipedia</p>
<p>See "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Nazarenes">Gospel of the Nazarenes</a>," Wikipedia</p>
<h2>Fraudulent "Gospel of the Holy 12"</h2>
<p>The Nazarenes is a name that legitimate sects may use. However, in 1870 was a fraudulent effort to recover what was called "Gospel of the Nazarenes" or "Gospel of the Holy 12" and some by saying they are "Nazarenes" mean to say they follow this 1870 text that purported to be the original gospel.</p>
<p>This Gospel of the Holy 12 represents a very clever effort to mix the 42 true patristic era quotes with a lot of interpretive material presented as 'gospel-fact' when the entire effort is a fraud. It sucked me in for a time because of the legitimate 42 quotes, and the reasonable guesses it often had as to what might be other missing material.</p>
<p>But then I noticed it depicted Jesus as once having a wife (who died), endorsed strict vegetarianism, etc. And thus we need to carefully examine its authenticity.</p>
<p>The Gospel of the Holy 12 begins with an 1870 work claiming antiquity -- found by an Irish theologian of a manuscript in a Tibetan monestary written in Aramaic which purports to contain what was the more original Gospel of Matthew. For a defensive discussion, see <a href="http://messianic.nazirene.org/gospel_comentary.htm">http://messianic.nazirene.org/gospel_comentary.htm</a> (No Aramaic text was ever published to allow scholars to examine the claims).</p>
<p>However, tekton did an expose that this claim of an authentic Gospel of the Holy 12 is bogus -- that there was no mss found in sense we would understand; instead visions and divine messages gave it to them in Aramaic. Here is the article discussing this: <a href="http://www.tektonics.org/lp/ouseley01.html">http://www.tektonics.org/lp/ouseley01.html</a></p>
<p>Confirming this is a modern "Nazarene" website <a href="http://www.thenazareneway.com/ght_table_of_contents.htm">http://www.thenazareneway.com/ght_table_of_contents.htm</a> that mentions:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The Preface, in part, notes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Their 'Gospel of the Holy Twelve' was <strong><em>communicated to the Editors, in numerous fragments</em></strong> at different times, by <strong><em>Emmanuel Swedenborg, Anna Kingsford, Edward Maitland, and a priest of the former century,</em></strong> giving his name as Placidus, of the Franciscan Order, afterwards a Carmelite. By them it was translated from the original, and given to the Editors in the flesh,<strong><em> to be supplemented in their proper places,</em></strong> where indicated, from the 'Four Gospels' (A.V.) revised where necessary by the same.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">To this explanation, the Editors cannot add, nor from it take away.<strong><em> By the Divine Spirit was the Gospel communicated to the four above mentioned</em></strong>, and by them translated, and given to the writers; not in seance rooms (where too often resort the idle, the frivolous and the curious, attracting spirits similar to themselves, rather than the good),<em><strong> but 'in dreams and visions of the night,' and by direct guidance, has God instructed them by chosen instruments</strong></em>; and now they give it to the world, that some may be wiser unto Salvation, while those who reject it, remain in their blindness, until they will to see."</p>
<p>The modern Essenes recognize this Gospel of the Holy 12 is a hoax, and describe GOHT as work that claims to be "channelled," and not truly 'discovered' in the normal sense of the word. See this link from<a href="http://essenes.net/index.php?option=com_content&amp;task=view&amp;id=289&amp;Itemid=561"> Order of Nazarean Essenes</a>.</p>
<p>A revived Nazarene movement explains the origin of the GOHT, and Epiphanius' mention of Hebrew Matthew at this <a href="http://www.wnae.org/whatisnazarene.htm">link</a>.</p>
<p>The so-called Gospel of the Holy Twelve is at this webpage for easier access -- <a href="http://reluctant-messenger.com/essene/gospel_2.htm">page 2</a></p>
<p>The so-called Gospel of the Holy Twelve as a books.google.com version is at this <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=-TpcZ1pfYp8C&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=intitle%3Agospel%20intitle%3Aof%20intitle%3Athe%20intitle%3Aholy%20intitle%3Atwelve%20inauthor%3AOuseley&amp;pg=PA7#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">link</a>.</p>
<p>In my opinion, the GOHT was a sophisticated hoax, using many of the 42 patristic era quotes of the Gospel according to the Hebrews. This gave a researcher the sense that if there was a true discovery of an Aramaic mss. with all these quotes, it must be tied to the original Hebrew version of Matthew. But we come to realize there was no true discovery in the sense we understand the word "discovered" -- it was discovered by visions and divine messages, and not by finding a mss. The authors admitted this, and admitted using the KJV to fill in blanks. But then if they were really researchers, they should have showed us what was original and what was the King James. They should have identified the additions, which they did not do. They did not set out side-by-side the Aramaic text to allow others to interpret their supposedly 'amazing' find.' The fact they did not (and in over 100 years since nothing more was produced) shows again those who perpetuated this claim in 1870 were frauds.</p>
<h2><strong>Du Tillet Hebrew Matthew</strong></h2>
<p>Schonfield in PDF <a href="http://www.torahresource.com/DuTillet/Schonfield.pdf">http://www.torahresource.com/DuTillet/Schonfield.pdf</a></p>
<h2>Munster Hebrew Matthew</h2>
<p>--<a href="http://books.google.com/books/about/Evangelium_Secundum_Matthaeum.html?id=sWxEAAAAcAAJ">Evangelium secundum Matthaeum in lingua hebraica</a> (1537).</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books/about/Evangelium_Secundum_Matthaeum.html?id=sWxEAAAAcAAJ">http://books.google.com/books/about/Evangelium_Secundum_Matthaeum.html?id=sWxEAAAAcAAJ</a></p>
<p>Munster's Hebrew Bible --New Translation (into Latin) is at this link</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=UPOkxZJ1gOIC&amp;source=gbs_similarbooks">http://books.google.com/books?id=UPOkxZJ1gOIC&amp;source=gbs_similarbooks</a></p>
<h2>Septuagint Translations Impacting Matthew</h2>
<p>Isaiah's Servant Poems According to the Septuagint -- <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=25mtmnP3ujUC&amp;lpg=PA5&amp;ots=1V714iwQGa&amp;dq=isaiah%2042%3A1-4%20septuagint&amp;pg=PA5#v=onepage&amp;q=isaiah%2042:1-4%20septuagint&amp;f=false">table of contents</a> at books.google.cm</p>
<ul>
<li>Translation in Hebrew and LXX of Isaiah 42:1-4 quoted in Matt. 10 is at this<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=25mtmnP3ujUC&amp;lpg=PA5&amp;ots=1V714iwQGa&amp;dq=isaiah%2042%3A1-4%20septuagint&amp;pg=PA56#v=onepage&amp;q=isaiah%2042:1-4%20septuagint&amp;f=false"> link</a>.</li>
</ul>
<p>"Isaiah Quotations in the NT," Companion to KJV -- table at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=wiKjA4sqF_0C&amp;pg=RA1-PA117&amp;dq=matthew+12:17+isaiah&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=XHGCTJnGGM__nAfxwdVv&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=1&amp;ved=0CCQQ6AEwADgK#v=onepage&amp;q=matthew%2012%3A17%20isaiah&amp;f=false">117</a></p>
<h2>Puns in Hebrew</h2>
<p>Michael Banak wrote in <a href="http://www.paleotimes.org/whatsNew/2003/july_29_2003.htm">2003</a>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">In the fall of 1986, George Howard published an announcement of his forthcoming translation of the OTHER text, the Shem Tob text.  Up till that point in time I had ignored the Shem Tob, seeing how Schonfield cast such a bad light upon it.  George Howard reported in the Bible Review Magazine how he was astounded to find the Shem Tob Text saturated with puns, word plays and other unique Hebrew constructions.  In many ways, this Shem Tob text appeared to be more valuable than the du Tillet text.  Let's digress for a moment and ponder the significance of puns, word-plays, etc.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" align="justify">The Old Testament is also filled with such things.  For an example of a pun, please see Jeremiah 1:11-12. "Moreover, the Word of Yahweh came unto me saying, Jeremiah, what seest thou?  And I said, I see the rod of an Almond tree.  Then said Yahweh unto me, thou hast well seen: for I will hasten my word to perform it."  It is important to know that the Hebrew word for almond (Strong's number 8247, shaw-kade) sounds like the Hebrew word for 'hasten' (Strong's number 8245, shaw-kad).  That is an example of a pun.  Psalm 122:6 has a fine example of a word-play.  Where it says 'Pray for the peace of Jerusalem,' the Hebrew is pronounced, 'Shalu shalom Yerushalaim.'  The Old Testament has many other examples of this kind of writing.  We should, therefore, find it no surprise when we turn-up a Hebrew Matthew which also has these things.  Further, it shows strong evidence that the Shem Tob text was NOT a translation from the Greek.</p>
<h2>Hebrew Matthew Project At Torah Resources</h2>
<p>An excellent library for other materials. See www.torahresources.org -- <a href="http://www.torahresource.com/Dutillet.html">Hebrew Matthew project</a></p>
<p>You will find pdfs of original copies of the Shem-Tob there.</p>
<p>It provides a link to a Du Tillet version of Matthew translated by Schonfeld at this link to a <a href="http://www.torahresource.com/DuTillet/Schonfield.pdf">PDF</a></p>
<h2>Matthew's Gospel Focused Materials</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/matthew.html">http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/matthew.html</a></p>
<p>Jewish-Christian with focus on Hebrew Tillet and Shem-Tob, and Midrash sources at this site</p>
<p><a href="http://www.yashanet.com/studies/matstudy/mat5a.htm">http://www.yashanet.com/studies/matstudy/mat5a.htm</a></p>
<p>Clarke, New Testament with Commentary -- at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=I6kGAAAAQAAJ&amp;dq=shall%20have%20no%20place%20in%20the%20kingdom%20of%20Christ%20here%2C%20nor%20in%20the%20kingdom%20of%20glory%20above%20clarke&amp;pg=PT38#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">books.google.com</a></p>
<p><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Matthew">http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Matthew</a></p>
<h2>Probable Corruptions in Greek Matthew</h2>
<p>See "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matthew_16:2b%E2%80%933">Matthew 16:2b-3</a>," Wikipedia</p>
<h2>Efforts to Supplant 12 Apostles</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.thenazareneway.com/the_gospel_of_mary_magdalene.htm">Gospel of Mary</a> - Mary Magdalen claims Jesus could reveal visions to her. Peter objects. Gnostic tactic</p>
<h2>Hebrew Studies</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.jewfaq.org/alephbet.htm">Alphabet and Numerals</a></p>
<p>Ebionites &amp; Nazarenes</p>
<p>"<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)">Nazarenes</a>," Wikipedia - main difference from Ebionites is they accepted virgin birth account. This mentions some details about Jerome's encounter with them and the Hebrew Matthew:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 14.4px;">St.Jerome wrote that Matthew, the tax collector and later an Apostle, composed his gospel near Jerusalem for Hebrew Christians. It was then translated into Greek but the Greek copy was lost. The Hebrew original was preserved at the Library of Caesarea, which Pamphilus diligently gathered. The Nazarenes transcribed a copy for Jerome which he used in his work. <sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)#cite_note-Jerome.2C_On_Illustrious_Men_3-24"><span>[</span>25<span>]</span></a></sup> Jerome adds that Matthew's gospel was called the <em><a class="mw-redirect" title="Gospel according to the Hebrews" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_according_to_the_Hebrews">Gospel according to the Hebrews</a></em> or sometimes the <em>Gospel of the Apostles</em>, and was used by the Nazarene communities.<sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)#cite_note-25"><span>[</span>26<span>]</span></a></sup> Jerome and Epiphanius both wrote how the Nazarene sect existed in their day,<sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)#cite_note-26"><span>[</span>27<span>]</span></a></sup><sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)#cite_note-27"><span>[</span>28<span>]</span></a></sup>. However, little is known how their sect disappeared or what happened to the Gospel of the Nazarenes.<sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)#cite_note-28"><span>[</span>29<span>]</span></a></sup></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 14.4px;"> </span></p>
<p>****</p>
<p>In the 4th century <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jerome" title="Jerome">Jerome</a> also refers to Nazarenes as those "...who accept Messiah in such a way that they do not cease to observe the old Law." In his <em>Epistle</em> 79, to Augustine, he said:</p>
<dl><dd>"What shall I say of the Ebionites who pretend to be Christians? To-day there still exists among the Jews in all the synagogues of the East a heresy which is called that of the Minæans, and which is still condemned by the Pharisees; [its followers] are ordinarily called 'Nasarenes'; they believe that Christ, the son of God, was born of the Virgin Mary, and they hold him to be the one who suffered under Pontius Pilate and ascended to heaven, and in whom we also believe. But while they pretend to be both Jews and Christians, they are neither." <sup><a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)#cite_note-29"><span>[</span>30<span>]</span></a></sup></dd></dl>
<p>Jerome viewed a distinction between Nazarenes and Ebionites, a different Jewish sect, but does not comment on whether Nazarene Jews considered themselves to be "Christian" or not or how they viewed themselves as fitting into the descriptions he uses. His criticism of the Nazarenes is noticeably more direct and critical than that of Epiphanius.</p>
<h2>Muslim Resources On Sayings Attributed to Jesus</h2>
<p>Tarif Khalidi, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=pE57rmPaM58C&amp;dq">The Muslim Jesus: sayings and stories in Islamic literature</a> (Harvard University Press, 2001)</p>
<p>I don't find any are legitimate, but scholars should weigh this possibility.</p>
<h2>Son of Man Studies</h2>
<p>Edwin A Abott, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=yPw8AAAAIAAJ">"Son of Man"</a> (1910) - References in Gospels - books.google.com</p>
<p>Discusses lack of evidence Jesus called himself 'bar Adam' at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=yPw8AAAAIAAJ&amp;lpg=PR3&amp;dq=%22crafty%20as%20serpents%22&amp;pg=PA16#v=onepage&amp;q=%22crafty%20as%20serpents%22&amp;f=false">18</a></p>
<p>Searches:</p>
<p>1. Google search on<a href="http://www.google.com/search?q=Old+Hebrew+Text+of+St.+Matthew's+Gospel&amp;hl=en&amp;tbo=1&amp;tbs=bks:1&amp;ei=7EF7TJOQBsKCnQf3k7D4AQ&amp;start=30&amp;sa=N"> Old Hebrew Text of St. Matthew</a> - finished 3 pages</p>
<h2>Virgin Birth Issues</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.bnai-el-chai.com/pdf/Virgin_Birth.pdf">B'nai PDF critical of case for virgin birth</a> This says Epiphanius said in Panarion 30.13 that the Ebionites did not have the first 2 chapters of Matthew. This is I think an exaggeration by this article.</p>
<p>See our <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/virgin-birth-issues.html">subpage</a> discussion.</p>
<h2>John the Baptist - More Emphasis in Original Matthew</h2>
<p><em>John the Baptist</em> By Frederick Brotherton Meyer (Revell, 1900) preface at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=a50_AAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PA6&amp;ots=dst9dPAsS6&amp;dq=john%20the%20baptist%20savior%20of%20the%20world&amp;pg=PA6#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">6</a>.</p>
<h2>Dove and Voice of God</h2>
<p>Bat kol is “a voice from heaven.” (Deborah Sawyer, <em>Midrash aleph beth</em> (1992) at 126.) Shekinah has “in Greek no equivalent unless it is deza, a gleam of light.’”....This idea of a dove-like form is found in Jewish literature. The phrase in Cant. 2:12 the voice of the dove (AV turtle) is translated in the Targum the voice of the Holy Spirit.' The passage in Gen. 1:2, And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters is interpreted by <span> </span>Ben Zurana (ca. 190AD) to mean A dove that hovers above her brood without touching it.’” (Isidore Singer, <em>The Jewish Encyclopedia</em> (1964) Vol. 6 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=ghcVAQAAIAAJ&amp;q=bat+kol+shekinah&amp;dq=bat+kol+shekinah&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=Dw1XTfjXIIz6swOympycDA&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=4&amp;ved=0CDUQ6AEwAzgK">448</a>.)]</p>
<h2>Modern Ebionites</h2>
<p><a href="http://ebionite.org/bookstall2.htm">Bookstore</a> - Vermes books trying to find original words of Jesus.</p>
<h2>Jerome and Osianna Quote</h2>
<p>Fitzmeyer, Dead Sea Scrolls etc. -- discusses at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=9d6gq_bR1AIC&amp;lpg=PA122&amp;ots=_Wl0XJ5-DP&amp;dq=jerome%20osianna&amp;pg=PA122#v=onepage&amp;q=jerome%20osianna&amp;f=false">122</a> the GATHM <em>osianna</em> in Hebrew.</p>
<p>In Latin it is osianna. See this <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=GiUGA8XWiYsC&amp;lpg=PA120&amp;ots=M5oR7bVK6v&amp;dq=barrama%20hebrew%20meaning&amp;pg=PA120#v=onepage&amp;q=barrama%20hebrew%20meaning&amp;f=false">link</a>.</p>
<p>Letter 20 is at this ccel <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf206.v.XX.html">link</a>.</p>
<p>A 1695 work by Jerome's modern compiiler details the Italian Latin vulgate variances which often match the Gospel According to the Hebrews by Matthew. Here is a<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=qvtbAAAAQAAJ&amp;dq=jerome%20inauthor%3AMartianay&amp;pg=PR16#v=onepage&amp;q=jerome%20inauthor:Martianay&amp;f=false"> link</a>.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>The Hebrew Gospel of Matthew</h2>
<h3>Why The Hebrew Matthew Is More Authentic Original Than Greek Text Tradition</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Was the Greek New Testament a translation of a Hebrew original? All the early church said yes. For the interesting translation by Professor Howard in 1987 of the Hebrew Matthew known as the Shem Tob, see our article "Hebrew Matthew" (<a href="/images/stories/Canon_Studies/hebrew matthew.pdf">PDF</a>) or (<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-introduction.html">HTML</a>).</span></p>
<h3>Necessity to Restore Original Matthew</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Standford Rives has released in 2012 the Original Gospel of Matthew which attempts to restore Matthew to how it first appeared. This relies upon the 49 quotes of the Hebrew Matthew in the period 96-400 AD. Erasmus (1466-1536 AD), the first modern reformer whose work spurred all modern translations, made a similar earlier effort to uncover variants lost in preparing the Greek texts of the Gospels. He received complaints for doing so, but Erasmus wisely responded:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">You cry out that it is a crime to correct the gospels. This is a speech worthier of a coachman than of a theologian. You think it is all very well if a clumsy scribe makes a mistake in transcription and then you deem it a crime to put it right. The only way to determine the true text is to examine the early codices. (Erasmus (1466-1536 AD), quoted in Roland H. Bainton, <em>Erasmus of Christendom</em> (New York: Charles Scribners Sons, 1969) at 135.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">You can purchase the Original Gospel of Matthew by Rives at our online <a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jwoogm-20">Amazon store</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, we detail below some of the verses deleted in our Greek version of Matthew that were originally present. The oldest complete Matthew is the Sinaticus from 340 AD. All prior versions have been lost or were destroyed. Hence, some of the restoration work necessary must examine the commentators' works which quoted the original Matthew. This is simply extending Erasmus' work one further step. This is the effort that Standford Rives has attempted to do, and is certainly the right approach.</span></p>
<h3>Deleted Verses in Greek New Testament</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For deletion of 'This day I have begotten thee" from Matthew's Baptismal account, see our <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-baptismal-account.html">page</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For deletion of the verse that the two in the field represented one "righteous" and "one evil," and it is the "stumblingblocks," not the righteous, who are taken away when Christ returns, see our <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/rapture-in-hebrew-matthew.html">page</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For a thorough list of all the deleted verses that were present in the Hebrew Matthew, see this <strong><em>Knol</em></strong> - "<a href="http://knol.google.com/k/the-original-gospel-of-matthew">The Original Gospel of Matthew</a>."</span></p>
<h3>Verses Added in Greek New Testament</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For a list of of verses added by the Greek Matthew by comparing to the Hebrew Matthew which scholars suspected all along were additions, see our notes here:</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">1. Matthew 28:19 was altered in about 325 A.D. to add "Father, Son and Holy Ghost."  However, this is missing in the Hebrew Matthew found by Professor Howard. All scholars agree that "Father, Son and Holy Ghost" is an obvious corruption of how Matthew originally read, as six times in Acts the baptismal name is only that of Jesus, thus strengthening the reliability of the Hebrew Matthew known as the Shem Tob. For discussion, see our webpage on "<a href="/JWOS/baptism-in-whose-name.html">In Whose Name To Baptize</a>."</span></p>
<h3>Erroneous Translation in Greek New Testament Of Hebrew Matthew Original</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">1. Matthew 23:2-3 in the the Greek translation of the Hebrew Matthew makes it appear Jesus told Christians to obey everything the Pharisees teach. All scholars concur that this is an incongruous message, at odds with so much of what Jesus said about the Pharisees. Yet, no Greek text variant solves the dilemma.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But the Hebrew Shem Tob Matthew simply shows a "he" was mistaken for "they" by the Greek translator. This one word mistake changed the verse completely around. So what Jesus said is about those who sit in Moses's seat, do everything "he" (Moses) says, but do not do as they the Pharisees do for they do not practice (what Moses' teaches). But the Greek translator misread "he" for "they," and ended up telling us to do everything the Pharisees tell us to do. Hence, a simple mistranslation of "he" by "they" in Greek altered the meaning to what scholars acknowledge could not be the original text -- Jesus saying Christians should obey the Pharisees. This vindicates again the likely validity of the Shem Tob as the more original form of the Gospel of Matthew. See our webpage <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/matthew-232-3-in-hebrew-matthew.html">Matthew 23:2-3</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">2.  <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-variants.html">Variants in Hebrew Matthew</a> e.g., Matthew 5:33 should read do not take any <strong>'false</strong>' oaths. It is not a prohibition that we should ever take any oath.</span></p>
<h3>Reviews of this Site on the Hebrew Matthew</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For email comments, see this<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/review-hebrew-matthew.html"> link</a>.</span></p>
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<h2>False Oaths</h2>
<p>The Greek translation of Matthew inadvertently dropped the word<strong> falsely </strong>from the Hebrew Matthew. This erroneously made it appear Jesus said one is never to take an oath. (Nehemiah Gordon, <em>Hebrew Yeshua v. Greek Jesus</em> (Hilkia Press, 2006) at 59, 65-66, 68.)</p>
<p>But God commands people to take oaths in God's name. "Thou shalt fear YAHWEH thy God;... and by his name shalt thou swear." (Deu 10:20 ASV.)</p>
<p>Gordon, a Jewish scholar, notes the Pharisees evidently taught you could violate an oath as long as not sworn in Yahweh's name. In other words, false oaths were accceptable to them, as long as God's name was not brought into the statement. This was based upon twisting the Bible which prohibited any false swearing in God's name. (Lev. 19:12.) But would false swearing truly be OK if God's name was not invoked? Not likely.</p>
<p>Jesus' criticisms imply the Pharisaic quibbling with Lev. 19:12 led to sanction of false oaths as long as not in God's name. Implied from Jesus' criticisisms is that the Pharisees obviously said Lev. 19:12 meant one could falsely swear even if you invoked objects closely associated with God, like the Temple. You supposedly would transgress the command only when God's name is actually used.</p>
<p>However, Jesus was invoking the broader principle in Zechariah 8:17 which said "<strong><em>love no false oath</em></strong>: for all these are things that I hate, saith YAHWEH." Thus, you were not allowed to dupe others if you worded your oath carefully. Thus, the Pharisees diminished the Law once more. Gordon detected the difference in the Hebrew version of Matthew (<em>i.e.</em>, the Shem-Tov) where Jesus corrected them, saying `do not swear falsely <strong><em>at all</em></strong>,' whether by the temple or anything else. The Greek translation inadvertently dropped the word <em>falsely</em>. This led us not misapprehend Jesus' meaning.</p>
<p>Then Gordon explains the instruction ending `anything beyond this is evil' was an Hebraism used in the Original Testament to mean that anything beyond (added to) the Torah was evil.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Who Is The Only True God According to Jesus?</h2>
<h3>Introduction to John 17:3</h3>
<p>Jesus in <a href="http://bible.cc/john/17-3.htm">John 17:3</a> says, as we explore below, that the Father "is the<strong><em> only true God</em></strong>."</p>
<p>As an introduction to this topic, I wish to emphasize that a correct Christology says Jesus is Divine due to the indwelling presence of the Father in Jesus. (<a href="http://bible.cc/john/14-10.htm">John 14:10</a>)("Father..dwells in me.") While I dearly love Jesus, and worship / do homage to him as King-Messiah appointed over me, a correct Christology must reject as violative of the First Commandment to say Jesus alone is God-the-Son or simply "God." See our article "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/exaltation-that-turns-idolatrous.html">Exaltation that turns Idolatrous</a>."</p>
<p><span>And while Apostle John in </span><span>John 1:1,</span><a href="http://biblos.com/john/1-14.htm">14</a><span>, says the "Logos [was] made flesh" Jesus is not the Logos. As Jesus in </span><a href="http://biblos.com/john/14-24.htm">14:24</a><span>, says the "</span><strong><em>Logos</em></strong><span> you hear is</span><em><strong> not mine</strong></em><span>, but the Father's who sent me." This is why Jesus says in John <a href="http://bible.cc/john/5-30.htm">5:30</a>: </span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><strong><em>I can of my own self do nothing</em></strong>: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek <strong><em>not my own will</em></strong>, but the will of the Father who has sent me.</span></p>
<p>Jesus clearly directs us always to worship God as the Father, and that apart from God-the-Father, Jesus is powerless. Hence, the familiar claim there exists a "God-the-Son" who is not "God-the-Father" (and not "God-the-Holy-Spirit") is contradicted by Jesus.</p>
<p><span>The misunderstanding that Jesus is God apart from the Father's indwelling presence comes from a mistranslation of John 1:14. In John ch.1, we read that the Logos, translated as the Word, is God. In verse 14, we are told the Logos comes to "dwell" (shekinei in Greek) in flesh and was the "monogenes." It meant "one and only" (God) became flesh. However, this was mistranslated as "only begotten," which made us think Logos must be the begotten son Jesus, rather than the ONE AND ONLY GOD. </span></p>
<p><span>However, "begotten" in the translation was wrong on two scores: (a) God is eternal and in no sense can be begotten, which should have been a hint that the translation of <em>monogenes</em> was wrong; and (b) "monogenes" we now know (through better scholarship) meant "one of a kind," or "unique," and not "only begotten." See our webpage on "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/one-and-only-issue-in-john-114.html">The One and Only Issue in John 1:14</a>." </span></p>
<p><span>The ONE AND ONLY GOD, the LOGOS came to DWELL, says John, in flesh. (John 1:14.) The word for dwell is <em>shekeinei</em> --- a Greek transliterated form of the Hebrew word that means <em>divinity dwelling</em>. It is this attribute of the LOGOS in Jesus which gives us the right to call Jesus DIVINE. Why? Because in Judaism when God dwelled in the Temple at Jerusalem, His Shekinah (Dwelling Presence) was there, and Jews call this "Divinity Abiding" or "Divine." See our article "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/correct-christology.html">Correct Christology</a>" for more discussion.</span></p>
<p>Hence, with this preface, one can see we need a slight, but substantially important, adjustment in how we hold Jesus in our hearts -- as the King Messiah appointed by Yahweh over us. To obey Jesus properly, we must see He points us to follow and love and adore Yahweh, the Father, always as "the only true God," as we shall now see.</p>
<h3>John 17:3 - Jesus Says Father is "Only True God"</h3>
<p>Jesus in John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+17&amp;version=KJV">17:1-3</a> states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>1</sup>These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said,<em><strong> Father,</strong></em> the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>2</sup>As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>3</sup>And this is life eternal, that they might know <em><strong>thee the only true God</strong></em>, and<strong><em> Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent</em></strong>.</p>
<p>The Geneva Study Bible admits what this says:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(b) He calls the <strong><em>Father the only true God</em></strong> (<a href="http://bible.cc/john/17-3.htm">GSB at John 17:3</a>.)</p>
<p>The oldest discovered sermon in Christianity from the 2d century used the words of John 17:1-3 to make the same point:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">To the<strong><em> only God invisible, the Father of truth</em></strong>, who <strong>sent forth unto us the Savio</strong><strong>r</strong> and prince of immortality, through whom He also made manifest unto us the truth and the heavenly light. To Him be the glory for ever and ever. (Cobern, <em>New Archaelogical Discoveries and their Bearing on the New Testament</em> (1917) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=l5pJAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=didache%20virgin%20birth%20account&amp;pg=PA277#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">277</a>.)</p>
<p>However, the Geneva Study Bible (GSB) reads more into John 17:3. The GSB tries to say the "Father, the only true God" does not exclude the Holy Spirit and Jesus as also God independent of the Father being God:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(b) He <strong><em>calls the Father the only true God</em></strong> in order to set him against all false gods, and<em><strong> to include himself and the Holy Spirit</strong></em>, for he immediately joins the knowledge of the Father and the knowledge of himself together, and according to his accustomed manner sets forth the whole Godhead in the person of the Father. So is the Father alone said to be King, immortal, wise, dwelling in light which no man can attain unto, and invisible; Ro 16:27; 1Ti 1:17.</p>
<p>This is just gobbly-gook after the important admission. Nothing like this ("immediately joins knowledge of the father and knowledge of himself together") exists in the passage. Rather, mention of the "only true God" as the "Father" is set apart from Jesus Christ rather than including as God our Lord Jesus (<em>i.e.</em>, our master Jesus whom God spoke from heaven twice that we should obey) as "God."</p>
<p>As one author puts it, "Jesus did not identify himself as the only true God" in this passage. (Patrick Navas, <em>Divine Truth or Human Tradition?</em> (Author House, 2006) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=KYktt_ZiTGcC&amp;lpg=PA151&amp;dq=john%2017%3A3%20%22only%20true%20god%22&amp;pg=PA151#v=onepage&amp;q=john%2017:3%20%22only%20true%20god%22&amp;f=false">151</a>.) Navas points out that but for extra-biblical tradition, the Father as "the only true God" would be a "definitional statement" of true Christianity -- "Jesus taught he was<strong><em> sent by the only true God</em></strong>." <em>Id. </em>And in this statement the "only true God" is a reference to a specific being -- the Father, and not a "first person" among three. Navas concludes correctly:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">John 17:3...is a presentation of essential Christian doctrine in its <em>purest</em> and <em>fullest</em> and <em>clearest</em> expression--from the very mouth of the Lord and founder of the Christian faith. <em>Id.</em></p>
<p>Moreover, the words of Jesus do not merely call the Father the "only God" but affirm the Father <strong><em>is</em></strong> "the only true God." This rules out any other than the Father, distinct from the Son or the claimed distinct person of the Holy Spirit.</p>
<p>The correct Christology is that the <strong><em>Father dwelled in Jesus</em></strong> -- in a unique and special way so that whatever Jesus said or did was an exact replication of what the Father was saying or doing. See John 14. See our article "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/correct-christology.html">The Correct Christology</a>." This did not make the man Jesus God Himself apart from the Father indwelling Him. Rather, Jesus was Divine as the<em><strong> presence of God</strong></em> (which was in Jesus) was known as "Divinity" or "Shekinah" just as resided at the Temple in Jerusalem. It now resided fully in Jesus, <strong><em>rendering Him Divine</em></strong>.</p>
<p>Consistent with this is the fact the Apostles make numerous references to God using Jesus as a Servant whom <strong>God (not simply 'the Father')</strong> glorified. These Bible quotes below exclude the later 381 AD notion that Jesus Himself apart from the Father was God. The Apostles spoke thus:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">“Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, <strong>a Man attested by God</strong> to you by miracles, wonders, and signs <strong>which God did through Him</strong> in your midst, as you yourselves also know” (Acts 2:22)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">“Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that <strong>God has made this Jesus</strong>, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.” (Acts 2:36)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, <strong>the God of our fathers, glorified</strong> <strong>His Servant Jesus</strong>, whom you delivered up and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let Him go. (Acts 3:13)</p>
<h2>Jesus Also Identified The Father As His God</h2>
<p>Jesus said to one of the women who found Him after the resurrection, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to <strong><em>My Father</em></strong>; but go to <strong>My brethren</strong> and say to them, I am ascending to<strong> My Father and your Father, </strong>and to<strong> My God and your God.</strong>’” (John 20:17)</p>
<p>Furthermore, Jesus said He was not the Father. Jesus says in John 8:14-18 that He and the Father constitute TWO distinct witnesses. If Jesus were the Father whom Jesus said in John 17:3 was the "<strong><em>only</em></strong> true God," then Jesus' statement would not add up to two beings, as Jesus says they constitute in 8:14-18, but one being. Since Jesus said they are two witnesses, they are not ONE in the intrinsic sense of being.</p>
<h2>What About John 10:30-The Father And I are One?</h2>
<p>Then what about John 10:30, "the Father and I are one"? What does it mean?</p>
<p>The Father and Jesus are one in the same sense we are one with Jesus, because next Jesus says in the same prayer that He prays<strong><em> His disciples and Himself would be ONE </em></strong>even as 'we' (Father and Jesus) are one.<em><strong> </strong></em></p>
<p><em><strong>If</strong></em> Jesus' prayer was answered by the Father and ONENESS meant organic being,<strong><em> then </em></strong>each of us <em>is</em> or <em>would become</em> God. This is because if the Father and Jesus are organically ONE being because Jesus said they are "ONE" in John 10:30, and thus each are indivisibly God, then this must be true for us too if God answered Jesus' prayer that we and Jesus be one. That is, if we are now one with Jesus if God answered Jesus' prayer for ourselves and Himself to be one, then we are logically the same ONE with the Father as Jesus is, and if we contend that Jesus's "ONENESS" with the Father means God-hood, we too would become indivisibly God.</p>
<p>Hence, this is an absurd reading. In other words, if you wish to absurdly claim you are GOD, you can defend this by saying Jesus' statement means Jesus was God when Jesus says "I and the Father are one." Because Jesus prayed that we-followers and Jesus would be "one" with Jesus just as Jesus is one with the Father. But this is heresy and absurd. Obviously what Jesus meant is <strong><em>He was one in mind and spirit with the Father just as Jesus prayed we would be one in mind and spirit with Himself</em></strong>.</p>
<p>But if you contend this statement "I and the Father are one" represents Jesus was organically part of the being of God and hence was God, then you must address the absurd heresy that this would mean that if God answers Jesus prayer we will become God too. Do you really think this is what Jesus means about us being one with Him? If not, then you know this is not what Jesus meant by saying "I and the Father are one."</p>
<p>Instead, if Jesus meant He enjoyed a ONENESS of mind and spirit with the Father, proven by how Jesus replicated everything the Father did and said to Him, Jesus was praying to the Father that we too would be so one in mind and spirit of Jesus, rather than affirming we too become God.</p>
<p>Thus, we share a oneness as much with Jesus, if this prayer of Jesus is answered in our individual cases, as Jesus shared with the Father. But this sharing with Jesus does not make us able to say "I am God."</p>
<p>I trust each of us do not share the Mormon heresy that we are all little gods, and thus I trust we all reject that John 10:30 says the Father and Son are intrinsically persons in one God-head, any more than our oneness with Christ could make each of us identical to being God.</p>
<h2>Other References to the Father As God Alone</h2>
<p>Compare Jude 4 to Jesus' words in John 17:3 ("father...only true God"):</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the<em><strong> only Lord God</strong></em>, and <strong>our Lord Jesus Christ</strong>. (Jude <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jude+1:4&amp;version=KJV">4</a>.)</p>
<p>Notce, this speaks of the Lord-God and distinctly our "Lord-Jesus Christ." God set Jesus over us as Lord. But being Lord is not synonymous with being God. Lord is an old word, but it simply meant 'Master.'</p>
<p>John elsewhere spoke the same way that Jesus is distinct from "His God and Father":</p>
<blockquote>
<p>To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood [i.e., Jesus], <strong>and has made us kings and priests to His God and Father</strong>, to Him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen. (Revelation 1:5b6)</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Paul likewise repeatedly identifies the One God as the Father:</p>
<blockquote>
<p>There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called in one hope of your calling; one Lord, one faith, one baptism; <strong>one</strong> <strong>God and Father of all</strong>, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. (Ephesians 4:46)</p>
<p>yet for us <strong>there is one God, the Father</strong>, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live. (1 Corinthians 8:6)</p>
<p>Now may the God of patience and comfort grant you to be like-minded toward one another, according to Christ Jesus, that you may with one mind and one mouth glorify <strong>the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.</strong> (Romans 15:56)</p>
<p>Blessed be <strong>the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ</strong>, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort, (2 Corinthians 1:3)</p>
<p><strong>The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ</strong>, who is blessed forever, knows that I am not lying. (2 Corinthians 11:31)</p>
<p>that <strong>the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father</strong> of glory, may give to you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of Him (Ephesians 1:17)</p>
<p>We give thanks to <strong>the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ</strong>, praying always for you, (Colossians 1:3)</p>
<p> </p>
</blockquote>
<h2>Godhead Explanation is Backwards</h2>
<p>The concept that there are multiple persons in the God-head is backwards. Rather, there are<strong><em> multiple persons in the Man Jesus</em></strong> -- Jesus and the Father dwelling in Jesus. So Jesus is DIVINE by the DIVINE presence in HIM. Jesus is not God-the-Son co-existing since eternity as a separate and distinct person of independent MIND and WILL from God-the-Father. That would be the heresy of<em><strong> polytheism</strong></em> even though it is excused by many as accepting a "plurality" in the essence of God. That is a nice word for the<strong><em> same thing as polytheism</em></strong>. We need to accept what Jesus said: the Father "dwells in me." (John 14:24.) See our article, "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/correct-christology.html">The Correct Christology</a>"  We need to reject polytheism even if many delude themselves they do not defend polytheism in their incorrect Christologies.</p>
<h2>Counter-Arguments on John 17:3</h2>
<h3>1. Supposedly 'Just A Single Verse' Rebuttal</h3>
<p>The Christian Apologetics ministry has a <a href="http://carm.org/religious-movements/jehovahs-witnesses/john-173-only-true-god">web page</a> on John 17:3. They say one should not rely upon one verse to deny the trinity doctrine by which it means the Roman Catholic version of the Trinity Doctrine from 381 AD adopted into Protestantism <em>i.e.</em>, three distinct persons of independent mind exist in the one being of God. (The correct trinity doctrine was set forth by the first proponent of the trinity, Tertullian, in the 200s that Jesus was indwelled by the Father, and that Jesus was not God but divine due to the indwelling presence of God and His spirit. See our webpage on the <a href="/Recommended-Reading/correct-christology.html">Correct Christology</a>.)</p>
<p>The argument based upon John 17:3 is not the only proof of the same point that the Father is the only one true God. There are many references similar to John 17:3 which describe the Father as the only God or as the God of Jesus, which conforms to the Father being the only true God: Acts 2:22, 23; 3:13; John 20:17 ("my God and your God"); Jude 4; Rev. 1:5-6; Eph. 4:4-6 ("<strong><em>one God and Father</em></strong> of all"); 1 Cor. 8:6 ("<strong><em>one God, the Father</em></strong>"); 2 Cor. 11:31; Eph. 1:17; Col. 1:3.</p>
<p>The Christian Apologetics webpage does not address any of this supporting evidence to what John 17:3 signifies, including the two instances of identical statements to what Jesus said in John 17:3.</p>
<h3>2. 'Jesus is God' and 'Eternal Son' Rebuttal</h3>
<p><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal; ">The second argument is that the context of John 17:3 was "Jesus was speaking as a man to his God." Christian Apologetics then says "remember </span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal; "><strong><em>Jesus is</em></strong></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal; "> both </span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal; "><strong><em>God</em></strong></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal; "> and man, second person of the Trinity (John 1:1, 14.)"</span></p>
<p>In other words, Christian Apologetics argues "<strong><em>Jesus is...God</em></strong>" from John 1:1, 14, and they believe this can be reconciled with Jesus' words which say the "<em><strong>Father</strong></em>...is the <em><strong>ONLY true God</strong></em>." (John 17:3.)</p>
<p>However, Christian Apologetics does not follow through, and show us how to reconcile these two propositions. The only way they are true simultaneously is if <strong><em>Jesus is the Father</em></strong>.</p>
<p>And this is close to the truth that the Father fully indwelled Jesus (John 14:24), and that is all that John 1:1 and 14 says. (For our discussion of those passages, see "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/correct-christology.html">Correct Christology</a>.")</p>
<p>But Roman Catholic doctrine (which we Protestants adopted) does not teach this truth. Instead, it teaches that Jesus was God-the-Son, and was the eternal son. This RCC doctrine was made a Protestant doctrine when Servetus was burned at the stake by Calvin's Geneva in 1553.</p>
<p>So not suprisingly, Christian Apologetics then simply asserts this Roman Catholic Doctrine as the proper understanding of John 17:3 even though this RCC doctrine of Jesus as an eternal son has utterly no scriptural support. We read in this Christian Apologetics site:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">[John 17:3] reflects the sonship of Jesus. The Father and the Son have a unique relationship. Jesus is<strong><em> the eternal Son</em></strong>. The terms Father and Son denote a relationship which is why God is called the God of the Son in <a target="_blank" data-version="NASB" data-reference="2 Cor. 11.31" class="lbsBibleRef" href="http://biblia.com/bible/nasb95/2%20Cor.%2011.31">2 Cor. 11:31</a>.</p>
<p>There is nothing about John 17:3 that reflects the son as eternal and thus as God. Instead, John 17:3 reflects that Father is the "only true God." In fact, to say Jesus' God was the Father excludes the proposition that Jesus, the Son, exists eternally as God Himself too unless we are polytheists.</p>
<p>Furthermore, these explanations are childish non-sense. A begotten son is not "eternal" and thus the claim of eternal sonship for a begotten son and giving that same being independent god-hood leads to dangerous idolatry, just as Tertullian warned in the 200s. ("<a href="/Recommended-Reading/idolatry-worshipping-a-man.html">Risk of Idolatry in W</a>orshipping a Man.") We must stop letting Roman Catholic tradition from the 300s guide us into errors and absurdities such as the 'eternal son' doctrine which nowhere appears in Scripture.</p>
<p>Rather, what John 1:1, 14 and John 17:3 say when properly reconciled is what Jesus explained in John 14:24. Jesus was fully indwelled by the Word / LOGOS sent by the Father. It is this attribute that gives Jesus DIVINITY, and reconciles all the passages.</p>
<h3>3.John 10:30 'Oneness' Rebuttal</h3>
<p>I dealt with this verse above. But because Christian Apologetics mentions it and lays out the argument in such absurd degrees to rebut John 17:3, it is useful to hear how the argument is actually defended. In John 10:30, Jesus says "the Father and I are one." From this Christian Apologetics argues:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span> So, in one sense <em><strong>Jesus is in the Father</strong></em> and if the Father is the only true God, then Jesus is the True God. </span></p>
<p>But to say Jesus and the Father are one is not the same as saying Jesus is God. Rather, Jesus explains the Father fully dwells in Himself. (John 14:24) That creates a unity. It does not logically follow that "Jesus is the Father" or that "Jesus is the true God."</p>
<p>Otherwise, we are all God too for Jesus prayed to the Father that his disciples be "one" with Jesus "even as we [Father and Jesus] are one." The notion of "oneness" in John 10:30 thus cannot imply that Jesus is God unless we wish to say we are God too because we must believe God answered (or would answer) Jesus' prayer that we are "one" with Jesus.</p>
<p>Thus, while we have many reasons to regard Jesus as Divine due to the divine presence in Him, it is <strong><em>idolatrous to take it too far</em></strong>, and raise a man to God-hood. That was the polytheistic direction Rome wanted to go in the 300s, but it is non-Scriptural besides dangerous. It actually is contrary to the first proponent of the trinity -- Tertullian's -- understanding of the trinity in the 200s.</p>
<h3><span style="color: #76756a;"><strong>4. 1 John 5:20 - Rebuttal Arguing Says Jesus is God</strong></span></h3>
<p>Christian Apologetics cites 1 John 5:20, and says "<span>Jesus is called the only true God" in that verse. However, this is false both in English and Greek.</span> As typically translated in English, it reads:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><sup>20</sup> We know also that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know <strong><em>him</em></strong> who is true. And we are in<strong><em> him</em></strong> who is true by being in <strong><em>his</em></strong> Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life. (NIV)</span></p>
<p>Trinitarians insist the "most natural referent" of "the true God" is Jesus. (Eric Snow, <em>A Zeal for God</em> at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MX7OxoX5XHoC&amp;lpg=PA641&amp;dq=1%20john%205%3A20%20unitarian&amp;pg=PA641#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">641</a>.) However, as rendered by the NIV, this is untrue. It is also untrue as a matter of Greek grammar -- "the true God" is a reference to the Father:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Nevertheless, 'the most natural reference' (Westcott) is to <em>him that is true</em>. In this way the three references to 'the true' are to the same Person, the<em><strong> Fathe</strong></em><strong><em>r</em></strong>.... " <em>(The Epistles of John, An Introduction and Commentary</em> by Rev.J.R.W.Stott (Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, Tyndale Press, London, 1964) at 195, 196.)</p>
<p>In agreement by examining the Greek is Winer's <em>Grammar of the New Testament Greek</em> (trans. W.F. Moulton)(1870) at 195. Winer explains that the <em>houtos</em> that begins 5:20b translated "he is" is a referent to the nearest <em>psychological</em> equivalent, that is the "Father" who is identified in 5:20a. This <em>althinos theos</em> in 5:20b is thus to be equated to the <em>father</em> in 5:20a because it is a "constant and exclusive epithet for the father." <em>Id. </em>(Quoted in Michael A. Barber, <em>Should Christians Abandon the Trinity? </em>(Universal Publishers, 2006) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=u5hkIwXJVxoC&amp;lpg=PA44&amp;dq=john%2017%3A3%20%22only%20true%20god%22&amp;pg=PA44#v=onepage&amp;q=john%2017:3%20%22only%20true%20god%22&amp;f=false">44</a>.)</p>
<p>Even if one does not like to listen to experts, one does not need a scholar's advice to see this by reading the context of 20a and 20b. "The true God" is not referring to Jesus. Rather, the "<strong>his</strong> Son" in the preceding verse uses "his" to mean the "father." The preceding verse keeps the father in view again saying "<strong><em>him</em></strong> who is true" -- a second reference to the father. And thus the next sentence -- the one at issue -- is simply<strong><em> still speaking of the Father </em></strong>when John says "he is the true God and eternal life" -- another  reference to the<strong><em> same 'he,' 'him' and the one who is 'true' in the preceding sentence</em></strong>: the Father. And of course, John refers to Jesus as the "Son of God," not God in the preceding sentence, so it would be a shock to now call this Son God. (For more on the case that "God" refers to the Father in 1 John 5:20, see Murray J. Harris, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=nbw3PwAACAAJ&amp;dq=harris+jesus+as+god&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=-S_MTc3GC4P2tgOJ8MXJBg&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=1&amp;ved=0CDwQ6AEwAA">Jesus as God</a> (2008) at 239-53.)</p>
<p>Another way of saying this is to observe the parallelism between 20a and 20b. Douglas Rustad in <em>Is the Jesus God? </em>at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=jEyAqXnoYeoC&amp;lpg=PA179&amp;dq=%221%20john%205%3A20%22%20greek&amp;pg=PA179#v=onepage&amp;q=%221%20john%205:20%22%20greek&amp;f=false">179</a> argues:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Thus, 'the true God' (second sentence) is related to 'him who is true' (first sentence), and 'eternal life' (second sentence) is related to 'his Son Jesus Christ."</p>
<p>Another view by a trinitarian actually argues on one hand 20b<em> althinos theos</em> refers to Jesus, but then "admits" <em>althinos theos</em> means here "the true OF God," not the "true God." Henkel in 1830 read 20b as "<strong><em>this is the true of God</em></strong> and eternal life." He point blank says that in Greek it does not say this is the "true God." Then he tries to argue it still supports trinitarianism because the 'true' of God means co-substantial with the 'Father' of the preceding sentence. See David Henkel, <em>A treatise on the person and incarnation of Jesus Christ</em> (1830) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=_vcTAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=1%20john%205%3A20%20unitarian&amp;pg=PA74#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">74</a>. But that does not logically follow. That is doctrine overlaid on a verse that Henkel translates as Jesus is the "true (one) of God." Thus, even if we accepted the reference in 5:20b were about Jesus and not the Father, Henkel, a trinitarian, translates this to not say "true God," but the "true of God." The important lesson from Henkel is that in Greek it does not necessarily say "He is the true God" in reference to Jesus even if it were referring to Jesus.</p>
<p>Thus, both in English and Greek grammar this does not talk about Jesus as God. As Jesus says in John 17:3, the "only true God" is the Father. John in 1 John 5:20 merely repeats what Jesus said in 17:3.</p>
<h3>5. 'Glory  Jesus  Shares with the Father' Argument</h3>
<p>Another clever argument which relies upon faulty semantics involves the issue about the glory God gives Jesus. But it is described fallasciously as the glory Jesus "shares" with the Father to create a semantical proof when Isaiah 42:8 is introduced. Stephen Ray in<em> St. John's Gospel</em> (Ignatius Press, 2002) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=sRAcER113wUC&amp;lpg=PA305&amp;dq=john%2017%3A3%20only%20true%20god&amp;pg=PA305#v=onepage&amp;q=john%2017:3%20only%20true%20god&amp;f=false">302</a> argues that if God will not share his glory with another per Isaiah 42:8,  then what glory did Jesus claim to have shared if Jesus was not God? The only verse he cites that pertains is John 17:24 which reads:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Father, I want those you have given me to be with me where I am, and to see <strong><em>my glory</em></strong>, the <strong><em>glory you have given me</em></strong> because you loved me <strong><em>before the creation of the world.</em></strong>" (John 17:24.)</p>
<p>In that verse, however, Jesus says God<em><strong> gave Jesus glory</strong></em>. It was not God's glory transferred to Jesus or shared with Jesus. By the way, the Greek word <em>doxa</em> is simple in meaning, and causes no mistake in the nature of 'glory':</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><strong><em>honor, renown, glory splendor</em></strong> (<a href="http://strongsnumbers.com/greek/1391.htm">#1391</a>)</p>
<p>So isn't it possible for God to give Jesus honor and renown that are distinctly belonging to Jesus? If so, God has not given His own honor and glory to Jesus or "shared" it with Jesus, but<strong><em> given Jesus His own honor and glory</em></strong>. In fact, in the quote of John 17:24, Jesus refers to it as "<strong><em>my</em></strong> glory," or "My doxa" = "my honor." So that perfectly makes sense, and destroys Ray's argument.</p>
<p>Moreover, the Original Testament is perfectly consistent. In Daniel <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Daniel%207:14&amp;version=KJV">7:14</a>, the Son of Man will return on clouds of glory:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px; ">And there was <em><strong>given him</strong></em> dominion, and <em><strong>glory,</strong></em> and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.</p>
<p>So is there any conflict when God says in Isaiah<a href="http://bible.cc/isaiah/42-8.htm"> 42:8</a> "I am the LORD; that is my name! I will not<strong><em> give my glory to another</em></strong> or my praise to idols"?</p>
<p>No, because God permits or gives glory (honor) to the Son of Man. It is not "my glory" of God by definition, putting Daniel and Isaiah together. The honor God gives makes it belong to Jesus distinctly as the Son of Man.</p>
<p>So now listen to Ray's argument, and you can see how it fallasciously misleads by implying God 'shared' His glory with Jesus rather than gave Jesus a glory of Jesus' own:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">What glory did Jesus<strong><em> share with God's glory</em></strong> before the world began? (Gen. 1:26, John 1:2, 17:24; Phil. 2:5-7) Jesus asks to be glorified with God. [Note: Not 'as God.'] Can God share his glory with another? (Isaiah 42:8, 42:11.) If Jesus shares God's glory, what does this say about Jesus? Jesus shares the Father's glory -- it is a clear claim of deity." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=sRAcER113wUC&amp;lpg=PA305&amp;dq=john%2017%3A3%20only%20true%20god&amp;pg=PA305#v=onepage&amp;q=john%2017:3%20only%20true%20god&amp;f=false">305</a>.</p>
<p>The argument is based upon a faulty assumption that the Bible says God<strong><em> shared </em></strong>His glory with Jesus.</p>
<p>Does John 1:2 help? It speaks nothing about glory. It is just an old favorite for the post-381 AD version of the trinity. To repeat, John 1:2 says the LOGOS is God, but it never says Jesus is the LOGOS. That is tradition which says that. It is NOT IN THE BIBLE! More important, Jesus says "<strong><em>the Logos is not mine but the Father's</em></strong>" in John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%2014:24&amp;version=NIV">14:24</a>. Logos in 14:24 is the <em><strong>same noun singular</strong></em> as used in John <a href="http://biblos.com/john/1-2.htm">1:2</a>, contrary to how the NIV renders <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%2014:24&amp;version=NIV">14:24</a> ("these Word<strong><em>s are</em></strong> not mine") to make one believe Jesus is not speaking of the same <em>Logos</em> as is spoken about in John 1:2.</p>
<p>Rather, the Word, LOGOS, which is God (John 1:1), was made "flesh" (Jesus) and "dwelled among us"(John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%201:14&amp;version=KJV">1:14</a>) in the body of Jesus. This does not make the LOGOS an independent being known as Jesus prior to birth. It makes the LOGOS, God, an indwelling presence in Jesus - a substantial connection but not independent DEITY for Jesus apart from the indwelling presence of the LOGOS / Father. Jesus in His own words depicts the relationship clearly:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>10</sup>Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and <em><strong>the Father in me</strong></em>? the words [remata, plural] that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but <em><strong>the Father that dwelleth in me</strong></em>, he doeth the works.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>11</sup>Believe me that I am in the Father, and <strong><em>the Father in me</em></strong>: or else believe me for the very works' sake.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>24</sup>he who is not loving me, my words [plural]doth not keep; and<strong><em> the LOGOS</em></strong> (singular) that ye hear<strong><em> is not mine</em></strong>, but<em><strong> the Father's</strong></em> who sent me. (John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2014&amp;version=YLT">14</a>)</p>
<p>Thus the same LOGOS that is God in John 1:1 Jesus says is dwelling in Him, and is "<strong><em>not mine</em></strong>, but the Father's." The Oneness of God is preserved, while Jesus is properly DIVINE as the Shekinah presence in the OT wherever it dwelled was said to be "DIVINE" or "DIVINITY ABIDING." See<a href="/Recommended-Reading/correct-christology.html"> Correct Christology</a>.</p>
<h2>STUDY NOTES</h2>
<p><span> </span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">In his Commentary on John Origen ca. 240AD wrote:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;">God on the one hand is Very God (Autotheos, God of Himself); and so the Savior says in His prayer to the Father, "That they may know Thee <strong><em>the only true God</em></strong>;" but that all beyond the Very God is <em>made God by participation in His divinity</em>, and is not to be called simply God (with the article), but rather God (without the article).  <em>And thus the first-born of all creation, who is </em><strong>the first to be with God,</strong><em> and to attract to himself divinity, is a being of more exalted rank than the other gods beside Him, of whom God is the God</em>, as it is written, "The God of gods, the Lord [Jehovah], hath spoken and called the earth." [Ps. 136:2]  It was by the offices of the first-born that they became gods, for they drew from God in generous measure that they should be made gods, and He communicated it to them according to His own bounty.  <em>The </em><strong>true God, then is "The God," and those who are formed after him are gods, images, as it were, of Him the prototype</strong> [ANF 10, Book 2, p. 323. emphasis added].</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Marcan Priority Claim is Invalid</h2>
<p style="text-align: left;">[Excerpted from Standford Rives, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Original Gospel of Matthew</span> (2012) Vol. 2, Appendices. It is available at our <a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jwoogm-20">Amazon store</a>.]</p>
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<h2>Matthean Priority: Unanimous Church Tradition</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“According to church tradition, Mark wrote later” than Matthew or Luke. (Wilhel</span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">m Martin L. de</span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> Wette, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">An Historico-critical Introduction to the Canonical Books of the New Testament</span> (tr.F. Frothingham) (from the Lehrbuch, pt. 2) (1858) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=xkqDLGKjUvsC&amp;vq=According%20to%20church%20tradition%2C%20Mark%20wrote%20later&amp;pg=PA163#v=snippet&amp;q=According%20to%20church%20tradition,%20Mark%20wrote%20later&amp;f=false">163</a>.) Throughout this discussion, we will abbreviate this book citation as Wette.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Wilhelm Martin Leberecht de Wette (12 January 1780 - 16 June 1849) was a German evangelical theologian and biblical scholar. His father was a pastor. Wette became professor of theology at Heidelberg.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Wette in the <em>Historico-Critical Introduction</em> did an excellent job proving that Mark was dependent on both Luke and Matthew. Wette recreated systematically and simply how Mark took fragments from both Matthew and Luke. See Wette: 166-169.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">However, since Wettes effort, a different theory emerged—that both Matthew and Luke were dependent upon Mark. If you read Wettes excellent points, however, this notion is inconceivable, as we shall revive below.</span></p>
<h2>Marcan Priority Claim</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Scholars today generally believe the Greek Mark came before the Greek Matthew. I will concede the point despite it being conjectural. However, these scholars do not factor into their thinking the importance that our Greek Matthew unquestionably derived from a Hebrew Matthew, and the Hebrew Matthew preceded the Greek Mark, as all early history records. In other words, the Hebrew Matthew is what predates both the Greek Mark and Greek Matthew. But the consensus now is that Mark came before Matthew—yet scholars mean the Greek Matthew came after the Greek Mark. They do not take into serious account the fact there was a Hebrew Matthew before both of them. I call this error the Marcan priority claim.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Marcan priority claim largely depends upon the simplistic argument that had Matthew in Greek pre-existed Marks Gospel, then why did Mark not use the Sermon on the Mount? All other proofs are conjectural, as the notion of copying by Matthew of Mark can be stated with equal plausibility as Mark copying from Matthew. See see Alan Barber, <em><a href="http://www.amazon.com/DID-JESUS-REALLY-THAT-ebook/dp/B0075Z8HG2">Did Jesus Really Say that? A Restoration of the First Gospel</a></em> (Kindle book, 2011).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So lets examine this issue of what explains why Mark would omit the Sermon on the Mount if Matthew which contains it actually came prior to Marks Gospel.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Assuming there was only a Greek Matthew, Baur long ago replied, and said that Mark did not wish to repeat the heart of the Sermon—Matthew 5:17-20—which says the Law (Torah) was still to be upheld. As Wette relates: “Baur, p. 565, explains the omission of the Sermon on the Mount by its character as a statement of principles, and by the Evangelists caution in avoiding the dispute concerning the validity of the Mosaic Law.” (Wette: 174 fn. c.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Indeed, Mark never uses the word Law anywhere in his gospel. As we discuss below in more depth, Mark was identified in early church history as an associate of Pauls. It is obvious he has a clearly pro-Paul bias in his Gospel. This explains why Mark omits the Sermon on the Mount with its repetitious emphasis on righteous behavior linked to membership in the kingdom, <em>e.g.</em>, peacemakers are called sons of the kingdom, merciful receive mercy, humble belong to the kingdom of heaven, etc.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But an equally valid explanation for Mark omitting the Sermon on the Mount is that if Matthew was first written in Hebrew (as all the evidence proves), and Mark could not read Hebrew, as appears clearly to be the case from his poor use of Hebrew vocabulary, Mark would not be able to read the Gospel according to the Hebrews by Matthew (GATHM, for short) where the Sermon on the Mount first appeared. Mark then relied upon a sayings collection in Greek derived from the Hebrew Matthew, but like the sayings collection in the Gospel of Thomas from 100 AD, it lacked the Sermon on the Mount.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Regardless of either explanations validity, we can agree in one sense with the Marcan priority claim. The Greek Mark could have preceded the Greek Matthew. Thus, the absence of the Sermon on the Mount in Mark is explained by either (a) Mark had a bias not to repeat what Matthew wrote in Hebrew or (b) Mark could not read Matthew in Hebrew but had access to a sayings collection in Greek which lacked the Sermon on the Mount. For example, the Gospel of Thomas is just such a Greek sayings-collection which lacks the Sermon on the Mount. Otherwise, it has many passages in common with Matthew that do not appear in Mark. Hence, either one of these reasonable possibilities (both consistent with the known history that Matthew came first) explains perfectly why the Sermon on the Mount is absent in Marks Gospel. The most likely explanation is indeed (a), as we discuss next.</span></p>
<h2>Pro-Paul Bias Explains Mark Edited Matthew</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So is it demonstrable that Mark had a pro-Paul bias as Bauer claimed?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">John Mark was a companion of Paul referenced in Colossians 4:10 and Philemon 24. The Coptic church—the most ancient Christian Church of Egypt—maintains this same John Mark was the author of Marks Gospel. See <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mark_the_Evangelist">Mark the Evangelist</a>,” Wikipedia (2011).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But was Mark instead close to Peter and written under Peters influence, as is commonly asserted? Not if you listen to the earliest source on the origin of Marks Gospel: Clement. Eusebius quoted Clement, an early leader at Rome about </span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">92 AD, who said Peter was unaware Mark had written a gospel until it was completed, “and that when the matter came to Peters knowledge, he neither strongly forbad it nor urged it forward.” Eusebius <em>Ecclesiastical History</em> 6.14.6-10, cited in Powell, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Robbing Peter to Pay Paul, supra</span>, at 71.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The notion that Peter gave Mark his Gospel originated almost 100 years later and much farther from Rome where Mark wrote. It came from Egypts Origen (ca. 185 AD). But that means that it “appears the farther from Peters lifetime we get, the closer Mark is to him [i.e., Peter].” Powell, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Robbing Peter to Pay Paul</span>, supra, at 71.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Conversely, when we move closer to Peters lifetime, there is absolutely no link between Marks Gospel and Peter.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, as a matter of history, there is more reason to support a Pauline connection than a Petrine connection to the origin of Marks Gospel. And this will help us identify the likely reason that Mark omitted the Sermon on the Mount.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Why does a connection between Mark and Paul best explain the absence of the Sermon on the Mount rather than that Mark was written before Matthew, and thus Matthew added the Sermon for his own reasons?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">As explained by scholar David C. Sim from the Department of New Testament Studies University of Pretoriain in his article “Matthews anti-Paulinism: A neglected feature of Matthean studies,” <span style="text-decoration: underline;">HTS</span> 58(2) 2002 at 776-777 [<a href="http://www.hts.org.za/index.php/HTS/article/download/557/456">PDF link</a>]:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">H D Betz...argued that the Sermon on the Mount...reflected a conservative Jewish Christian perspective that was overtly anti-Pauline (cf Mt 5:17-20; 7:13-27.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">How so? The Sermon on the Mount emphasized the Law and obedience for kingdom entry. For Matthew 5:20 said “your righteousness must exceed that of the Pharisees” who Jesus in Matthew depicts as anti-legalists / shallow adherents to the Law. See Matt 15:6, 23:23. See also “Matthew 23:23: Pharisees As Anti-Legalists” on page 178 infra.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">To confirm this, do we find a consistent bias in Mark which similarly explains why other passages in Matthew do not appear?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Indeed, there are numerous examples that Mark removes verses which have an anti-Paul flavor but which permeate Matthews Gospel, whether GATHM or the Greek version, including the Sermon on the Mount (viz., Matt 5:19).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For example, in Mark, gone is the reference in Matthew 5:17-19 that the greatest in the kingdom of the heavens teaches the Law, but the one loosening the Law will be known as the LEAST—the meaning of Pauls Latin name of Paulus, a contraction of Pauxillus which means the LEAST. (See “Matthew 5:19: A Reference To Paul?” on page 158 infra.) In fact, the word Law never appears in Mark!</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In Mark, gone is the reference to the false prophets as “ravening wolves” in “sheeps clothing” as we find in Matthew 7:15—an obvious allusion to the “Benjamite Ravening Wolf” prophecy of Genesis 49:27 which was hardly complimentary of Paul. (See “Matthew 7:15: The Benjamite Wolf Prophecy” on page 160 infra.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Gone also in Marks account of the Parable of the Wheat and the Tares (Mark 4:26-29 cfr. Matthew 13:24-29; 36-40) wherein the Tares are first taken from the earth when Christ returns, not Christians. Thus, Mark removes the fact that Matthews account of the same parable is at odds with Paul in 1 Thess. 4:17. There Paul says instead that Christians are raptured first, leaving the evil behind. Marks Gospel tells the same parable by Jesus but without the fact the evil are raptured, not Christians, when Christ returns. Mark similarly omits Matthew 24:31 which repeats that the evil are first raptured out of the earth, leaving the righteous to inherit the earth (which matches Revelation ch. 14 as well). See Matthew 24:31.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Also disappearing from the Parable of the Wheat and the Tares is the allusion to an “enemy” sowing tares among wheat. As several commentators point out, the Parable of the Tares in Matthew was apparently intended as direction to orthodox Christians to tolerate Pauls followers in the church as sown by an “enemy.” Even though this message was kind and tolerant, Mark, with a pro-Paul bias, evidently would not want it to appear Jesus was giving any prophetic attention to the problem of Paul. Especially if Jesus depicted Paul as an enemy. This would explain again why Mark dropped “enemy” out of the parable. See Matthew 13:25, 39</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Gone also in Marks account is Peters confession of Jesus as “Messiah, Son of God.” (Matt 16:17.) As a result, gone is that Jesus says Heaven revealed this to Peter, implying Peter received this directly from the Father. Cfr. Mark 8:29. And Matthew adds that Jesus says that upon this rock (Peters faith? or Peter whose name means rock?), Jesus will found His church.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">David C Sim in his article, “Matthews anti-Paulinism: A neglected feature of Matthean studies,” HTS 58(2) (2002) [<a href="http://www.hts.org.za/index.php/HTS/article/download/557/456">PDF link</a>] explains the anti-Pauline feature to this passage of Matthew:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“[T]he words of Jesus in Mt 16:17 bear a striking similarity to Pauls words of his own revelation and commission by the risen Christ in Gl 1:12 and 16-17. Matthew [sic: Jesus] is making the point that it was Peter and not Paul who experienced divine revelations and who was commissioned by Jesus to lead the church.” See also, Sim, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Gospel of Matthew and Christian Judaism: The history and social setting of the Matthean community</span> (Edinburgh: T&amp; T Clark, 1998) at 200-203.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Why would Mark leave out something that elevates Peter? Because a defender of Paul would wish to take such recognition from Peter, as Paul attacked Peter in Galatians as a hypocrite (Gal. 2:11-12), dismissing him as a “seeming” pillar of the church (Gal. 2:9) who “imparted nothing to me” (Gal 2:7) and “whatsoever they [i.e., Peter, James and John] were makes no difference to me,” i.e., Paul is unimpressed by their stature with Jesus. Gal 2:6. Marks Gospel by deleting these passages supportive of Peter in Matthew would present a gospel easier for Pauls followers to read.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Gone in Mark is also Jesus statement to call no man father in Matt 23:9, when Paul told the Corinthians he was their “spiritual father” in Christ. See “Matthew 23:9: Dont Call Anyone Father” on page 177 infra.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span>Also gone in Mark is Matthew 23:21 where Jesus says not to swear by the Temple where “God resides” when Paul teaches at Athens that God “does not live in temples built by human hands.” (Acts 17:24.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Gone in Mark is also Jesus depiction of the Pharisees as anti-legalists in Matthew 23:23 whom Jesus faults for obeying the smaller parts of the Law but not teaching the greater parts of the Law, i.e., justice, piety and mercy. Of course, Paul had the view the Pharisees were strict legalists. He states this in Philippians 3:5-6 and Acts 26:5. See “Matthew 23:23: Pharisees As Anti-Legalists” on page 178 et seq.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In addition, gone in Mark is the reference that Jesus says the Pharisees were excellent at performing the outward acts necessary to appear in compliance with the Law, but inwardly were deceitful and corrupt. (Matt 23:28.) Jesus in Matthew similarly says the Pharisees were white-washed tombs on the outside to make others believe they were law-abiding. They cleaned the outside of the cup when their external behavior was solely to appear Law-compliant—an expedient to gain honors and money; it was not to truly obey God. (Matt 23:25, 27.) But Paul openly endorsed and practiced exactly the same outward-Law-conformance practices, acknowledging inwardly he was not subject to the Law but obeyed the Law solely for expedience-sake to gain adherents among Jews. (1 Cor 9:20-21 (“to the Jews I became as a Jew that I might win Jews...myself not being myself under the Law....”) Paul even extolled hypocrisy for the sake of gaining followers: “But be it so, I did not myself burden you; but, being crafty, I caught you with guile.” (2 Cor. 12:16, ASV.) Mark deleted all condemnations by Jesus of the Pharisees tactic of hypocritical obedience to the Law to gain adherents. Any follower of Paul aware of such passages must cringe when reading Matthew. But such problem is absent with Mark.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">There is no doubt about Pauls principles that are implicated by our Lords words. For example, Paul taught that he was free to violate the Exodus command not to eat meat sacrificed to idols, but Paul said that only if he were around someone who thought it was wrong, Paul would refrain from eating such meat. (1 Cor 8:11.) Pauls moral explanation for such behavior appears to be what Jesus condemned—obedience solely for expediency but otherwise Paul thought he did not have to obey any inward duties imposed by the Law. Paul wrote: “All things are lawful but not all things are necessarily expedient.” (1 Cor 6:12.) Paul also explained that on eating such foods, the rule was not to offend by insisting upon any principles so as to gain adherents: “Therefore, whether you eat or drink, or whatever you do...[g]ive no offense, either to the Jews or to the Greeks or to the church of God, just as I also please all men in all things,...seeking...the profit of many, that they may be saved.” (1Corinthians 10:31-33.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So in Marks Gospel, we find Jesuss words are erased which condemn similar hypocrisy of the Pharisees whom Jesus said obeyed the Law for appearance-sake and expediency to gain followers. Thus, Marks gospel served to cleanse such embarrassing commands from our Savior—thereby becoming an important text to use if one were to have a gospel acceptable to Pauls followers.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Likewise, gone in Mark is the command “do not take wages” (OGM) and “freely you received, freely give” (ASV) which we find in Matthew 10:8. These Matthean lessons were similarly at odds with Paul who tells the Corinthians: “I robbed other churches, taking wages of them that I might minister unto you.” 2 Cor 11:8 (ASV.) Paul defended preachers taking wages of the churches in 1 Tim. 5:17, where Paul wrote: “The elders who direct the affairs of the church well are worthy of double honor [i.e., payment] especially those whose work is preaching and teaching.” Paul defends this by using a verse about not muzzling an ox, applying that agricultural rule to imply churchgoers have a duty to pay the elders for their service. (1 Tim. 5:18.) Hence, Jesus blunt lesson not to take wages for preaching again was evidently removed by Mark as Mark apparently did with so many other passages where Jesus words otherwise trouble a follower of Paul.</span></p>
<h2><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">Sermon On The Mount: Why Remove It?</span></span></h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We mentioned briefly above why in Mark the Sermon on the Mount would be difficult to explain by a Paul-advocate. The Sermon is not omitted in Mark because Matthew came second, as is typically claimed today. Rather, Matthew first wrote the Sermon, as all historical accounts of the sequence of writing were recorded. Consistent with all the foregoing examples of passages Mark removed, the Sermon on the Mount reflects salvation principles which a follower of Paul would disagree with. Jesus in the Sermon on the Mount promises mercy to the merciful, the kingdom of heaven to the peacemakers, “entry into heaven” to those whose conduct exceeds the righteousness of the Pharisees—Matthew 5:20—who are depicted as shallow-followers of the Law by Jesus in Matthew 23:23, etc. In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus repetitiously links behaviors to salvation.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">By contrast, Paul in Romans 4:4-5 says God justifies the “ungodly” based on faith alone, to the one who “worketh not.”</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Another example of where Jesus elevates behaviors as a necessary component of salvation in the Sermon on the Mount is when Jesus spoke of the necessity to exceed the righteousness of the Pharisees to be saved. (Matt. 5:20.) Jesus meant the Pharisees were shallow adherents to the Law, as He explained in Matt 23:23. Thus, in the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus clearly says that “unless your righteousness exceeds that of the Pharisees, you will not enter the kingdom of heaven.” (Matt 5:20.) But Paul clearly taught that seeking to be righteous by more than mere faith such as by obeying the Law could actually sever you from Christ. Supposedly, now you sought to please God by adding obedience to the Law rather than simply relying upon just having faith, and this attitude alone allegedly severs you from Christ. (Gal. 5:4.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Many defenders of Paul acknowledge the Sermon on the Mount repeatedly contradicts Paul. They offer up the Dispensational solution to avoid the importance of the contradictions. For example, Clarence Larkin was the founder of this dispensational theology in his work <a href="http://www.preservedwords.com/disptruth/title.htm">Dispensational Truth</a> (Philadelphia: Larkin, 1918). Larkin claims Paul came with a superseding gospel to that found in Matthew through John. Thus, Larkin freely acknowledged Paul contradicts Christs message in the Sermon on the Mount. But Larkins Dispensationalism theory explains this away, claiming that Jesus was talking to Jews under an old covenant while Paul was talking to all in the new covenant. And thus Larkin teaches Jesus teachings in the Sermon on the Mount “have no application to the Christian, but only to those who are under the Law, and therefore must apply to another Dispensation than this.” (<em>Id</em>., at 87.) Thus, Larkin teaches that we are free to stay in Pauls Gospel despite a contrary lesson from Jesus in the Sermon on the Mount.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This underscores why Mark took the path he did. Mark did not know of such a dispensational theory to explain away Jesus words. Thus, Mark had to find a different resolution. Mark simply erased what Pauline scholars today acknowledge are contradictions between Paul and Jesus. Hence, Mark drops Matthew 5:17—the greatest teach the Law, and the least do not—with all the Sermons illustrations by simply eliminating the Sermon altogether.  Confirming that the Sermon on the Mount is the thorn Mark deliberately removed is a lesson from Pastor Mike Paulson at Touchet Bible Church. He put it bluntly that we must only follow Pauls Gospel and disregard that belonging to Jesus from the Sermon on the Mount as a supposedly superseded Gospel, saying:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The stuff in the Sermon on the Mount actually contradicts Pauls teachings in everything from salvation to doctrinal belief! You would think folks would see this—but like Jesus said of them, ye err not knowing the Scriptures....Pastor Mike Paulson, WWJD v. WWPD? and is reprinted at http://www.touchet1611.org/ (accessed 2005).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, Bauer who first noted this as Marks likely motivation was correct. Mark knew the Sermon on the Mount would make followers of Paul feel very uncomfortable. Paul was Marks mentor and companion. “Get Mark and bring him with you, because he is helpful to me in my ministry.” (2 Tim. 4:11.) Thus, Mark helped Pauls ministry by redacting from the gospel passages like the Sermon on the Mount which would cause tension for a defender of Paul.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">And further confirming this as true is that Marks Gospel borrows from Luke, but also omits any passages in Luke that are at apparent odds with doctrines of Paul. As Ernst von Bunsen—one who holds Paul has the superseding Gospel to that of Matthew, concluded: “Throughout this Gospel [of Mark] we have traced an evident design to place Paul on par with the other apostles, by harmonizing the principal differences between Matthews and Lukes gospels.” (Ernst von Bunsen, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Hidden Wisdom of Christ and the Key of Knowledge</span> (Longman, Green, Longman, Roberts, &amp; Green, 1865) Vol. 2 at 295.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Luke, whom most assume would edit to serve Pauls interest, does not do so. He actually repeats many of the passages in Matthew at odds with Pauls doctrine. Thus, Bunsen goes on, noting Marks Gospel deliberately left out those parts of “Lukes Gospel in which the public doctrine and its apostolic promulgators are too unfavorably contrasted with the more perfect, because more complete, Hidden Wisdom of Christ, as first openly proclaimed by Paul.” So Mark even edits down Luke to omit any principles which might cause difficulty in accepting Paul.</span></p>
<h2><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">Marks Pattern To Bolster Pauls Doctrines</span></span></h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, the omission of the Sermon on the Mount of Matthew fits a clear pattern in Mark to promote a gospel that Pauls followers could read without any tension.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">At the same time, Marks Gospel repeatedly contains Pauls theory of the emptying (kenosis) of Christ of any presence of deity (Phil. 2:6-7). Paul taught Christ “counted equality with God” as not something to hold onto, and instead “emptied himself” (kenosis) and came to earth in the appearance of a man. Thus, even though Jesus in Matthew always knows what people are thinking and is not excluded from the Fathers counsel (e.g., Matt 26:10 OGM “Jesus who knows everything in regard to any matter done”), in Marks Gospel, we find the opposite. Marks Gospel repeatedly insists upon Jesus ignorance or inability to do things in the same context where Matthew lacks any such statements. For example, Mark, not Matthew, says the Father but “not the Son” knows when the end will come. See Footnote 431 in OGM Vol. I on page 187. See also “Matthew 24:36: Neither The Son Is Inauthentic” on page 197 et seq.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Charles Powell provides a list from Mark of these kenotic statements (i.e., where Jesus is described by Mark as emptied of divine knowledge) with this explanation:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Texts in Mark, but not in Matthew where Jesus expresses ignorance or inability include Mark 1:45; 5:9, 30; 6:5, 38, 48; 7:24; 8:12, 23; 9:16, 21, 33; 11:13; 14:14. However, none of these statements in Mark appear in the manuscripts of Matthew surveyed.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">These kenosis-edits by Mark had a benefit to a Paul confidant as John Mark. Not only did they support the kenotic claims by Paul about Jesus that He “emptied Himself” of what made Him equal to God, but they significantly increased the importance of Paul. For the way Mark wrote his gospel, Jesus was ignorant of the Fathers truths while in the flesh, e.g., when the Son of Man would return. The consequence was, as pro-Paul advocate Marcion claimed in 144 AD, that the only “Jesus” who was in true contact with the Father was the Jesus who had ascended. It is this Jesus who then came to earth in the wilderness near Damascus to reveal Himself to Paul alone, supposedly giving Paul therefore the superior revelation. See Dr. Peter M. Head (New Testament Research Fellow, Tyndale House), <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The History of the Interpretation of the Apostle Paul</span> (2001).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The influential theologian Rudolf Bultmann claimed Paul actually taught this in 2 Cor. 5:16. There Paul says that “even though we once knew Christ by means of the flesh [kata sarka], we know him thus no longer.” Bultmann explained Paul meant that we once knew Jesus in the flesh before the Ascension—when Jesus had experienced kenosis—“emptied himself”—of any aspects of Deity / equality with God. These flesh experiences with Jesus are, in Bultmanns reading of Pauls 2 Cor. 5:16, the gospel accounts of Jesus pre-ascension life such as contained in Matthew. In that time, Jesus was supposedly ignorant of Gods true will due to kenosis. But once Jesus ascended, Paul meant we know Jesus only in the way God revealed Christ in Paul where Jesus then supposedly knew the true will of God-the-Father. Paul then became the divine conduit of this very different Christ. As proof this was Pauls view, in Galatians 1:15-16 Paul said: “But when it pleased him who had set me apart from my mothers womb and called me by his grace to reveal his son in me....” Also, the fact Paul never quotes Jesus from the gospels (except for the liturgy of communion) makes Bultmanns interpretation of Pauls meaning quite plausible. (110) </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Footnote 110: </span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The quandary of Paul is always how can we understand his persistent non-mention about Jesuss life or words from the gospels. Bultmann says this proves Paul adamantly refused to know Jesus that way, bolstering his reading of 2 Cor. 5:16. The quandary is well-explained by Hermann Detering, a Berlin pastor, in <em>The Falsified Paul</em> (1995) (reprinted by Institute for Higher Critical Studies, 2003) at 10: “Can one imagine that someone who had just experienced the decisive turning-point of his life through a revelation took no notice and had no interest in the earthly past of the one who stood in the center of this revelation? In any case, I myself was not able to replicate the tenacious ignorance with which Paul dealt with the history of Jesus.” Bultmann takes this same point, and says when Paul claims he received his revelation directly from the Jesus (Gal. 1:16-17) on that road to Damascus, and the twelve “imparted nothing to me” (Gal. 2:6), this means Paul is telling us we need not know Jesus through the written gospels but only listen to the Christ revealed “in me” as Paul put it. (Gal. 1:16.)  [End FN]</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This kenosis doctrine repeated in Marks Gospel thus transforms Paul into the only apostle to whom we must listen to post-ascension. As explained in Paul Barnett, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Paul: Missionary of Jesus</span> (Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing, 2008) at 13:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Bultmann...regards the historical Jesus as irrelevant as to the kerygma [<em>i.e.</em>, preaching] of the risen Lord whom Paul proclaimed. Bultmann understood 2 Corinthians 5:16 (“even though we once knew Christ kata sarka [through/by means of the flesh], we know him thus no longer”) to mean that Paul chose not to employ his knowledge of Jesus kerygmatically, a view with which Bultmann agreed [with Paul]. Accordingly, the influential scholar of Marburg [<em>i.e</em>., Bultmann] declared Paul the “founder of Christian theology.”</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">And this is how Marcion in 144 AD made the similar claim that only Paul was the apostle of Jesus Christ—the one who ascended.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">There are many other reasons to see Mark as a rewrite of a Greek translation source that contained select sayings from Matthew. As Martin de Wette said:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">If the parallel passages, especially those in Matthew, be compared with it, the Gospel of Mark shows unmistakable signs of non-originality, both in the representation of the teachings of Jesus, which are given sometimes in wrong connections, sometimes more or less disfigured, and in the historic accounts, which are sometimes arbitrarily altered, sometimes amplified by more or less suspicious additions. (Wilhelm Martin L. de Wette, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">An Historico-critical Introduction to the Canonical Books of the New Testament</span> (tr.F. Frothingham) (from the Lehrbuch, pt. 2] (1858) at 164.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Wette then gives very detailed proofs of each of these statements in his footnotes. For example, Mark 7:6 has the wrong sequence, demonstrable when you see the correct sequence in Matthew 15:3 ff. The prayer of Mark 14:36, compared to Matthew 26:39,42 is “manifestly distorted.” Mark 10:12 is “inconsistent with the Jewish system of divorce.” (Wette: 164 fn. b.) Mark 7:24 has a “mistaken reason given for Jesus mode of proceeding” while “the true one” in Matt 15:24 is “being omitted.” (Wette: 164 fn. c.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Mark has made an “unthinking repetition” in Mark 6:14 and 6:16 which evidently was caused by copying from both Matthew and Luke simultaneously. (Wette: 165 fn. c.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Like the Pauline corpus, Marks “selections from the gospel matters...show comparatively little interest in the teachings of Jesus.” (Wette: 163.) Like Pauls emphasis on historical facts about Jesus as the only gospel, Marks “notion of the Gospel, placed at the beginning and elsewhere introduced (1:45; 8:35; 10:29)...denot[es] the...historic facts concerning the manifestation of the Son of God (1:1)....” (Wette: 163). </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Wette concludes Mark simply took “fragments” from both Matthew and Luke, and “subordinated the doctrinal element of the Gospel to the miraculous, and avoided long discourses....” (Wette: 166.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Mark also leans toward docetism, that is, Jesus supposedly only appeared to have human flesh. For example, Schwegler points out that there is no birth narrative at all, which points to docetism, <em>i.e.</em>, Jesus was not a true human being. (Wette:174.) Likewise, Paul endorses docetism in Romans 8:3 (“God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful human flesh”) and Phil 2:7 (“appeared to be a man”). </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In fact, Marcion—the docetic heretic of 144 AD—copied Marks silence on any birth of Christ: </span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We have pointed out the striking similarity between the beginning of Marcions gospel and that after Mark; also the hidden reference in the latter to the spread of heresy; and the Docetic development of the doctrine about the person of Jesus, as traceable in the Gospels, among which that after Mark represents the nearest approach to the Docetic denial of Christs humanity. (Bunsen: 294.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, Mark came after the original (Hebrew) Matthew, as church tradition always said.</span></p>
<h2><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">Conclusion</span></span></h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Accordingly, we can trust that the Hebrew Matthew came first, as all the earliest church leaders always affirmed. The alleged modern proof that Mark came first principally rests upon the fact the Sermon on the Mount is missing in Mark. Supposedly Matthew added it rather than Mark omitted it. However, there are far stronger reasons to believe Mark omitted it rather than believe Matthew added it. These reasons thus confirm the unanimous historical accounts that the Hebrew Matthew came before Mark. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">And one reason Mark omitted it is simple. This explanation does not even involve bias. Simply, Mark relied upon a sayings gospel in Greek that was similar to the Gospel of Thomas which also omits the Sermon on the Mount. Mark was a Gentile who did not read Hebrew. Thus he could not read the Hebrew Matthew. He was relegated to a sayings gospel in Greek which simply was snippet quotes from Matthew. Hence, Mark omitted the Sermon simply because he could not reliably read the original Matthew.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Second, and the evidence is compelling for this explanation, the explanation is because Mark was a confidant of Paul. Marks Gospel is clearly a systemic edit to remove any aspect of Jesus teachings that differs from Paul. Marks Gospel not coincidentally confirms the kenosis doctrine of Paul that Jesus emptied himself of any aspect of divine indwelling when He was on earth. (Cfr. John 14:7-10, Jesus says Father dwells in Him.) By contrast, in Matthew this divine indwelling happens at Jesus baptism when the dove enters Jesus.</span></p>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Matthew 23:2-3 in Hebrew Matthew</h2>
<p>In this passage, Jesus in the <span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>Greek</strong></span> text tradition of Matthew tells His followers to do everything the Pharisees tell them:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">(2) Saying "The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat:  (3) All therefore whatsoever<strong><em> <span style="color: #ff0000;">they</span></em></strong> bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not." (Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%2023:2-3&amp;version=KJV">23:2-3</a>, KJV)</p>
<p>But Jesus had often said the Pharisees made of "none effect" the Law by their traditions (Matt. 15:6), and they put burdens on the people that are too difficult to bear which are not in the Law.</p>
<p>Thus, Christian scholars concur there is something wrong and implausible in this statement attributed to Jesus. J.C. Fenton says "It is really <strong><em>difficult to believe Jesus commanded obedience</em></strong> to the teaching of the scribes and Pharisees." (J.C. Fenton, <em>Saint Matthew</em> (Pelican: 1963) at 366.)</p>
<p>Of the same opinion are W.D. Davies and Dale C. Allison, Jr. in <em>Matthew</em> (T&amp;T Clarke: 2000) at 270.</p>
<p>Fenton speculates a pro-Pharisaical party made this addition to Matthew's Gospel.</p>
<p>But it turns out if "<span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>they</strong></span>" was "<span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>he</strong></span>," then the verse makes <em><strong>perfect sense</strong></em> with other statements made by Jesus. The Lord would be saying you are to follow what "he" -- Moses says -- but not follow 'them' - the Pharisees. This then fits the similar message in Matthew 5:17-19.</p>
<p>And we find this "he" is what the Hebrew Gospel has instead of "they," proving once more that the Hebrew Matthew is more authentic.</p>
<p>Nehemiah Gordon is a Hebrew scholar in Israel. Gordon was asked by a Christian to look at the Hebrew Matthew. This was the <em><strong>Shem Tov Matthew</strong></em> which Professor Howard published in <em>Hebrew Gospel of Matthew, </em>first in 1985. Gordon found that Professor Howard's interpolation of "they" not "he" appears in the better manuscript copies of the Shem-Tov. Gordon explains that it is "he" in the original Hebrew in those manuscripts of the Shem-Tov. And Gordon says this points to Moses not the Pharisees as to whom Jesus was telling us to obey. Here is how Nehemiah Gordon corrected this passage:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">“The Pharisees and sages sit on Moses seat. Therefore, all that <strong>he</strong>* [i.e., Moses] says to you, diligently do, but according to their reforms [<em>i.e.</em>, additions] and their precedents [i.e., examples used to justify conduct], do not do because they talk but they do not do [Torah].” Hebrew Matt. 23:2-3 (translation by Nehemiah Gordon).</p>
<p>*In the Greek Matthew, it says all that <strong><em>they</em></strong> say, do.”</p>
<p>Nehemiah Gordon pointed out that this comports with the Christian commentators who find it anomolous that Jesus would instruct Christians to obey the Pharisees:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Most Christian scholars simply admitted that Yeshua <strong><em>could not have meant for his disciples to obey the Pharisees </em></strong>but were unable to offer any plausible explanation of the fact that the book of Matthew attributes these words to him. (Nehemiah Gordon, <em>The Hebrew Yeshua vs The Greek Jesus</em> (Jerusalem: Hilkiah Press, 2006) at 30.)</p>
<p>Nehemiah Gordon also sees that James shared Jesus's antipathy for the extra burdens that the Pharisees imposed on the Gentiles. For James, this included circumcision when it was not required of Gentiles under the Law in Leviticus 12. Nehemiah Gordon says that some followers of Christ may have misunderstood Jesus, and wanted to follow the Pharisees' notion of circumcision of Gentiles which is not required in Leviticus 12. So Gordon says the following:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"One possible exception is Acts 15:5. This passage may refer to the desire of the Pharisaic faction among Yashua's followers to impose Pharisaic laws and traditions upon all 'believers.' This was <em><strong>opposed by James (Ya'akov)</strong></em> who instead <strong><em>recommends four basic laws to start off new believers</em></strong> and explains that the<em><strong> rest of the commandments can be ascertained by simply hearing the Torah of Moses read in the synagogue every Sabbath </strong></em>(Acts 15:20-21). Of course, anyone learning the commandments by hearing the Torah read would <strong><em>not be subject to the laws of the Pharisees</em></strong> which are absent from the written Torah." (Nehemiah Gordon, <em>Hebrew Yeshua v. Greek Christ</em> (Jerusalem: 2006) at 30.)</p>
<div></div>
<p>Thus, Gordon sees a congruence between James's decision and Jesus's view on the Pharisees. James refused to follow the Pharisaical teaching that Gentile converts to Judaism had to be circumcised.</p>
<p>Again, there are multiple reasons why the Hebrew Matthew, particularly the one revealed by Professor Howard, is superior to the Greek translation which we are reading. Even so, a Hebrew scholar like Nehemiah Gordon has provided key translation corrections to Professor Howard's rendition. Or at least Gordon paid attention to manuscripts of the Shem-Tov which read more congruently with Jesus warning to us not to follow the Pharisees' teaching.</p>
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<h2>Efforts To Tamper With The Text</h2>
<h3>Marcionites Eliminated Jesus Had a Father/Mother/Brothers</h3>
<p>Tertullian in 207 A.D. was defending that Jesus was born a man although simultaneously God was indwelling that man. The heretics were saying Jesus did not have true human flesh because Jesus was God. Or they claimed Jesus had angelic substance. Tertullian points out that to sustain this argument the heretics - -the Marcionites in full context -- altered portions of what was apparently Luke 8:19-21. They erased the fact Jesus had a mother or brothers and sisters:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">First of all, nobody would have told Him that His mother and brethren were standing outside, if he were not certain both that He had a mother and brethren, and that they were the very persons whom he was then announcing,—who had either been known to him before, or were then and there discovered by him; <strong><em>although heretics</em></strong><span class="mnote" id="fnf_v.vii.vii-p4.1"><span class="Footnote"><strong><em> </em></strong></span></span><strong><em>have removed this passage from the gospel</em></strong>, because those who were admiring His doctrine said that His supposed father, Joseph the carpenter, and His mother Mary, and His brethren, and His sisters, were very well known to them. But [the heretics claim] it was with the view of tempting Him, that they had mentioned to Him a mother and brethren which <em><strong>He did not possess</strong></em>. The Scripture says<strong><em> nothing of this</em></strong>, although it is not in other instances silent when anything was done against Him by way of temptation. (Tertullian, 207 AD <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf03.v.vii.vii.html">On The Flesh of Christ ch. 7</a>.)</p>
<p>Tertullian reasons that Jesus' brothers and apparently Mary did not adhere to Him at the time, and so the Gospels portray a very realistic situation that can happen in any family. It also may explain why Jesus said one must be prepared to be rejected by one's own family. Tertullian explained:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">“The Lords brethren had not yet believed in Him.”<span id="fnf_v.vii.vii-p11.1" class="mnote"><span class="Footnote"> <a name="_John_7_5_0_0"></a>.</span></span>So is it contained in the Gospel which was published before Marcions time; whilst there is at the same time <em><strong>a want of evidence of His mothers adherence to Him</strong></em>, although the Marthas and the other Marys were in constant attendance on Him.  In this very passage indeed, <strong><em>their unbelief is evident</em></strong>. Jesus was teaching the way of life, preaching the kingdom of God <em>and</em> actively engaged in healing infirmities of body and soul; but all the while, whilst strangers were intent on Him, <strong><em>His very nearest relatives were absent</em></strong>. (<em>Id.</em>)</p>
<p>Interestingly, this opens up the question whether the Marcionites insisted that the virgin birth took place and that Mary remained a virgin and never had any other children. Why else did Marcion eliminate Jesus had siblings from his version of the gospel? Thus, the account here of the Marcionites of 144 AD-207 A.D by Tertullian in 207 AD has echoes later of what became Roman Catholic doctrine which denies Jesus had brothers/sisters, etc. Yet, as you can see, Tertullian, a voice of orthodoxy at the time, affirmed the Gospels did say Jesus had brothers.</p> </td>
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<h2>Audio of the Original Gospel of Matthew</h2>
<p>Below is an audio version of Mr. Rives' new book the Original Gospel of Matthew -- the Final Reconstructed Form (Feb. 2012) -- available at this <a href="https://tsw.createspace.com/title/3760866">PURCHASE LINK</a>. If you wish to hear the audio<img style="float: right;" alt="thumbnail_image vol 3 at createspace" height="240" width="160" src="/images/stories/OGM/thumbnail_image vol 3 at createspace.jpg" />version, click the links below and you will open a Podcast we created of each chapter of the OGM by Mr. Rives. You can leave your comments there.</p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T16_27_46-07_00">Chapter One</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T16_32_41-07_00">Chapter Two</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T16_39_54-07_00">Chapter Three</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T16_44_29-07_00">Chapter Four</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T16_50_41-07_00">Chapter Five</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T16_55_33-07_00">Chapter Six</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_03_06-07_00">Chapter Seven</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_06_25-07_00">Chapter Eight</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_11_18-07_00">Chapter Nine</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_16_40-07_00">Chapter Ten</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_25_15-07_00">Chapter Eleven</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_34_29-07_00">Chapter Twelve</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T17_39_41-07_00">Chapter Thirteen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_01_47-07_00">Chapter Fourteen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_07_44-07_00">Chapter Fifteen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_11_39-07_00">Chapter Sixteen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_16_35-07_00">Chapter Seventeen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_21_38-07_00">Chapter Eighteen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_38_20-07_00">Chapter Nineteen</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_41_28-07_00">Chapter Twenty</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_44_40-07_00">Chapter Twenty-One</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_49_12-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Two</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_52_55-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Three</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T18_56_53-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Four</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T19_23_25-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Five</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T21_30_58-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Six</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T22_02_05-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Seven</a></p>
<p><a href="http://jesuswordsonlystudies.podomatic.com/entry/2011-10-02T22_04_55-07_00">Chapter Twenty-Eight</a></p>
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<h2>The Original Gospel of Matthew</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Standford Rives, as a follow up to his acclaimed book, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;pg=PP1#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Did Calvin Murder Servetus?</a>, has released the </span><img src="/images/stories/OGM/thumbnail_image vol 3 at createspace.jpg" width="160" height="240" alt="thumbnail_image vol 3 at createspace" style="float: right;" /><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><em>Original Gospel of Matthew</em> (OGM) including Volume III <em>The Final Reconstruction of the Earliest Matthew</em>. The third volume is for devotions. It is built upon the proofs set forth in Volumes I (all variants) and II (scholarly studies in appendices).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The OGM represents what the early church identified as the original work of Matthew in Hebrew. The Ebionites maintained custody at a library in Caesarea which Jerome was granted access to, and he did a complete translation around 390 AD. While that translation manuscript was lost, over 49 quotes of that OGM were made by the early patristic commentators including over 20 by Jerome. Rives has built his reconstruction of the OGM based upon those 49 quotes along with various Hebrew versions of Matthew that have portions which scholars contend are from the OGM. </span></p>
<h2><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"></span>Volume III -- The Final Reconstruction to use for Devotions</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The third volume is the culmination of the two prior volumes. It is 106 pages of color-coded text to identify the original variant sources in the best reconstruction yet of how Matthew's Gospel originally read. This OGM is now available as of February 2012 at this <a href="https://www.createspace.com/3760866">Create-Space store</a> or at this <a href="http://www.amazon.com/Original-Gospel-Matthew-Reconstruction-Earliest/dp/146815656X/ref=sr_1_4?ie=UTF8&amp;qid=1329085985&amp;sr=8-4">AMAZON PURCHASING LINK</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">With permission, here is a <span style="color: #ff0000;"><strong>free online copy of volume 3</strong></span>--the "Final Reconstruction of the Earliest Matthew." Go to this <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/original-gospel-of-matthewreconstructed.html">link</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Mr. Rives has painstakingly restored the original Matthew, written in Hebrew, by primarily relying upon the 49 quotes of it in the early church. The early church called it the<em> Gospel According to the Hebrews by Matthew</em>, or GATHM for short. Also Rives includes Agrapha, quotations of Jesus from early prominent church commentators who quote it as from Matthew yet such language is lacking in our Greek Matthew. Thus, this "Agrapha" most likely came from the Hebrew Matthew. And Mr. Rives has also extracted variants from three versions of Matthew's Gospel in Hebrew (the Shem-Tob, Tillet &amp; Munster versions) -- dating between the 1300s-1500s -- portions of which scholars regard as containing viable original material from Apostle Matthew. Finally, Mr. Rives also utilized the early section of the <em>Didache</em> which is the oldest sayings collection dating to about 100 AD. Often it overlaps our current Matthew. Yet, the <em>Didache </em>also has unique variants which many believe came from the original Hebrew version of Matthew.</span></p>
<hr />
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">With copyright permission, you can listen free to the OGM online at Podomatic. We <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/original-gospel-of-matthew-audio.html">link here</a> to the audio version. We have several articles of our own relating to the first gospel written -- the original Hebrew Matthew:</span></p>
<ul>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-baptismal-account.html">Hebrew Matthew - Baptismal Account</a></li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-introduction.html">Hebrew Matthew - Introduction</a></li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-library-sources.html">Hebrew Matthew - Library sources</a></li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-start.html">Hebrew Matthew - Start / Overview page</a></li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-variants.html">Hebrew Matthew - Variants list</a></li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/matthew-232-3-in-hebrew-matthew.html">Matthew 23:2-3 in Hebrew Matthew</a></li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/rapture-in-hebrew-matthew.html">Rapture in Hebrew Matthew</a> </li>
<li><a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/review-hebrew-matthew.html">Review of Hebrew Matthew</a></li>
</ul>
<hr />
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Mr. Rives has written an article on the OGM for Knol by Google. Due to Google discontinuing the Knol project, we have reprinted Rives' article here -- <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/original-gospel-of-matthew-knol.html">The Original Gospel of Matthew</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">On proof Matthew wrote his Gospel first and that Mark was a pro-Paul edit of Matthew, see S. Rives, Appendix F, <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/marcan-priority-claim-is-invalid.html">Revisiting the Marcan Priority Claim</a>, from <em>The Original Gospel of Mattthew </em>Vol. 2.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">On the "Historical background on the Original Gospel of Matthew in Hebrew," see <a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/history-of-hebrew-version-of-matthew.html">Appendix B</a> from Rives' <em>Original Gospel of Matthew</em> Vol. 2 excerpted at that link.</span></p>
<hr />
<span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> The three volumes of the <em>Original Gospel of Matthew </em><em>are</em> divided as follow: </span>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">I: <em>The Variants From The Earliest Matthew</em> -- This volume collects all viable earliest variants for Matthew overlaid on the framework of the American Standard Version of Matthew from 1901. These variants are color coded for easy identification. The variants are footnoted so the reader can read its source, and weigh its strength and viability. 231 pages, full color. This can be purchased at <a href="https://www.createspace.com/3687457">https://www.createspace.com/3687457</a> or at this <a href="http://astore.amazon.com/ogm_rives-20">Amazon link</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">II: <em>The Appendices To Explain The Earliest Matthew</em> -- This volume collects important scholarly material on the validity of variants, and the significance of the changes to the tradtional text. 225 pages, black &amp; white. This can be purchased at <a href="https://www.createspace.com/3760858">https://www.createspace.com/3760858</a> or at this <a href="http://astore.amazon.com/ogm_rives-20">Amazon link</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">III: <em>The Final Reconstruction of the Earliest Matthew</em> --- This volume represents the best estimate of what the Original Gospel of Matthew contained. There is no commentary. It is simply a smooth flowing text with the best variants reflected in the text using color coding to know the source of each variant. The purpose of volume three is that it can be used for devotional reading. However, to know the actual citation for a variant, the color code is not enough. One must go back to Volume 1. The first and third volumes were separated solely to keep costs down. Mr. Rives permits readers thereby to select whether they wish one or both of these two versions.  110 pages, color. Thus, Volume 3 is now available at this<a href="https://tsw.createspace.com/title/3760866"> PURCHASING LINK</a> or at this <a href="http://astore.amazon.com/ogm_rives-20">Amazon link</a>.</span><img style="float: right;" alt="thumbnail_image vol 3 at createspace" height="240" width="160" src="/images/stories/OGM/thumbnail_image vol 3 at createspace.jpg" /></p>
<hr />
<span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong>More Info on Rives' OGM</strong> </span>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For information on the OGM project, see the OGM webpage:</span></p>
<p><a href="https://sites.google.com/site/gospelofmatthewinhebrew/"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">https://sites.google.com/site/gospelofmatthewinhebrew/</span></a></p>
<p><strong><span style="font-size: 12pt;">Justification For OGM Project</span></strong></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Erasmus who died in 1536 was the first reformer to prepare the Bible in English from the best Greek manuscripts. He wrote:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">You cry out that it is a crime to correct the gospels. This is a speech worthier of a coachman than of a theologian. You think it is all very well if a clumsy scribe makes a mistake in transcription and then you deem it a crime to put it right. <strong><em>The only way to determine the true text is to examine the early codices.</em></strong> (Erasmus (1466-1536 AD), quoted in Roland H. Bainton, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Erasmus of Christendom</span> (New York: Charles Scribners Sons, 1969) at 135.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">I would only add that if all the codices prior to 340 AD are lost or destroyed, the best recourse is to examine the quotes from the original gospels by early church commentators. This way we see how the gospels read earlier in time.</span></p>
<h3>Did Matthew Seal Up His Gospel In Hebrew To Protect It?</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jerome perceived Apostle Matthew wrote in Hebrew as a means to protect his gospel:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"A difficult work is enjoined, since this translation has been commanded me by your Felicities, which St. Matthew himself, the Apostle and Evangelist, did not wish to be openly written. For if it had not been Secret, he would have added to the evangel that which he gave forth was his; but <strong><em>he made up this book sealed up in the Hebrew characters, which he put forth even in such a way that the book, written in Hebrew letters and by the hand of himself, might be possessed by the men most religious, who also, in the course of time, received it from those who preceded them</em></strong>. But this very book they never gave to any one to be transcribed, and its text they related some one way and some another." (Jerome to Chromatius and Heliodorus)(Jerome, <em>Works</em> V: 445, quoted in Samuel F. Dunlop, <em>Sod: The Son of Man</em> (1861) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=AX5IAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PA46&amp;ots=u8bGzimpKK&amp;dq=this%20very%20book%20they%20never%20gave%20to%20any%20one%20to%20be%20transcribed%20jerome&amp;pg=PA46#v=onepage&amp;q=this%20very%20book%20they%20never%20gave%20to%20any%20one%20to%20be%20transcribed%20jerome&amp;f=false">46</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Epistle of Peter and James</span>, an Ebionite writing, we similarly read:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"Hear me, brethren and fellow-servants. If we should <strong><em>give the books to all indiscriminately, and they should be corrupted by any daring men</em></strong>, or be perverted by interpretations, as you have heard that <strong><em>some have already done</em></strong>, it will remain even for those who really seek the truth, always to wander in error.   Wherefore it is better that they should be with us, and that we should communicate them with all the fore-mentioned care to those who wish to live piously, and to save others."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Likewise, Schonfeld in his article said:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"The Gospel according to the Hebrews is<em><strong> a literary outlaw</strong></em> with a price on its head; but in spite of the scholarly hue and cry<strong><em> it still evades capture</em></strong>. Neither monastic libraries nor Egyptian rubbish heaps have so far yielded up a single leaf of this important document....  For behind Hebrews lies the unknown potentialities of the Nazarene tradition, which may confirm or contradict some of the most cherished beliefs of Orthodox Christianity. It is useless for certain theologians to designate Hebrews as "secondary" on the evidence of the present fragmentary remains preserved in quotation.... Judged by ancient testimony alone<strong><em> it is indisputable that Hebrews has the best right of any Gospel to be considered a genuine apostolic production</em></strong>;... Here is obviously a most valuable witness, perhaps the most valuable witness to the truth about [Yahshua]... whom even a jury composed entirely of orthodox Christians could not despise, and who ought to be brought into court. But the witness is missing, and all that we have is a few reported statements of his taken long ago... it may be argued that there has been dependence not of 'Hebrews' on the Synoptics but vice versa -- that 'Hebrews' was one of the sources on which one or more of them drew." (Hugh Schonfield, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">According to the Hebrews</span> at pages13-18).</span></p>
<h2>The Q Manuscript and the OGM</h2>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Arguably, the OGM is the intended goal of recovering what is known as Q. This was the acronymn used by German scholars for what they regarded was the Sayings (Logia) Source (Quellen) of Jesus.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Technically, Q is often defined in a different theoretical way -- as the common quotations in Matthew and Luke that are not present in Mark. ("<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Q_source">Q</a> Source," <em>Wikipedia</em>.) This is supposedly the original version of the source for the Greek Matthew and Luke. But there is direct evidence outside of the overlap of Matthew and Luke which supports Q, if viewed as OGM, of more original material. Thus, OGM is broader in concept than Q. Incidentally, Q in German is <em><strong>Logien</strong>quelle, </em><em>i.e.<em>, "</em>Source" (Quelle) and Words (Logia).</em></span></p>
<p> </p>
<p>3/19/2012</p> </td>
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<p>Italian  -<a href="/images/stories/OGM/Italian version of The Original Gospel Of Matthew_Chrome1-6.htm"> Chapters 1-6:18</a></p>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Rapture in Hebrew Matthew</h2>
<p>In the Hebrew Shem Tob Matthew (from the 1300s) we read in Matthew 24:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">40 Then if there shall be two ploughing in a field, <strong><em>one righteous and the other evil</em></strong>, the one will be taken and the other left. 41 Two women will be grinding at a mill; one will be taken and the other left. <strong><em>This is because the angels at the end of the world will remove the stumbling blocks from the world and will separate the good from the evil.</em></strong></p>
<p>The bolded portion is the portion omitted in the Greek translation with which we are familiar. What is the consequence?</p>
<p>As can be seen, in Shem Tob Jesus explains who is raptured. One is righteous, the other evil, while the Greek text makes no such clear identification. The Greek text still provides support for the view in the Shem Tob because Jesus is drawing a parallel to the time of Noah when the<strong><em> evil are all swept away</em></strong>, leaving the earth to the righteous Noah and his family. Hence, the Shem Tob variant perfectly matches the Greek text's implication from mention of Noah's time that it is the evil who are taken away from the earth, and not the righteous.</p>
<p>The Shem Tob is certainly clear who is taken away in verse 41. It refers to "stumbling blocks": they are the evil people who will be removed, paralleling 'evil' identified in verse 40. Hence, it is not the good who will be "taken" to heaven when Christ returns, but instead the evil will be taken away, leaving the good to inherit the Earth.</p>
<p>A scholar explains this Shem-Tob variance reverses the common perception based upon Paul's statement in Thessalonians. This scholar is William L. Petersen of Pennsylvania State University, Netherlands Institute for Advanced Studies. He comments about this in the following expert article on the Shem Tob Matthew:<em> Some Observations on a Recent Edition of and Introduction to Shem-Tob's "Hebrew Matthew" </em>(available at <a href="http://rosetta.reltech.org/TC/vol03/Petersen1998a.html">http://rosetta.reltech.org/TC/vol03/Petersen1998a.html</a>)</p>
<p>The Shem Tob Hebrew Matthew is also very much in accord with Apostle John's account in John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%2017:11-15&amp;version=KJV">17:15</a>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">I pray <strong><em>not that thou shouldest take (Gk. ares, lifting) them out of the world</em></strong>, but that thou shouldest keep them from the evil.</p>
<p>The Shem Tob Hebrew Matthew is also in accord with the Greek-based version of Matthew <a href="http://bible.cc/matthew/13-41.htm">13:41</a> which states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall <strong><em>take</em></strong> / <em><strong>gather out (Gk. paralambano) of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity</strong></em>;</p>
<p>The Shem Tob Hebrew Matthew is also compatible with the Greek in this passage. The word "taken" in Greek is <em>paralambano</em>. Dr. John Walvoord points out this is the word to describe how Jesus was arrested. Thus, it can have bad connotations. It can also have neutral connotations, as when Jesus says he took with himself Peter and John to the transfiguration in Matthew 17:1.</p>
<p>Yet, in Matt. 13:41, it is clear "taken" has a bad connotation. They are taken up and away with a negative connotation, while Jesus says He would not pray his followers are "lifted away" from the world, but rather are strengthened to endure evil.</p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p>It appears Jesus' original words teach that  the righteous inherit the earth as the New Jerusalem descends. It is the evil who are removed. There is no rapture. Jesus will gather the elect from the four winds of heaven -- those who previously died but whose spirits, like the thief's, were "this day in Paradise -- and come to earth after reaping the earth, removing via the angels all the evil ones. Paul heard the verse the wrong way, and relayed incorrectly that it was the good who were removed first.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Reviews of Rives' Original Gospel of Matthew</h2>
<p>Just finished reading your notes on Matthew at your site.  What a prolific, knowledgable writer you are! I'm finding numerous topics that pique my interest and for which I will revisit the site often.  Seriously. (Cat 8/31/2010)</p>
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<div><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;">Wow ! Thanks </span><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;">I was incredible blessed by the <strong>restoration of the Hebrew Matthew insights </strong>! Thank you so much for that link! What a difference the original Hebrew makes for understanding that piece of </span><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;">Scripture. </span><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;">Also enjoyed the Nehemia Gordon streaming video study done at El Shaddai ministry. That was a big blessing too. Nehemia is a great scholar.  See</span></div>
<div><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;"><a target="_blank" href="http://www.vimeo.com/17275789">http://www.vimeo.com/17275789</a> streaming video and</span></div>
<div><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 10pt;">audio study for  Nehemia Gordon <a target="_blank" href="http://elshaddaiministries.podomatic.com/entry/2010-11-28T17_12_41-08_00">http://elshaddaiministries.<wbr />podomatic.com/entry/2010-11-<wbr />28T17_12_41-08_00</a></span></div>
<div>(Doug N. 3/15/2011)</div>
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<h2>Virgin Birth Issues</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The prophecy of Jesus's birth required he was of the true lineage of David:</span></p>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>30</sup>Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of<em><strong> the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh</strong></em>, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; (Acts <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%202&amp;version=KJV">2:30</a>)</span></div>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Peter was quoting 2 Sam. 7:8-16 which reads:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The LORD declares to you that the LORD himself will establish a house for you: 12 When your days are over and you rest with your ancestors, I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, <strong><em>your own flesh and blood</em></strong>, and I will establish his kingdom. 13 He is the one who will build a house for my Name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. 14 <strong><em>I will be his father, and he will be my son</em></strong>. When he does wrong, I will punish him with a rod wielded by men, with floggings inflicted by human hands. 15 But my love will never be taken away from him, as I took it away from Saul, whom I removed from before you. 16 Your house and your kingdom will endure forever before me; your throne will be established forever. (2 Sam. 7:8-16 NIV 2010)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This clearly contemplates this Davidic heir is of the "flesh and blood" of David. See also similar Davidic-lineage prophecies for Messiah in Isaiah 11:1-2 and Jeremiah 23:6.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul too understood Jesus was born of the flesh of David:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jesus Christ our Lord...was<em> <strong>made of the seed of David, according to the flesh</strong></em>;.... (Romans 1:3-4.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jesus Christ of the <em><strong>seed of David</strong></em>....(II Timothy 2:8.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><em>Of this mans [i.e., Davids] seed</em></strong> hath God, according to his prophets,<strong><em> raised unto Israel</em></strong> a Saviour, Jesus. (Acts 13:23 KJV.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">As H.R. Mackintosh (1870-1936), a famous Christian theologian in Scotland, wrote in “Three Essays” <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Expository Times</span> (editor James Hastings)(1901) Vol. 12 at 350: "As to [Christs] Virgin Birth, we must say either that [Paul] knew nothing about it, or that <em><strong>he speaks in terms which exclude it.</strong></em>"</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Moreover, the prophecy of Samuel to which both Peter and Paul allude clearly contemplates more than this child would be born of the flesh of David. It also makes clear this child is born an ordinary human. Otherwise, why should it say: "<em><strong>When he does wrong</strong></em>, I will punish him with a rod wielded by men, with floggings inflicted by human hands"? 2 Sam. 7:14.<em><strong> God can do no wrong</strong></em>, so this child must be fully human at birth. But, in this case, this human child proved sinless, so he could not only be the Messiah, but also the Sacrifice spoken of in Isaiah 53.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Then in fulfilment of 2 Samuel 7:14, this child became God's Son. God at Jesus' baptism clearly spoke from heaven "This day I have begotten thee." See for yourself this quote -- now gone in all Greek suriving texts of Matthew -- appeared over a dozen times in the early church at our page "<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-baptismal-account.html">Baptismal Account</a>."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, in 2 Sam. 7:8-16, God wanted us to know the Messiah would come from Davids “flesh and blood” (verse 13), but he would be called “<em><strong>Gods Son</strong></em>” not Davids son (verse 14). Then even though Jesus is sinless, Gods prophecy told us this “son” would be born entirely human: “when he does wrong, I will punish him....” This prophecy contemplates that there was no divine flesh that would guarantee Jesus the victory over sin. Jesus had to always obey His Father to become at 35 years of life indwelled by the Father at His baptism.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So the question arises, did the original geneology of Jesus end that Mary -- who is never identified as in David's line -- alone begat Jesus or did Joseph who is identified as in the Davidic blood line?</span></p>
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<h2>Oldest Textual References to Who Begat Jesus</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The virgin birth account only is mentioned in the entire New Testament in four sentences in Matthew and one in Luke besides the final begetting in each where Mary alone is spoken as siring Jesus. Jenkens recently noted this paucity of references in the Gospels:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Two of the gospels, <strong><em>Mark and John</em></strong>, make <strong><em>no reference to a birth story for Jesus</em></strong>.... Nor do early alternative gospels like Thomas. Even in <strong><em>Matthew and Luke, the virgin birth idea NEVER reappears after the initial chapters</em></strong>: it is not mentioned in Lukes sequel to his gospel, the book of Acts. (Philip Jenkens, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Jesus Wars</span> (N.Y.: HarperCollins Publishers, 2010, at 44).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So were these five lines and two begats from Mary alone originally present?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The answer is clearly NO!</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">First, Justin (103-164 AD) in both his<em> Dialogue with Trypho</em> and<em> First Apology</em> records how the passage read in his era: “<strong><em>Jacob begat Joseph</em></strong>, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called the Christ. And<em><strong> Joseph begat Jesus</strong></em> who is called the Christ.” (Charles Harris,<em> Pro fide: a Defence of Natural and Revealed Religion</em> (J. Murray, 1905) at 507. See also Rhys: 100; Throckmorton:2n.) See also <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/justinmartyr-dialoguetrypho.html">Dialogue with Trypho</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Second, “<strong><em>Joseph beget Jesus</em></strong>” appears in <em>Dialogue of Timothy and Aquila </em>(circa. 200s)(Charles Lewis Slattery, <em>The Master of the World: A Study of Christ</em> (Longmans: 1906) at 48.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Third and lastly, the same variant appears in the oldest complete NT text circa 340 AD -- the Sinaiticus -- which reads: “Jacob begat Joseph. Joseph to whom was espoused the virgin Mary, begat Jesus who is called the Christ.” (Charles Harris, id., at 507.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">On the Sinaiticus variant “<em><strong>Joseph...begat Jesus</strong></em>,” see also the full original text in parallel translation in <em>Evangelion Da-Mepharreshe</em> (1904)(Ed. Francis Burkitt) at 5 fn. 16.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hastings explains the surrounding variants in the Sinaiticus of 340 AD—the oldest extent complete version of Matthew—also mismatch a virgin birth as follows:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“[T]he fact of the <em><strong>miraculous birth of the Saviour is distinctly discredited for this Syriac codex </strong></em>says Matt. 1:16, <strong><em>Joseph</em></strong>, to whom Mary the virgin was betrothed,<em><strong> begat Jesus </strong></em>who is called Christ, and in verse 21 it reads “she shall bear thee a son and in verse 25, it<strong><em> omits the words</em></strong>, And <em><strong>knew her not till</strong></em> but says, And he married his betrothed wife, and she bare him a son, and he called his name Jesus.” (Horace L. Hastings, “The Sinaitic Syriac Gospels,” <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Syriac New Testament</span> (trans. James Murdock, S.T.D.)(9th. Edition)(Horace Hastings, 1896) at xxxviii)(discussing Syriac version found by Cureton in 1842 at the Monastery of St. Mary Deipara).)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Sinaiticus is thus in total comformance with what was previously quoted in the 100s and 200s as the begetting of Jesus by Joseph. All earlier manuscripts of the NT, including Matthew were lost or perhaps deliberately destroyed. On the dating of Matthean manuscripts, see our page "<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/dates-of-manuscripts-that-survive.html">Dates of MSS</a>."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">How do defenders of the virgin birth account handle the fact of these provable earlier contrary "begat" accounts? Listen!</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Harris, a defender of the virgin birth story, admits this earlier text tradition shows that Joseph was originally regarded as the father who begat Jesus. However, he answers that this would simply mean: “these genealogies were <em><strong>compiled before the Virgin Birth became known</strong></em>....” (Charles Harris, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Pro fide: a defence of natural and revealed religion</span> (J. Murray, 1905) at 507 et seq.) Precisely! Which points to a textual corruption after the Gospels were first written.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The one most important fact staring us in the face is the line of the geneaology itself. Both Matthew and Luke are spending verse after verse tracing Joseph's lineage, only to have one line at the end stop short of Joseph begetting Jesus. This makes utterly no sense. Friedrich Delitzsch in 1908, a theologian, rhetorically asks 'why did Matthew or Luke bother to trace as they did if it originally ended with Mary as the sole human procreator of Jesus?' He wrote:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Common sense teaches us that these genealogies, whose<em><strong> sole aim is to prove that Jesus is the son and descendent of David through Joseph</strong></em>, the son and descendent of David, would be<strong><em> absolutely meaningless and useless if Joseph had not been the father of Jesus according to the flesh</em></strong>, if his fatherhood were only in appearance and<strong><em> Jesus were [only] a son of Mary</em></strong>. (F. Delitzsch, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Whose Son is Christ?: Two Lectures on Progress in Religion</span> (1908) at 35.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In Luke's account it is even more obvious that the virgin birth is not original. First, just as in Matthew, the 'begat' verse is out of place with the line of descent which Luke presents for Joseph, not Mary. Also, the virgin birth account appears elsewhere mentioned in just one verse in Luke's gospel. So if you removed the genealogy ending and that single verse, you would have no idea that Luke believed in a virgin birth of Jesus. Finally, what makes it more obvious an editor added the virgin birth account to Lukes Gospel is the presence of the story in Luke 8:19-21.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This later passage in Luke which surely is authentic makes it extraordinarily hard to believe Mary experienced a miraculous virgin birth as recorded in Luke 1:35. For in Luke 8:19-21, it is clear that Jesus family regards that Jesus has gone over the deep-end and do not believe in Him. In fact,<strong><em> Mary is among those outside who are understood to fit in this category</em></strong>. If Mary had really experienced a divine birth of Jesus, why would Mary be apart from Jesus ministry? Be thinking He was a bit touched? Thus, we know the single line added to Luke to mention a virgin birth was a later editors hand. It was not skillful enough to think to erase Luke 8:19-21 which was at direct odds with the single-line addition.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In fact, here is Tertullian unwittingly proving this point in his discussion of Luke 8:19-21. Tertullian is not comparing this passage to the virgin birth story to show how paradoxically it tells us that Mary was a nonbeliever. However, we can borrow Tertullians point to see Luke would not have recorded a virgin birth account and tell this story in Luke 8:19-21. They 100% do not fit together. Tertullian from the early 200s AD begins his comment on this passage by reasoning that the Gospel portrays a very realistic situation that can happen in any family where no one respects you. Tertullian explained:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“The Lords brethren had not yet believed in Him.” [Quoting Luke.] So is it contained in the Gospel which was published before Marcions time; whilst there is at the <em><strong>same time a want of evidence of His mothers adherence to Him</strong></em>, although the Marthas and the other Marys were in constant attendance on Him. In this very passage indeed, <em><strong>their unbelief is evident</strong></em>. Jesus was teaching the way of life, preaching the kingdom of God and actively engaged in healing infirmities of body and soul; but all the while, whilst strangers were intent on Him, <strong><em>His very nearest relatives were absent</em></strong>. (Tertullian, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Flesh of Christ</span>, ch. 5.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, we can take Tertullians analysis and use it to question the presence of the virgin birth story in Lukes original Gospel. How can Mary,<em><strong> if she truly experienced a virgin birth and the angel-explanation have been a non-believer, as Luke records</strong></em>? Also,<em><strong> wouldnt Mary have told Jesus brothers and sisters of this miraculous birth so as to have them acknowledge Jesus as Messiah</strong></em>? But they too are <em><strong>described as non-believers</strong></em>—as if no miraculous birth ever touched this family. Thus, is it so hard to realize that if you remove just one verse from Luke (besides the last begat from Mary alone), the <em><strong>virgin birth account entirely disappears.</strong></em> Because the presence of the virgin birth story is so<em><strong> incongruous</strong></em> with Luke 8:19-21, it appears the virgin birth account was a one-line addition to Lukes Gospel. It was an inauthentic editorial change. Both it and the genealogy in Luke are not original.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">And if we regard the Ebionites as the custodians of the earliest Matthew in Hebrew, prior to the Greek translation, then the recording in 180, 236 and 316 AD of having the view Joseph begat Jesus is just one more proof of how the Gospel of Matthew originally read. For the Ebionites' View on the Birth of Jesus, see our article "<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/ebionites.html">Ebionites</a>."</span></p>
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<h2>Is The Virgin Birth Account Valid?</h2>
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<h3>Invalidates Jesus As Messiah</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The first problem with the virgin birth account is that it makes it impossible for Jesus to be Messiah. He must come from David's flesh and blood. Jewish critics correctly say:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Messiah must be descended on his fathers side from King David (see Genesis 49:10 and Isaiah 11:1). According to the Christian claim that Jesus was the product of a virgin birth, he had no father— and<strong><em> thus could not have possibly fulfilled the messianic requirement of being descended on his fathers side from King David</em></strong>! (Rabbi Simmons, “Jesus as the Messiah,” http://judaism.about.com/library/3_askrabbi_o/bl_simmons_messiah3.htm (August 14, 2011).)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jerome knew an adoption by Joseph does not satisfy the prophecies in Samuel, Isaiah and Jerome that Messiah must be in the blood line of David. So he made up a claim that it is IMPLIED that Mary is of the Davidic line -- a completely unfounded claim. Yet, this proves that Jerome knew something is missing -- fatally -- due to the virgin birth account. First, <em>Wikipedia</em> mentions: “The Catholic Encyclopedia (1913) states [there is]... a general implication of <strong>her</strong> Davidic origin..... (“Genealogy of Jesus,” Wikipedia.) Finally, Jerome's words from the 380s in his Commentary on Matthew 1:18 say:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“Since <em><strong>Joseph is not the father of the Lord and Savior</strong></em>, how does the sequence of the genealogy descending to Joseph pertain to the Lord? Our first response to this is that it is not the custom of Scripture to trace out genealogies of women; secondly, <em><strong>Mary</strong></em> and Joseph <strong><em>came from the same tribe</em></strong>. This is why he was compelled by law to marry her, since she was a close relative. Also the fact they are both counted together [in the census] at Bethlehem clearly shows they were descended from the same stock.”</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This is utterly bogus. The accounts in both Matthew and Luke are of Joseph's line, not Mary's. They are said to be taken in a census in Bethlehem because Joseph (not Mary) is in the Davidic line.  In Luke 2:4, Luke says that Joseph in going to Judaea went “unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem, because<em><strong> he</strong></em> was of the house and lineage of David.”</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But Jerome's this bogus claim proves one thing: even Jerome knew an adoption by Joseph does not fulfill the prophecies of a Davidic Messiah. He and the Catholic Church desperately seek the answer in the nonsensical notion that Mary was supposedly in the Davidic line.</span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, because the virgin birth makes it impossible to believe Jesus was of the Davidic bloodline, we must examine the evidence to the contrary which lifst this burden off of Jesus' shoulders. We know Jews accepted Jesus' brother James as of the Davidic bloodline, because they allowed his entry into Temple to act as High Priest, per early writers, due to that bloodline. Thus, Jesus, if begotten by Joseph too, indeed would be of the Davidic line. Certainly, adoption by Joseph is clearly not what the prophecy in Samuel had in mind. Thus, the virgin birth story is fatal to Jesus' validity as Messiah, thus dictating we must examine the compelling evidence the virgin birth account was not originally present.</span></span></p>
<h3>Jesus Cannot Be A Sacrifice For Sin / Docetism</h3>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The second problem is the virgin birth account is docetic -- Jesus' flesh would not truly be human 100%, and this is what Apostle John identified as the message of the Anti-Christ. The reason, as we will explain, is that then Jesus' sacrifice would not qualify for atonement under the rules in Leviticus.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Apostle John explained this most dangerous of all heresies:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“Many deceivers, who <strong><em>do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in human flesh</em></strong> [Greek, sarx, human flesh], have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the <strong><em>antichrist.</em></strong>” (2 John 1:7.)</span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">That the virgin birth belief leads to docetism we can cite that Roman Catholicism later said the virgin birth means Jesus' flesh only appeared human, but he did not suffer because of the virgin birth story.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For example, Hilary of Poitiers (300-368 AD) in his work <span style="text-decoration: underline;">On The Trinity</span> said in reliance upon the virgin birth account: “No more in the passion did the flesh of Christ <em><strong>feel pain than if you were to wound fire or water with a sword</strong></em>.” (Hilary, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">De Trinitate</span> Bk. 9:56 and Bk.10:23.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Similarly, Jerome from the 400s commented on Matthew 26 that it was ridiculous to think Jesus “was afraid of death” or “spoke in terror about the passion.” (Jerome, In Matthaeum Bk. IV ch. 26:39.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Finally, Aquinas in the 1200s persisted with this notion that Jesus flesh was not truly human, relying upon the virgin birth account as proof:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But the flesh of Christ was...<strong><em>conceived...of the Holy Ghost in the Virgins womb</em></strong>. Therefore, it lay under <strong><em>no necessity of suffering pain</em></strong>. (Aquinas, Summa Theologia (2007) Vol. IV at 2102.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Why is this docetism -- that Jesus only appeared to be human but had no true human flesh (and instead was deity from Birth) -- pose such danger that John said that this was the message of Anti-Christ?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We will see the answer in what Christian scholar Wayne Grudem defends as the reason Jesus had to be deity from birth. It is a silly and heretical argument that denies Jesus was human and insists Jesus had to be God from birth. Unless Jesus was God from birth, Grudem says Jesus supposedly could not pay for atonement. (The opposite is true, as we shall see.) Grudem argues:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"If Jesus is merely a created being, and not fully God,  then it is hard to see how he, a creature, could bear the full wrath of God against all our sins. Could<strong><em> any creature, no matter how great, really save us</em></strong>....Could we really depend on any creature fully for our salvation." (Wayne A. Grudem, Jeff Purswell, <em>Bible Doctrine: Essential Teachings of the Christian Faith</em> (Zondervan, 1999) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Bi0jrhaviVgC&amp;lpg=PA115&amp;pg=PA115#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">115</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong><em>What is <strong><em>wrong</em></strong> with that analysis? Why is it also<em><strong> extraordinarily heretical</strong></em></em></strong><em>?</em></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">First, notice there is no biblical analysis by Grudem.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Second, in the Bible, atonement is always by the blood of a <strong><em>living creature</em></strong>, whether a lamb or other living creature. It never says anything but blood can atone. In Leviticus<a href="http://bible.cc/leviticus/17-11.htm"> 17:11</a> it clearly states:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For the life of a<strong><em> creature</em></strong> is in the<em><strong> blood</strong></em>, and I have given it to you to make <em><strong>atonement</strong></em> for yourselves on the altar; it is <em><strong>the blood that makes atonement for one's life</strong></em>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But Grudem above says this is impossible. No creature supposedly can atone. But the Bible says the opposite.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The truth is Jesus was a <strong><em>man</em></strong> indwelled by God, as Jesus Himself says. Then His blood can fulfill the atonement. His act of sacrifice saves us by means of God's operative principle that an innocent lamb can pay for sins. Hence, Jesus is <strong><em>our Savior</em></strong> while God indwelling Him saves us and makes God our<em><strong> ultimate Savior by the agency of Jesus</strong></em>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus Grudem's argument is highly unbiblical. In fact it clearly contradicts the Bible.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The way Grudem reformulates Jesus' work on the cross, Grudem unwittingly refutes Jesus paid for sin. Because if Grudem is correct <strong><em>no creature's fleshly experience played any role in our salvation on the cross, Jesus' death could not pay for sin. </em></strong> If Jesus were truly simply deity, as Grudem contends, and not a man indwelled by deity (as Jesus contended in John 14:10), then the blood of Jesus that spilled did not atone. Leviticus proves that. Hence, docetism is the message of Anti-Christ, as Apostle John says.</span></p>
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<h2>Source of Virgin Birth Story</h2>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The key proof virgin birth is not original is that virgin birth notion comes from Septuagint Greek translation of Isaiah 7:14. But Matthew used the Hebrew Bible, not the Septuagint almost all the time. Jerome observed this, looking at the Hebrew original kept at Caesarea. The 'virgin' birth prophecy only appears in the Septuagint's  wording of Isaiah 7:14, but in Hebrew at the time of Christ it is simply about a 'young woman.' No one would think that there is a virgin birth prophesied there looking at the original Hebrew OT of Isaiah 7:14.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Specifically, Symmachus, a translator of the Jews in the 2d century, insisted the original word in Isaiah 7:14 was <strong><em>almah</em></strong>, which meant "young maiden." It was not the word for virgin, which Symmachus said would be "bethulah." Symmachus used this translation error to criticize the Greek translation of Matthew in the 2d century. (We believe the Hebrew Matthew of Shem-Tob reflects the original Hebrew version of Matthew, and it has <em>almah</em>.) However, the Septuagint in 257 BC translated this word into the Greek word for "virgin," which was <em>parthenos</em>. This evidently influenced the Greek translator of the Hebrew Matthew to insert lines to make what the translator thought was a virgin-birth prophecy even though it was not truly present.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jerome in the 380s AD mentioned this contention was still maintained by Jewish authorities that almah in Isaiah 7:14 meant "young maiden," not virgin. See Jerome, “The Perpetual Virginity of the Blessed Mary,” <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers</span> (ed. Philip Schaff)(reprint 2007) Vol. VI, 334, 336.</span></p>
<h3>Original Meaning and Language of Isaiah 7:14</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">What as the original of Isaiah 7:14? Virgin or young maiden?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Dead Sea Scroll Bible -- from at least 125 BCE -- printed by Abegg, Flint, etc., in 1996) has "halmah," young maiden, and so does the Masoretic text.  Some Christians unaware of this true meaning cite "halmah" as virgin in the Dead Sea Scrolls (see <a href="http://www.moellerhaus.com/qum-6.htm">link</a>, with plate), but this is an error. It simply means a "young maiden." Symmachus set this straight in the 2d century, and Jerome and others never disagreed. The Christian response in the late 200s was simply to say that the Septuagint is just as authoritative, and it used a Greek word for <em>virgin</em>.</span></p>
<h3>So how did the virgin birth account arise?</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Evidently, the Greek translator of Matthew rendered Matthew's Hebrew quotation of Isaiah by a Greek equivalent. Rather than do a fresh translation, he borrowed the Septuagint. It mistranslated ALMAH as virgin in Greek -- <em>parthenos</em>. Then he evidently felt pressure to insert into the story that Mary gave a virgin birth to make it appear a fulfillment of what the translator thought was Matthews intention in quoting Isaiah 7:14. Hence, the Septuagints translation error into Greek in 257 BC is what likely led to the virgin birth account by a well-meaning but unwise effort by a Greek translator of Matthew. He exceeded the scope of his role. But a virgin birth heretically destroys the fulfillment of 2 Samuel 7:8-16 that Jesus would be of the “loins” and “flesh” of David.</span></p>
<h3>Late Appearance of Virgin Birth Account in Records</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">To prove the validity of the early variants that “Joseph begat Jesus,” it helps to study what was the first mention of the virgin birth story in the early church. It turns out it was first mentioned by the early commentators only after 150 A.D. It played absolutely no part in any letter from Paul. It cannot be found in anything said by James, Jude, Peter or John. And the virgin birth account has no mention in the Gospels of John or Mark.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Even in Luke, the virgin birth account hinges on the presence of just one verse—Luke 1:35—other than the begetting verse. Without it, there is no mention otherwise of a virgin birth anywhere else in Luke. Similarly, in the canonical Greek Matthew, the virgin birth story is present only in verses 18-24 of chapter one. Thereafter, it is never mentioned or alluded to again in Matthew.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Most significantly, the virgin birth account does not appear in the Didache, otherwise known as the Teaching of the Twelve Apostles. The Didache may be the oldest surviving document of Christianity—predating any manuscripts we have of any Gospel. The Didache was a summary of teachings—clearly derived from Jesus in Matthew and perhaps John. The Didache was part of the canon of the Syrian Christian church. Its language reveals it was written between 50 AD and 200 AD. Most scholars say it was written “before rather than after 100 AD.” (Camden McCormack Cobern, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The New Archeological Discoveries and Their Bearing upon the New Testament</span> (Funk &amp; Wagnalls Company, 1917) at 261.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">When discovered in 1875 by Bishop Bryennio at the Jerusalem Monastery of the Most Holy Sepulcher, scholars concurred it was “undoubtedly genuine and was dated by all scholars as the oldest church manual in existence.” Given its place in history, how could this collection of sayings taken from the gospels then omit this important detail about the virgin birth story if such an account were truly in the gospels?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, in the earliest church the attachment of any importance to a virgin birth story appears to be unknown.</span></p>
<h3>Divinity of Christ Is Unaffected</h3>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">God came to dwell in Jesus at His baptism. Jesus was not born with divine flesh. This is how Matthew and Luke originally read, with the dove coming down and physically entering Jesus, whereafter God says to Jesus: "This day I have begotten thee." See our article "<a href="/Hebrew-Matthew/hebrew-matthew-baptismal-account.html">Baptismal Account</a>." This passage was quoted over 12 times by the early church from the 90s to the 300s. It was erased in the mid to late 300s to make room for a different view: that Jesus was born with divine flesh rather than God came to indwell flesh at Jesus' baptism. As Rys notes:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">“Eventually the text was altered in order to conform, as far as possible, with the Virgin Birth story. This day have I begotten thee<strong><em> became</em></strong> In thee<em><strong> I am well pleased</strong></em>.’” (Jocelyn Rhys, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Shaken Creeds: The Virgin Birth Doctrine. A Study of Its Origin</span> (1922) at 97.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, Jesus, as a human who proved himself, God came to enter Jesus at His Baptism and said: "This day I have begotten thee."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">That Jesus was simply indwelled is obvious from what Jesus says. Jesus repeatedly said the heavenly “Father dwells in me.” (John 14:10.) Apostle John in John 1:1,14 says the “Logos became flesh” and “dwelled” among us. Note John does not say this transformation took place at Jesus birth. It is just as possible this took place at Jesus baptism. (Incidentally, Apostle John never mentions a virgin birth.) Jesus likewise talks as if this LOGOS is completely apart from his personal identity yet dwells in Himself. In John 14:24, Jesus says the “Logos is not mine, but the Fathers who sent me.” Also, Jesus in Matthew says where “two or more gather in my name, I am there in their midst.” (Matthew 18:20.) At other times, Jesus speaks with the Mind of God dwelling in Himself in Matthew:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">How often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and you would not! (Matt 23:37 KJV.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jesus spoke likewise with the voice of God when He says: “Before Abraham was, I am.” (John 8:58.) Jesus explained to us how He could talk this way: God-the-Father directly dwelled in Jesus (John 14:10). Thus, the Father directly spoke through Him on more than one occasion, including Matthew 23:37 and John 8:58.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This Christology perfectly makes sense of Jesus various descriptions of His interpersonal relationship to the Father:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Father is <strong><em>greater than I.</em></strong> (John 14:28.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><strong>I can do nothing by myself</strong>. (John 5:19.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">I can of <em><strong>my own self do nothing</strong></em>: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not my own will, but the will of<em><strong> the Father who has sent me</strong></em>. (John 5:30.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The Father and I are one. (John 10:30.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The <strong><em>Logos / Word is not mine but the Fathers</em></strong>. (John 14:24.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><em><strong>Father</strong></em>, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:...Now this is eternal life: that they may<strong> know You, the only true God,</strong> and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent. (John 17:1, 3.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to<em><strong> My God and your God</strong></em>. (John 20:17)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">What then did Jesus and John intend us to understand about Jesus nature in relation to God?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In Hebrew, the term for divinity (i.e., the presence of God)—skekhinah—was the word that literally meant <em><strong>dwelling</strong></em>. Gods dwelling stayed with the Israelites in their camp in the wilderness and then at the Temple later. Hence, Jesus had the unique shekhinah presence of God dwelling in Himself. Hence, all our remarks about Jesus as our divine Lord are accurate even if the virgin birth did not happen. Jesus divinity is not tied to the virgin birth account.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The confirmation that this is the correct interpretation of Jesuss divinity comes from Daniel 7:13. It speaks of the “Son of Man”—which means a true human—coming on clouds of glory—the same depiction of Gods presence when God was in the camp with the Israelites. This Son of Man uniquely has the shekhinah “glory” or presence of God with Himself as referenced in Daniel 7:13.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Adam Clarke (1760-1832), the British Methodist scholar, concurs. He says that Jesus human heart was a place “for the<strong><em> Divine Majesty to dwell in</em></strong>, and that it be the holy of holies.” (Adam Clarke, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Commentary</span>, Ex. 25:22.) If so, it would be proper to call Jesus Divine.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Clarke in his famous Commentary wrote about John 1:14 that the “Word dwelt among us” and explains John wants us to understand this “dwelling” was a reference to Jesus <strong><em>“human nature...being as the temple in which...deity condescended to dwel</em></strong><em><strong>l</strong></em>,” and “the <strong><em>Word is probably an allusion to the divine Shechinah in the Jewish Temple</em></strong>.”(Adam Clarke, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Holy Bible</span> (1825) Vol. 5 at 486.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, Clarke says the Gospel dispensation was foreshadowed by the Temple Shekhinah. It was Gods way to prepare us to understand “this manifestation of God in the flesh” of Jesus. (Id.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, it is proper to say Jesus is our Divine Lord. It means He is indwelled by the Father. That is not the same as saying He had divine flesh from birth or Jesus Himself is God-the-Son apart from God-the-Father.</span></p>
<h2>Valentinus, Docetic Heretic, Promoted Virgin Birth Earliest in Church</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We believe a heretic was among those who first translated the Hebrew Matthew into Greek. He relished adding a virgin birth account which was first mentioned in 150 AD by Irenaeus. The responsible heretic was likely Valentinus -- who lived from 100-160 AD. (See "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Valentinus_(Gnostic)">Valentinus</a>," Wikipedia.) He was aware of the dove entering into Jesus at His baptism, and tried to mesh this with the virgin birth account. He claimed that after a virgin birth the "Savior" entered Jesus at the baptism, but otherwise Jesus, as a pre-existing Deity, had no true contact with the flesh. Valentinus was imbued with Pauline soteriology at this time, as will be evident in the quote below.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Here is a summary of these facts in a work of 1709 by a Protestant editor to <span style="text-decoration: underline;"><span>The Commonitory of Vincentius Lirinensis</span><span> </span><span>Concerning the Rule of Faith In Opposition to All Heretical Innovations</span></span><span> from 434 AD.</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">[<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QnpPAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=tertullian%20against%20the%20jews%20fraudulent&amp;pg=PA277#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Page 277</a>] The Heretick Valentinus lived in the Days of Polycarp came to Rome in the Pontificat of Hyginus flourilshed in the Reign of Antoninus Pius and continued to the time of Anicetus. See Euseb. Hist. Eccles L. 4, C. 11. As to his Doctrines beside his unintelligible Jargon about the monstrous Generation of his Æons he maintained that Christ took not upon him our Flesh but brought with him a certain spiritual Body from Heaven and passed through the Virgin as Water through a Pipe without the least Participation of her Substance and that the Soter or Saviour flew down upon him at his Baptism in the Shape of a Dove. See Tertul <span style="text-decoration: underline;">de Praescr.</span> Chapter 49 and <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Adv Valent</span> chapter 27. He maintained likewise that the World was made by the Offspring of the Devil and therefore made all the Wickedness in it owing to the Maker of the World [<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QnpPAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=tertullian%20against%20the%20jews%20fraudulent&amp;pg=PA278#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Page 278</a>] World and not tp the Will of Man. He denied the Resurrection of the Flesh and affirmed the Soul and Spirit [are] only to be saved by Chris. See August. Heresies I I. The Valentinens, says Irenaus, all themscives the <em>Spiritual</em>, and the Orthodox <em>Pyhsicos</em>, the<strong><em> animal Men that these Animals know not the Truth and for that reason must be beholden to Faith and good Works for their Salvation</em></strong> but for themselves they stand in need of no such Things because they are <em>naturally Spiritual</em> and cannot lose their <em>Spirituaiity</em> and therefore tho<em><strong> Sin may damn the Churchmen yet it can hot hurt the Saints</strong></em>. See Irenaeus Adv Valent.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">(<span><span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Apologies of Justin Martyr, Tertullian, and Minutius Felix in Defense of the Christian Religion</span></span><span> (</span><span dir="ltr">W.B. for A. and J. Churchill</span><span>, </span><span dir="ltr">1709) Vol. 2 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=QnpPAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=tertullian%20against%20the%20jews%20fraudulent&amp;pg=PA277#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">277</a>.)</span></span></p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So which is the greater heresy? To deny Jesus was of Davids lineage, and thus deny Him a critical proof He was Messiah, as some Jews use the virgin birth to disprove His Messiahship? Or is it a greater heresy to deny Jesus had a virgin birth? It is obviously more heretical to insist upon the virgin birth, and thus deprive Jesus of a Davidic heritage, than to accept Matthew once read “Joseph begat Jesus.” It is long overdue to purge this textual corruption from our Bibles.</span></p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
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<h2>How Geneology Reads in Sinai-Syriac</h2>
<div><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In the earliest quotes of the Aramaic gospel and Greek gospel of Matthew, we learn it ends as follows:</span></div>
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<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"Joseph begat Jesus." (Harris, Pro Fides (1905) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=uXorAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=Epiphanius%2C%20Panarion&amp;pg=PA507#v=onepage&amp;q=Epiphanius,%20Panarion&amp;f=false">507</a>.)</span></div>
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<div><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Delitzhe says the Sinai Syriac says "Joseph begat Jesus."  at 32-<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=gjsqAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=%22Joseph%20begat%20Jesus%22&amp;pg=PA36#v=onepage&amp;q=%22Joseph%20begat%20Jesus%22&amp;f=false">36</a>.  See also Rys, <em>Shaken Creeds, Virgin Birth</em> at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=c12yylGsuWkC&amp;lpg=PA100&amp;ots=UXAIzcvVRw&amp;dq=justin%20dialogue%20with%20trypho%20And%20Joseph%20begat%20Jesus&amp;pg=PA100#v=onepage&amp;q=justin%20dialogue%20with%20trypho%20And%20Joseph%20begat%20Jesus&amp;f=false">100</a> See also <a href="http://www.hope-of-israel.org/VBdoc.html">http://www.hope-of-israel.org/VBdoc.html</a></span></div>
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<div><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Also, in the 100s Justin Martyr quoted Matthew inTrypho as saying: <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.viii.iv.c.html">Joseph begat Jesus</a>.</span></div>
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<div><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Justin also was familiar with the earliest version of Jesus' baptism where we once could read: "This day I have begotten thee." <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/justinmartyr-dialoguetrypho.html">Dialogue with Trypho</a></span></div>
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<p class="main" align="justify"><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14pt;"><span style="font-size: 12pt;">Philip Jenkins, in his book <em><strong>Jesus Wars</strong></em>, notes how few other places than in just a few verses in Matthew and Luke the virgin birth account appears, raising doubts it was original:</span></span></p>
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<p class="main" align="justify"><span style="font-family: Arial; font-size: 14pt;">"The idea of the virgin birth is unquestionably present in the gospels of Matthew and Luke, but elsewhere in the New Testament the idea LEAVES NOT A TRACE. Among Paul's epistles, Galatians speaks of God sending his Son, 'born of a woman,' but neither here nor elsewhere does Paul suggest anything unusual about Jesus' conception or birth. Although Paul could have written explicitly 'of a virgin,' <strong>instead he uses the word FOR WOMAN, <em>gyne/gynaikos</em></strong>. Two of the gospels, Mark and John, make no reference to a birth story for Jesus, and neither did the hypothetical lost gospel Q. Nor do early alternative gospels like Thomas. Even in Matthew and Luke, the virgin birth idea NEVER reappears after the initial chapters: it is not mentioned in Luke's sequel to his gospel, the book of Acts" (HarperCollins Publishers, New York. 2010, page 44).</span></p>
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<h2>Syriac Variants on Virgin Birth</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">See The Syriac New Testament at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=COIUAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PR38&amp;ots=0h8TL-m3GC&amp;dq=burkitt%20translation%20syriac&amp;pg=PR38#v=onepage&amp;q=burkitt%20translation%20syriac&amp;f=false">xxxviii</a></span></p>
<h2>Alterations in Manuscripts</h2>
<p>This is from <a href="http://essenes.net/index.php?option=com_content&amp;task=view&amp;id=149&amp;Itemid=563">New Testament Alterations </a>at essene.net:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><strong>Early Essene Nasarene followers of Yeshua believed that their Messiah had become the Son of Amen, or God, by growing from grace to grace within the Essene Way. The orthodox Christians maintained that Jesus was the Son of God from conception and a miracle birth. The Nasarenes, and all the original disciples, believed in a special, pure, and immaculate birth, but a birth where Joseph was the natural father and Mariam was the pure, but not virgin, mother.</strong><span></span>
<p><strong>Even the writings of Paul; reflect this, as in Romans 1:4 where it says that "(Jesus was) designated Son of God in power according to the spirit of holiness <span style="text-decoration: underline;">by his resurrection</span> from the dead", which seems to imply that even Paul was not unsympathetic to this view.</strong></p>
<p><strong>The orthodox said, in opposition to those they called "Jewish Christians", that Joseph was not really Jesus' biological father. So some of them simply tried to eliminated those places which said that Joseph was the father of Jesus. For example, Luke 2:33 says that Jesus' "father and mother began to marvel". Many Greek manuscripts changed the text to read "Joseph and his mother began to marvel". Luke 2:48 says "Look, your father and I have been grieved". Some manuscripts were altered to read "Your relatives and I..." or "We have been grieved". In Luke 2:43 "his parents" was often changed to "Joseph and his mother".</strong></p>
<p><strong>The original Nasarene doctrine of evolving perfection leaves the door open to all of us to "follow Yeshua" into exaltation. This, of course, is not possible without a natural Essene life of strict spiritual discipline and wholehearted concentration on the world to come. Orthodox Christians, wishing an easier and more worldly path, felt comfortable altering the original doctrines so that they could comfortably pursue a normal life without any concern for perfecting themselves. With this doctrine came the companion doctrine of total vicarious atonement and total vicarious salvation through another's hard work (i.e. Christ's). Original Nasarenes believed that exaltation was a joint process involving both personal spiritual work and grace from on high.</strong></p>
</p>
<h2 style="padding-left: 30px;">Websites</h2>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"Evidence that Demands a Verdict" - excerpt on Virgin Birth at this <a href="http://www.angelfire.com/sc3/myredeemer/Evidencep18.html">link</a>.</span></div>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">James Orr, "<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=D8dFAAAAIAAJ&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=james+orr&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=IYoATc3EO4bAsAPy2IWwCw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;resnum=7&amp;ved=0CD4Q6AEwBg#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Virgin Birth</a>" (Book)</span></div>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"></div>
<div style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jerome, <em>On the Perpetual Virginity of Mary</em> -- arguments against Isaiah 7:14 and against Jesus being born of virgin because Luke speaks inconsistently. See this <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=YYG_jPP4HD0C&amp;lpg=PA334&amp;dq=Jerome%20The%20Perpetual%20Virginity%20of%20the%20Blessed%20Mary&amp;pg=PA336#v=onepage&amp;q=Jerome%20The%20Perpetual%20Virginity%20of%20the%20Blessed%20Mary&amp;f=false">link</a></span></div> </td>
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<big><big><big><span style="font-weight: bold;">HOW NOT TO STUDY THE BIBLE</span></big></big></big><br>
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<a href="How%20Not%20To%20Study%20the%20Bible/Ch%201.pdf">Chapter One: No Presuppositions</a><br>
<a href="How%20Not%20To%20Study%20the%20Bible/Ch%202.pdf">Chapter Two: No Deliberate Ignorance</a><br>
<a href="How%20Not%20To%20Study%20the%20Bible/Ch%203.pdf">Chapter Three: No Rash Opinions</a><br>
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<a href="/How%20Not%20To%20Study%20the%20Bible/Ch%205.pdf">Chapter Five: Not By Piecemeal</a><br>
C<a href="/How%20Not%20To%20Study%20the%20Bible/Ch%206.pdf">hapter Six: No Traditional Reading Order for the Original Testament</a><br>
<a href="How%20Not%20To%20Study%20the%20Bible/Ch%207.pdf">Chapter Seven: No Traditional Reading Order for the New Testament</a><br>
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<h2>2 Corinthians 5:16: Any Alternative to Bultmann's View That Destroys Paul?</h2>
<p><strong>What are the various historical interpretations of 2 Cor. 5:16? We are aware Bultmann saw it as Paul's direction that we no longer are to know Christ "according to the flesh," and now we know Jesus solely through His resurrected nature. Bultmann thus interpreted Paul as teaching we can safely ignore Jesus's pre-resurrection teachings, just as Paul had done. For a full discussion, see our webpage "</strong><a href="/JWO/bultmann-on-paul.html"><strong>Bultmann's Exalting A Paul Who Treated Jesus as Irrelevant</strong></a><strong>."</strong></p>
<p><strong>In this page, we will explore the scholarly attempt to rebut Bultmann. Volgouris will contend that Paul meant we no longer know Jesus as a Jew, but as a resurrected being. Even so, it does not negate Bultmann's understanding. Thus, Volgouris' argument is frankly so weak and forced that it reminds us how likely accurate indeed is Bultmann's reading of Paul.</strong></p>
<h2>View That Christ's Teachings In The Flesh Are Unimportant Based Upon 2 Cor. 5:16</h2>
<p><strong>In the scholarly article by Christos Sp. Voulgaris, "2 Cor, 5:16 and the problem of St. Pauls opponents in Corinth," </strong><em><strong>Theologia Review</strong></em><strong> 46 (Athens 1975), reprinted online at this</strong><a href="http://www.myriobiblos.gr/bible/studies/voulgaris_2cor5-16.asp"><strong> link</strong></a><strong>, he recognizes Bultmann's point. Voulgaris summarizes that Bultmann claimed that 2 Cor. 5:16 proves Paul's view was that it is irrelevant to know of the earthly teachings of Jesus. Voulgaris says 2 Cor. 5:16 highlights the</strong></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><strong>long debated problem of Pauls acquaintance with</strong><em><strong> the</strong><strong><span style="text-decoration: underline;"> historical person of Jesus Christ</span></strong></em><strong>, either previous or subsequent to his conversion, and</strong> <em><strong><span style="text-decoration: underline;">its legitimacy for salvation</span></strong><strong> </strong></em><strong>in Jesus Christ by faith, which he preached. </strong><em><strong>Id.</strong></em></p>
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<p>Voulgaris goes back to Clement of Alexandria from the patristic era. Clement intended us to understand "according to the flesh" in 2 Cor. 5:16 to mean prior to Christ's exultation. After this point is implied "the descent of the Holy Spirit upon the believers, <em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">following Christs exultation</span></em>." (Christos Sp. Voulgaris, "2 Cor, 5:16 and the problem of st. Pauls opponents in Corinth,"  <em>Theologia Review</em> 46 (Athens 1975), reprinted online at this<a href="http://www.myriobiblos.gr/bible/studies/voulgaris_2cor5-16.asp"> link</a>.) Hence, this coincides with Bultmann's view that "according to the flesh" meant the period prior to Christ's exultation / resurrection / ascension.</p>
<p>Voulgaris does not mention Origen, but Origen had a similar view that Paul's reference to Christ "in the flesh" meant prior to Jesus's exultation/ascension:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">and announcing Himself as flesh, He calls to Himself those who are flesh, that He may in the first place cause them to be transformed according to the Word that was made flesh, and afterwards may lead them upwards to behold Him as He was<span style="text-decoration: underline;"> </span><em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">before He became flesh</span></em>; so that they, receiving the benefit, and <em>ascending from their great introduction to Him, which was according to the flesh</em>, say, "Even if we have known Christ after the flesh, yet henceforth know we Him no more." (Origen Against Celsus Book VI at 353.)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">But we, who can <em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">truthfully boast</span></em> that "if we have<em> once known Christ after the flesh</em>, but now <span style="text-decoration: underline;"><em>no longer do </em></span><span style="text-decoration: underline;"><em>we know Him so</em></span>," Origen <em>Commentary on Matthew</em> Book XI at 177.</p>
<p>Later scholarship moved in the same direction. "Thus «κατά σάρκαν» is again referred to<em> Christs human existence</em> «according to external distinctions», «by what <em>he is in the flesh</em>»." (Voulgaris, <em>id., </em>citing A. Plummer, <em>A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Second Epistle of St. Paul to the Corintians</em> (I.C.C., 5<sup>th </sup>ed., Edinburgh 1956) at 176.)</p>
<p>Bultmann pointed at the question of what does "according to the flesh" modify, for it affects interpretation. "R. Bultmann put it, whether «κατά σάρκαν» modifies the objects  «ουδένα» and «Χριστόν» or the verbs  «οίδαμεν», «εγνώκαμεν» and «γινώσκομεν»." (Voulgaris, <em>id</em>., citing K. Grobel, <em>Theology of the New Testament, E.T</em>. (New York: T.I.P., 1951) at 238-239.  Cf. Bultmann, <em>Exegetische Probleme des zweien Korintherbriefes</em> (Uppsala 1947) at 17.) Bultmann leans towards "after the flesh" modifying the verbs:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Bultmann himself leans towards the second alternative...for he says that «…this decision means nothing for the sense of the total context, for a Christ <em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">regarded in the manner of the flesh</span></em> is just what a <em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">Christ after the flesh</span></em> is» (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em> citing <em>Theology of the New Testament</em>, at 239.</p>
<p>Bultmann and Schweitzer took this then in the direction of what was the right gospel to preach:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">This, as we all know, has taken immense dimension ever since A. Schweitzers “Quest of the historical Jesus”, and was climaxed in R. Bultmanns thought, where the<em> emphasis lies not on the historical person of Christ</em> “according to the flesh”, but rather on its existential meaningfulness proclaimed by the kerygma. (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<h2>Voulgaris's Attempt To Find A Different Interpretation</h2>
<p>However, Voulgaris tries to refute that interpretation of verse 16 by first examining its context:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">the highly theological expressions in vss. 14-21 exclude the possibility that Paul is here defending himself against charges that he had or had not known Christ “according to the flesh,” as all interpreters suggest. (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>Voulgaris begins his case by saying <em>gar</em> (for, because) in verse 13 proves vv 11-15 are one unit:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">This means that vss. 11-15 are bound together and form a literary unit. (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>This does not necessarily follow. But it proves unimportant to dispute this.</p>
<p>Second, Voulgaris points to the topics in vv 14-15 are the same:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">This is further supported by the fact that the content of vss. 14 and 15 deal with the same concept,<em> i.e. </em>Christs death and its effects upon men. (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>Third, Voulgaris concedes the grammar presents a problem, but tries to unravel it:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">But this double “ώστε” in the beginning of vss. 16 and 17 creates a confusion to the exegetes who regard it as introducing a double conclusion from vss. 11-15.  And since, according to them, this cannot possibly be correct, they detach vs. 16 and connect vs. 17 with vs. 15 as its actual conclusion.  (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>Fourth, Voulgaris reconstructs the conditions and results so v. 16 stands as part of the overall passage:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Grammatically, this is not so as overlooking certain facts, and first of all the fact that vs. 16 contains two complete clauses separated by a semicolon.  This first clause (16a) is a result clause related directly to vss. 14-15.  The second clause (16b) is a concessive clause introduced by “ει και”<a name="_ednref25"></a>, which commonly admits that a condition exists (granting that), but does not regard it as a hindrance<a name="_ednref26"></a>.  Then vs. 17 begins naturally with a conditional sentence by “ώστε” which gives it the form of a conclusion.  This successive use of two consecutive clauses is not unusual, as W. Schmithals thinks<a name="_ednref27"></a>, but it serves to emphasize the conclusion or expand it further into a new direction. (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>Finally, Voulgaris says this proves all the verses are conjoined on one topic:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Summing up, we believe that 2 Cor. 5:11-21 is a literary unit distinguished for its organic coherence.</p>
<p>But what does this prove? How does this impact interpetation? He says verse 16 is added to undermine the assumption of the opponents of Paul. But this seems in line with how Bultmann reads the passage. Voulgaris explains:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">This is followed by his conclusion (vs. 16) which is <strong><em>contrary to the assumption of his opponents (not stated but implied)</em></strong> and is expanded into a new direction (vs.17 which is developed then into a wider theological statement (vss.18ff). (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>Voulgaris then says for us to understand "according to the flesh" in verse 16 we should realize Paul has taught the abolition of the Law to the Corinthians:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The abolition of the law, of circumcision and of the descent from Abraham Paul had made absolutely clear to the Corinthians during his visit to them to preach the Gospel (cf.1 Cor. 2:1f) and repeated it in his first letter (1 Cor.1:22f; 7:17-20).  He also stated here that “ούτως εν ταις εκκλησίαις πάσαις διατάσσομαι” (1 Cor.7:17).</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The foregoing discussion helps us to understand better the meaning of “κατά σάρκαν” in vs. 16. (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>So what is this alternative interpretation?</p>
<p>Paul used " flesh" in different ways in other passages. In Gal. 1:16, Paul used it in an expression to say "man as such." Paul did not discuss his divine call with "man as such." In Gal. 2:20, Paul uses it in a phrase to mean a natural human relationship, <em>i.e.</em>, the bonds of Israel. In Romans 4:1 Paul speaks of Abraham as a natural human progenitor by this term "flesh." This leads to this conclusion by Voulgaris:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">It is to be noted that in all these cases “κατά σάρκα” modifies substantives and the reference is to <strong><em>natural human relationship</em></strong>, precisely to the Jews.  (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<p>This is a bit of a leap to say "flesh" in verse 16 points to "Jews" because in those other contexts that it happens to be Jews according to the flesh in view. It is an extrapolation or abstraction even in those other verses, and not what the word "flesh" actually means in them. More importantly, verse 16  of 2 Cor. does not limit the context to just Jews. Regardless, Voulgaris concludes -- and we include most of this so one can see the progression of his thought:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">In view of this situation therefore, the dilemma posed by scholars with respect to the correct meaning of  “κατά σάρκα” in 2 Cor. 5:16 cannot be regarded as a dilemma at all.  As in the other cases, so here, too, <strong><em>the reference is to natural human relationship</em></strong>.  The background is the same.  Paul refutes the ideas of his opponents referred to in vs. 12.  ****</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Now on the basis of Pauls explanation, we can infer the nature of the ideas of his opponents.  Pauls emphasis upon the universality of Christs death and resurrection leaves no doubt that his adversaries tried to minimize the independence of the Gospel from the law and turn it into an internal affair of the Jewish national and religious system on the basis of Christs descent “κατά σάρκα” from Abraham<a name="_ednref52"></a>.  In other words, they tried to present<strong><em> Christ as one of the great teachers of Judaism</em></strong>.  Undoubtedly this served the ultimate purpose of Judaism to maintain its national unity and eventually its very existence<a name="_ednref53"></a> in view of the Churchs expansion among Jews and Gentiles.  This, as was noted, constituted the most serious threat against the Churchs existence<a name="_ednref54"></a>.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">****</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Against the Jewish misconceptions regarding the Gospel, Paul opposes Christs love for all men stresses the universal character of his death.  Christs love, he says, forces us “συνέχει ημάς”<a name="_ednref55"></a> to assume that one died for all; therefore all died (vs. 14).  In other words, Christs death did not affect certain persons, but humanity  as a whole in its very nature.  And he died for all, he continues, so that those who live by having appropriated his death, “μηκέτι εαυτοίς ζώσιν αλλά τω υπέρ αυτών αποθανόντι και εγερθέντι” (vs. 15).  Therefore, from now on <strong><em>we regard no one according to his descent</em></strong> (“κατά σάρκα”); and even though <strong><em>we have known Christ as a Jew according to his descent, we know him thus no longer </em></strong>(vs. 16)<a name="_ednref56"></a>.  Thus whoever is in Christ, he is a new creation (“καινή κτίσις”); the <strong><em>old standards have passed away,</em></strong> behold everything has become new (vs. 17).</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">That this thesis is absolutely in line with Pauls expressed elsewhere needs not be mentioned.  (Voulgaris, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<h2>My Comment on Voulgaris</h2>
<p>Voulgaris wants us to understand that verse 16 means "we have known Christ as a Jew" rather than we have known him "according to the flesh." Voulgaris built this grand scheme up to make a point that is simply counter-textual. Paul did not say "Jew" when he used the word "flesh" in the verse examples cited by Voulgaris. The claim "flesh" means as a "Jew" was an abstraction, not an interpretation, by Voulgaris in 5:16 and those supposed proof texts. Moreover, the literal usage of the term "flesh" in those other passages simply concretely dealt with people or events which differ from verse 16.</p>
<p>Moreover, even if one conceded Voulgaris's point, so what? It is still compatible with what Bultman said. For if we no longer know Jesus as as Jew, it means we no longer know Jesus when He preached the Law's continuity in Matthew 5:17-19, and quoted the Law repeatedly in His earthly ministry. If Paul no longer wants us to know Jesus was a Jewish prophet, as Voulgaris's contends, it still carries the implication of what Bultmann said was Paul's express meaning. We can  supposedly dispense with the message of Jesus when in the flesh (of a Jew) and who taught Jewish legal principles because Paul has the greater message that the Law is abolished.</p>
<p>Indeed, Voulgaris himself says Paul declared the Law abolished, and thus the refutation of Jesus's words in Matt. 5:17-19 by Paul is plain and clear even in Voulgaris's mind. So whether "in the flesh" meant as a pre-ascension human as Bultmann claimed or as a Jew, as Voulgaris claimed, Paul meant for us to no longer know Jesus through that period of His teachings. We are supposedly only to know Jesus through the post-Ascension period which prior to John's Revelation would mean we were 100% to know Christ through Paul's gospel.</p>
<p>In sum, Voulgaris's highly strained argument which makes no great advance on reading the passage makes Bultmann's reading thus appear that much stronger if this is the kind of case one must raise to fight against it.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Adam Pastor: Anabaptist - Rejected Paul</h2>
<p>Adam Pastor was a famous Anabaptist preacher and elder/ <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=jqoaAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA58#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">bishop</a> who died in 1560. Pastor was trained in Greek, Hebrew and Latin. (Newman: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA79#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">79</a>.) He rejected Paul's doctrines as they conflicted with those of Christ. (See Dosker discussion below.) Pastor taught our duty is to preach Christ, and only His words. Pastor also taught that Jesus was Divine but only in the sense that God indwelled Him fully. Pastor said Jesus did not exist as an 'eternal' Son of God prior to coming to earth. Pastor denied the church had the power to kill or exile those who did not adhere to doctrine the 'church' endorsed. Dosker in his book <em>Dutch Anabaptists</em> says of Pastor: "He was unquestionably<strong><em> the most brilliant man and scholar</em></strong> in the entire Dutch Anabaptist community of his day." (Dosker, <em>Dutch Anabaptists</em> (1921) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=jqoaAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA58#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false"> 58</a>.)</p>
<p><a href="http://www.gameo.org/encyclopedia/contents/A264.html">The Anabaptist-Menonite Encylopedia Online</a> has this to say about Adam Pastor:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Adam Pastor (died 1560), originally called Roelof (Rudolph) Martens or Martin, born at Dorpen in Westphalia, was a Catholic priest at Aschendorf, gave up the office in 1533 and joined the Anabaptists, probably in Münster. He was one of Jan Bockelson's emissaries, but soon freed himself of Münsterite influence and united with the peaceful Anabaptists. Between 1543 and 1545 (in 1542 according to Vos, p. 102) he was ordained as elder by Menno Simons, took an active part in the conference at Lübeck, opposing Blesdijk, and was also at the conferences at Emden and Goch in 1547, at which Menno was chairman. At the latter he was <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=OFNGAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=adam%20pastor&amp;pg=PA194#v=onepage&amp;q=adam%20pastor&amp;f=false">banned</a> on the <strong><em>charge of denying the Trinity</em></strong>, but he <strong><em>continued his work as an Anabaptist preache</em></strong>r, especially along the Lower Rhine and in Münster. In Odenkirchen he headed a congregation which existed for a long time. In 1552 he had a meeting in Lübeck with Menno Simons where the <strong><em>deity of Christ and the Trinity </em></strong>were the subjects of a disputation. On this disputation see the second part of his only extant writing (with the exception of his Een Concordantie oft Register der ganscher Bibel, 1559), Underscheit tusschen rechte leer unde valsche leer der twistigen articulen (published by Samuel Cramer in<em> Bibliotheca Reformatoria Neerlandica</em> V, 361-581 with an excellent introduction, 317-59). The report of the disputation occupies pages 517-581. Other writings from his pen were: <em>Disputation mit Dirk  Philipps, Von der Barmherzigkeit Gottes, Von Menschengeboten, and Dit zijn die Articulen van Davidt Jorisz leere</em> . . .(originally written in Dutch), none of which have survived. He spent his last years wandering. He died between 1560 and 1570, probably in Münster, and was buried in Ueberwasser.</p>
<p>However, it is from Dosker that we learn that Pastor rejected Paul. In <em>T</em><em>he Dutch Anabaptist: the Stone lectures delivered at the Princeton  theological seminary</em> (Judson Press, 1921) by Henry Elias Dosker at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=jqoaAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=adam%20pastor&amp;pg=PA60#v=onepage&amp;q=adam%20pastor&amp;f=false">60</a>, we learn of Pastor's only surviving work -- <em>Contrast</em> or <em>Difference Between True Doctrine and False Doctrine</em>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body">He denied the Trinity, the preexistence of Christ, and the personality of the Holy Ghost. <strong><em>He evinced little sympathy with Paul, whose doctrine of salvation was apparently repugnant to him.</em></strong> <em><strong>Christ, his life, his words— that is the content of his religio</strong></em><strong><em>n</em></strong>. He was totally averse to the Miinster spirit, evidently a man of a clean life and a kindly disposition. He sided with the other Anabaptists in the rejection of infant baptism; but was against the overvaluation of adult baptism on faith. But he condemned the position of the David-Jorists, who, although they called themselves Anabaptists, permitted infant baptism, because they had no faith in any external application of the sacrament.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">In <em>Papers</em> of the American Society of Church History (1917) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Between%20True%20Doctrine%20and%20False%20Doctrine%20%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA89#v=onepage&amp;q=Between%20True%20Doctrine%20and%20False%20Doctrine%20%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">89</a>, it says Pastor explained the difference between true preachers and false -- including going beyond Christ's words:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body">In the sixth section he points out the difference <span class="gstxt_hlt">between </span>preachers sent by God and such as run of themselves. He calls attention to the <span class="gstxt_hlt">true </span>and <span class="gstxt_hlt">false </span>prophets in the Old Testament time and insists that <span class="gstxt_hlt">true </span>prophets were so filled with the spirit of God that all selfish and human considerations were eliminated and they were able to speak God's pure truth to their contemporaries. Christ was sent by his Father. He in turn sent forth the Apostles. They in turn ordained and sent forth those who were like-minded and were called by God and qualified for the proclamation of the gospel. <span class="gstxt_hlt">True </span>preachers are those <strong><em>who preach what their sender commissions them to preach and nothing else</em></strong>. He takes Jesus' statement of his own mission in John v. and vii. as applicable to Christian preachers, where he speaks of having come in the name of his Father and been<strong><em> rejected by those who will receive another who shall come in his own name</em></strong>. And again: "He that <em><strong>speaketh from himself seeketh his own glory</strong></em>: but he that seeketh the glory of him that sent him, the same is <span class="gstxt_hlt">true, </span>and no unrighteousness is in him." As holy men of old spake as they were moved by the Holy Spirit, so should the Christian preacher.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">What was the salvation doctrine that Pastor found in Scripture? What Jesus taught, which should not be surprising:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body">In the seventh section on <span class="gstxt_hlt">true </span>and <span class="gstxt_hlt">false </span>repentance or penitence he discusses the corresponding words in Greek and Hebrew and <em><strong>insists on heartfelt sorrow for sin and a turning away from it in obedience to the will of God, as essential.</strong></em> He directs his polemics chiefly against the Roman Catholic <span class="gstxt_hlt">doctrine </span>and practice, with its priestly absolution, resting on the power of the keys bestowed upon Peter and his successors to secure the binding and loosing of souls on earth and in heaven. The only way in which any man can bind or loose is to have such spiritual discernment as to know the mind of God and the condition of the soul of the penitent. No man can forgive sin, who has not the Holy Spirit and whose own sins are not forgiven. It is <strong><em>a </em></strong><span class="gstxt_hlt"><strong><em>false </em></strong></span><strong><em>binding to kill or banish</em></strong>. The only penalty Christ approves is exclusion from fellowship and treating impenitent sinners as heathen and publicans." <em>Id.</em>, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Between%20True%20Doctrine%20and%20False%20Doctrine%20%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA91#v=onepage&amp;q=Between%20True%20Doctrine%20and%20False%20Doctrine%20%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">91</a>.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">Pastor proves that salvation is "more than assent to a proposition." <em>Id., at </em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Between%20True%20Doctrine%20and%20False%20Doctrine%20%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA92#v=onepage&amp;q=Between%20True%20Doctrine%20and%20False%20Doctrine%20%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">92</a>.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">Of <span class="gstxt_hlt">Adam Pastor, </span>whom we will meet again, we read in Dosker.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body">His influence <strong><em>survived for a long time</em></strong>, for as late as 1628, some Flemings, the " Contra-house-buyers " (<em>Contra-huiskoopers)</em>—a great name for a sect of believers— are mentioned as adherents of Arius and <span class="gstxt_hlt">Adam Pastor. </span>He unquestionably prepared the way for the reception of Socinianism in Northern Europe and inoculated Anabaptism with it. His motto evidently was <em>Intelligo ut credam; </em>what he could not understand he would not believe....(Dosker at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=jqoaAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=adam%20pastor&amp;pg=PA60#v=onepage&amp;q=adam%20pastor&amp;f=false">60</a>.)</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">Incidentally, Pastor said he believed in Jesus's divinity. Here is a summary of his book <em>Contrast Between True and False Doctrine </em>along with corrections refuting exaggerations of Pastor's views. It is John Horsch, <em>Menno Simons, his life, labors, and teachings</em> (Mennonite Publishing: 1916) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=OFNGAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=adam%20pastor&amp;pg=PA194#v=onepage&amp;q=adam%20pastor&amp;f=false">194</a>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body"><span class="gstxt_hlt">Pastor </span>asserts that he<em><strong> does not deny the divine nature in Christ</strong></em>,<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>2</sup></span> but nevertheless he holds that He <strong><em>did not exist as the Son of God previous to His coming into the world</em></strong>, and was<strong><em> divine only in the sense that God dwelled in Him</em></strong>....<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>3</sup></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body">The Bible was for him the<em><strong> only authority</strong></em> in matters of faith.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>6</sup></span> He says in the course of a debate, "Where is this written? I do not believe reason; give me Scripture to prove this."<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>7</sup></span> He defends the doctrine of the atonement. Not through the "fruit of the vine," in communion, he says, but "through the blood which flowed from Christ's wounds" <em><strong>we have forgiveness of sin</strong></em>. Christ paid the debt of the first <span class="gstxt_hlt">Adam. </span>He only is the Redeemer, "the only Mediator between his Father and fallen man;" through His merit and blood alone are we saved.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>8</sup></span> In view of the assertion that <span class="gstxt_hlt">Pastor </span>held "liberal views touching the church," it should be noted that he is quite outspoken in <strong><em>denouncing the teachers of false doctrine</em></strong>, principally the priests of the national church, whose sermons he forbid his followers to hear.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>9</sup></span> The idea of the purity of the church and the perfection of the believers he carried to a point considered unsound by Menno Simons.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>10</sup></span> Concerning "avoidance" he taught that eating and drinking with the excommunicated is forbidden, but in the <em>Disputation </em>he says, the excommunicated should be held as the world.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>11</sup></span> He believed that<strong><em> ministers should not be chosen by the church, but direct of God</em></strong>. The doctrine of non-resistance is not found in his extant writings. On the oath also he seems to have differed from Menno and his friends.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>12</sup></span> That he did not teach the resurrection of the body is a groundless assumption.<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>18</sup></span> Pastor's denial of the true divinity of Christ was considered a grave offense by the Mennonites. This is evident from the strong opposition of Menno Simons, the spokesman of the Brethren, against <span class="gstxt_hlt">Pastor, </span>and further from the fact that he succeeded to win to his views only a small company of those among whom he had formerly labored. Menno wrote his <em>Confession of the Triune God </em>in vindication of the <strong><em>deity of Christ</em></strong>. In no uncertain tones and with the full conviction that the scriptural truth was on his side and that a most fundamental doctrine of the Gospel was at stake, he warned the church of this new teaching. S. Cramer has asserted that Menno's defence is "neither convincing nor strong"<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>14</sup></span> but J. G. de Hoop Scheffer finds that Menno in this book made "a strong confession, a pressing demand without any reservation, he showed zeal over a matter for which he was willing to die, if need be,"<span class="gstxt_sup"><sup>15</sup></span> a view with which the unbiased reader will doubtless concur.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">Anthony Buzzard explains what impelled Adam Pastor to insist on a correct Christology:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="gtxt_body">In 1547, however, it became apparent that Pastor differed sharply from the Melchiorite Christology of Menno. The Melchiorites believed that even the<strong><em> flesh of Christ was not derived from Mary</em></strong>, but had descended from heaven. For Pastor this belief seemed plainly to threaten the humanity of Christ. (A. Buzzard, "Adam Pastor, Anti-Trinitarian Anabaptist," Volume 3, Issue 3 (Spring 1994)<span> </span> <span> </span> available online at this<a href="http://www.abc-coggc.org/jrad/volume3/issue3/jrad_v03.3_art3.htm"> link</a>.)</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">Buzzard continues and shows the nuances of argument over the point of how Jesus became the Son of God. Dietrich Philips whom Buzzard mentions was the one who urged Menno to excommunicate Pastor:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Dietrich Philips himself held to a form of subordinationist Christology with his belief that th</span><strong><span style="font-weight: normal;">e</span><em> Son had been given a body</em></strong><span> by the Word</span><em><strong> sometime before the birth of Christ</strong></em><span>. Pastor rejected the notion of personal preexistence in any form and espoused what Raymond Brown<a name="_ednref2"></a> appropriately calls “conception Christology.” It should be noted that G.H. Williams reference to Pastors Christology as “adoptionism”<a name="_ednref3"></a> is not strictly accurate. Adoptionism, as generally defined, posits that Christ <em>became</em> the Son of God at his baptism. “Conception Christology” describes the belief that Jesus miraculous conception in Mary brought him into being as Son of God. It therefore rejects as unscriptural the Chalcedonian and Athanasian belief in the “eternal generation” and preexistence of the Son.</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>The “conception Christology” of Adam Pastor corresponds with what Raymond Brown maintains is the Christology of Matthew and Luke:</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>In the commentary [<em>The Birth of the Messiah</em>] I shall stress that Matthew and Luke show no knowledge of preexistence; seemingly for them the conception was the becoming (begetting) of Gods Son.<span class="MsoEndnoteReference"><a name="_ednref4"></a> <em>Id.</em></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Buzzard then gives us some final discussion on the later impact in Poland by Adam Pastor:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Adam Pastor was “earnest and critical, but remained mild, reverent and comprehensive in his arguments against the Nicene formulation.”<a name="_ednref5"></a> His influence spread to Cracow where many of the same Scriptural arguments reappear amongst the Polish unitarian Anabaptists. <em>The Racovian Catechism</em> of 1574 acknowledges the importance of Pastors work in the following note:</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Another antitrinitarian of this period was Adam Pastor, a man of great learning, who had previously borne the name of Rudolphus Martin. He belonged to the Anabaptists of Frisia, from whose society he was excluded about 1546, on account of his sentiments concerning the Trinity, having before held a public disputation at Goch in the Duchy of Cleves, with Theodore Philips and Menno Simonis. He maintained that the Father alone was the true God. . . . In the year 1546, a native of Holland, who went by the name of Spiritus, but who is supposed on good grounds to have been Adam Pastor, already noticed above, settled at Cracow. Being one day in the library of John Tricessius, a person of high celebrity in that city, distinguished for his literary acquirements, who had invited him to meet some of the most eminent men of the place, he took down by accident a book wherein he observed prayers addressed to the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. He immediately exclaimed—“What! Have you then three Gods?” The conversation to which this question led made a deep impression on the minds of all the party, but especially on that of Andrew Fricius Modrevius, the kings secretary, who shortly afterwards, in consequence of prosecuting his inquiries upon the subject, abandoned the doctrine of the Trinity, and appeared as the open advocate of Unitarianism in a work which he published under the title of<em> Sylvae</em>. This proved an important event to the new settlers, and greatly contributed to the spread and establishment of their new opinions.<a name="_ednref6"></a></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Buzzard identifies where more information on Pastor can be found:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>The fullest account of Adam Pastors work is given by A.H. Newman in a paper read to the American Society of Church History, on December 28, 1914. Newman notes that:</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>many of the most conscientious and profoundly religious thinkers of the 16th century [were led to] reject simultaneously the baptism of infants and the traditional doctrine of the Trinity . . . The doctrine of the tripersonality of God as set forth in the Nicene and Athanasian creeds, involving the coeternity and consubstantiality of the Son with the Father and the personality of the Holy Spirit, they subjected to searching and fundamental criticism.<a name="_ednref10"></a></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Whether we agree or not with Pastor, he is a role model above reproach:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;">Adam Pastor, who was born in Dorpen, Westphalia ca. 1510, was “among the most learned, the most Scriptural, the most logical and the most devout” of those who rejected orthodox views of the two natures in Christ.<a name="_ednref12"></a> Dr. F. Pijper of Leyden describes Pastors exegesis and insight into the Bible as:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 60px;" class="MsoNormal"><span>sound, honorable and unprejudiced in a degree rarely met in the sixteenth century, as, though learned, absolutely</span><strong><em> free from</em></strong><span> the slightest suggestion of scholasticism and dogmatism, as well as from </span><strong><em>sharpness and arrogance in polemics, as warm and devotional, as well as vital, fresh and original in thought</em></strong><span>.<a name="_ednref13"></a>[Quoting Newman's article at</span><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA78#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false"> 78</a><span>.]</span></p>
<p>Adam Pastor left a significant following, and they became avowedly anti-Trinitarian:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>There is no doubt that Pastor was taken with Erasmus advocacy of freedom of exploration in all matters of doctrine. This pursuit of truth led him to reject much of the teaching traditionally connected with the faith.</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>After his excommunication at the hands of Menno Simons in 1547, several of the anti-paedobaptist congregations sided with Adam Pastor and from this time onwards he was regarded as the head of an Anabaptist sect known as “Adam Pastorians” or “Adamites.” A number of these congregations persisted until the early seventeenth century when:</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>a large proportion of the Mennonites under Socinian influence became anti-Trinitarian in sentiment. . . . Johannes Anastasius in 1554 places Pastor side by side with Menno as the head of an Anabaptist party. A year later Cassander wrote, “Two outstanding leaders of the Anabaptists today, Menno Simons and Adam Pastor, are as it were in a state of civil war with each other.”<a name="_ednref14"></a></span></p>
<p>Adam Pastor saw in Paul proof that Jesus was not God (albeit divinely indwelled):</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Adam Pastor brings together an exhaustive array of biblical texts which teach the oneness and soleness of God, and those which explicitly distinguish Jesus Christ from God. John 17:3 is a favorite verse, as always amongst evangelical unitarians: “This is eternal life: that they may know Thee [the Father], the only true God, and him whom Thou didst send, Jesus Christ.” He adds<strong><em> I Cor. 8:6 and I Tim. 2:5 which likewise expressly define the Father as the One God as distinct from Jesus who is the “man Messiah.”</em></strong> He insists that Jesus and the Holy Spirit cannot be regarded as divine personalities in the same sense as the Father. God is a single person. Obviously, with his stress on the humanity of Jesus, Pastor disagrees with Menno Simons “Eutychian” view that Christs body was a “human body” but not “the body of a man.” Further, Pastor objects to the notion that the eternal Logos, conceived of as a Person of the Trinity, could have been changed into flesh. How could He, as God, have died? How could He have been tempted? Pastor wants us to believe that only the Father has immortality inherent within Himself and that Jesus was foreknown before his birth (I Pet. 1:20), preexisting “notionally” or “ideally” rather than actually. (Buzzard, <em>id.</em>)</p>
<h2>Further Research</h2>
<p>Albert Newman, "Adam Pastor, Antitrinitarian, Antipaedobaptist," <em>American Society of Church History</em> (1917) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA75#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">75</a> et seq.</p>
<p>Pastor's only extent writing was <em>Underscheit tusschen rechte unde valsche leer der twistigen articulen, de hyr vor angetekent syn: dorch A.P. </em><span>(Newman: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA83#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false">83</a>.)</span></p>
<p>For Pastor's argument that the trinity is at odds with John 17:3 and 1 Cor. 8:6, see Newman:<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=zXwYAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;pg=PA85#v=onepage&amp;q=%22adam%20pastor%22&amp;f=false"> 85</a>. "He does not formally draw the inference that the orthodox trinitarianism is tritheism and that to accept and to worship Jesus Christ as God is idolatrous; but this he clearly intends to teach." <em>Id.</em></p>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Apollyon - Who Is This?</h2>
<p>In Revelation 9 we read of a king of the bottomless pit named Apollyon:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><sup>7</sup><span> The locusts looked like horses prepared for battle. On their heads they wore something like crowns of gold, and their faces resembled human faces.</span><sup>8</sup><span> Their hair was like womens hair, and their teeth were like lions teeth. </span><sup>9 </sup><span>They had breastplates like breastplates of iron, and the sound of their wings was like the thundering of many horses and chariots rushing into battle. </span><sup>10</sup><span> They had tails with stingers, like <em><strong>scorpions</strong></em>, and in their tails they had power to torment people for five months. </span><sup>11</sup><span> They had as king over them the angel of the Abyss, whose name in Hebrew is Abaddon and in Greek is <strong><em>Apollyon</em></strong> (that is, Destroyer). (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation+9&amp;version=NIV">Rev. 9:7-11 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p>Who is Apollyon among the Greeks?</p>
<h2>Could this be Apollo?</h2>
<p>In Roman mythology, he was "second only to Zeus, [and] he had the power of the <em>sun</em> as giver of light and life." This was because the moon could block out / destroy the Sun's light at will, proven by the the lunar eclipses by the Moon of the Sun. (Encyclopedia of Religions (2006) at this<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=XRkfKdho-5cC&amp;lpg=PT67&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PT67#v=onepage&amp;q=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;f=false"> link</a>.)</p>
<p>In Greek culture, the God of the Sun was Helios. But transliterations in Greek of Romanwords was not uncommon. Paulos is Greek for Paulus, a Roman first name, for example. So was Apollyon a Greek transliteration of Apollo, a Latin term for the Sun God?</p>
<p>On the plane of scholarly opinion, Hensius says indeed Apollyon in Revelation 9:11 means Apollo.</p>
<p>In the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Edinburgh Encyclopedia</span> (ed. David Brewster) (J.&amp;E. Parker, 1832) Vol. II at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=FKxGAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PA230#v=onepage&amp;q=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;f=false">230</a>, it records:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">On this passage, Hensius makes the following observation: There can be no doubt that the Pythian Apollo is the same as the Ob and Abaddon of the Hebrews which the Greeks translated literally as Apollyon.</p>
<p>Why did John write Apollyon meant destroyer? As the same encyclopedia continues, the name Apollyon "derived his name from his hurtful rather than his beneficent qualifies." <em>Id. </em>This is based upon several proofs. One was a passage in Aulus Gellius, l. 5 c. 12 (Book 5, ch. 12). He describes the image of Vejovis, an ancient pagan deity. "The image of Vejovis holds arrows in his hands, as the instruments of destruction, on which account, most people think that he is the same as Apollo." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=FKxGAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PA230#v=onepage&amp;q=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;f=false">230</a>. It was an ancient view that "all who died" were killed by the "arrows" of Apollo and Diana. <em>Id. </em><em>The encyclopedia cites Zosim, l.2., hist. Titus, Lives l. 37, Macrob Saturn, l. i. c. 17. Thus, the encyclopedia article says that Apollo began as a "malignant deity" until over time he became the refined "elegant deity of the Greeks and Romans." <em>Id.</em></em></p>
<p>Further, the encyclopedia continues that according to Vossius, De Idol vol. i, l. 2, "supposes that the name Apollo is derived from Abelion of the east, a deity whose attributes are the same as Apollo's." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=FKxGAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PA230#v=onepage&amp;q=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;f=false">230</a>.</p>
<p>Less scholarly opinion likewise concurs.</p>
<p>Professors <a href="http://www.google.com/search?tbo=p&amp;tbm=bks&amp;q=inauthor:%22Gary+Flanigan%22" class="secondary"><span dir="ltr">Gary Flanigan</span></a><span>, </span><span dir="ltr"><a href="http://www.google.com/search?tbo=p&amp;tbm=bks&amp;q=inauthor:%22Glenn+Williams%22" class="secondary">Glenn Williams</a> in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">111: </span></span><span class="subtitle"><span dir="ltr"><span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Media War Between Jesus Christ and Satan</span></span></span> (Tate, 2008) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=tcDzPvT9dFsC&amp;lpg=PA131&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PA131#v=onepage&amp;q=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;f=false">131</a> explain that "Apollo and Apollyon are one and the same" in Revelation 9:11.</p>
<p>In Wakeman Ryno's work<span style="text-decoration: underline;"> Amen: The God of the Amonians Or a Key to the Mansions in Heaven</span> (Kessinger 2006) says at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=5MbQPTgQ6cYC&amp;lpg=PA121&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PA121#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">121</a> of Revelation 9:11 signifies that:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>Satan, Belial, Lucifer, Abaddon, and</span><em>Apollyon</em><span> are all one and the same — the </span><em>Sun</em><span> {</span><em>Apollo</em><span>) in the Sign of the Scorpion</span><wbr /><span>, the king of the bottomless pit, </span></p>
<p>William Henry in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Mary Magdalene, The Great Illuminator</span> (2006) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=I9honL070lMC&amp;lpg=PA62&amp;dq=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;pg=PA62#v=onepage&amp;q=apollyon%20apollo%20sun%20god&amp;f=false">62</a> says:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>According to Greek legend, </span><em>Apollo</em><span>, the </span><em>Sun god</em><span> (Sol god or Soul god) who founded the great Temple at Delphi, usually took the form of a serpent. In the bible he is </span><em>Apollyon</em><span>, the "angel of the bottomless pit" in Revelation 9:11.</span></p> </td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Appendix A: Greek Issues</h2>
<div><strong>Calvinists Admit Continuity Is Intended Meaning </strong>
<p><a name="pgfId=464098"></a>Calvinists have always cited the Book of John to argue a one-time coming to Jesus guarantees salvation. Jesus will never thereafter cast you out. This is cited in support of their doctrine of perseverance of the saints. However, now even leading Calvinists concede the KJV mistranslated the verb for <strong>come</strong> as well as<strong> believe</strong> in the Book of John.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464100"></a>One of the leading advocates of Calvinist predestination is Dr. <a name="marker=464099"></a>James White. He is the author of Drawn by the Father: A Summary of John 6:35-45 (1999). He explains that the <a name="marker=464101"></a>present tense for "<strong>come</strong>" in John 6:37 as well as "<strong>believe</strong>," "<strong>see</strong>" and "<strong>hear</strong>" in other verses in <a name="marker=464102"></a>John's Gospel (<a name="marker=464103"></a>such as <a name="marker=464104"></a>John 3:16) signifies in Greek continuing action. He says:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464105"></a>Throughout this passage an important truth is presented that again might be missed by many English translations. When Jesus describes the one who comes to him and who believes in him (3:16, 5:24, 6:35, 37, 40, 47, etc.), he uses the<strong><em> present tense</em></strong> to describe this coming, believing, or, in other passages, hearing or seeing. The present tense refers to a <strong><em>continuous, on-going action</em></strong>. The Greek <em><strong>contrasts this kind of action against the aorist tense</strong></em>, which is a<em><strong> point action, a single action in time that is not on-going</strong></em>.... The wonderful promises that are provided by Christ are not for those who do not truly and continuously believe. The faith that saves is a living faith, a faith that always looks to Christ as Lord and Savior. (White, id., at 10-11)(emphasis added).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464106"></a>Please note Dr. White realizes "many English translations" erroneously translate Jesus' words in John's Gospel. (In fact, in English, only the Young's Literal translates the verbs in John's Gospel correctly.) Please also note that Dr. White concedes that a correct translation of Jesus' words in John's Gospel would mean a "continuous ongoing action" is necessary to be saved. Jesus' true meaning is that if you "don't truly and continuously believe" you will not be saved. Jesus' true words are salvation depends on "always looking to Christ as our Lord and Savior." So when Jesus tells us if we "believe for a while" but later sin--"fall into temptation"--that we are deemed "withered" (i.e., dead) (Luke 8:13), we must regard obedience to God/Jesus as necessary to salvation. Cf. John 3:36, 8:51 (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464107"></a>Dr. White's recognition of Jesus' true meaning shows even Calvinists are beginning to acknowledge the Greek present active tense radically changes the picture. When will we change our doctrines? When will we say that a faith that endures saves (<a name="marker=464108"></a>Matt. 10:22) while those who "continue to believe for a while" but in time of temptation sin and "fall away" are not saved? (<a name="marker=464109"></a>Luke 8:13.) When will Jesus' words have such priority that we no longer listen to any tradition which might teach otherwise?</p>
<p class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464111"></a></p>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<a name="20909"></a><strong><span style="font-size: medium;">Experts Explain How the Book of John's Meaning Changes On Salvation Doctrine </span></strong>
<p><a name="pgfId=464116"></a>The dramatic impact of a correct translation of the Greek present participle active in John's Gospel is explained by an expert on Greek, Professor Dale <a name="marker=464117"></a>Moody. He was a pastor and then for forty years Professor of Christian Theology at Southern Baptist Theological Seminary. In The Word of Truth (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1981), Professor Moody at page 357 explains what <a name="marker=464118"></a>John 10:27-29 really means in the original Greek. In doing so, Professor Moody explains how a proper translation of the Greek present participles overturns the popular notion that a one-time coming to Christ eternally secures your salvation.<a name="marker=464119"></a></p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464120"></a>John 10:28 is frequently used as a security blanket by those who ignore many of the New Testament warnings about going back or falling away, but a literal translation of John 10:27-28... hardly needs explanation... `My sheep keep on hearing my voice, and I keep on knowing them, and they keep on following me: and I keep on giving them eternal life, and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of my hand.' Some read the passage as if it says: `My sheep heard my voice, and I knew them, and they followed me, and I gave to them eternal life.' [But] <strong><em>[t]he verbs are present linear, indicating continuous action by the sheep and by the Shepherd, not the punctiliar fallacy of the past tense</em></strong>.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464122"></a>Those who should be secure in verses 28-29 are those sheep in verse 27 who keep on listening and keep on following. You are not secure based upon one-time having followed Jesus or one-time having listened to Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a>Now we can understand that John 3:16 is promising those who "keep on trusting" in Jesus should be saved. The <a name="marker=464124"></a>meaning of John 3:16 is therefore likewise reversed when its grammar is properly reflected. This verse is talking about salvation by endurance in trust, not salvation by a one-time faith.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464126"></a>Likewise consider <a name="marker=464125"></a>John 5:24. In our KJV this verse reads, "whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned; he has crossed over from death to life." In English, this means that if you once heard the word and just once believed it, you have crossed into the saved list. Right? But in the original Greek, the verbs for hears and believes are both present participles active. (See Interlinear Scripture Analyzer.) (Also, the "will not be condemned" is in the present middle passive deponent, not the future tense.) So what does this verse really say? It really should be translated: "whoever keeps listening to my word and continues to trust Him who sent me keeps on having eternal life and is not coming into judgment; he has stepped out of death into life." (See Interlinear Scripture Analyzer.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464128"></a>When we translate accurately John 10:27-29 and John 5:24, there is a dramatic reversal of meaning from what we all assumed Jesus was saying in <a name="marker=464129"></a>John's Gospel. Yet it is a truth that was always there. It was simply obscured for hundreds of years by its mistranslation in the KJV in 1611. (The Latin Vulgate which predominated prior to the KJV conveys the correct Greek meaning. Latin verb tenses have an identical correspondence to Greek verbs in their function.) It was also hidden by all other modern English translations that were not willing or courageous enough to repair the KJV error. Young's Literal Translation is a notable exception, translating the verb tenses accurately.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a>Grammar experts below will explain in depth what Mr. White conceded. They will concur unanimously that what Professor Moody taught is the only proper understanding of the Greek involved. This issue deserves serious unbiased consideration in light of the significant impact it has on doctrine.</p>
<p class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464131"></a></p>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<strong><span style="font-size: medium;"> Grammar Pros on Greek Present Tense </span></strong>
<p><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>What is the present tense in Greek? One Greek grammar text explains the <a name="marker=464133"></a>present tense and its meaning as follows:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464134"></a>The present tense is basically linear or durative, ongoing in its kind of action. The durative notion may be expressed graphically by an unbroken line (--), since the action is simply continuous. This is known as the progressive present. Refinements of this general rule will be encountered; however, the fundamental distinction will not be negated.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464137" class="footnote"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464140"></a>Dana and Mantey in their A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament likewise explain the Greek present tense has a primary meaning of action in progress. Dana and Mantey explain the present progressive (active) tense thusly:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464141"></a>The fundamental significance of the present tense is the idea of progress. It is the linear tense... the progressive force of the present tense should always be considered as primary, especially with reference to the potential moods, which in the nature of the case do not need any `present punctiliar' tense...</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464142"></a>There are three varieties of the present tense in which its fundamental idea of progress is especially patent. Under the Progressive Present...[t]his use is manifestly nearest the root idea of the tense. It signifies action in progress, or state of persistence....</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464143"></a>Rydberg likewise explains:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464144"></a>Present. The present tense denotes an action in the present time with continuing aspect.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464147" class="footnote"> 2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a>Rydberg is saying the present tense in Greek signifies a continuing sense.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a>Within the Greek present tense are two distinct active forms. These two are the present indicative active and the present participle active. There is a slight difference as to the latter which is always to be translated with a continuing sense. The Syntax Reference Guide (Quick Verse 6.0) provides this further explanation, starting first with the present indicative:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a>Present. Definition-Present tense in the indicative mood represents current action, as opposed to past or future action. In moods other than the indicative mood, it refers only to continuous or repeated action.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a>Thus, this means the present participle active (as in John 3:16) falls in the category of a mood "other than the indicative." It thus signifies "only...continuous or repeated action."</p>
<p class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a></p>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<span style="font-size: medium;"><strong> Contrast the Aorist Tense </strong></span>
<p><a name="pgfId=464154"></a>What makes it clear that the Greek present active tense is continuous is that in Greek grammar we have the <a name="marker=464155"></a>aorist tense.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a>The aorist tense signifies a punctiliar meaning. That is, it indicates a single point in time. Actually, it is such a singular point in time that it is without regard to past, present or future.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a>Some explain the aorist incorrectly as always translated into English with a past tense. Rather, to repeat, the aorist indicates a verb activity is one time and completed. It does not mean simply a past action. Such descriptions of the aorist miss the point that Greeks did not think so much in terms of past and present, like we do. They thought more in terms of continuous or one-time events.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464159"></a>For example, when Jesus says in <a name="marker=464158"></a>Matthew 10:22 that he who has kept on enduring to the end shall be saved, the word for saved is the aorist future of sozo. (Word Studies of the New Testament.) Jesus means that he who kept on enduring to the end shall be saved (aorist future) enjoys this in a completed one-time sense in the future. The completion of your salvation is aorist punctiliar (single point-in-time) in the future.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464160"></a>So you can have the aorist tense even in the future. It is not always a past event. It is, instead, a completed one-time event.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a>Thus, for Greeks, their thinking was always "is this continuous, linear, and durative," or, rather, is this "one-time, punctiliar, and not enduring"?</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464162"></a>There is <strong><em>total consensus among non-Christian professionals on the proper manner of translating these Greek tenses</em></strong>. The Vroma Project on-line is an association of classic language scholars. They are un-attached to any Christian viewpoint. They are sponsored by the National Endowment for the Humanities. Vroma explains:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a>You know that the present indicative indicates continuous action in the present time and the future indicative indicates future time. (It is important to remember that what we call `present' represents continuous action in Greek. In the indicative form only it represents continuous action in the present time.)</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a>The verb epai-deuse is an example of the aorist. The Greek aorist indicates punctual action. In the indicative only, the aorist represents punctual action in the past.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464167" class="footnote"> 3</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a>Latin is similar. This helps explain why salvation doctrine did not take our modern twists and turns until the KJV in 1611 changed John's Gospel via translation. The rules in Latin are:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a>Verbs in non-indicative moods use the present to describe actions that are continuous or repeated; they use the aorist to describe actions that are single or finite.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464172" class="footnote"> 4</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464173"></a>Thus, none of our ancient forefathers for fifteen centuries who relied upon the Latin translation ever heard the familiar idea of salvation by a one-time faith that we read every day in<a name="marker=464174"></a>John 3:16. No wonder their doctrine differed.<a name="pgfId=464175"></a></p>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<strong><span style="font-size: medium;"> Precision Available To Say Whether A One-Time Faith Saves </span></strong>
<p><a name="pgfId=464177"></a>The presence of the Greek aorist tense is deadly to those who defend <a name="marker=464176"></a>translating <a name="marker=464178"></a>John 3:16 to imply faith is a one-time event. If John 3:16 had this meaning, the underlying verb should have been in the Greek <a name="marker=464179"></a>aorist instead of the present participle active. The very existence of the Greek aorist is dispositive proof that if a one-time faith saves, the aorist tense would have been used to convey such meaning in John 3:16. Its absence in John 3:16 thus prohibits using the equivalent of the aorist in English--believes. A correct translation should have used the English Continuous Present ("is believing") or a closer-to-original translation of "keeps on believing/trusting." The KJV mistranslated John 3:16. This has had a devastatingly misleading effect on our perception of what is entailed in salvation.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464181"></a>The unvarnished truth is that <a name="marker=464180"></a>John's Gospel uses the Greek present participle active in John 3:16. It does not use the aorist for believes.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464188"></a>Now compare this with the aorist active participle when used in a salvation passage. In Matthew 10:22, this aorist conveys a completed condition of endurance as what saves. Jesus says: "he who endured (aorist active participle) to the end shall be saved." A single-momentary faith is not promised salvation here. Only a lifetime of endurance is promised salvation. Thus, we see the Gospel writers knew how to use the aorist in relation to salvation in such a manner compatible with the true translation of John 3:16.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464192"></a>Accordingly, e very way you slice it, salvation is based on enduring to the end and not on a one time believing (trusting) in Jesus. A one time faith that has failed never can save and never will. The idea that a one-time faith means you are saved eternally is based on a fiction born from English <a name="marker=464193"></a>defective translation.<a name="pgfId=464195"></a></p>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<strong><span style="font-size: medium;"> The NIV Half-Step </span></strong>
<p><a name="pgfId=464198"></a>English simple present tense, as Stanley unwittingly proves in <em>Eternal Security: Can You Be Sure?</em>, is a leaking tense. Stanley says <a name="marker=464199"></a>believes means in English a one-time belief. Stanley proves this from many examples of the usage of the English simple present. (<a name="marker=464200"></a>Stanley, Eternal Security, supra, at 95). For example, Stanley points out that if I say "I live in Atlanta" that may be true today but it does not have to continue. It can become a one-time event and exist only in the past. So English simple present has a leaking meaning of a one-time event. Stanley did not realize the English-meaning corresponds to the Greek aorist present tense. "I live at this moment in Atlanta" in Greek aorist present can be translated into English as "I live in Atlanta." Therefore, even as <a name="marker=464201"></a>Stanley unwittingly admits, English simple present can convey the Greek aorist meaning.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a>English also has a tense known as the English Continuous Present. This is rendered "I am living" in Atlanta. So this emphasizes the action is ongoing and continuing. This is approximately what the meaning is for a Greek <a name="marker=464203"></a>present active tense.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464204"></a>The Greek present active tense means in fact the action will continue and progress in the same direction. This is true unless an adverb signals it is to last for "a while" or end at a certain time.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a>So when translating the Greek present active tense, translation experts often prefer adding "keeps on" or "continue to" in front of the English verb root. Thus, in the NIV, in <a name="marker=464206"></a>1 John 3:5 we find the two uses of the Greek present active tense of to sin translated once as "keep on sinning" and another time as "continue to sin."</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464207"></a>In fact, the NIV's frequent approach was to translate the Greek present active tenses using "keeps on" or "continues to" with the verb root plus ing. However, if the correct translation of the verb would affect the doctrines of faith alone or of eternal security, the NIV reverted to the KJV erroneous use of English simple present tense to translate Greek present active tenses.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464208"></a>For example, in 1 John 3:5, as just mentioned, the NIV twice correctly renders the present active (indicative) for the verb to sin by adding "keep on" once and "continues to" on the second occasion.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a>While the NIV made this correction over seventeen times to present active tenses, the KJV consistently did not correctly translate the Greek active (continuous) tenses. The KJV routinely<a name="marker=464210"></a>erred by using English simple present tense. These seventeen corrected verses in the <a name="marker=464211"></a>NIV include Matt. 24:42 (paim "keep watch" v. KJV "Watch");<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464597" class="footnote"> 5</a> Matt. 25:13 (paim "Keep watch" v. KJV "watch); John 15:20 (paim "keep in mind" v. KJV "know" v. literally "keep on understanding"); Acts 18:9 (paim "keep on speaking" v. KJV "speak"); Romans 7:19 (paind "I keep on doing" v. KJV "I do"); Romans 12:11 (ppa "keep your spiritual fervor" v. KJV "fervent" v. literally "continuing to be fervent"); Galatians 5:15 (paind "keep on biting" v. KJV "bite"); Galatians 5:25 (pasubj "keep in step" v. KJV "walk" v. literally "to Spirit also should keep on observing"); 1 Tim. 3:9 (ppa "they must keep hold" v. KJV "holding"v. literally "continuing to hold"); 2 Tim. 2:14 (paim "keep reminding" v. KJV "put in remembrance"); Heb. 10:26 (ppa "if we keep on sinning" v. KJV "if we sin").</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464212"></a>In six other places, the NIV uses "continue" to render the Greek active tenses. For example, Galatians 2:10 (pasubj "we should continue to remember" v. KJV "we should remember"); Col. 2:6 (paimp "continue to live" v. KJV "walk"); Heb. 6:10 (ppa "you continue to help" v. KJV "do minister"); 3 John 1:3 (paind "you continue to walk" v. KJV "thou walkest"). See also, 1 John 3:5 (paind "keep on sinning" and "continue to sin" v. KJV "sin" and "sin").</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464213"></a>All these verses, however, have one thing in common. Their correction by the NIV editors did not upset the Pauline doctrine of a one-time faith saves you. You can readily see this inconsistency. In fact, what makes it obvious is that four times above you can see that the same present participle active used in John 3:16 is translated in a continuous tense, but not in John 3:16. What explains this different treatment? We already saw that Greek does not mandate this difference. Rather, ancient Greek mandates there should be no difference in John 3:16 than in those four instances where the NIV rendered it with a continuous sense. Wherever we find a present participle active, it should be rendered with a continuous meaning. This leaves doctrinal considerations as the most likely culprit to explain the difference.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464226"></a>Whatever their explanation, it is a fact the NIV translators <a name="marker=464214"></a>never fixed the present active tenses in any verse that would flip it from Pauline-salvation formulas to Jesus' message of an enduring faith that saves. Thus, the NIV leaves alone <a name="marker=464216"></a>the pivotal verse for so many: John 3:16. This verse really says all those who "keep on believing/trusting" should not perish but should have eternal life.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464219" class="footnote"> 6</a> The NIV left it "who believes." In English, believes can mean a one-time faith, as Charles Stanley abundantly proved in Eternal Security, supra, at 95. The NIV version thereby left intact doctrine that had become encrusted in reliance on the KJV defective translation. The simple fact is the Greeks had the aorist tense if a one-time faith was what Jesus intended to endorse as a predicate for what should make you saved. Yet any notion that a one-time faith is the true predicate is emphatically erased by the use in John 3:16 of the present participle active of believes, meaning "he who keeps on believing" (or "trusting") should be saved.<a name="pgfId=458247"></a></p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464137"></a>James Hewitt, New Testament Greek (Hedrickson Publishers: 1986) at 13.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464147"></a>See "Jeffrey Rydberg Cox Overview of Greek Syntax," <em>WH Greek New Testament</em> (Tuft's University on-line).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464167"></a>http://www.vroma.org/~abarker/tschapelevtwelve.html (last visited 1-2006).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464172"></a>See http://www.latin-uk-online.com/heuix/aspect.html (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="FootnoteApp"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464597"></a>The abbreviations are: pap = present participle active; paind = present active indicative; paimp = present active imperative; and pasubj = present active subjunctive.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464219"></a>It is should have eternal life, as the KJV has it, not shall as the NIV renders it. See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#19085" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Appendix B: How The Canon Was Formed</h2>
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<h2 class="Heading1Appendix">First Written Canon (64-70 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464398"></a><a name="31791"></a>The first written Christian canon was proposed by the <a name="marker=464397"></a>Ebionites. They said it was only the book of Matthew in Hebrew. As explained in the main text, the Ebionites knew of Paul, but excluded Paul as a false apostle because he rejected the Law of Moses.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464404" class="footnote"> 1</a> There is no indication that they knew of Luke's or Mark's gospels. Nor is there any evidence they heard of John's Gospel or Revelation. Therefore, we can deduce this simple canon list of the Ebionites was developed around 64 A.D. At that point, Paul's writings were in circulation, but neither Mark, Luke, John nor Revelation had yet been written. Since the original Ebionites apparently disappear upon the fall of Jerusalem in 70 A.D., it is safe to say their canon list was no later than 70 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464405"></a>This is often overlooked because mention is made of another group of Ebionites. However, they existed in the second century and are not necessarily to be linked organically to the first Ebionites. According to <a name="marker=464406"></a>Origen writing in about 200 A.D., another group calling themselves <a name="marker=464407"></a>Ebionites came along after the earlier Ebionites disappeared.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464410" class="footnote"> 2</a> Some historians lack this perspective, and thus do not date the Ebionite canon to the 64-70 A.D. period. However, it is more reasonable to infer that the original Ebionites existed as of 64 A.D. and then disappeared because of the fall of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. This would explain why they mention only Paul and the Hebrew Matthew, and fail to mention any other NT writing. Thus, the original Ebionites must date to about 64 A.D. when Paul's writings &amp; the Hebrew Matthew existed but nothing else was yet written for our NT.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464411"></a>Furthermore, as mentioned earlier, it is likely the earliest Ebionites are the Jerusalem Church under James which we see operating in Acts chapter 15. After James died, it dispersed by 70 A.D. when the Romans razed Jerusalem.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464414" class="footnote"> 3</a></p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464415"></a>
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<a name="16930"></a>Marcion's Canon (144 A.D.).</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464417"></a>In about 144 A.D., <a name="marker=464416"></a>Marcion (85-160 A.D.) publicly declared the only apostle who had the true message of Jesus was Paul. Marcion said the twelve apostles were misled to mix Judaism (the Law) with the gospel of Jesus. Marcion's canon primarily consisted of Paul's epistles.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464421" class="footnote"> 4</a> Marcion also added his own Gospel narrative of Jesus' life. In it, the narrative of Jesus' life appears almost identical to Luke's gospel. Marcion, however, omitted portions that detract from Pauline theology such as Jesus' emphasis on Law-keeping.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464424" class="footnote"> 5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464427"></a>Marcion also rejected the continuing validity of the Hebrew Scriptures, i.e., `the Old Testament.' Marcion did so claiming reliance upon Paul's chapter 4 of Galatians. Marcion claimed the God who delivered the Hebrew Scriptures was a different God than God, the Father of Jesus. Paul said in Galatians ch. 4 that if we submit to the Law of Moses, we are submitting to those who "are no gods." The Law rather was given by angels. This created a lesser-greater revelation distinction. This fed Marcion's lesser-greater God theory. Marcion also believed the gospel of Grace was so much about love and mercy that it excluded the God of Hebrew Scriptures. Yahweh of the `Old Testament' was at odds with Grace. He clearly wanted obedience to the Law. Marcion in his work Antitheses tried demonstrating from the Bible how the God of the New (relying on Paul) was different from the God of the Old. The Old would only save the obedient, while the God of the New would save all who believed even if they became disobedient. (Marcion, Antitheses # 19 (quoted at 49 supra.))</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464430"></a>John <a name="marker=464428"></a>Knox (not the reformer) summarizes <a name="marker=464429"></a>Marcion:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464431"></a>(1) The Creator of the world, although a real God, must be distinguished from the higher god, unknown except as he was revealed in Christ; (2) The Creator of the world is a just God, but sever[e] and harsh; the <strong><em>God whom Christ revealed is a Father, a God of love</em></strong>; (3) judgment is the prerogative of the Creator; redemption is<em><strong> the free gift </strong></em>of the God of love; (4) the <strong><em>Jewish Scriptures</em></strong> represent a true revelation of the Creator, but they <strong><em>do not speak of or for the God whom alone Christians ought to worship</em></strong> and from whom alone salvation from the present wicked world is to be received; (5) the revelation in Christ was intended not merely to supplement or `fulfil' Judaism but <strong><em>entirely to displace it</em></strong>--the one had no connection with the other; (6) the <strong><em>Son</em></strong> of the Father did <strong><em>not actually take sinful flesh but only appeared to do so</em></strong>; (7) there is no resurrection of the flesh [<em>i.e.</em>, only of the spirit]; and (8) <strong><em>Paul was the only true apostle</em></strong>, to whom Christ committed his gospel [of salvation by faith alone]--the <strong><em>other `apostles' were false and had misled the church</em></strong> [<em>i.e.</em>, by teaching works were also necessary].<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464434" class="footnote"> 6</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464435"></a>Thus, the second canon proposed about 144 A.D. was exclusively Paul and a truncated Gospel narrative that suited Marcion. This narrative is similar to Luke's gospel. The major difference is that the first three chapters of Luke are absent.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464438" class="footnote"> 7</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464439"></a>Marcion's proposition was at odds with the Ebionite view. The Ebionites had insisted the canon was only about Jesus, based exclusively upon the Hebrew version of Matthew. Marcion implicitly rejected this. Accordingly, it was predictable that the next canon lists were compromises between these two diametrically opposed views.</p>
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<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464440"></a>
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The Muratorian Fragment (170 A.D.? 350 A.D.?)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464441"></a>The Muratorian fragment was discovered in the 1700s in a Catholic monastery. The actual document is from the seventh or eighth century. The source from which it comes from has no easy means of identifying its date.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913338"></a>Initially, the Muratorian fragment was estimated to be from 170 A.D. For tradition-sake, it is placed at this juncture in the canon story. However, in 1992, an Oxford scholar put forth what appears to be a better reasoned case which dates it to the Fourth Century. It matches several canons in the East from that period. Geofrey Hahneman thus says the early dating would represent "an extraordinary anomaly on numerous counts."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=913319" class="footnote"> 8</a> I concur. If you simply read it without knowing the date ascribed, it has the clear scent of later Roman Catholic terminology.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913309"></a>Regardless of its dating, the Muratorian Fragment starts mid-sentence. It starts with an apparent list of approved reading materials. It starts saying Luke is the "third" gospel. It is fair to assume Matthew and Mark were first mentioned. Then it continues its list:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464442"></a>John, Acts, the Epistles of Paul (Corinthians (2), Galatians, Romans, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Thessalonians (2), Philemon, Titus, Timothy (2)), John's Apocalypse, Jude, John's epistles (2) [N.B. not 3], the Apocalypse of Peter [although] some of us are not willing [it] be read in church. <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464445" class="footnote">9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464446"></a>This omits all of the epistles of Peter and James. It drops Third John. Hebrews is not mentioned.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464447"></a>If this the Muratorian Fragment (MF) identifies canon as of 170 A.D., please note how early that John's Apocalypse (today known as Revelation) was accepted. Its subject matter alone is what created controversy one-hundred and fifty years later.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913347"></a>The MF lacks any clear mention that inspiration is the criteria for each book listed as canon. It speaks of `receiving' works. It does not ever suggest inspiration is the sole criteria for receiving.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913411"></a>In fact, in reference to Paul, the Muratorian Fragment describes Paul's works in a flat manner. It reads: "As to the epistles of Paul, again, to those who will understand the matter, they indicate of themselves what they are, and from what place or with what object they were directed."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=913367" class="footnote"> 10</a> There is no excitement that we have here inspired works. It is described in utter blandness. Then, slightly with more excitement, the MF refers to Paul's epistles to Timothy as follows: "[There are] two [epistles] to Timothy, in simple personal affection and love indeed; but yet these are hallowed in the esteem of the Catholic Church, and in the regulation of ecclesiastical discipline." This says clearly these two Pauline epistles were held as esteemed guides on how to institute discipline in the church. Otherwise, there is nothing more to imply about inspiration.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913404"></a>The MF also speaks of canon as including the Gospel of Luke but yet holding it in less than 100% certainty of its inspiration. As to Luke's Gospel, the MF says Luke is one who was "studious" and who "himself [never] saw the Lord in the flesh." Then it says Luke "according as he was able to accomplish it" wrote the nativity of John the Baptist. There human historical research, not inspiration, is ascribed to Luke. (This was precisely Tertullian's assessment of Luke's gospel as well in Against Marcion.) Since the MF regarded Luke as canon, but MF had an understanding it was included because it was reliable rather than inspired, one can recognize a test is at work other than inspiration. Canon was formed due to esteem or high regard or trust, not because each and every work was deemed inspired.</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464449"></a>
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<a name="31930"></a>Origen's List (240 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464450"></a>Origen said there were four Gospels. He mentions that Matthew was "composed as it was in the Hebrew language..." just as the Ebionites had claimed.</p>
<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464451"></a>A Word About the Hebrew Matthew</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464452"></a>Origen is the first mention of the Hebrew Matthew in the early lists outside the list of the Ebionites. Some people are surprised to learn Matthew was written originally in Hebrew, as the Ebionites earlier claimed. However, Eusebius in 325 A.D. agreed, and said the version we have today is a Greek translation of the Hebrew Matthew.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464455" class="footnote"> 11</a> Irenaeus too in 125 A.D. knew of the Hebrew Matthew which later became the Greek Matthew. As the Catholic Encyclopedia relates, "Irenæus...wrote about A.D. 125 [and] he speaks of Hebrew... Sayings of Christ, composed by St. Matthew, which there is reason to believe formed the basis of the canonical Gospel of that name."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464459" class="footnote"> 12</a> The Hebrew Matthew was also said to have been brought to India by the Apostle Bartholomew. Pantaenus, visiting India late in the second century, reported that "he found on his own arrival anticipated by some... to whom Bartholomew, one of the apostles, had preached, and had left them the Gospel of Matthew in Hebrew." (Eusebius quoted by H.J. Schonfield. <em>The History of Jewish Christianit</em>y (London: Duckworth, 1936) at 66.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=913442" class="footnote"> 13</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464460"></a>Incidentally, for some inexplicable reason, the early existence of the Hebrew Matthew is ignored in the scholarly analysis of the dating of the gospels as well as the order of their writing. This is apparently so because its very existence puts in doubt many pet theories to attack the gospels, such as the Marcan priority claim. Many scholars, typically liberal ones, argue that Matthew relied upon Mark. If true, this casts in doubt that Matthew, an apostle, wrote from an understanding he was inspired by the Holy Spirit. This Marcan priority claim, while not having a shred of evidence to support it,<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464463" class="footnote"> 14</a> has become modern dogma. It runs against the grain of the history we do have. Irenaeus in 125 A.D. and Origen in 240 A.D. both say Matthew came first. (Against Heresies 3.1.1. and Origen in Eusebius' <em>Eccl. Hist</em>.6.25.3-6.) Likewise, Augustine, writing in the 300s, said the evangelists "have written in this order: first Matthew, then Mark, third Luke, and last John." (<em>De Consensu Evangelistarum</em> I.3.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464464"></a>The Marcan priority claim crumbles if the Hebrew Matthew is acknowledged to exist and pre-exist the Greek version. For if Matthew came first in Hebrew, this explains perfectly why Mark--who as a Gentile at Rome evidently did not understand Hebrew--would not have included the Sermon on the Mount which is present in Matthew. Mark could not read Hebrew! Mark did not omit the Sermon on the Mount because of the frequently heard argument that the Gospel of Matthew did not exist yet. This omission of the Sermon by Mark--the main support for the Marcan priority claim--therefore vanishes as relevant evidence. No wonder no scholar wants to discuss the existence of the Hebrew Matthew. They fear their pet theory will evaporate. Conventional thinking has taken over.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464465"></a>Furthermore, the Hebrew Matthew affects dating issues as well. The Ebionites' reference to it appears to predate 70 A.D. The first Ebionites disappear at about that time, which supports their canon list predates 70 A.D., as explained above. Also, their canon list does not mention Mark, Luke, John or any other NT writing except Paul, whom they reject. Their canon list thus spans as early as 45 A.D. to 65 A.D., but not beyond. (See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#33448" class="XRef"></a>supra.) Thus, the Hebrew Matthew must have been written in that approximate time frame.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464469"></a>This matches the textual clues in the Gospel of Matthew itself. John A.T. Robinson in his book Redating the New Testament (SCM Press: 1976) rejects the modern dogma that Matthew was written in 85 A.D. He redates Matthew to 40-50 A.D. Robinson argues that because Matthew does not mention the fall of Jerusalem, which took place in 70 A.D., and Matthew includes Jesus' prophecy of its fall, then likely the fall had not yet happened when Matthew wrote his gospel. Thus, it was written pre-70 A.D. This is a reasonable position because Matthew had a penchant for citing all the fulfilled prophecies he could find. Matthew would not omit mention of the fulfillment of Jesus' prophecy of the fall of Jerusalem had he been writing post-70 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464470"></a>However, most skeptical modern scholars merely assume true prophecy is impossible, and put Matthew necessarily after the events of 70 A.D. Based on that logic, they date him to 85 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464471"></a>There is no justification for such skepticism. The prophecy of the fall of the temple after the Prince Messiah was cut-off is clearly in Daniel 9:25-26. This writing is traditionally dated by Jews and Christians to 600 B.C.! Would these same scholars, who assume prophecy is impossible, redate Daniel 9:25-26 to 85 A.D. too? Of course not. There is no more reason to redate Matthew to post 70 A.D. than there is to redate the book of Daniel to post 70 A.D. As long as you put aside the supposition that the temple destruction prophecy could not possibly be uttered pre-70 A.D., all the evidence points to a pre-70 A.D. date for the original Hebrew Matthew. Of course, these same scholars are partially correct about the dating of the Greek Matthew. It would be true that the Greek translation of Matthew came later -- possibly in 85 A.D. Then it is true the Greek Mark comes before the Greek Matthew. This would then explain perfectly why Mark does not have the Sermon on the Mount which is in the Greek Matthew. This also perfectly explains why Luke has parts of the Sermon on the Mount. His gospel account comes after the Greek Matthew.</p>
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<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464472"></a>Continuing With Origen's List</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464473"></a>As to Mark's Gospel, Origen says Mark "composed it in accordance with the instructions of Peter." Then Origen mentions the gospels of Luke and John.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464474"></a>Origen continues his list by simply saying "Paul," without listing the individual epistles.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464475"></a>Origen next mentions Peter who "left one acknowledged epistle; possibly also a second, but this is disputed." Origen means Second Peter was disputed as not genuinely written by Peter.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464476"></a>Origen next mentions Revelation: "[John] wrote also the Apocalypse." Again please note that in the Muratorian Fragment of 170 A.D.(?) and now again in the Origen list of 240 A.D., John's Apocalypse (what we call Revelation) was clearly accepted.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464477"></a>Origen next adds 1 John and raises dispute with 2 John and 3 John. "[John] has left also an epistle of a very few lines; and, it may be, a second and a third; for not all say that these are genuine but the two of them are not a hundred lines long."</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464478"></a>As to the Epistles of James and Jude, Origen is sometimes firm of their inclusion and other times waffling. James is an "epistle in circulation under the name of James...." This seems waffling. As to Jude, he likewise says: "And if indeed one were to accept the epistle of Jude...." However, in Origen's Homilies on Joshua, viii. 1, Origen is firm that they are both authentic canon:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464479"></a>So too our Lord, whose advent was typified by the son of Nun, when he came sent his apostles as priests bearing well-wrought trumpets. Matthew first sounded the priestly trumpet in his Gospel. Mark also, Luke and John, each gave forth a strain on their priestly trumpets. Peter moreover sounds loudly on the twofold trumpet of his epistles; and so also James and Jude.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464480"></a>As to Hebrews, Origen says its writing style is certainly not Paul's. Yet the thoughts are admirable and on par with Paul's thoughts. Thus, it is commendable to attribute it to Paul, although Origen `concedes' the author's identity is unknown.</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464481"></a>
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Eusebius' List (324 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464482"></a>Eusebius acknowledges the four Gospels, Acts, and Paul. For Paul, he counts 14 epistles. This apparently means he was including Hebrews as a work of Paul's. Then Eusebius mentions Hebrews was disputed by the Roman Bishop. "[I]t is controverted by the church of Rome as not being Paul's."</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464483"></a>Eusebius next acknowledges 1John and 1Peter.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464484"></a>Then as to John's Revelation, Eusebius is the first published source in church history to raise any doubt. He says:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464485"></a>After these must be put, if it really seems right, the Apocalypse of John, concerning which we shall give the different opinions at the proper time (Concerning the Apocalypse men's opinions even now are generally divided). These, then, are among the recognized books.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464486"></a>Please note the test Eusebius utilized was recognition, with no mention of inspiration.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464487"></a>Eusebius then repeats about Revelation: "This last, as I said, is rejected by some, but others count it among the recognized books." Eusebius then goes on, and becomes the loudest voice against the book of Revelation. He raised as many points as possible to undermine its validity. He did not appreciate its content, apparently because it contained anti-Roman millenialism. Because Roman rulers now embraced Christianity, the prophecies in Revelation were embarrassing to the church. Eusebius thus did everything he could to support doubts about the Book of Revelation.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464490" class="footnote"> 15</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464491"></a>Then Eusebius discusses James and Jude and 2 Peter. He says:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464492"></a>Of the disputed books, which are nevertheless familiar to the majority, there are extant the epistle of James, as it is called; and that of Jude; and the second epistle of Peter (that which is circulated as his second epistle we have received to be uncanonical; still as it appeared useful to many it has been diligently read with the other scriptures).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464493"></a>Please note he affirms strongly here that Second Peter is non-canonical.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464494"></a>What was the dispute over the Epistle of James? Eusebius writes that it was supposedly not frequently cited by the `ancients':</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464495"></a>These things are recorded in regard to James, who is said to be the author of the first of the so-called Catholic epistles. But it is to be observed that it is disputed; at least, not many of the ancients have mentioned it, as is the case likewise with the epistle that bears the name of Jude, which is also one of the seven so-called Catholic epistles. Nevertheless we know that these also, with the rest, have been read publicly in very many churches.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464496"></a>We now know that James was cited by several of the `ancients' very early on.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464499" class="footnote"> 16</a> Eusebius was either unaware of this or was unimpressed.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464500"></a>As to 2 and 3 John, Eusebius wrote:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464501"></a>I recognize one epistle only as genuine and acknowledged by the ancient presbyters, and those that are called the Second and Third of John (these two remaining epistles are disputed), whether they belong to the evangelist or to another person of the same name.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464502"></a>It is interesting to see that early on up through Eusebius' day that 3 John was always disputed.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464503"></a>Please also note that Eusebius is concerned whether the source is genuine rather than whether it is inspired. His list does not purport to list inspired texts. He lists only works which are genuinely written by the author to whom it purports to belong.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464505"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<a name="marker=464504"></a>Council of Laodicea (363 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464506"></a>This council is estimated to have taken place in 363 A.D. It was under the influence of the Roman Catholic Church (RCC). The council rulings clearly reflect RCC practices. In canon 60 of the council decrees, it has a list of both approved Hebrew Scriptures and New Testament books. The only omission from the New Testament at odds with our present usage is the Book of Revelation. The only significant omission from the `Old Testament' which Christians previously had accepted was the Book of <a name="marker=464507"></a>Enoch. These two books would be politically incorrect to the Roman emperors<a name="marker=464508"></a>.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464509"></a>Some claim the materials proving this list ever existed are inaccurate and unreliable.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464512" class="footnote"> 17</a> This criticism, however, is weak. The disputed Canon 60 appears in the oldest records. However, it does not appear in a work written in 544 A.D. In that year, a Roman Catholic historian Dionysius Exiguus omits Canon 60 from his version of the council decrees. Likewise, in 610 John of Antioch, a monk in Orthodox territory, omits it.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464513"></a>These later omissions are unimportant. What is ignored is why later Roman Catholic historians would omit canon 60 and want to rewrite history. It is fairly obvious. The Pope in the Council of Rome of 382 re-issued a new NT list. This list restored Revelation to approved reading material in the church. This rejoining Revelation to NT canon was repeated by Pope Innocent I in 405 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464514"></a>So why would Dionysius Exiguus in 544 A.D. omit canon 60 in his summary of the Laodicean decrees of 363 A.D.? The Roman Catholic church would not want to admit popes and councils make mistakes. If Dionysius repeated the significant deletion of the Book of Revelation in 363 which appears in the earliest reliable texts from the Council of Laodicea, it would embarrass the church. It would also promote uncertainty about the Book of Revelation, which the Roman Catholic church now was willing to endorse. These realities destroy our ability to rely upon Dionysius. John of Antioch apparently used Dionysius uncritically as his source. Thus, one biased presentation leads to a later unwitting repetition of that same bias.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464515"></a>Furthermore, the omission of Revelation in the Council of Laodicea was combined with deletion of the Book of <a name="marker=464516"></a>Enoch in 363 A.D. This twin deletion completely matches the political-religious feelings at that time. It matches the thoughts and ideas of Eusebius in Ecclesiastical History written sometime after 325 A.D. Eusebius was Emperor Constantine's favorite bishop. Eusebius strongly disliked the Book of Revelation, and spoke vigorously against its inclusion in canon. Political issues explain his outlook. The Roman Catholic Church (RCC) was in the early 300s well on the way to becoming the official religion of the Roman empire. (This officially took place in 380 A.D.) The Roman bishop came to dominate all other churches within the empire. Previously, the Christian church was a loose confederation of bishops. That original confederation traces directly to what we know today as the Orthodox church. It does not trace to Roman Catholicism, contrary to RCC myth. The Orthodox church of that earliest era was centered in Jerusalem. What could undermine this shift from the Orthodox council to a Rome-dominated church was precisely the Book of Revelation. Revelation was in turn a continuation of the Book of Enoch from the pre-Christian era. Thus, Constantine's imperative would be to erase the Book of Revelation and Enoch. He naturally feared how Christians would interpret end-time literature that made the "city on seven hills" (Rome) into the seat of the Great Whore/Beast/Anti-Christ. (Rev. 17:9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464517"></a>Thus, this list at Laodicea appears to be historically accurate, even though, for dubious reasons, it is not recognized.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464518"></a>
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Athanasius' List (367 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464520"></a><a name="marker=464519"></a>Athanasius, bishop of Alexandria (Egypt), published the following list of approved reading sources in church in his Easter Letter of 367 A.D.:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464521"></a>Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Acts, James, Peter (2), John epistles (3), Paul, 14 epistles total (naming Romans, Corinthians (2), Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Thessalonians (2), Hebrews, Timothy (2), Titus, Philemon), and the Revelation of John.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464522"></a>It therefore omits Jude.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464523"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
The Syrian Apostolic Canons (380 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464524"></a>The Syrian book of church order includes on its list of approved reading sources a book entitled The Constitutions of the Apostles. It purports to be first person statements by Peter, John, Andrew and other apostles. It is a blatant imposture. No scholar seriously contends otherwise today. However, it contains a list of approved NT-era reading sources as of 380 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464525"></a>The list includes Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John. Also Paul, 14 epistles (which means it includes Hebrews), Peter (2), John (3), James, Jude, Acts, Clement's Epistles, and lastly the Constitutions of the Apostles. The latter two are no longer in our NT.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464526"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
Rufinus List (380 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464527"></a>Rufinus, an elder at Aquileia in northeastern Italy, prepared a list in 380 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464528"></a>His list includes Matthew, Mark, Luke &amp; John. Also Acts, Paul, 14 epistles (which means he includes Hebrews), James, Jude, John [3], and Revelation. He totally excludes the two epistles of Peter.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464529"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
Augustine &amp; Council of Carthage (397 A.D.)</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464531"></a><a name="marker=464530"></a>Augustine, the famous bishop of Hippo (West Africa) who was the principle formulator of Roman Catholic doctrine, made up a list in 397 A.D. This list was identically adopted by three other African Bishops at the regional <a name="marker=464532"></a>Council of Carthage. It is the same as our modern New Testament list.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464533"></a>The Carthage ruling provides us little context to deduce upon what criteria inclusion or exclusion was based. Its decree was:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464534"></a>The books of the New Testament: the Gospels, four books; the Acts of the Apostles, one book; the epistles of the apostle Paul, thirteen; of the same to the Hebrews, one epistle; of Peter, two; of John the apostle, three; of James, one; of Jude, one; the Revelation of John. Concerning the confirmation of this canon, the Church across the sea [i.e., Rome] shall be consulted. On the anniversaries of martyrs, their acts shall also be read.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464535"></a>Thus, even this list was uncertain. It needed confirmation and input from the church at Rome. No one knows if such confirmation was ever obtained.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464536"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
How We Arrived At Our Modern Canon</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464537"></a>The foregoing history is the sole tradition of how our current list of New Testament books were formed prior to the modern era.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464538"></a>In 1522, Luther assembled a New Testament based on the 397 A.D. list. However, in his Preface to the NT, Luther specifically declared the Epistle of James and the Book of Revelation were uninspired and should not be viewed as scripture.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464541"></a>As a response to <a name="marker=464539"></a>Luther, in 1543 the Roman Catholic Church at the <a name="marker=464540"></a>Council of Trent created an identical list to our current New Testament canon. The council decreed that the basis of this list was its traditional acceptance, not whether there was prophecy that justified inclusion of any specific book.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464543"></a>Then later in the 1500s, <a name="marker=464542"></a>Calvin declared Second Peter should not be regarded as a valid part of scripture, as discussed next.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464544"></a>After Calvin's statement, credible challenges to canon by sincere Christians have ceased.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1Appendix"><a name="pgfId=464546"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml-1.gif" /></div>
<a name="25704"></a>The Special Question of Second Peter</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464547"></a>As the history detailed above shows, the only consistently rejected document (until 367 A.D. but dropped again in 380 A.D.) in our current New Testament canon is Second Peter. This bespeaks forgery. It should now be finally eliminated. The word of God is too precious to permit tradition to justify inclusion.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464548"></a>This recommendation is not the product of radical liberal insight. The flaws of <a name="marker=464549"></a>Second Peter are so self-evident that even <a name="marker=464550"></a>Calvin <a name="marker=464551"></a>provides support for it being a pseudograph. As Metzger explains:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464552"></a>Calvin applies philological tests as to authorship of various books...The style of 2 Peter differs from that of 1 Peter and was therefore probably not written by the apostle himself....<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464555" class="footnote"> 18</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464560"></a>Furthermore, <a name="marker=464556"></a>Eusebius thought it a pseudograph in 325 A.D.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20formathtml.html#pgfId=464559" class="footnote"> 19</a> Eusebius wrote that among the disputed books are "the second epistle of Peter." One of his reasons was how few early church leaders cited Second Peter. Especially troublesome was that those who knew of First Peter did not know of Second Peter. <a name="marker=464561"></a>Polycarp and <a name="marker=464562"></a>Irenaeus, for example, only reveal knowledge of First Peter. One can verify this by visiting the computerized cross-reference of every verse of First and Second Peter to the writings of the early Church leaders. You can find this resource at Peter Kirby's excellent website: www.earlychristianwritings.com/2peter.html.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=464563"></a>However, as Peter Kirby explains, there are many other reasons to believe Second Peter is a pseudograph. One telling internal evidence is a reference by "Peter" to Paul's writings as if they already had been collected and assembled in "Scripture." (2 Peter 3:16.) Such an event did not occur until well after Peter's death. Peter Kirby then explains: "Accordingly, we find ourselves without doubt far beyond the time of Peter and into the epoch of `early Catholicism.'" <em>Id</em>. The pseudograph nature of Second Peter is now "widely acknowledged." <em>Id.</em><strong><a name="pgfId=458247"></a></strong></p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464404"></a>See <a href="file:///E:/Jwo%20#1/es6b.#39392" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464410"></a>"Origen is the first (C. Cels., V, lxi) to mark a distinction between two classes of Ebionites, a distinction which Eusebius also gives (Hist. Eccl., III, xxvii)." ("Ebionites," <em>Catholic Encyclopedia</em> http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05242c.htm) (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464414"></a>For an explanation, see Chapter Twelve.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464421"></a>Of note, Marcion's version of <a name="marker=464420"></a>Romans is missing chapters 9 through 11 and 15 &amp; 16. (Origen, Commentary on Romans, xvi: 25.) One explanation is that Marcion rejected the grafting in concept in chapters 9-11. Others suggest these four chapters were a later addition fifty years after Paul was dead. I believe the former is true; these ideas are all true to Paul. Marcion is also missing 1 &amp; 2 Timothy and Titus. (http://www.bible-researcher.com/canon3.html.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464424"></a>Charles B. Waite, "The Gospel of Marcion and the Gospel of Luke Compared," <em>The History of the Christian Religion to the Year Two-Hundred</em> (Chicago, C.V. Waite &amp; Co., 1900) at 287-303, reprinted at http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Ithaca/3827/wait2.htm. The early heretic hunters of the church accused Marcion of mutilating Luke. However, conservative Christian scholars today generally agree Marcion did not know of Luke's gospel. He simply had received or developed himself what was a source for Luke. <a name="marker=464425"></a>Marcion gave no name to the writer of the gospel he put forth. In fact, Tertullian excoriated Marcion for not identifying the human author. (Tertullian, Adv. Marc. 4.2) Merely because the early heretic hunters such as Irenaeus saw the evident similarities to Luke does not mean Marcion mutilated Luke. He may or may not have done so. If he did not, then Marcion relied upon what is called the proto-Luke gospel. There is no trouble for the validity of<a name="marker=464426"></a>Luke's gospel if Luke relied on the same text. Luke after all does not claim inspiration; he claims perspiration of research. (Luke 1:1-4.) It appears possible then Marcion either had Luke as his source or Luke added to an old source which scholars call the proto-Luke.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464434"></a>John Knox, <em>Marcion and the New Testament</em> (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1942) at 7.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464438"></a>See Marcion: Gospel of the Lord and Other Writings at http://www.gnosis.org/library/marcionsection.htm (2005). For more original material on Marcion, see Fragments of Marcion at http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/marcion.html.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=913319"></a>Geoffrey Mark Hahneman, The Muratorian Fragment and the Development of Canon (Oxford Theological Monographs)(Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1992) at 131. This is critiqued in C.E. Hill, "The Debate Over the Muratorian Fragment and the Development of Canon," Westminster Theological Journal 57:2 (Fall 1995) at 437 ff. The only support for an early date is the Muratorian Fragment refers to the Shepherd as writing in "our time." This amorphous language is hardly compelling given the many valid problems that Hahneman raises with the early dating hypothesis.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464445"></a>The source of this list, and all the subsequent lists, you will find at New Testament Canon and Ancient Canon Texts quoted in full at http://www.bible-researcher.com/canon8.html (last visited 8/26/05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=913367"></a>The entire MF text is at http://www.scrollpublishing.com/store/Muratorian-Canon.html (last accessed 1/7/07).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464455"></a>Eusebius, <em>Hist. Eccl.</em> iii. 39; Irenaeus, <em>Against Heresies</em>, Bk III, ch. 1; Jerome, <em>Lives of Illustrious Men</em>, ch. III; Jerome, Commentary on Matthew [12:13]. The only significant difference mentioned in ancient works between the Hebrew <a name="marker=464456"></a>Matthew and the Greek is that the Hebrew Matthew is missing chapter one that is present in the Greek. (Epiphanius, Panarion 30.13.1-30.22.4). This means the Hebrew is lacking some serious errors that appear in the Greek. This first chapter in Greek contains the genealogy and virgin birth account. The genealogy is clearly flawed. Honest evangelical Christian scholars admit the Greek Matthew's genealogy has several errors. (Ben Witherington,<em> New Testament in History: A Narrative Account</em> (Baker 2001) at 70.) Also, other flaws in the Greek text disappear when we look at the Hebrew Matthew recovered recently from a medieval text. A modern translation of it can be found in the work of George Howard (Professor of Religion, University of Georgia) entitled Hebrew Gospel of Matthew (Mercer University Press, 1995). The original Hebrew Matthew that Howard recovered shows Jesus correctly saying the prophecy of the 30 pieces of silver is in Zechariah (11:10-13), but our Greek version from which our English translations derive has Jesus Himself incorrectly saying it was in Jeremiah. (Matt. 27:9.) Thus, the Hebrew Matthew is indeed the more authentic version. Whether by fortuity or God's design, it was preserved and we can all enjoy it now in Mr. Howard's scholarly book.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464459"></a>http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm (accessed 8/27/05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=913442"></a>Thomas is typically regarded as the main apostle to the people of India. The traditional date of Thomas'martyrdom is 72 A.D. in Mylapore, India. See "History of Christian Missions," <em>Wikipedia</em>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464463"></a>The Marcan priority claim rests on an unproven assumption: if Mark wrote after Matthew, he would have relied upon Matthew. Based on that assumption, then it is allegedly hard to explain why Mark omits the Sermon on the Mount. However, if Mark was relying primarily upon Peter's recollections, as was Origen's claim, then Mark has no need to read Matthew. The assumption at stake that Mark would rely upon Matthew is an unfounded supposition.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464490"></a>For proof that Revelation is authentic, see Canonicity of the Book of Revelation at www.jesuswordsonly.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464499"></a>See www.earlychristianwritings.com/ james.html and under e-catena it shows James was cited earliest by 1 Clement (80-140 A.D.), the Epistle of Barnabas (80-120 A.D.) and Justin (150-160 A.D.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=464512"></a><em>History of the Canon of the New Testament</em> (4th Ed.) III at 428, excerpted at http://www.ccel.org/fathers/NPNF2-14/2ancyra/Laocn60.htm (accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=464555"></a>Bruce M. Metzger, <em>The Canon of the New Testament: Its Origin, Development, and Significance</em> (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1987) at 245.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=464559"></a>See "The Canon of Eusebius," <em>Lost Scriptures: Books That Did Not Make It Into the New Testament</em> (ed. Bart D. Ehrman) (Oxford University Press: 2003) at 337-38.</p>
</div>
</div>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<p>By 398 AD Chrysostum claimed each and every apostle was also a "prophet." He says "an apostle is a prophet in the highest sense." (<span>Nathaniel Lardner, Andrew Kippis, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Works of Nathaniel Lardner</span> (1815) Vol. 2 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=sKQTAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PA605&amp;ots=8q7jN9x9Om&amp;dq=chrysostom%20unknown%20to%20many%20despised%20acts&amp;pg=PA613#v=onepage&amp;q=chrysostom%20unknown%20to%20many%20despised%20acts&amp;f=false">613</a>.)</span></p> </td>
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<h2>Appendix C: Easter Error</h2>
<h3>Jesus' Command Of A Passover Remembrance</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914323"></a>The Hebrew word for Passover is <em>Pesach</em>. The King James Bible translates the word for <em>Passover</em> in Greek (<em>Pascha</em>) with the word<em><strong> Easter</strong></em> in Acts 12:4. The King James translators thus believed Easter was synonymous with Passover. Why was this? To find the answer, we need to go back to what early Christians understood (and everyone but English-speaking Christians still understand) was the context in which Jesus intended the communion command to be fulfilled.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914279"></a>We English-speaking Protestants are generally ignorant of Jesus' intention behind the "remembrance of me" command at the Passover dinner before He was crucified. (Luke 22:19.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">As explained below,<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=914376"> 1</a> the command from<strong><em> Jesus was supposed to be part of the Passover service that his Jewish apostles were to keep and celebrate annually</em></strong>. When Jesus said "do this in remembrance of me," He did not envision a new ceremony called Communion. When He did likewise with the cup of wine, Jesus was not envisioning a new second step to what we call Communion. Rather, Jesus was saying when you "<strong><em>do this</em></strong>," that is, recite remembrances as the head of the table shares the unleavened bread and as each table-participant drinks from the Cup of Redemption in the Passover Dinner, the participants were henceforth to now do this in remembrance of Jesus. The story of Jesus' sacrifice for our sins would now be <strong><em>added as a remembrance</em></strong> at these two junctures of the Passover Dinner.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914382"></a>This explains why the early church practiced Passover. The Bishop of Smyrna, Polycarp (died 155 A.D.), asserted Passover observance was directly handed to him by the apostles. Polycarp also said he was taught by them to keep it on 14 Nissan, exactly as prescribed as the day for Passover in the Law given Moses.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=913470"> <sup><strong>2</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913471"></a>It may surprise an English-speaking evangelical to learn this, but it was this apostolic practice which explains why the Catholics and Orthodox still keep Passover each year. We find the Catholics in Italy call it Pasqua. In the Orthodox church, Pascha. Among Catholics it is an eight day period.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=913474"> 3</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913475"></a>In fact, even in the evangelical Protestant church outside English-speaking lands, the celebration week ending with Resurrection Sunday <strong><em>still retains</em></strong> its <strong><em>correct name of Passover</em></strong>, <em>e.g.</em>, Pascua in Spanish; Paschen in Dutch, Pâques in French, etc. I first learned this by living abroad in Costa Rica. I was puzzled why Protestant Christians there called Easter Pascua. That's how I stumbled across this issue.</p>
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<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=914343"></a>The Law of Passover</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914347"></a>The Passover Season was comprised of two parts: a Passover dinner and a week-long Feast of Unleavened Bread. The Passover dinner was celebrated at a dining-room table in a house (Exodus 12:46) besides at the Temple (Deut. 16:2). The home-observance was typically led by the head of a family. The house had to be cleaned of all scraps of unleavened bread in preparation for passover and the feast of unleavened bread. The sojourner (Gentile sharing community with the Jews) was enjoined<strong><em> only</em></strong> not to eat unleavened bread in this season. Exodus 12:19. Otherwise, the sojourner did not have to keep the Passover dinner or celebrate the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Yet, if the sojourner<strong><em> chose to keep the Passover dinner</em></strong>, he had to be<strong><em> circumcised first</em></strong>. Exodus 12:49. Thus, it was an honor that a sojourner /non-Jew could share in, but it was not a requirement to do so.</p>
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<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=914345"></a>How the Timing Was Changed From 14 Nissan</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914344"></a>Why does Passover in the Catholic, Orthodox, and Evangelical Protestant communities no longer coincide with the Jewish day of observance of Passover?<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=914993"> <sup><strong>4</strong></sup></a> Why in particular is this true even if they retain the name Passover as the festival-season they celebrate?</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913477"></a>At the Council of Nicea in 325, Passover's day of celebration was changed at the urging of the Emperor of Rome. He specifically demanded it be a different day other than 14 Nissan so a<strong><em>s to spite the Jews</em></strong>. Emperor Constantine's ostensible reasons were all blatantly grounded on a virulent anti-semitical tirade!<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=913480"> 5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913481"></a>However, there were actually some other competing considerations not specifically mentioned in the records from the Council of Nicea. The true Passover could fall in March. However, the new chronology <strong><em>guaranteed Passover would land in April</em></strong>. Why was this important? Because in that era, the English and Germanic name for April was <strong><em>Eostremonat</em></strong> or<em><strong> Ostaramonath</strong></em> respectively.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">What did this name mean? In April, the pagans celebrated the festival of Osiris. It was her month. In Britain, her name was <strong><em>Eastre</em></strong>. There is no dispute this is the<em><strong> origin of the name for Easter</strong></em>. In the Eighth century, a Christian monk and historian, Bede, explained why English-speaking lands persisted in calling the Passover by the name Easter. He explained:</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;">"<em><strong>Eosturmonath</strong></em>, which is now interpreted as the paschal month, was formerly named after the <strong><em>goddess Eostre</em></strong>, and has given its name to the festival [Passover in Britain]."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=913484"><sup><strong> 6</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913485"></a>Thus, there was a more compromising rationale and purpose to Constantine's change. He desired to appease pagan citizens. This is why Constantine would not tolerate those who wanted to retain the apostolic practice of keeping Passover on 14 Nissan. These were known as Quatordecimans, <em>i.e</em>., 14-ers in Latin. Like we call the gold-rush enthusiasts 49ers, these adherents were called the 14ers. Because Constantine was able to heavily influence doctrine, the Roman Catholic church now inflicted excommunication on all Quatordecimans. This resulted in all kinds of civil penalties, <em>e.g</em>., inability to inherit, etc.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=913488"> <sup><strong>7</strong></sup></a> This is how<strong><em> the true apostolic practice</em></strong> of observing 14 Nissan as the true day for Passover was <strong><em>wiped out in the Roman territories</em></strong>. Yet, the name Passover continued to be used. This is why the feast is still called Passover in all of Christendom except in English-speaking lands.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913883"></a>Thus, it was the British who solely refused to observe Passover under any name other than that of <strong><em>their goddess Eastre</em></strong>. She would have a priority over Passover. The Catholic church tolerated this in Britain. This was simply inherited by the Protestant English Church without any re-examination. As a result, Protestants in English-speaking lands came to <em><strong>completely forget</strong></em> the very context in which the drama of the Resurrection was to be recreated each year: it was the <em><strong>PASSOVER week</strong></em>, which starts with the Passover Dinner and continues in what is called the Feast of Unleavened Bread.</p>
<h3>Jesus' Intention to Transform Passover Dinner</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913490"></a>But why did the early apostolic church follow Passover? Because Jesus commanded a change within the Passover Dinner. (Luke 22:19.) It was not something new called Communion. Jesus instead was adding a memorial to step four of the traditional Passover Seder where the unleavened bread is broken. He added another memorial at a later juncture where the Cup of Redemption was drunk. At each point, the bread and wine are shared by the head of the table with a recitation of certain traditional remembrances. Thus, the early church had to know this was the true nature of Jesus' command regarding Communion. This is why the apostles kept Passover, as Polycarp affirmed.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913895"></a>How do we know this was Jesus' meaning? First, the Passover ceremony had been standardized for millennia prior to Jesus Christ. It had fifteen clearly defined steps. We have Gospel-confirmation there had been no significant change in the fifteen steps by Jesus' day. The record in the Gospels shows Jesus followed six of the fifteen steps in exactly identical order. The only thing not mentioned are the steps involving the meal itself in the middle. While those steps are not mentioned, the six steps mentioned in the Gospels do not vary in the slightest from the traditional Passover seder even as it is kept to this very day by Jews.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=913494"><sup><strong> 8</strong></sup></a> The dinner's outline was never enacted as a law in the Bible or otherwise, yet one can see Jesus went through it step-by-step in the First Century A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913495"></a>Therefore, we know that Jesus was first saying at step four, we need to change something. This is when we eat the unleavened bread. It was at that point that Jesus commanded we were to "do this in remembrance of me." (Luke 22:19.) Next, Jesus clearly henceforth was associating the Passover Cup of Redemption with Himself: "this is the cup of the New Covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you." (Luke 22:20.) Our Redemption was now from His blood, symbolized by that cup.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=913496"></a>What else confirms Jesus' intent to modify the Passover Seder? His remembrance terminology in Luke 22:19 also fits in with the nature of the Passover Seder. The head of the table leads the participants in a series of remembrances of the work of God with the people of Israel. It includes not only the Passover but the bitter herbs the people of Israel ate in the desert. There is a remembrance too that Elijah will come back before Messiah, and so on. All Jesus was saying was He wanted to add one more work of God to the list of remembrances which were already being recounted at every Passover.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914301"></a>Now hopefully you can understand why it was so imperative to retain Passover within the early church. This is why Roman Catholicism and the Orthodox Church continued the observance of Passover all these centuries. To rid ourselves of Passover's observance completely would be to rid ourselves of the very context in which at least a Jewish Christian was to obey the commandment of Jesus to "do this in remembrance of me." (Luke 22:19.) If our intent is to enjoy the privilege of Passover, then our persistent use of the word Easter for Passover has a negative effect. It has led to ignorance. What else explains an otherwise brilliant and famous commentator like Gill actually saying: "the passover was... abolished, and not to be observed by Christians." (Commentary on Acts 20:6.) Due to the Easter moniker for Passover, no one within English-speaking Christianity has any footing to even begin to suspect Gill is wrong. At least for the Jewish-Christian, Jesus intended they "do this in remembrance of me," <em>i.e.</em>, share the bread and wine at Passover with a remembrance of Jesus' work on the cross. For the Gentile Christian who exercises the privilege to keep Passover, then he must follow Jesus' revision to that dinner celebration.</p>
<h3>The Orthodox Confront English-speaking "Easter" Terminology</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914024"></a>This background now allows you to understand why the Orthodox Church in English countries cannot fathom the practice of calling this feast Easter. As Michael Harper, an Orthodox `father,' notes: "This is a much more important subject than a mere dispute about words." Harper acknowledges that virtually no one realizes the original pagan goddess worshipped in April was named Easter. Yet, it is this very meaninglessness of the name Easter which effectuated a loss of the real meaning of the season. This is how we lost the content of what we were trying to do -- amend the Passover service to remember Jesus while we simultaneously remembered all the other works of God which were part of the Passover dinner. Harper explains the Orthodox' Church's viewpoint on this phenomenon among English-speakers:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914025"></a>[There is a] constant temptation to drop the word Pascha and for clarity (and sometimes charity) use the western word Easter. But perhaps the time has come for us to make a stand against this. In our increasingly secular and pagan society the use of a pagan word, of which no one knows the meaning, is hardly suitable to describe the greatest day in the Christian year. When most people knew the Christian meaning of the word Easter [as Passover] one could perhaps make out a case for using the word. But not today!<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=914028"> 9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914029"></a>In other words, if we did retain the substance of Passover practice within our Easter-observance, perhaps you could say using Easter as a name is harmless. But now the word Easter obscures rather than highlights what we are trying to celebrate to honor Jesus' command to revise the Passover ceremony.<img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml-1.gif" /></p>
<h3>Any Imperative To Reform?</h3>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914448"></a>There is absolutely no dispute factually that the early apostolic church kept Passover. There is no dispute that universal non-English speaking Christianity has always kept Passover, whether Protestant, Orthodox or Catholic. There is no dispute that it was only in 325 A.D. that this observance was moved from 14 Nissan to a date that coincides instead always with a date in April. (This is because the Christian Passover-Easter is measured in relation to the vernal equinox.) There is no dispute that the current date does not coincide with the Passover in God's Law. There is no dispute that the only reason English-speaking Christianity lost the memory of the Passover festival was due to the stubborness of Englishmen. By the time of the Eighth Century, as recorded by Bede, the British Christians preferred to worship under their pagan goddess' name of Eastre.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914530"></a>With these indisputable facts, what should a Christian do? First, assuming Passover is something still to be observed, it is impermissible to move the timing.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914811"></a>When King Jeroboam moved the feast of tabernacles by one month from the time specified in the Law, the way this is described shows God's displeasure. (1 Kings <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20kings%2012:33&amp;version=NIV">12:33</a>.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=914814"> <sup><strong>10</strong></sup></a> The Spanish Reina Valera is the closest to the correct translation. Jeroboam selected a "month he<strong><em> invented in his heart</em></strong>." (Reina Valera.) The Hebrew is <em>bada</em>, which means "to invent." (Strong's #908.) Cf. "devised in his own heart" (ASV KJV); "fixed by him at his pleasure" (BBE); "of his own choosing" (CEV).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914818"></a>What did Jesus likewise teach when we <strong><em>invent our own traditions</em></strong> in place of God's commands?</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=914815"></a>(6) And ye have made void the word of God because of your tradition. (7) Ye hypocrites, well did Isaiah prophesy of you, saying, (8) This people honoreth me with their lips; But their heart is far from me. (9) But in <strong><em>vain do they worship me</em></strong>, Teaching as their doctrines the precepts of men. (Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%2015:6-9&amp;version=ASV">15:6-9</a> ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914485"></a>Thus, moving Passover, if we observe it, to anything other than 14 Nissan is vain (empty) worship, so says the Lord Jesus Christ. It is moved solely by tradition. Jesus says God does not accept vain worship. Jesus was alluding to the second commandment which says "do not use the Lord's name in vain."</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=915038"></a>Nor can one ignore that Daniel says what will mark "another" who "puts down three rulers" (Dan. 7:24) is that he "shall wear out the saints of the Most High; and he shall think to change the times and the Law; and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and half a time." Dan 7:25. Thus, God gives us an idea that this "other" acts wrongly by changing the "<em><strong>times and the Law.</strong></em>"<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=915118"> <sup><strong>11</strong></sup></a> If this is so, then how can moving the date for Passover as provided in the Law given Moses be correct? As the Psalmist says, "Your royal <em><strong>laws cannot be changed</strong></em>." (Ps. 93:5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914947"></a>The remaining question, and the most important, is whether Jesus intended the apostles to keep Passover.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914547"></a>First, in broad terms, it is undisputed that the command to keep the Passover applied to Jews. It was optional for sojourners (Gentiles), but if they elected to keep it, they had to be circumcised. Thus, only if God abrogated the Law as to Jews can one say Jesus did not intend the apostles to keep Passover.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914551"></a>There are some fundamentally difficult passages to overcome if we contend God intended to abrogate the Law (Torah) in the New Testament. The New Testament was prophesied to "inscribe the Law (Torah) on our hearts." (Jeremiah 31:31-33.) When a Redeemer is sent to Israel to create a new covenant, God promises that "these words that I have given you" (the Law) "will be on your lips and on the lips of your children and your children's children forever." (Isaiah 59:21 NLT.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=915244"> <sup><strong>12</strong></sup></a> When His Servant (Messiah) comes, God "will magnify the Law (Torah), and make it honorable." (Isaiah 42:21 ASV/KJV.) Jesus, for His part, did everything possible to put the Law given Moses on our lips and in our hearts forever. Jesus said immediately after just referring to the "Law (given Moses) and the Prophets" (Matt. 5:17):</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=914494"></a>Whosoever therefore shall <em><strong>break one of these least commandments</strong></em>, and shall teach men so, he <strong><em>shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven:</em></strong> but whosoever<strong><em> shall do and teach them</em></strong>, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. (Matt. 5:19 KJV)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914582"></a>In an identical spirit, Jesus excoriated the Pharisees for a shallow teaching of the "less weighty matters of the Law," but leaving the "weightier matters of the Law undone." Matt. 23:23. Jesus attacked the Pharisees' oral traditions which made of none effect the written commandments of God given Moses. Matt. 15:6-9 (the Pharisees taught that a special korban payment which they invented would excuse later having to honor one's parents if they fell into poverty -- in violation of one of the Ten Commandments.) Jesus did everything He could to elevate obedience to the Law given Moses. Jesus' critiques all reveal the Pharisees had a shallow defective Law-negating doctrine. The people merely assumed the Pharisees were teaching the Law because the people were told by the Pharisees what the Law was. Bible-texts were not ubiquitous as they are now. But Jesus said this supposition about the Pharisees was untrue.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=915219"></a>Moreover, if the New Testament somehow abrogates the Law, including the Law of Passover, this would contradict God's repeated emphasis that "these ordinances" of the Law shall be "everlasting for all generations." (Ex. 27:21; 30:21; Lev. 6:18; 7:36; 10:9; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; 24:3; Num. 10:8; 15:15.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914948"></a>Luther reculctantly came to accept Jesus intended the Law given Moses remains the rule of life for the Christian. While Luther originally subscribed to an anti-Law position in his Commentary on Galatians, Luther eventually made an about face. He insisted the Law, in particular the Ten Commandments, applies to Christians. (Shorter/Longer Catechisms (1531-32); Antinomian Theses (1537); cfr. Commentary on Galatians (1531).)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.html#pgfId=914918"> <sup><strong>13</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914978"></a>Thus, it would appear that Jesus at least intended His Jewish apostles to keep Passover. It remained an honor for a Gentile to keep it.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914946"></a>What confirms this is that Polycarp, Bishop of Smyrna, said the apostles themselves personally taught him to keep Passover. If Polycarp were lying, it makes no sense that there is such a strong universal memory (other than in English-speaking lands) that the festival we call Easter is everywhere else called Passover, and is universally kept.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914586"></a>Finally, Jesus' command to "do this in remembrance of Me" during the Passover dinner has one obvious meaning. Jesus gave two remembrances that would be spoken of when the apostles "do this"-- distribute the unleavened bread and share the Cup of Redemption at Passover. The context defines what do this meant. The later tradition of what we do on Sunday in Communion does not define what Jesus meant by do this. To think Jesus meant "do this" in a vacuum of a Sunday church communion service which observance is itself nowhere commanded in Scripture is replacing tradition for what is the import of Jesus' command. He clearly assumed that the apostles would keep the Passover dinner, as the Law mandated upon a Jew. It is within this context the apostles would fulfill His remembrance-commands of the communion cup and wine. To use tradition to avoid the import of Jesus' command would be "empty" worship. Jesus specifically said worship is vain when tradition replaces commandments of God. (Matt. 15:6-9.) This includes commandments from Our Lord to remember Him when we `do this' (i.e., keep passover sharing of the bread and wine).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix"><a name="pgfId=914675"></a>Thus, we should re-examine our own practice of Easter: do you know it is Passover that we are attempting to celebrate? If not, that is the first sign of an empty and vain worship. Do we know we are being told to exchange unleavened bread and a Cup of Redemption as remembrances at a Passover dinner at home if we are electing to keep the Passover season as a Christian? If not, that is a second sign of an empty and vain worship. Finally, are we troubled in the slightest that we are worshipping Christ under the name of a pagan goddess albeit a long forgotten association? If not, then that is a final sign that our worship has become so empty and so vain that even the clear historical taint of idol-worship does not concern us.</p>
<p> </p>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=914376"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easterhtml.#34955">See Jesus' Intention to Transform the Passover Dinner</a> .</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=913470"></a>Of this there can be no doubt. Polycarp (martyred 155 A.D.) spoke of Christians keeping Passover at 14 Nissan, which he claimed he learned from Apostle John (whom he claimed to know as a child) and other apostles. Eusebius records that Polycarp went to Rome to convince the bishop of Rome to change back to apostolic practice. Eusebius says the bishop of Rome could not "persuade Polycarp not to observe what he had always observed with John, the disciple of our Lord, and the other apostles with whom he associated." (Eusebius, Ecclessiastical History, Ch. XXIII.) Likewise, passover for Christians on 14 Nissan was recorded in the Apostolic Constitution which dates somewhere between 220 A.D. and the late 300s.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=913474"></a>"In the Roman Catholic Church, Easter is actually an eight-day feast called the Octave of Easter." ("Easter," <em>Wikipedia</em>, at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Easter (last accessed 1/7/07).)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=914993"></a>For reasons too complex to narrate, the Orthodox do not agree with the Catholic date for Passover.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=913480"></a>Emperor Constantine at the Council of Nicea in 325 A.D. stated the ostensible rationale for the change. He thought it imperative Passover not be held on the same day as Jews keep Passover. Constantine stated victoriously at the Council: "It was, in the first place, declared improper to follow the custom of the Jews in the celebration of this holy festival....Let us, then, have nothing in common with the Jews, who are our adversaries.... avoiding all contact with that evil way.... Therefore, this irregularity must be corrected, in order that we may no more have any thing in common with those parricides and the murderers of our Lord.... no single point in common with the perjury of the Jews." (Theodoret's <em>Ecclesiastical History</em>.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=913484"></a>He wrote in Latin: "Eosturmonath, qui nunc paschalis mensis interpretatur, quondam a dea illorum quae Eostre vocabatur et cui in illo festa celebrabant nomen habuit." (<em>Venerable Bede: The Reckoning of Time Faith Wallis</em> (trans.) (Liverpool University Press, 1999) at 54.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=913488"></a>The Quatordecimans were vigorously routed out by Roman Catholicism which deemed them heretics for refusal to move Passover to a day of man's choosing. See "Quatordecimanism," http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quartodeciman (last accessed 1/7/07). A subsidiary issue was that Catholics insisted that the Resurrection celebration must always coincide with a Sunday. The Quatordecimans disagreed. If you kept 14 Nissan as Passover as a memorial each year, the celebration of the Resurrection does not always fall on a Sunday. Why? Because 14 Nissan is not always a Thursday in our solar calendar as it was in the year Jesus was crucified. (The Jews used a lunar calendar which is why variances will creep in from year-to-year.) There is no doubt this was the day of Passover in the year of Jesus' crucifixion. The Passover Sabbath falls on 15 Nissan regardless of the day that the weekly Sabbath may fall. (Exodus 12:16; Lev 23:7; Num 28:16-18.) The Gospels say Jesus was crucified and died just before the Passover Sabbath. This is called the "day of preparation." (Matt. 27:62.) This was a reference to just before the beginning of 15 Nissan. Thus, when Jesus resurrected Sunday, Jesus would be three days and three nights in the grave, as He predicted. (Matt. 12:40.) But if you accept a memorial of Passover as 14 Nissan, but tolerate the Catholic idea of always celebrating the Resurrection on a Sunday, then because of the variance in the solar versus lunar calendars involved, sometimes Sunday will be less than three days and more than three days from 14 Nissan. Anyone knowing Jesus' prophecy will suspect Jesus was a liar. (Sometimes atheists spot the inconsistency, and they hurl this back as proof that Jesus was a liar.) Thus, the Quatordecimans were additionally trying to argue Sunday was an inappropriate day to celebrate the Resurrection in a week in which you were observing the Passover correctly on 14 Nissan. Such Sunday-observance combined with Passover on 14 Nissan would leave the faith open to attack by making Jesus appear to be a liar. The Quatordecimans had a compromise solution. They suggested, to simplify things, that the resurrection should be celebrated on 14 Nissan (with the Passover) even though technically the Resurrection did not fall on Passover. Look at the validity of the Quatordecimans' concerns even among Protestants. We Protestants like Catholics persist in calling the Friday before Easter Sunday the "Good Friday." Good Friday commemorates the crucifixion. Now do the math! Three days and three nights later is Monday, not Sunday.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=913494"></a>There are fifteen points covered in a standard Passover Seder. When you correlate John, Matthew and Luke, steps one through four are mentioned in exact parallel; steps five through twelve (i.e., the particulars of the meal) are omitted; and then steps thirteen and fourteen are repeated again in identical parallel to the standard service. (See http://home.earthlink.net/~lionlamb/PassoverSeder.html.) What Jesus was saying in context was He wanted step four (the bread) and step thirteen (the wine) to now be done "in remembrance of Me."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=914028"></a>See Michael Harper, <em>It IS Pascha not Easter!</em> http://www.antiochian-orthodox.co.uk/pascha.htm (accessed 1/5/2007).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=914814"></a>Keil &amp; Delitzsch explain this was an "arbitrary alteration of the Law." They explain: "Jeroboam also transferred to the eighth month the feast which ought to have been kept in the seventh month (the feast of tabernacles, Lev 23:34.)."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=915118"></a>Daniel shows this other's activity is viewed negatively by saying in Daniel 7:26 "But the judgment shall be set, and they shall take away his dominion, to consume and to destroy it unto the end." Then in turn the kingdom taken from him "shall be given to the people of the saints of the Most High: His kingdom is an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve and obey him." (Dan. 7:27.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=915244"></a>All commentators agree Isaiah 59:21 is a promise of the New Covenant. Barnes says "these words" or "my words" means God's truth previously given "for the guidance and instruction of the church." Clarke says this means the "words of Jesus." But this overlooks the tense, which is a past tense. "These words" are words given prior to the coming of the Redeemer. Keil &amp; Delitzsch concur, but they try to claim the prior "words" are the words of a covenant given to Abraham in Genesis 17:1 <em>et seq</em>. No one wants to accept the simplest solution: Isaiah is saying the same thing as Jeremiah. God intended the Law is on the lips and in the hearts of all those who belong to the New Covenant.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=914918"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#20427"></a>et seq., viz., at 106.</p>
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<td valign="top" >"Second century Christians...continued to recognize that the teachings of Jesus--not Paul--were the central tenets of Christianity." (Bercot, <em>Theologians </em>(2010) at 51.)</td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Appendix C: The Abrahamic Covenant</h2>
<p>Most Christians are unaware that Paul also overthrew the true Abrahamic Covenant. Paul's arguments create a de-facto new Abrahamic covenant from Genesis 15:5-6, which he insisted had priority over the true Abrahamic covenant which is recorded in Genesis 17:1-7. Paul says the alleged promise in Genesis 15:6 of justification by faith is inherited by the offspring of Abraham, including believers in Christ (Gal. 3:6, 26). However, Genesis 15:5-6 does not say any such thing. In making this claim, Paul makes of none effect the terms of the true Abrahamic Covenant of Genesis 17:1-7. How so?</p>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915057"></a>First, Paul tries to claim the promise of Genesis 15:6 created faith alone as a basis of Abraham being right with God. Gal. 3:6. (As discussed elsewhere, this verse had nothing to do with imputed righteousness.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20D%20Abrahamic%20Covenanthtml.html#pgfId=915049"> 1</a> Then Paul says we inherit the promise of Genesis 15:5 (blessing of offspring as the number of stars) by the sheer step of faith that supposedly justified Abraham in Genesis 15:6. (Gal. 3:26.) The problem is that Paul has utterly ignored that there is no covenant offered with either Abraham or with any offspring in Genesis 15:5-6. A covenant with Abraham is only offered in Genesis 17:1-7, specifically mentioning it runs in favor of Abraham's offspring: "And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee." (Gen 17:7.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20D%20Abrahamic%20Covenanthtml.html#pgfId=915060"> 2</a> Please also note it was an eternal covenant. Its terms would never expire.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915072"></a>Furthermore, the condition of the Abrahamic covenant is not faith, but the obedience of Abraham: "walk before me, and be thou blameless and<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20D%20Abrahamic%20Covenanthtml.html#pgfId=915064"> 3</a> I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly." (Gen 17:1-2.) Consequently, Abraham and his "seed after you" had a duty in turn to "keep my covenant." (Gen. 17:3.) God repeats this in Genesis 18:8-9, saying that the covenant promise of God is contingent on Abraham obeying and teaching his children to obey God's commands.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20D%20Abrahamic%20Covenanthtml.html#pgfId=915070"> 4</a> Then, after Abraham's death, God affirmed to Isaac that Abraham had obeyed all God's law, which now justified God keeping His side of the covenant to Abraham's seed, namely Isaac:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=915077"></a>(1)... And Isaac went... unto Gerar. (2) And Jehovah appeared unto him, and said, Go not down into Egypt. Dwell in the land which I shall tell thee of. (3) Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee. For unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these lands, and I will establish the oath which I sware unto Abraham thy father. (4) And I will multiply thy seed as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these lands. And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed. (5) Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws. Gen 26:1-5 (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915082"></a>Thus, Paul turned a mere promise to Abraham alone in Genesis 15:5-6 into something it was never intended to be. Paul made it a distinct covenant of righteousness by faith that belonged to Abraham's offspring. Paul has caused generations of Christians to ignore the true covenant made between Abraham and God that was inheritable. It was clearly one premised on Abraham "walking with me blamelessly" in which case God "will" later enter into a covenant with Abraham. Gen. 17:1-2. We know from Genesis 26:1-5 that Abraham did obey God's commandments, and that God did assume His obligation under the covenant. God at that juncture brought a blessing on offspring of Abraham. The blessing was obtained by a covenant of obedience, not one upon faith alone.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915083"></a>Indeed, thereafter the terms of the true Abrahamic Covenant remained "eternal," just as God said. (Gen. 17:7.) This is ignored by Pauline Christians for it would overthrow Paul's Gospel if ever accepted.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915084"></a>For the same terms of the Abrahamic Covenant were then repeated by Moses in the Law in Deuteronomy 6:25: "And it shall be righteousness unto us, if we observe to do all this commandment before Jehovah our God, as he hath commanded us." Mercy is always possible for transgression if you turn from evil (Deut.13:17), but righteousness was only to be imputed again if repentance ensued. (Ezekiel 33:12-14.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915093"></a>This is why the Prophet Daniel likewise repeated the obedience-requirement for covenant promises to be kept: "And I prayed unto Jehovah my God, and made confession, and said, Oh, Lord, the great and dreadful God, who keepeth covenant and lovingkindness with them that love him and keep his commandments..." Dan 9:4.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915094"></a>Then of course Jesus put the same emphasis on "obeying" all "my teaching" for eternal life in John 8:51. Then, of course, if you fail to obey but you repent from sin and turn back to obedience, you are once more "justified" with God. (Luke 18:10 ff.) But those who "keep on disobeying the son continue to have the wrath of God reside on them." (John 3:36 ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915109"></a>Thus, we see all three covenants have identical principles on obedience and justification. They are a continuum of an identical message. God's promise of salvation is upon those who obey all His commands, statutes and ordinances. Atonement under such a system only applied to those who fled the altar first to be reconciled to the one they knew they had sinned against, as Jesus Himself said. (Matthew 5:23-24.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20D%20Abrahamic%20Covenanthtml.html#pgfId=915105"> 5</a> As Jesus repeatedly said, if you violate the commandments, you must engage in <a name="marker=915110"></a>severe repentance (figuratively cut off offending body parts) to avoid being sent to hell. (<a name="marker=915111"></a>Matthew 5:29,<a name="marker=915112"></a>Matthew 18:8, and <a name="marker=915113"></a>Mark 9:42-48.) Thus, all three covenants match each other with the same salvation doctrine.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915220"></a>This explains why God could say the Abrahamic covenant was "an everlasting covenant" (Gen 17:7) just as God could say "these ordinances" given Moses in the Law shall be "everlasting for all <a name="marker=915221"></a>generations." (<a name="marker=915222"></a>Ex. 27:21; 30:21; Lev. 6:18; 7:36; 10:9; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; 24:3; Num. 10:8.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=915257"></a>But if obedience to the Law creates justification (Deut. 6:25) this never meant it does so without faith, as Paul assumed. A command to have faith is not absent in the Law. Jesus said the "weightier matters of the Law" include not only Justice and Mercy, but also Faith. (Matt. 23:23.) A command to have faith/trust is found numerous times in the Law and Prophets, e.g., Deut. 31:6; Isaiah 26:4; and Jer. 17:7.</p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=915049"></a>See pages 251-53, 495, and 507.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=915060"></a>Pauline-biased scholars try to assert the covenant was put in place fourteen years earlier than Genesis 17:1-7. They claim it really was instituted when we read the promise in Genesis 15:5-6. (Keil &amp; Delitzsch.) However, that is not testing Paul by God's word for consistency, is it? That is <strong><em>backward reading into a passage to vindicate Paul.</em></strong> However, there is nothing in Genesis 17:1-7 to suggest any covenant was previously in place. In fact, as worded in Genesis 17:1-7, a covenant is still only a plan of God in the future, dependent on Abraham's obedience which had to be proven, not assumed. Genesis 17 reads: "And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, Jehovah appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am God Almighty; walk before me, and be thou blameless [a]nd I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly." (Gen 17:1-2 NAS.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=915064"></a>Some break these two clauses by putting a period before<strong><em> and</em></strong>. The apparent rationale is to weaken the embarrassing conditionality of obedience to God's adoption of the Abrahamic Covenant. The correct translation has no period, such as in the Geneva Study Bible, Latin Vulgate, Websters, Young's Literal, Italian Riveduta, Contemporary English Version, etc. The period punctuation appears in the KJV, NAS and the German Luther Bible. Yet, even with a period before <strong><em>and</em></strong>, the conditionality remains.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=915070"></a>"For I have known him [Abraham], to the end that he may command his children and his household after him, that they may keep the way of Jehovah, to do [work] righteousness and justice; to the end that Jehovah may bring upon Abraham that which he hath spoken of him." (Gen. 18:19 ASV.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=915105"></a>For a full discussion on this passage, and the clear reference to the Days of Ten, see <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#34099"></a>index.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Research Materials On Paul As The Benjamite Wolf of Prophecy</h2>
<p>In <em>Jesus Words Only</em>, chapter 14 presented the case that Paul fulfilled the Ravening Benjamite Wolf Prophecy of Jacob found at Genesis 49:27. See "<a href="/JWO/benjamite-wolf.html">Benjamite Wolf</a>."</p>
<p>We quoted the early church commentator, Hippolytus (170-236 AD), who saw Paul perfectly fit the Benjamite Ravening Wolf of Genesis 49:27. Hippolytus did so not realizing how negative the original Hebrew was about this person. Hippolytus trusted the Greek Septuagint 257 BC translation. It said the wolf "divided the food" --- <em>trophe </em>in the Greek translation known as the Septuagint. However, this mistranslated the Hebrew word for <em>spoil</em>, that is <em>shalal</em> . Thus, the "dividing" behavior was still part of the wolf's evil behavior. The Hebrew did not mean the more inoccuous concept of "apportioning food." Unaware of this, Hippolytus first quoted the verse Gen 49:27 as saying:</p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><q>Benjamin is a ravening wolf; in the morning he shall devour still, and till evening he apportions food.</q></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Then HIPPOLYTUS commented:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"This<em><strong> thoroughly suits Paul</strong></em>, who was of the tribe of Benjamin. For when he was young, he was a ravening wolf; but when he believed, he <q>apportioned</q> food. This also is shown us by the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that the tribe of Benjamin is among the first persecutors, which is the sense of <q>in the morning.</q> For Saul, who was of the tribe of Benjamin, persecuted David, who was appointed to be a type of the Lord." [Hippolytus, <em>Refutation of All Heresies</em> 5.168.]</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">[<a href="http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0502.htm">Catholic New Advent Encyclopedia</a>.][Rev. S.D.F.Salmond, <a href="http://www.voxdeibaptist.org/Hippolytus_of_Rome_Exegetical.htm"><em>Hippolytus</em> <em>of Rome: Extant Fragments of Hippolytus</em></a>.] [Anti-Nicene Fathers - Hippolytus (trans. Rev. J. H. Macmahon) Vol. 5</p>
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<p>Three more sources from the early church besides Hippolytus thought Paul fulfilled the Benjamite Wolf prophecy in Genesis <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis%2049:27&amp;version=KJV">49:27</a>. These three were: Jerome and Tertullian and a Christian interpolator to the Testament of the 12 Patriarchs.</p>
<p>First, in a letter of Jerome to Marcella in 386 AD, it reads in part:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">If the faith of the apostle Peter is shaken by Our Lord's passion, it is that amid his bitter tears he may hear the words: "Feed my sheep." Paul, that<strong><em> ravening wolf, that little Benjamin</em></strong>, is blinded in a trance, but as the result he gains clear vision, and from the sudden horror of darkness around him calls upon Him as Lord whom in the past he persecuted as man.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><em>Sancti Eusebii Hieronymi Epistulae (</em>ed. Isidorus Hilberg) (New York: Johnson, 1970, repr.1910-18) 3 Vols.; ep.38. The translation and annotation from F.A.Wright, <em>Select Letters of St. Jerome </em>(Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1933, repr.1980) at 158-67 (reprinted online at <a href="http://epistolae.ccnmtl.columbia.edu/letter/308.html">http://epistolae.ccnmtl.columbia.edu/letter/308.html</a>)</p>
<p>Tertullian in 207 A.D. in <em>Against Marcion</em> likewise saw Paul as fulfilling the prophecy in Genesis 49, but like others familiar with the Greek Septuagint Bible, Tertullian spins the second part of Gen 49:27 to Paul's favor -- which positive spin is textually implausible from the Hebrew, as discussed in <em>Jesus' Words Only </em>(2007) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA335#v=snippet&amp;q=benjamite%20wolf&amp;f=false">335</a>. Regardless, Tertullian wrote in 207 A.D.:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Because even the <strong><em>book of Genesis </em></strong>so long ago <strong><em>promised me the Apostle Paul</em></strong>. For among the types and prophetic blessings which he pronounced over his sons, Jacob, when he turned his attention to <strong><em>Benjamin</em></strong>, exclaimed, “Benjamin shall <strong><em>ravin as a wolf</em></strong>; in the morning he shall devour the prey, and at night he shall impart nourishment.” <strong><em>He foresaw that Paul would arise out of the tribe of Benjamin</em></strong>, a voracious wolf, devouring his prey in the morning: in order words, in the early period of his life he would devastate the Lords sheep, as a persecutor of the churches; but in the<strong><em> evening he would give them nourishment</em></strong>, which means that in his declining years he would educate the fold of Christ, as the teacher of the Gentiles. Tertullian,<em> Latin Christianity: Its Founder Tertullian</em> (ed. Philip Schaff)(1885) at 735 (PDF at 783)(downloaded from Christian Classics Ethereal Library at this <a href="http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf03.pdf?membership_type=2634da9d44711718c2fecc2ddf85e80ee73207aa">link</a>.)</p>
<p>But again, Tertullian is placing a favorable spin on something that in Genesis in Hebrew is not favorable. "Dividing the spoils" means taking those you killed and then eating them. Paul divided the church and then sucked away the Gentiles for himself. The second part of Gen 49:27 does not read "shall impart nourishment" in the Hebrew original.</p>
<p>What explains this? The erroneous translation of the Hebrew Bible into the Greek Septuagint of 257 BC.  The Masoretic Hebrew text says "divide the spoil" (<em>shalal</em> in Hebrew) in <a href="http://biblos.com/genesis/49-27.htm">49:27</a>, but the Septuagint Greek translation says "will provide food" -- <em><a href="http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3Dtrofh%2F&amp;highlight=food">trophe</a></em> in Greek. (See Septuagint, <a href="http://en.katabiblon.com/us/index.php?text=LXX&amp;book=Gn&amp;ch=49&amp;interlin=on">Gen. 49</a> with English transliteration.)</p>
<p>Finally, the <em>Jewish Encyclopedia</em> in "<a href="http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/2947-benjamin">Benjami</a>n" notes that in the early church a third source identified Paul as the ravening wolf of the Deuteronomy prophecy:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span>[Benjamin's] comparison to the ravening wolf (Cant. R. to viii. 1), "who devours his enemy" (Gen. xlix. 27) is referred to ...</span> also in the original text of the Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs [Benjamin ii]; whereas a Christian interpolation refers it to Paul. </span></p>
<p>The <a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/patriarchs-charles.html">Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs</a> was a Christian (Pauline) work from about 200 AD of what purported to be solely a Jewish document that existed prior to the Christian era. See "<a href="http://www.earlyjewishwritings.com/testtwelve.html">Testament of the 12</a>" and "<a href="http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/patriarchs.html">Patriachs</a>." This source tries to turn around Jacob's prophecy from a negative to a positive. This time Benjamin is speaking, and he himself prophecies that no longer will he be called the wolf that ravens, but a blessing to the Gentiles. Obviously, it was politically necessary for Paulinists to deflect the attention this verse had as inimical to Paul's validity. Thus this apocryphal book was invented to help have Benjamin contradict Jacob's true prophecy that the end result was <em>negative.</em></p>
<h2>Jesus' Message About The Ravening Wolf Is More Identifying</h2>
<p>Both Tertullian and Jerome failed to line up Genesis with our Savior's Words that speak clearly that the "ravening <img src="/images/stories/wolf_in_sheeps_clothing.jpg" width="200" height="221" alt="wolf_in_sheeps_clothing" style="float: right;" />wolf" who comes as a false prophet is in "sheep's clothing," <em>i.e.</em>, outwardly appears to be a Christian. Our savior says that inwardly this sheep-appearing person is actually a "ravening wolf." (Matt. 7:15.) Our Lord deliberately spoke of the "ravening wolf" knowing that Genesis spoke about the "ravening wolf" coming from the tribe of Benjamin. (Gen. 49:27.) This was our Good Shepherd's effort to leave behind a clue to identify the coming one we should not trust is a true sheep.</p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<p>Justin Martyr in 165 AD discusses that Jesus fulfilled the prophecy of Jacob of Shiloh to come who would wash his garments in the "blood of grapes." See First Apology <a href="http://www.archive.org/stream/firstapologyofju00just">XL</a> at page 40 and LXXI at pages 66-67.</p>
<h2><strong>Email Inquiry About How Paul Can Be Benjamite &amp; Herodian At Same Time</strong></h2>
<p>V's Question:</p>
<p><span>Doug,</span><br /><br /><span>Your friend V again.  Could you elaborate on Paul's fulfillment of the Benjamite wolf prophecy vis a vis the discussion of his Herodian ancestoral connection.  If he was born of Greek parents, how can he be from the tribe of Benjamin? </span><span>Thanks in advance for your time.</span></p>
<h3>My Reply</h3>
<p><span>V</span></p>
<div>As I explained in JWO, Herodians are mixed ethnic figures. They have 1 parent who is Jewish, and one who is not, or somewhere in the ancestral line this is true. If Paul was a Herodian, it could mean that one parent was from one of the 12 tribes. So if one is a Benjamite tribal member who marries an Herodian, Paul belongs to the tribe of Benjamin. Paul is thus not technically Jewish in the traditional definition of a mother who is Jewish (which is tradition), but Paul would still be a Benjamite because tribal status exists even if it is a mixed line.</div>
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<p>For example, 2 tribes were mixed from the beginning -- the children of Joseph <strong><em>by an Egyptian wife</em></strong>. The tribe of Manesseh is one of them. Here is a Biblical depiction of that tribe of Israel which is half Jewish (Joseph) and half an Egyptian mother. Thus, this supports viewing <strong><em>tribal lineage is not a matter of Jewish purity at all</em></strong>. Here is the wikipedia link <a target="_blank" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manasseh_(tribal_patriarch)">http://en.wikipedia.org/<wbr />wiki/Manasseh_(tribal_<wbr />patriarch)</a> and a snippet quote:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><strong>Manasseh</strong> or <strong>Menashe</strong> (<a target="_blank" title="Hebrew language" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_language">Hebrew</a>: <span dir="rtl" lang="he"><wbr />מְנַשֶּׁה</span>, <small><a target="_blank" title="Modern Israeli Hebrew" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modern_Israeli_Hebrew">Modern</a></small> <em><span title="he transliteration">Menaše</span></em> <small><a target="_blank" title="Tiberian vocalization" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tiberian_vocalization">Tiber<wbr />ian</a></small> <em><span title="Hebrew transliteration">Mənaššéh</span></em><small><a target="_blank" title="Samaritan Hebrew" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samaritan_Hebrew">Samaritan</a></small> <em><span>Manaṯ</span></em>) was, according to the <a target="_blank" title="Book of Genesis" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Genesis">Book of Genesis</a>, the first son of <a target="_blank" title="Joseph (Hebrew Bible)" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_(Hebrew_Bible)">Joseph</a> and <a target="_blank" title="Asenath" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asenath">Asenath</a>. (<a target="_blank" href="http://bibref.hebtools.com/?book=%20Genesis&amp;verse=41:50-52&amp;src=HE" rel="nofollow">Genesis 41:50-52</a>) Asenath was<strong><em> an </em><em><a target="_blank" title="Ancient Egypt" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_Egypt">Egyptian</a><span> woman whom </span><a target="_blank" title="Pharaoh" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharaoh">Pharaoh</a></em><em> gave to Joseph as wife,</em></strong> and the daughter of <a target="_blank" title="Potipherah" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Potipherah">Potipherah</a>, a priest of <a target="_blank" title="Heliopolis (ancient)" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heliopolis_(ancient)">On</a>. (<a target="_blank" href="http://bibref.hebtools.com/?book=%20Genesis&amp;verse=41:50-52&amp;src=HE" rel="nofollow">Genesis 41:50-52</a>) Manasseh was born in Egypt before the arrival of the <a target="_blank" title="Children of Israel" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Children_of_Israel">children of Israel</a> from <a target="_blank" title="Canaan" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canaan">Canaan</a>. (<a target="_blank" href="http://bibref.hebtools.com/?book=%20Genesis&amp;verse=48:5&amp;src=HE" rel="nofollow">Genesis 48:5</a>)</p>
<p>And here is a reference to this Manasseh becoming a tribal head from WIkipedia at this link <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tribe_of_Manasseh">http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tribe_of_Manasseh</a>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>According to the </span><a title="Hebrew Bible" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_Bible">Hebrew Bible</a><span>, the </span><strong>Tribe of Manasseh</strong><span> (</span><span class="nowrap"><span title="pronunciation:"><img height="11" width="11" src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/8/8a/Loudspeaker.svg/11px-Loudspeaker.svg.png" alt="play" /></span> <span class="IPA" title="Representation in the International Phonetic Alphabet (IPA)"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English">/</a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="'m' in 'my'">m</span></a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="/ə/ 'a' in 'about'">ə</span></a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="/ˈ/ primary stress follows">ˈ</span></a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="'n' in 'nigh'">n</span></a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="/æ/ short 'a' in 'bad'">æ</span></a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="'s' in 'sigh'">s</span></a></span><span class="IPA"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English#Key"><span title="/ə/ 'a' in 'about'">ə</span></a></span><span class="IPA" title="Representation in the International Phonetic Alphabet (IPA)"><a title="Wikipedia:IPA for English" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:IPA_for_English">/</a></span></span><span>; </span><a title="Hebrew language" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_language">Hebrew</a><span>: </span><span xml:lang="he" dir="rtl" lang="he">מְנַשֶּׁה</span><span>, </span><small><a class="mw-redirect" title="Modern Israeli Hebrew" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modern_Israeli_Hebrew">Modern</a></small><span> </span><em><span class="Unicode" title="he transliteration">Menashe</span></em><span></span><small><a title="Tiberian vocalization" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tiberian_vocalization">Tiberian</a></small><span> </span><em><span class="Unicode" title="Hebrew transliteration">Mənaššé</span></em><span> ; "who makes to forget") was one of the </span><a title="Israelites" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israelites">Tribes of Israel</a><span>. Together with the </span><a title="Tribe of Ephraim" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tribe_of_Ephraim">Tribe of Ephraim</a><span>, Manasseh also formed the </span><em><a class="mw-redirect" title="House of Joseph" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/House_of_Joseph">House of Joseph</a></em><span>.</span></p>
<p>Hence, I would say that Paul can be of the tribe of Benjamin and simultaneously be an Herodian as the evidence supports from Paul's own letters and temple-police service.<br />Blessings<br />Doug</p>
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<h2>Parallelism Between David &amp; Jesus And Benjamite Foes</h2>
<p>[Letter from Stephen 9/9/2012]</p>
<p>Does 1 Kings 2:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">8 And remember, you have with you Shimei<sup></sup> son of Gera, the Benjamite from Bahurim, who called down bitter curses on me the day I went to Mahanaim.<sup></sup> When he came down to meet me at the Jordan, I swore<sup></sup> to him by the <span>Lord</span>: I will not put you to death by the sword. <sup>9 </sup>But now, do not consider him innocent. You are a man of wisdom;<sup></sup> you will know what to do to him. Bring his gray head down to the grave in blood.” <sup>10 </sup>Then David rested with his ancestors and was buried<sup></sup> in the City of David.<sup></sup> <sup>11 </sup>He had reigned<sup></sup> forty years over Israel—seven years in Hebron and thirty-three in Jerusalem. <sup>12 </sup>So Solomon sat on the throne<sup></sup> of his father David, and his rule was firmly established.</p>
<p>parallel to Paul by analogy?</p>
<p>Here is how the analogy would apply:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">And remember, you have with you Saul/Paul, the Pharisees, the Benjamite from Tarsus, who called down bitter curses on you (all who reject Paul) the day he left Jerusalem.... But now, do not consider him innocent. You are a man of wisdom, you will know what to do to him. bring his gray head down to the grave in blood.</p>
<h3>Deuteronomy 33:12's Promise of Protection to Those Beloved of Lord When Among Benjamites</h3>
<p>If you read the Dead Sea Scrolls Bible (manuscript 250 BC) of Deuteronomy 33:12, you are reading the least possibly altered and oldest manuscript version of the Bible. The DSS version has Moses' words of blessings over each trial, in which Moses says of Benjamin (and this is all Moses says):</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Of Benjamin he said: "The beloved of the Lord shall dwell in<em><strong> safety by him</strong></em>. He covers him all the day long, and he [NIV correctly extrapolates as "the one the Lord loves"] dwells between his shoulders." (Abegg, etc., <em>DSS</em> page 194.)</p>
<p>This same "safety by him" is found in the ASV, NASB, Darby, Webster's, YLT. And the comparable "with him" is found in the KJV and God's Word.</p>
<p>However, the NIV renders it to flatter Benjamin and make him the source of protection: "Let the beloved rest secure <strong><em>in him</em></strong>."</p>
<p>But the DSS and the greater / better translations say that the beloved of the Lord shall rest in "safety <strong><em>by him</em></strong>." This can easily mean <em><strong>Benjamin cannot touch the beloved of the Lord</strong></em>.</p>
<p>Then "He covers him" is God covers "him" <em>i.e.</em>, the beloved of the Lord, and "he" - the beloved of the Lord "dwells between his shoulders" meaning that those God loves can lay their head even on Benjamin, and show him affection, but God promises the "beloved of the Lord" can do so safely. Even the NIV renders this second sentence to mean this.</p>
<p>Hence, Deut 33:12 is a promise of protection of those who God loves that they cannot be truly harmed by those associated with Benjamin.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Fourteen</h2>
<h2>Who Is The Benjamite Wolf In Prophecy?</h2>
<h3 class="Heading1"><strong>Jesus' Words on the Ravening Wolf</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464095"></a> Jesus several times mentions a wolf or wolves. He says the false prophets will be wolves dressed like sheep. This means they will claim to be followers of Christ, but "inwardly [they] are <em><strong>ravening wolves</strong></em>." The full quote is:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464096"></a> Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly are <strong><em>ravening wolves</em></strong>. (Matt. <a href="http://bible.cc/matthew/7-15.htm">7:15</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464097"></a> Jesus warns true Christians that they are at risk from these so-called Christians who are truly ravening wolves inside.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464098"></a> Behold, I send you forth as sheep in the midst of<em><strong> wolves</strong></em>: be ye therefore wise as serpents, and harmless as doves. (Matt. <a href="http://bible.cc/matthew/10-16.htm">10:16</a>)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464099"></a> Christian leaders who do not care for the flock will leave the average Christian at the mercy of these ravening wolves. Jesus explains:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464100"></a> He that is a hireling, and not a shepherd, whose own the sheep are not, beholdeth the wolf coming, and leaveth the sheep, and fleeth, and the <em><strong>wolf snatcheth them</strong></em>, and scattereth them: (John <a href="http://bible.cc/john/10-12.htm">10:12</a>)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464101"></a> He fleeth because he is a hireling, and careth not for the sheep. (John <a href="http://bible.cc/john/10-13.htm">10:13</a>)(ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464102"></a> Is this imagery of the ravening wolf as the false prophet ever spoken about elsewhere in Scripture? Yes, in fact there is a prophecy in the book of Genesis that the tribe of Benjamin would later produce just such a "ravening wolf." (Gen. <a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-27.htm">49:27</a>.)<strong><a name="pgfId=464103"></a></strong></p>
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<h3><strong>Genesis Prophecies of Messiah and His Enemy from the Tribe of Benjamin</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464104"></a> Paul tells us in Romans<a href="http://bible.cc/romans/11-1.htm"> 11:1</a>, "For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of <em><strong>Benjamin</strong></em>." Paul repeats this in Philippians<a href="http://bible.cc/philippians/3-5.htm"> 3:5</a>, saying he is "of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of <em><strong>Benjamin</strong></em>."<sup> <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA332#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">1</a></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464108"></a> Keeping this in mind, Genesis has a very interesting Messianic prophecy. Modern Christians are sadly generally unaware of this prophecy. It may be ignored because the nearby passage about a Benjamite ravening wolf in the latter days hits too close to home. It is better to ignore a clear Messianic prophecy than to risk seeing the Bible prophesied the emergence of Paul and the error he would propagate among Christians.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464109"></a> In Genesis chapter 49, Jacob, also known as Israel, utters a prophecy of the latter days. In this prophecy, Jacob identifies the role of each son and his tribe. The passage begins:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464110"></a> And Jacob called unto his sons, and said: gather yourselves together, that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the latter days. (Gen<a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-1.htm"> 49:1</a>)</p>
<h4 class="BodyAfterHead"><strong><span style="color: #0000ff;">A</span>. <span style="color: #0000ff;">Prophecy That Judah Produce Messiah</span></strong></h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Then Jacob delivers a prophecy about his son Judah and the tribe of Judah for the latter days. It is a clear Messianic prophecy.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464112"></a> The sceptre shall not depart from Judah [<em>i.e</em>., the right to rule belongs to this tribe], Nor the ruler's staff from between his feet, Until Shiloh come: And<strong><em> unto him shall the obedience of the peoples be</em></strong>. (Gen <a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-10.htm">49:10</a>)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464113"></a> Binding his foal unto the vine, And his ass's colt unto the choice vine; He hath<em><strong> washed his garments in wine, And his vesture in the blood of grapes</strong></em>. (Gen <a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-11.htm">49:11</a>)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464114"></a> His eyes shall be red with wine, And his teeth white with milk. (Gen <a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-12.htm">49:12</a>) (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464115"></a> The root word for Shiloh comes from Shalom, meaning peace. Shiloh means one who brings peace. Shiloh comes holding the sceptre of Judah. Shilo thus is a prince of peace.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464116"></a> This passage therefore clearly depicts Messiah, the Prince of Peace, with his garments bathed in the blood of grapes. All obedience will be owed him. The Genesis-Shiloh Messiah is then presented in similar imagery as the Lamb of God in the Book of Revelation. (Rev. <a href="http://bible.cc/revelation/19-13.htm">19:13</a> "garment sprinkled with blood".)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464117"></a> Ancient Jewish scholars also read this Genesis passage to be a Messianic prophecy. In all three Rabbinic Targums, the Hebrew scholars taught Shiloh was the name for Messiah. This was also repeated by many ancient Jewish writers. (Gill, Gen. <a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-10.htm">49:10</a>.)</p>
<h4 class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="color: #0000ff;"><strong>B. Benjamite "Ravening Wolf" Prophecy</strong></span></h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464118"></a> So why is this Messianic passage so unfamiliar to Christians? Perhaps because in close proximity we find Jacob's prophecy about the tribe of Benjamin. This Benjamite prophecy follows many positive predictions for all the other eleven tribes.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464119"></a> Of whom does the Benjamite prophecy speak? When weighed carefully, <em><strong>there is very little chance that the Benjamite prophecy could be about anyone but Paul.</strong></em> This prophecy about Benjamin, if it was to be fulfilled and then verified, must have been fulfilled in the time of Christ. At that time, the tribes of Judah, Levi, and Benjamin still had survived. The others were the lost tribes of the Diaspora. (Gill, commentary on Gen. 49:10.) After the time of Christ, any distinguishable tribe of Benjamin soon disappeared. Thus, the prophecy about Benjamin is no longer capable of being fulfilled and confirmed. Accordingly, one must consider the possibility this verse is talking about Paul. In fact, the early Christian church, as demonstrated below, did think this was a prophecy about Paul. Somehow we lost memory of this teaching.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464120"></a> Let's turn now to Jacob's last prophecy about the Benjamites in the "latter days" when Shiloh comes. Here we read of the imagery of a ravening wolf that identifies the tribe of Benjamin.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464121"></a> <em><strong>Benjamin is a wolf that raveneth</strong></em>: In the morning she shall devour the prey, And at even[ing] he shall divide the spoil. (Gen <a href="http://bible.cc/genesis/49-27.htm">49:27</a>) (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464122"></a> <a name="22859"></a> Let's analyze this verse--for there is a time-sequence to the ravening wolf's activity. In the morning, he devours the prey. This means he kills his prey. In the evening, he takes the spoils left over after killing the prey. There are many metaphorical similarities to Paul. He starts as a killer of Christians or as one who approves the killing of Christians. (Acts <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/7-58.htm">7:58</a>; <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/8-1.htm">8:1</a>-3,<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/9-1.htm"> 9:1</a>.) However, later Paul claims a right of division among his earlier prey--he exclusively will recruit Gentiles as Christians while the twelve apostles supposedly would exclusively recruit Jews. (Galatians <a href="http://bible.cc/galatians/2-9.htm">2:9</a>.)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464125" class="footnote"> </a><sup><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA334#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">2</a></sup></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464129"></a> <a name="24613"></a> In fact, in the early Christian church, this entire verse of Genesis 49:27 was read to be a prophecy about Paul. However, the second part was then spun favorably to Paul. An early church writer, Hippolytus (200s A.D.), said Paul fulfilled Genesis 49:27 because Paul started as a murderer of Christians, fulfilling the first part of Genesis 49:27. The second part about `dividing the spoil' was interpreted by Hippolytus to mean Paul made Christian followers predominantly among Gentiles. However, this was read positively. Hippolytus believed Paul divided the spoil in a manner God intended. However, <strong><em>dividing the spoil</em></strong> means<strong><em> plundered</em></strong>. It does not have a positive connotation. This spin by Hippolytus on dividing the spoil as a good deed was wishful thinking. God instead was sending a prophecy of the evil that would be done by this Benjamite, not the good.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a> <a name="34690"></a> Here is the quote from the early church writer Hippolytus (estimated to be 205 A.D.) wherein he saw God prophesying of Paul in Genesis 49:27:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464131"></a> `<em><strong>Benjamin is a devouring wolf.</strong></em> In the morning, he will devour the prey, and at night he will apportion the food.' <strong><em>This thoroughly fits Paul</em></strong>, who was of the tribe of Benjamin. For when he was young, he was a ravaging wolf. However, when he believed, he `apportioned the food.' (Hippolytus, W 5.168.)[quoted <em><a href="http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0502.htm">Catholic Encylopedia</a></em>.] See also footnote<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464134" class="footnote"> <sup><strong>3</strong></sup></a> below.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">[Update: Many other sources in early church also said Paul was the fuflillment of the Benjamite Wolf prophecy. See <a href="/JWO/benjamite-wolf-research.html">our webpage</a> on that "Benjamite Wolf Research" material. There we discuss Hippolytus was relying upon the Septuagint mistranslation, which simply has 'distribute the food.']<a name="pgfId=464135"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">These writings from the early church demonstrates two things: (a) early Christians were more familiar than ourselves with the Shiloh Messianic prophecy in Genesis 49:10-12; and (b) if one knew the Shiloh prophecy, one could not avoid seeing in close proximity the prophecy of a Benjamite wolf (Genesis 49:27) whereupon one would realize it is unmistakably talking about Paul. As Hippolytus says, "this thoroughly fits Paul."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464136"></a> What do modern Pauline Christian commentators do with the Benjamite wolf prophecy? While some admit Genesis 49:27 is about Paul, and spin the divide the spoils aspect of the prophecy favorably toward Paul as a good deed,<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464139" class="footnote"> 4</a> the leading commentators take an entirely different approach. Gill, for example, adopts the ancient Jewish explanation of this prophecy of the latter days. Because Benjamin's territory was where the Temple was located, it was said the offering of the morning and evening sacrifice fell to his lot, i.e., territory.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464348" class="footnote"> 5</a> Thus, this verse was supposedly intended to be talking about Benjamin's indirect role in the killing the sacrifice in the morning and evening. The performance of the sacrifices, of course, are positive God-serving actions if attributable to Benjamin's actions. Thus, rather than a ravening wolf being an evil beast who attacks innocent sheep, modern Christian commentators say Benjamin was being complimented for possessing wolf-like "fortitude, courage, and valour." (Gill.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464140"></a> Gill ignores many key flaws in this application. First, the role of Benjamin's tribe in the killing was entirely passive, i.e., its territory was ceded to help locate the temple where sacrifices later took place. This passive role cannot evince any kind of courage or valour. It is a poor solution.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464369"></a> More important, Gill ignores the context of the passage itself. The word prey, raveneth, wolf, spoils, etc., all are forebodings of evil acts, not courageous valor in good deeds. A ravening wolf is a wolf that is prowling and eating voraciously. Furthermore, the sacrificed animals in the temple are hardly prey. Also, technically, Benjamin's land-lot was used to kill the sacrifice in both the morning and evening. However, if prey means sacrifice, this prophecy was about killing prey only in the morning. Thus, it is incongruous to read this prophecy to be about Benjamin's land-lot being used in the evening and morning sacrifice.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464141"></a> Furthermore, Gill also overlooked the motivation behind these Targum explanations. The other tribes were probably mystified why their father Jacob warned them about Benjamin's tribe in the latter days. Gill fails to realize the Hebrew scholars who wrote the ancient Targums were engaged in good politics. The other eleven tribes were reassuring Benjamin that he was trusted. What else could they say to keep peace?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464142"></a> As a result, we are not beholden to that ancient polite resolution of this latter days prophecy. We now can see the clear fulfillment of this prophecy in the deeds of Paul.</p>
<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464143"></a> <strong>Gill Also Overlooks the Bible's Portrayal Later of the Tribe of Benjamin</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464144"></a> The Bible also gives us later an adequate depiction of the tribe of Benjamin and its members so that it is impossible to believe Genesis 49:27 was meant at all positively. It was a portent of gloomy evil by the Benjamites. The Bible has utterly unflattering stories about the Benjamites.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464145"></a> First, at the same time the tribe of Benjamin's territory served its supposedly noble role in the morning/evening sacrifice, the Benjamites were fighting a war against the other eleven tribes. In two days, the Benjamites killed 40,000 members of the other tribes. However, the Benjamites were later lured into leaving their city, and lost their war. The tribe of Benjamin was virtually annihilated. (Judges chs. 19-21). In this episode, there is a particularly distasteful event. The men of Gibeah were Benjamites who the Bible describes as "a perverse lot." They cruelly tried to abuse a visitor and then they raped an old man's concubine. (Judges 19:14, 22, 25.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464146"></a> Certainly, to this point in the Bible, the Benjamites are depicted as quite evil and even as anti-Israelites.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a> The next and last Bible story of Benjamites is more of the same negative portrayal of Benjamites. This story also has uncanny parallels to Saul-Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a> The Bible tells us King Saul was a Benjamite. (1 Sam. 9:21.) He is at one point an inspired true prophet, given a "new heart"--you could even say born again. (1 Sam. 10:9-10.) Yet, later King Saul pursued the man named David to kill him. Saul did so despite knowing God decided David would replace Saul as King. (1 Sam. 18:8-10; 19:10.) Saul became so depraved that he wanted to kill his own son Jonathan because of his loyalty to David. (1 Sam. 20: 30-34.) Thus, Saul is an example of a true prophet from the tribe of Benjamin who later turned false by virtue of defying God's anointed (messhiach).<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464153" class="footnote"> 6</a> Unfortunately, Saul also would not be the last Saul from the tribe of Benjamin to begin apparently as a true prophet but who later defied the messhiach.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464154"></a> Incidentally, it is reassuring to remember that Saul, the Benjamite, did not triumph over the house of David. Eventually David took the throne from Saul. Initially, King Saul would not yield the throne to the House of David despite Saul prophetically knowing God's will to choose David. Saul made a desperate stand to hold onto raw power even after he realized he lacked God's true blessing. Nevertheless, the House of David eventually triumphed anyway over the Benjamite Saul. (1 Samuel 9:1-2; 10:1; 15:10, 30, 16:1.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464155"></a> Thus, if Pauline Christians are the modern followers of the Benjamite wolf, then we know they are resisting following Jesus' words just like King Saul resisted letting David have the throne. Despite all their efforts to kill off Jesus' words by means of strained interpretations of various dispensations, God's anointed from the House of David will eventually triumph.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a> Regardless whether King Saul's story was intended to serve as such a parable, we can see in King Saul another Benjamite whose actions were evil in the last analysis. Prior to Paul's arrival, the Bible never depicts the Benjamite tribe as doing any good. Instead, the Bible portrays this tribe and its members as fighting the rest of Israel and God's anointed from the House of David. Thus, Gill's notion that Genesis 49:27 was intended to compliment the valor of the Benjamites is completely baseless. It is solely a verse portending gloomy evil by members of this tribe, of which the Bible documents every step of the way right up to the point Paul is himself helping murder Christians.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a> Next we shall see how to discern the wolf by his deeds. The Bible, in Ezekiel, is highly specific. There is no question that Paul in his post-conversion teachings fits the traits of the time of the ravening wolves depicted by Ezekiel.</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h3><strong>Ezekiel's Warning About the Ravening Wolves</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464159"></a> Jesus said we would know the false prophets who are ravening wolves in sheep's clothing by their "deeds." (<a name="marker=464160"></a> Matt. 7:16.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a> How could we know who the wolf is by their deeds? Does this mean their deeds are merely wicked? Or does it mean their deeds are precisely described elsewhere in Scripture so you could not possibly mistake who are the wolves in sheep's clothing? In light of Ezekiel's description of the ravening wolves, it is likely the latter. God made a highly specific description of the deeds of the ravening wolves so we would "know them by their deeds." (Matt. 7:16.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464162"></a> The picture in Ezekiel chapter 22 of the time of the ravening wolves is startling in its parallel to Paul and Pauline Christianity. This description tells us what God thinks about the descent of Christianity into church-going that disregards the true Sabbath and the Law, dismisses the teachings of Jesus as belonging to a by-gone dispensation, and instead follows Paul because he claims a vision and boldly claimed to speak in the Lord's name. Ezekiel described the time of the ravening wolves in an uncanny parallel to Paulinism:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a> Her priests have done violence to my law, and have profaned my holy things: they have made <em><strong>no distinction between the holy and the common</strong></em>, neither have they caused men to d<em><strong>iscern between the unclean and the clean</strong></em>, and <strong><em>have hid their eyes from my sabbaths</em></strong>, and I am profaned among them. (Eze 22:26)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a> Her princes in the midst thereof are like <em><strong>wolves ravening the prey</strong></em>, to shed blood, and to destroy souls, that they may get dishonest gain. (Eze 22:27)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a> And her prophets have daubed for them with untempered mortar, <strong><em>seeing false visions</em></strong>, and divining lies unto them, saying, <em><strong>Thus saith the Lord Jehovah, when Jehovah hath not spoken</strong></em>. (Eze 22:28)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464166"></a> The people of the land have used oppression, and exercised robbery; yea, they have vexed the poor and needy, and have oppressed the sojourner wrongfully. (Eze 22:29)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a> And I sought for a man among them, that should build up the wall, and stand in the gap before me for the land, that I should not destroy it; but I found none. (Eze 22:30)(ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a> Thus, those leading the people are ravening wolves. They are called the princes (leaders) in the people's eyes. They are buttressed by those having false visions and claims to have the right to speak in the name of the Lord. Their leaders seduce the people from following the Law. They teach them they are free to ignore the true Saturday Sabbath. They say all food is pure, and none unclean. Their teaching also leads to the vexation of the poor and the foreigner. There will be a time when no one is left who stands against these principles.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464171" class="footnote"> 7</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464172"></a> Now look at the<em><strong> parallels between these wolves and Paul</strong></em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464173"></a> First, Paul claimed a vision of Jesus. (Acts chapters. 9, 22, 26.) Based on this vision experience, Paul wanted us to accept that he was speaking directly from the Lord. (E.g., 1 Cor. 14:37; <a name="marker=464174"></a> 1 Tim. 2:11; 1 Cor. 2:13; 1 Thess.4:1-2,8; 1 Thess. 2:13; Eph. 4:17. cf. 1 Cor. 7:25, 40.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464175"></a> Second, Paul's view that the Law is entirely abrogated is well-established. (2 Cor. 2:14; Gal. 5:1; Rom. 10:4; 2 Cor. 3:7; Gal. 5:1; Col. 2:14-17; Rom. 3:27; Rom. 4:15; 2 Cor. 3:9; Gal. 2:16; Gal. 3:21; Col. 2:14.)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464181" class="footnote"> 8</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464733"></a> Third, Paul's view that we are free to ignore the Saturday Sabbath or any Sabbath-principle is undeniable. (Rom. 14:5; Col. 2:14-16.)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464739" class="footnote"><sup><strong> 9</strong></sup></a> (Paul's followers typically behave like Jeroboam who offended God by moving God's set day to a "day he invented in his heart." (1 Kings 12:33 RV.))<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464761" class="footnote"> <sup><strong>10</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464740"></a> Fourth, Paul's view that we are free to eat any food we like, including eat meat sacrificed to idols, is likewise plain. (1 Tim. 4:4, `all food is clean'; Romans 4:2.)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464743" class="footnote"> <sup><strong>11</strong></sup></a> Paul taught we only refrain from eating idol meat when others are encouraged to do what they believe is wrong even though we know such food is clean. (<a name="marker=464744"></a> Romans 14:21;<a name="marker=464745"></a> 1 Corinthians 8:4-13, and 1 Corinthians 10:19-29.)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464751" class="footnote"> <sup><strong>12</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464198"></a> Fifth, did Paul give instructions to Christians which vex the poor? Some believe the following quote vexes the poor with a criteria for assistance never found in the Hebrew Scriptures.</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464199"></a> For even when we were with you, this we commanded you, If any will not work, neither let him eat. (2Th 3:10) (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464200"></a> How many people have resisted giving food to a poor person simply because they are unemployed and they do not pass a Pauline-inspired interview about their willingness to work for it? This work requirement sometimes will stall the urgent help that a poor person has for food. Nowhere in Hebrew Scripture is there any such barrier to God's command that you are to feed the poor. In fact, Scripture specifically intends for us to generously provide food for the poor to eat even if we have no idea whether they are willing to work.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014html.html#pgfId=464203" class="footnote"> <sup><strong>13</strong></sup></a> Thus, Paul's principle that if any will not work, neither let him eat has served as a punitive vexation on poor people by Christians who follow Paul's dictum. (Many Christians, of course, do not follow Paul's dictum, and follow instead the Bible's rule of open-handed provision of food to the poor.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464204"></a> Alternatively, we also now realize the early church at Jerusalem was known as the Poor which would be, as an Hebraism, the name Ebionites. Paul was a vexing problem to them as well, as Acts chapter 21 clearly shows. Perhaps that is what vexing the poor means. It fits Paul any way you examine it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a> Sixth, what about oppressing the foreigner? Did Paul and his followers do that too? Yes, in two distinct ways. By Paul saying all people born in Crete are liars, he forever slurred a whole nation of people. To be born a Cretan became synonymous with being born a liar, thanks to Paul. This is what Paul wrote:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464206"></a> One of themselves, a prophet of their own said, "Cretans are always liars, evil beasts, lazy gluttons." This testimony is true (Titus 1:12).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464207"></a> Besides slandering all Cretans, Paul in another passage also slandered all Jews. He first labelled them as foreigners and then said they are enemies of all mankind. Let's review this with care.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464208"></a> One might at first think Jews cannot be viewed as foreigners in Judea. However, Paul in Galatians chapter 4 redefines Jews as foreigners in Judea. How did he do this? In our prior discussion, we saw how Paul said the Jews of Jerusalem no longer correspond to the sons of Abraham and Sarah. Instead they are now seen as Ishmael--the son of Abraham and Hagar. (Gal. 4:22-31.) Paul then says "cast out the handmaiden." This means Hagar and her children. In effect, Paul is saying the Jews in Jerusalem no longer hold the rightful position as owners of the land of Israel. They are Ishmaelites and foreigners to the covenant promise that gives them the right to the Land of Israel.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a> Second, after labelling Jews, in effect, as foreigners in Israel, Paul denigrates their entire race. Paul wrote "the Jews...both killed the Lord Jesus and the prophets and also drove us out. They displease God and are the enemies of the whole human race." (1 Thessalonians 2:14-16.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464210"></a> The Greek in this verse means Jews oppose face-to-face every human being on earth. The various versions hold the essential meaning in tact:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464211"></a> <em><strong>Jews</strong></em>...who killed the Lord Jesus and the prophets and have persecuted us. They are displeasing to God and <em><strong>are the enemies of all people</strong></em>....(1Th 2:14-15)(ISV)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464212"></a> <em><strong>Jews</strong></em>...both killed the Lord Jesus, and their own prophets, and have persecuted us; and they please not God, and <em><strong>are contrary to all men</strong></em>: (1Th 2:14-15)(KJV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464213"></a> According to James, a different group is responsible for the death of Jesus: "Go now, ye rich men, weep and howl for the miseries that shall come upon you.... Ye have condemned and killed the just [one]; and he doth not resist you." (James 5:5-6.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464214"></a> Regardless of Paul's accuracy on who killed Jesus, Paul redefines Jews to be foreigners in Judea, equivalent to Ishmaelite sons of Hagar. He then denigrates Jews as the enemies of the entire human race. Paul's words of denigration aimed at Jews later inspired Martin Luther in Germany to promulgate a doctrine of harassment of the Jewish people who were by then foreigners in Germany.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464215"></a> The renown scholar, William Shirer, in his classic 1400 page tome <em>The Rise and the Fall of the Third Reich</em> (1960) at 236 explains what Martin Luther did. Shirer writes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464216"></a> It is difficult to understand the behavior of most German Protestants in the first Nazi years unless one is aware of two things: their history and the influence of Martin Luther. [At this point, Shirer writes in a footnote "To avoid any misunderstanding, it might be well to point out here that the author is a Protestant."] The<em><strong> great founder of Protestantism was both a passionate anti-Semite</strong></em> and a ferocious believer in absolute obedience to political authority. He wanted Germany rid of the Jews and when they were sent away he advised that they be <em><strong>deprived of "All their cash and jewels and silver and gold</strong></em>" and furthermore, "that their <em><strong>synagogues or schools be set on fire</strong></em>, that their houses be broken up and destroyed... and that they <strong><em>be put under a roof or stable, like the gypsies... in misery and captivity </em></strong>as they incessantly lament and complain to God about us"--advice that was literally followed four centuries later by Hitler, Goering, and Himmler.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464217"></a> Paul's words about Jews, when taken literally by his pupil Martin Luther, bore their inevitable fruit: the oppression of the foreigner including God's special people--the Jews.</p>
<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464218"></a> <strong>How Ezekiel's Depiction of the Deeds of Wolves Identifies Paul</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a> Thus, we can see how the Ezekiel description of ravening wolves fits precisely Paul and his followers. They did violence to the Law by attributing it to angels who `are no gods.' They taught we are free to disregard the Sabbath Law entirely. They tore away all food laws, including the laws on eating meat sacrificed to idols. They vexed the poor with the necessity that they must be willing to work for aid. They also oppressed the foreigners, as they defined them. This includes a slur on the people of Crete. It is a slur that has become part of our vocabulary. A Cretan is synonymous with a liar. Also, Paul oppressed Jews by redefining their status in Jerusalem as foreigners as well as enemies of all mankind. Centuries later Martin Luther of Germany, inspired directly by Paul, outlined a plan of denigration of Jews. By that time, Jews were in fact foreigners in Germany. Pauline Christianity thereby inspired wicked men in our recent memory to follow Luther's plan to utterly oppress the Jews as foreigners.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464220"></a> Hence, Paul and Pauline Christianity satisfies every criteria for Ezekiel's depiction of the ravening wolves. So when Jesus tells us about wolves in sheep's clothing in Matthew 7:15 and then says we will know them by their deeds in Matthew 7:16, Ezekiel chapter 22 tells us precisely what deeds mark the time of the ravening wolves. Those deeds fit Paul like a glove.</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h3><strong>Conclusion</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464222"></a> Let's now pull all these Biblical references together, and see if the Bible identifies Paul as the Benjamite wolf.</p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464225"></a> Who is the Benjamite Wolf?</h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464229"></a> <em> Verse</em></p>
</th> <th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464231"></a> <em> Characteristics</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464233"></a> Matt. 7:15</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464235"></a> "ravening wolves" are "false prophets"</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464237"></a> Matt. 7:15</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464239"></a> "ravening wolves" appear as "sheep," i.e., claim to be Christians.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464241"></a> Genesis 49:27</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a> In latter days, Benjamin shall be a "ravening wolf."</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464245"></a> Genesis 49:27</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464247"></a> This "ravening wolf" from Benjamin's tribe first shall kill its "prey" in the morning.</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464249"></a> Genesis 49:27</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464251"></a> Later this "ravening wolf" from Benjamin's tribe will "divide the spoil" <em>i.e.</em>, plunder and divide its prey.</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a> Rom. 11:1 Phil. 3:5</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464255"></a> Paul is of the tribe of Benjamin.</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464257"></a> Acts 7:58 8:1-3</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a> Paul starts out participating in murders of Christians.</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464261"></a> Gal. 2:9</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464263"></a> Paul later divides the church along Gentile-Jew lines, reserving for himself the right to recruit Gentiles, claiming the Jerusalem church relinquished the Gentile-mission exclusively to Paul.</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464265"></a> Ezek. 22:26-32</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464267"></a> The "ravening wolves" will come who do "violence to the Law," and who teach the people to "hide their eyes from the Sabbath," and to no longer discern clean food from impure food, etc. These wolves are associated with those who "have false visions" and "divine" lies in the Lord's name.</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464269"></a> Rom. 14:5; Col. 2:14-16</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464271"></a> Paul, a Benjamite, came claiming visions of Jesus, and taught the Sabbath rule was a shadow of things to come, and no one can any longer judge another on failure to keep the Sabbath.</p>
</td>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464273"></a> 2 Cor. 2:14; Gal. 5:1; Rom. 7:1 et seq.; Rom. 10:4; 2 Cor. 3:7; Gal. 5:1; Col. 2:14-17; Rom. 3:27; Rom. 4:15; 2 Cor. 3:9; Gal. 2:16; Gal. 3:21; Col. 2:14</p>
</td>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464275"></a> Paul, a Benjamite, came claiming visions of Jesus, and on that authority taught the Law was abrogated, abolished, done away with, nailed to a cross; it was against us, etc. This same Paul said Jews are released from the Law and if they follow Christ instead, He has set them free from the Law which is death and bondage. This same Paul taught the Law was given by angels who are no gods, and Paul asked `why would anyone anyway want to submit to the weak and beggarly angels (elements)' who are no gods?</p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464277"></a> Romans 14:21;1 Corinthians 8:4-13; 1 Cor. 10:19-29; 1 Tim 4:4.</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464279"></a> Paul, a Benjamite, came claiming visions of Jesus, and on that authority taught all foods were pure, including meat sacrificed to idols.</p>
</td>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464281"></a> Thus, God prophesied a wolf from the tribe of Benjamin would emerge who would start out killing its prey but end up plundering and dividing its prey. Jesus said to<em><strong> look out for a wolf </strong></em>who would claim to be a Christian but is a<strong><em> false prophet</em></strong>. Paul repeats twice that he is of the tribe of Benjamin. Like the Genesis Benjamite wolf, Paul started out killing or participating in killing of Christians. Paul, as Jesus prophecied about the wolf, later claimed he was a Christian. Subsequently, this Benjamite Paul sought to split off the Gentiles from the main church so they would follow exclusively Paul's doctrine. God further prophesied the time of the ravening wolves would involve false prophets who would claim visions but they would be divining lies; these wolves would do <em><strong>violence to the Law</strong></em>, teaching it was<strong><em> permissible to disregard Sabbath </em></strong>and to <em><strong>disregard the food laws on unclean food</strong></em>--all of which we find precise fulfillment in the post-conversion letters of Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464282"></a> When this mass of evidence is assembled as clearly as it is above, Paul must be the target of these prophecies. What we have done in the name of Christ to the teachings of Jesus in reliance on the Benjamite wolf warrant our expulsion from the kingdom. (Pray for mercy.) It is not merely that we have followed a false prophet from the tribe of Benjamin. (We should have known better because he first killed us and then divided us Gentiles from the mother-church.) Rather, what is so deplorable is we even followed the wolf's teachings when they contradicted the words of Jesus whom we claim is our Lord. It is astonishing, frankly, how we ever rationalized this behavior: claiming the name Christian but refusing to follow teachings of Jesus when we realize Jesus is incompatible with Paul such as:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a> Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments [of the Law of Moses], and shall teach men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. (Mat 5:19)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a> All we can do now is repent and obey.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1"><a name="pgfId=464299"></a>
<div></div>
Another Prophecy Aimed At Paul?</h2>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464288"></a> Do Not Follow The One Who Says The Time Is At Hand</h6>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464293"></a> <a name="marker=464292"></a> Luke <a href="http://biblos.com/luke/21-8.htm">21:8</a></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="t;pgfId=464294&quot;"></a> "Take heed that you are not led astray; for many will come in my name, saying,... `The time is at hand!' [<em><strong>ho kairos eggiken</strong></em>] Do not go after them."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464297"></a> <a name="marker=464296"></a> Rom.13:12</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464298"></a> "the night is far gone, the day is at hand [<em><strong>hemera eggiken</strong></em>]"</p>
</td>
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</table>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a> <a name="32862"></a> In addition to the Benjamite prophecy, it seems likely Jesus in Luke 21:8 additionally prophesied about Paul. Jesus warned us to beware of the one who would lead us astray. This deceiver would be a Christian preacher ("[he] will come in my name") who would tell you the "<em><strong>time is at hand</strong></em>." Those very words are in Paul's mouth in Romans 13:12, warning us "the day is at hand." The prophecy of a "time" is inclusive of the word<em> day</em>. Thus, Paul's phrase matches Jesus' prophecy exactly. This allows us to deduce that Paul (and Paul alone) is the Christian preacher who fits Jesus' prophecy in Luke 21:8.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">[<span style="color: #ff0000;">2011 ADDITION</span>] Please note also how precise Jesus was being. He himself taught the "kingdom is at hand." (<a href="http://bible.cc/matthew/3-2.htm">Matt 3:2</a>.)  The word is the same, from "engiken." (See "<a href="http://biblos.com/matthew/3-2.htm">Greek</a>"). The difference between a false teacher and true treacher is Jesus uses the word "kingdom" and the false teacher will use the word or concept of "time" being "at hand." Thus, the message of the kingdom's coming soon is not the same as saying the "time" is coming soon. And it is the latter which is the false gospel.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464301"></a> To repeat, what Jesus said would be the identifying mark of the deceiver was he will say "the time is at hand." Paul precisely matches this, saying "the day is at hand," in exactly identical Greek. Thereby, Jesus tells us Paul is one who comes in Jesus' name to "lead [you] astray." Jesus' warning was "do not go after them."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464302"></a> Will we obey Jesus?</p>
<h3>FURTHER RESEARCH</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">After publishing JWO in 2006, we found further confirmation, and detail this in an article "<a href="/JWO/benjamite-wolf-research.html">Benjamite Wolf Research</a>."<a name="pgfId=458247"></a></p>
<h3>FOOTNOTES TO CHAPTER FOURTEEN</h3>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464107"></a> We discussed elsewhere the Ebionite charge that Paul was not a true Jew. Then could he still be a Benjamite? Yes, Paul could be a descendant of a tribe without being a true Jew. For example, if one of Paul's grandparents were a Benjamite, then he can be of the tribe but not a true Jew.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464125"></a> The unlikelihood that this was consensual from the twelve is discussed in <a href="e:/Jwo%20#1/es6e.#15088" class="XRef"> </a> .</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464134"></a> Notice incidentally that the positive spin was manufactured by Hippolytus changing the verse's meaning from divide the spoils to apportion the food.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464139"></a> See, e.g., http://cgg.org/index.cfm/page/literature.showResource/CT/ARTB/k/1007 (last accessed 8/19/05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464348"></a> Louis Ginzberg, <em>The Legends of the Jews</em> (1909) Vol.2 Part VIII; Gill ("the temple which stood in the lot of Benjamin"). This rationale to apply the prophecy to a role for the tribe of Benjamin in the sacrifices is extremely weak. Just because the Temple apparently occupied part of Benjamin's territory does not mean that the morning and evening sacrifice was this tribe's responsibility. The duty of performing the sacrifice belonged to the Levites. It is a stretch of the wildest proportions to say a Benjamite in latter days would kill an animal by the mere passive role of having its tribal land under the feet of a Levite priest.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464153"></a> Kings in those days were anointed with oil. The word anointed was messhiach. Thus, King David sometimes refers to himself as messhiach--anointed one. In Daniel, this title took on the characteristic of a future world ruler.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464171"></a> This point in 22:30 destroys the Paulinists' claim that the sovereignty of God would prevent such apostasy. Paulinists cannot imagine apostasy by nearly everyone would be tolerated by God. Thus, they reason that our last four-hundred years of emphasis on Paul is proof that God predestines such an emphasis. This assumption, however, is fed by a circular deduction from Paul's false teaching about predestination. (On proof of its falsity, see <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#10879" class="XRef"> </a> pages <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA412#v=onepage&amp;q=predestination&amp;f=false">412</a> et seq .) God repeatedly shows, however, that wholesale apostasy is possible. He does nothing to stop it short of warnings in Scripture that He expects us to read!</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464181"></a> <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#19182" class="XRef"> </a> .“Did Paul Negate the Laws Further Applicability?” on page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=RA1-PA71">71. [Link to books.google version].<br /></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464739"></a> See <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#30478" class="XRef"> </a> page 75 et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464761"></a> For further discussion on this passage, see <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20C%20Sabbath%20&amp;%20Easter.#11783" class="XRef"> </a> Appendix C.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464743"></a> Some claim Jesus taught all kosher food laws in the Law of Moses are abrogated. They base this on the account in Mark 7:2 et seq. However, it is a misreading to say Jesus abrogated the laws of kosher foods. First, Jesus is discussing the Rabbinic tradition that food was unclean if you did not ritually wash your hands first. (Mark 7:2,4, 5.) Jesus' disciples ate without ritual washing of their hands. Jesus' point then is to show the Pharisees that they make up rules that (a) are not in the Bible and (b) which make of none effect what the Bible does teach. (Mark 7:7-13.) Jesus so far is tightening the reigns of the Law, not loosening them. Then Jesus says "nothing without the man that going into him can defile him." (Mark 7:15; cf. Matt. 15:11.) If it defiles you, Jesus means it makes you a sinner. This does appear to reach as far as the question of non-kosher foods. What Jesus is saying, however, is that food laws, even the valid kosher laws, are health rules of what is "clean" and "unclean." They are not rules if violated make you a sinner. Jesus was trying to give the rationale of God behind the food laws so we would know how to interpret them. The food laws are good for your health. Thus, if you violate these rules, you are not thereby a sinner. God does not want to hear prayers of repentance over violating food laws. (The idol-meat rule, however, implicates moral wrong; it was not part of the clean-unclean food laws.) Thus, a Rabbinic rule on handwashing, even if valid, could not taint you morally if you happen to violate it. What corroborates Jesus did not intend to abrogate kosher is that while Jesus' disciples ignored the hand-washing rule for clean foods created by Rabbis, his disciples always ate kosher. In Acts 10:14, when Peter in a dream is presented non-kosher foods to eat, "Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten anything that is common and unclean." This tells us indirectly that Jesus ate kosher. The dream story incidentally was simply God's message to Peter to regard Gentiles as clean and disregard the Rabbinic teaching that Gentiles were unclean. There is not the slightest hint the food laws were abrogated. If either Jesus or Peter teach against the food laws, then they are implicated as apostates under Deut. 13:1-5. One must tread carefully when they try to prove Jesus or his true apostles abrogated any portion of the Law given Moses -- a Law "eternal for all generations." (Ex. 27:21.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 12.</span><a name="pgfId=464751"></a>See “Paul Contradicts Jesus About Idol Meat” on page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP113&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA113">113 (books.google link).</a> <a href="e:/Jwo%20#1/es18.#36987" class="XRef"> </a></p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464203"></a> Exodus 23:11 says "but the seventh year thou shalt let it [your land] rest and lie fallow; that the poor of thy people may eat: and what they leave the beast of the field shall eat." The field owner was also not supposed to glean the field in ordinary harvests but leave the "fallen fruit" for the "poor and sojourner." (Lev. 19:10.) Thus, Scripture always depicts food being provided to the poor without Minutemen standing at the border of the farm to be sure the poor are willing to work for the food they picked up from the orchard. The proof that Paul has affected the poor negatively is there is no custom among Christians for the last 2,000 years to comply with Exodus 23:11 or Leviticus 19:10.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Bentham - Not Paul But Jesus: Reviews and History Of Its Writing &amp; Impact</h2>
<p>As Wikipedia notes, "<em>Not Paul But Jesus</em> (1823)" was "published under the pseudonym Gamaliel Smith" by Jeremy Bentham. ("<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jeremy_Bentham">Jeremy Bentham</a>," <em>Wikipedia</em>.)</p>
<p>Here are critical reviews of this book.</p>
<p>"Not Paul but Jesus," <em>Critica Biblica</em> (1827)</p>
<ul>
<li>1st critical review at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=AaUCAAAAQAAJ&amp;pg=PA234#v=onepage&amp;q=not%20paul%20but%20jesus&amp;f=false">234</a></li>
<li>2d critical review at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=AaUCAAAAQAAJ&amp;pg=PA280#v=onepage&amp;q=not%20paul%20but%20jesus&amp;f=false">280</a></li>
</ul>
<p>A rebuttal book to "Not Paul But Jesus" was</p>
<p>David Bowker Wells, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Yc8GAAAAQAAJ">St. Paul vindicated: being pt. 1. of a reply to a late publication by Gamaliel Smith, Esq.</a> [Jeremy Bentham] (1824) available at books.google.com at this address:</p>
<p><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Yc8GAAAAQAAJ">http://books.google.com/books?id=Yc8GAAAAQAAJ</a></p>
<p>Another book in rebuttal was by Thomas Smart Hughes entitled A Defence of the Apostle St. Paul against the accusation of Gamaliel Smith, Esq. [i.e. Jeremy Bentham], in a recent publication entitled "Not Paul but Jesus." Part I.,' 8vo, 1824. Part ii., published the same year, was entitled `On the Miracles of St. Paul.' See "<a href="http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Hughes,_Thomas_Smart_(DNB00)">Thomas Smart Hughes</a>" from Wikisource. It is catalogued at books. google <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=DHo1PAAACAAJ&amp;dq='A+Defence+of+the+Apostle+St.+Paul+against+the+accusation+of+Gamaliel+Smith&amp;hl=en&amp;sa=X&amp;ei=r_cJT93dCbKGiQLSl-jICQ&amp;ved=0CGEQ6AEwCTgK">here</a>, but there is no ebook available.</p>
<h2>Discussion of Not Paul But Jesus</h2>
<p><em>"Not Paul but Jesus</em> [was] an attempt on <em>Bentham's</em> part to show the error of the Church in following the teachings of <em>Paul</em> rather than Jesus." (Miriam Williford, <em>Bentham on the Rights of Women</em> (1975) at www.jstor.org/stable/2709019.)</p>
<p><em>Not Paul But Jesus</em> "was so outspoken that [Samuel] Romilly persuaded Bentham that if he was going to publish it at all he better do so anonymously for fear of reprisals. This, Bentham rather uncharacteristically chose to do."  (B. Taylor, "Jeremy Bentham and Church of England Education,"<em> British Journal of Educational Studies </em>(June 1979) Vol. 27 at <a href="http://www.jstor.org/pss/3119885">154</a>.)</p>
<h2>History of Its Origin and Writings</h2>
<p>"It is <em>not</em> clear when <em>Bentham</em> first began work on <em>Not Paul</em>, <em>but Jesus</em>, but one of the earliest manuscripts found so far is dated 27 July 1816." (Catherine Fuller, <a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm">Bentham Project</a>.) She explains in depth:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Perhaps under the continued influence of his surroundings, as well as the company of James Mill and Francis Place, both of whom were professed atheists, Bentham continued to think about religion, and worked on the third of his religious works, <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em>, while Place was at Ford Abbey in 1817.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">It is not clear when Bentham first began work on <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em>, but one of the earliest manuscripts found so far is dated 27 July 1816,<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#135b">135</a><a name="135"></a></sup> at the start of Benthams third sojourn at the Abbey. Certainly a large proportion of the manuscripts are dated between August 1817 and February 1818, coinciding with his fourth stay at the Abbey. According to Francis Place, in a note attached to his copy of the published work, The matter of this book was put together by me at Mr Benthams request in the months of August and September 1817—during my residence with him at Ford Abbey, Devonshire.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#136b">136</a><a name="136"></a></sup> Places role in the work is disputed: Place himself in his autobiography, which he began in August 1823 (when in fact the work was being printed),<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#137b">137</a><a name="137"></a></sup> and completed it in 1833, refers only once to the work, specifically to comments on the writers of biography, and attributes the work to Bentham without further comment;<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#138b">138</a><a name="138"></a></sup> and Place makes no mention of the work in his letters to his wife from Ford Abbey at the time. Most commentators have taken Places remark to mean that he was the editor, but he does not specifically state this: the matter and put together may mean exactly what it says—that manuscripts on the subject were collected and arranged while Place was at Ford Abbey in consultation with Bentham, and this seems the most plausible description of Places contribution to the work. A few manuscripts have been traced so far with alterations in Places hand, but the majority of manuscripts appear remarkably clear of any hand except Benthams. And even if Place was to be considered as the arranger and organiser of the text, most series of manuscripts are wrapped and labelled in Benthams hand. Finally the fact remains that Bentham had begun work on the project before Places visit, and continued to work on it from time to time until 1823. The question of the editorship of this work is later complicated by entries in the journal of Colls in 1821 which record sending the manuscripts, apparently for translation, to John Bowring, Benthams friend and literary executor.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#139b">139</a><a name="139"></a></sup> Another possible editor is thrown into the equation in two accounts by John Neal,<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#140b">140</a><a name="140"></a></sup> an American who stayed with Bentham in 1826, which state that in fact Richard Doane, Benthams amanuensis from 181931, put the work together.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#141b">141</a><a name="141"></a></sup> Neal probably gleaned this information from his friendship with John Stuart Mill, whom he had met in 1825. John Stuart Mill, by then aged eighteen, had inaugurated the Utilitarian Society in the winter of 1822/3, which met fortnightly at Benthams house, to read essays and discuss matters of politics and ethics. Doane and Neal were both members.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#142b">142</a><a name="142"></a></sup> That Doane may have been involved in the work is possible: one of the brightest of Benthams amanuenses, Doane began studying for the Bar in 1824, and later practised as a judge on the Northern Circuit. He remained close to Bentham, doing some work for him until 1831, and after Benthams death edited the formidable Constitutional Code for the Bowring edition of Benthams works.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">No matter who the final arranger of the work, it is entirely possible, and probably certain, that Bentham talked to Place <em>and</em> Mill about the work on their daily walks, and indeed perhaps even while they worked in the saloon. Place drew a plan of the saloon, setting out the position of the desks at which the three men worked each day,<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#143b">143</a><a name="143"></a></sup> (an arrangement which is, I think, also a tribute to the closeness of the three friends at this time).</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Their collaboration, like their friendship, continued when they returned to London. Bentham accumulated many books at Ford Abbey to help him with his work: in July 1817 he asked Place to bring a biblical concordance with him,<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#144b">144</a><a name="144"></a></sup> although he soon afterwards found his own copy at Ford Abbey.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#145b">145</a><a name="145"></a></sup> In September and October 1817, after Place had returned to London, he requested two works from Koe which Mill and Place had recommended to him.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#146b">146</a><a name="146"></a></sup> Bentham also requested a work by the theologian and moralist William Paley: <em>Horae Paulinae; or the Truth of the Scripture History of St Paul Evinced by a Comparison of the Epistles which bear his name with the Acts of the Apostles and with one another,</em> first published in London in 1790, and which by 1816 had reached its eighth edition.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#147b">147</a><a name="147"></a></sup> In some ways Benthams work can be read as a polemic against Paleys work on the life and miracles of St Paul, and Benthams repeated prompting to Koe to find or purchase the work bears out the importance of the work to Benthams writing.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#148b">148</a><a name="148"></a></sup> But overburdened with material, and hampered by strained eyesight, Bentham asked Koe to read certain texts, and send transcriptions of relevant passages from other books.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#149b">149</a><a name="149"></a></sup> By 11 November 1817 Bentham considered the work to be in a state of considerable forwardness, and needing only to be divided into chapters and sections to enable a clear Table of Contents to be composed.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#150b">150</a><a name="150"></a></sup> In fact he worked on it intermittently until 1823 when it was published.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#151b">151</a><a name="151"></a></sup> The work itself was published pseudonymously<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#152b">152</a><a name="152"></a></sup> and therefore reveals no clues as to editorship or authorship. Only when further work has been done on the printed text and the surviving manuscripts will the role of Place and Mill in this work be fully revealed.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">One further connection between Benthams religious work and Ford Abbey needs to be considered. In <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em> Bentham purports to criticize the asceticism of the church, which he felt was encouraged by Paul but not by Jesus: an asceticism which was of course opposed Benthams principle of utility by increasing pain and decreasing pleasure in this life. It is tempting to think Bentham meditated on the subject of Pauls influence on the Christian religion while sitting in the Saloon at Ford Abbey surrounded by the tapestries—Ford Abbeys most precious works of art—made from Raphaels cartoons. Part of a set of ten tapestries commissioned from Raphael by Pope Leo X in <em>c</em>.1515, to complete the decoration of the Sistine Chapel, the tapestries concern the lives of St Peter and St Paul, but only one of the tapestries made at the English tapestry works at Mortlake specifically for Ford Abbey concerned the life of St Paul: the Sacrifice at Lystra before St Paul and St Barnabus. We know Bentham had looked closely at this tapestry for in October 1817 he wrote to Koe that a spirit had suggested to him that his own head executed in Worsted should be placed in this tapestry, but his comments on St Paul in this instance were entirely humorous.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#153b">153</a><a name="153"></a></sup> Bentham does examine the miracle of the cure of the cripple at Lystra by St Paul in <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em>, but no reference is made to the tapestry. This is perhaps because Bentham was examining the veracity of the miracles of St Paul, and Raphael working at the very heart of the Catholic Church, did not question the miracle, but had depicted Pauls anger when, as a result of the miracle, the citizens of Lystra prepared to sacrifice to Paul and Barnabus, thinking them to be gods.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Looking at the work Bentham produced at Ford Abbey allows us to consider what influence this close coterie of friends had upon each other. For example, we have seen that although Bentham was keen for the Romillys to visit and to read his work, he took no notice of Romillys advice to refrain from publishing <em>Church of Englandism</em>. It has also been noted that Place had a hand in the preparation of <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em>, and that both Mill and Place recommended books that Bentham should read in association with the work. Although Mill and Place concurred with Benthams view of religion,<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#154b">154</a><a name="154"></a></sup> neither followed his later example to deny the possibility of corporeal resurrection and give their bodies to anatomy schools. Place and Mills ideas about education prompted Bentham to produce <em>Chrestomathia</em>, and the interest in education led to later involvement by all three in the London Mechanics Institution and London University. The closeness of Mill to Benthams work, and to his ideas can be see in Benthams own account their discussions while walking at Ford Abbey. Mills letters to Dumont from Ford Abbey show Mills close attention to the work Bentham was doing. Bentham acknowledged that he was being vehemently urged on by Mill to complete <em>Plan of Parliamentary Reform</em> at Ford Abbey,<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#155b">155</a><a name="155"></a></sup> a work Bentham had started in 1809. The manuscript was sent to the printers from Ford Abbey in January 1817.<sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#156b">156</a><a name="156"></a></sup>The work advocated universal male suffrage, equal electoral districts, payment of MPs, and the secret ballot, but when these reforms were presented to the House of Commons in 1818 by one of Places radical Westminster MPs, Francis Burdett, not a single Member of Parliament voted for them. It is also interesting to speculate on the role the Abbey itself played in Benthams work. Did Places report of the desolation of much of the Devonshire countryside encourage their ideas on education and representative democracy, and did Ford Abbey keep Bentham focused on the usefulness of religion in this life?</p>
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<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#135">135</a><a name="135b"></a></sup> UC clxi. 339.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#136">136</a><a name="136b"></a></sup> i.e. the copy of <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em>, at University College London Library, Ogden 577.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#137">137</a><a name="137b"></a></sup> See the entry in Benthams Memorandum Book for 25 January 1823, where Bentham has a note to ask Place about the progress of the work (UC clxxiii. 92).</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#138">138</a><a name="138b"></a></sup> <em>Autobiography of Francis Place</em>, p.8.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#139">139</a><a name="139b"></a></sup> See Colls Journal, 18 January 1821, British Library, Add. MS 33,563, fo. 64. John Bowring (17921872), merchant, later radical MP, diplomat, and Benthams literary executor, had come into contact with Bentham in August 1820, and their friendship was the cause of the rift with the Mill family. As Bowring himself was a Unitarian, and as Bowring later decided not to include any of Benthams writings on religion in the Collected Works which he produced after Benthams death, it is unlikely that Bowring would have had a hand himself in arranging the text.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#140">140</a><a name="140b"></a></sup> John Neal (17931876), first met Bentham in 1825, and staying with him in 1826 whilst making a translation of Dumonts recension of Benthams work <em>Traités de législation pénale et civile</em> into English. For Neals identification of Doane, see Neal, <em>Principles of Legislation</em>, Boston, 1830, pp. 15, 34, and <em>Wandering Recollections of a somewhat busy life, </em>Boston,, 1869, p. 55.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#141">141</a><a name="141b"></a></sup> Richard Doane (180548).</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#142">142</a><a name="142b"></a></sup> For the meetings of the Utilitarian Society see John Stuart Mill, <em>Autobiography and Literary Essays</em>, ed. J.M. Robson and J. Stillinger, Toronto, 1981 (<em>Collected Works of John Stuart Mill</em>, Vol. I), pp. 813, and Neal,<em>Wandering Recollections</em>, pp. 548</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#143">143</a><a name="143b"></a></sup> For a visual representation of the working practices in the saloon of Place, Mill, and Bentham see the drawing Place included in a letter to his wife see Place Papers, British Library Add. MS 35,143 fo. 281v.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#144">144</a><a name="144b"></a></sup> Letter 2395, 31 July 1817 to Francis Place, <em>Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 28.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#145">145</a><a name="145b"></a></sup> Letter 2397, 9 August 1817, to John Herbert Koe, <em>Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 31.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#146">146</a><a name="146b"></a></sup> Lardners version of Cardales <em>The True Doctrine of the New Testament</em>, published in 1767, and <em>A Critical History of the Text of the New Testament</em> published in London 168992: see Letter 2422 to John Herbert Koe, 10 October 1817,<em> Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 90.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#147">147</a><a name="147b"></a></sup> Letter 2413 to John Herbert Koe, 10 September 1817, Letter 2414 to John Herbert Koe, 19 September 1817, and Letter 2426, from John Herbert Koe, 5 November 1817, <em>Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 62, 63, 113.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#148">148</a><a name="148b"></a></sup> The works of William Paley (17431805), Archdeacon of Carlisle from 1782, had provided other stimulus to Bentham. The publication of Paleys <em>Principles of Moral and Political Thought</em> in 1785 in part prompted Bentham to published <em>Introduction to the</em> <em>Principles of Morals and Legislation</em> in 1789, and Paleys <em>Natural Theology</em> of 1802, may have influenced Benthams work begun in 1807, which contained a critique of Natural Religion, part of which was edited by George Grote as <em>An Analysis of the Influence of Natural Religion on the Temporal Happiness of Mankind</em> in 1824.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#149">149</a><a name="149b"></a></sup> Letter 2422 to John Herbert Koe, 10 October 1817, Letter 2432, to John Herbert Koe, 22 November 1817,<em></em>and<em> </em>Letter 2434, 29 November 1817, <em>Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 90, 123, 125.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#150">150</a><a name="150b"></a></sup> Letter 2427 to John Herbert Koe, 11 November 1817, <em>Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 117.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#151">151</a><a name="151b"></a></sup> The work appeared first in 1821 as <em>Summary View of a Work, intituled Not Paul, but Jesus: As exhibited in Introduction, Plan of the Work, and Titles of Chapters and Section</em>. <em>Not Paul, but Jesus</em> was not published until 1823, and a copy was sent to James Mill in August 1823, on which Mill commented: I have carefully perused these pages, &amp; have been delighted. See Letter 2987 from James Mill, August 1823,<em> Correspondence (CW)</em>, xi. 273. Place received his copy on 29 September 1823.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#152">152</a><a name="152b"></a></sup> The sensitivity of such works meant that they were often published in this way to escape prosecution, and Bentham was keen to avoid any publicity which he felt might devalue his other works in the process.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#153">153</a><a name="153b"></a></sup> Letter 2423, 29 October 1817, to John Herbert Koe,<em> Correspondence (CW)</em>, ix. 95.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#154">154</a><a name="154b"></a></sup> Many of Benthams friends shared his views. For example, Jean Baptiste Say wrote: Agréez tous mes remerciemens de louvrage de Mr. Gamaliel Smith, <em>not Paul, but Jesus</em>. Beaucoup de gens seront davis quon aurait pu substituter la conjonction <em>nor</em> à <em>but</em>. Letter 2993, 20 August 1823, <em>Correspondence</em> (<em>CW</em>), ix. 283. Thomas Wright Hill wrote: I have been much amused, interested and I will add instructed by a work entitled “Not Paul but Jesus” written by an able fellow of whom it is whispered you know something more than the generality of readers: see Letter 3056, 8 March 1823, <em>Correspondence (CW)</em>, xi. 360.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#155">155</a><a name="155b"></a></sup> Letter 2375 to John Herbert Koe, l January 1817, <em>Correspondence (CW),</em> ix. 3. For example, Bentham produced an average of eleven/twelve manuscripts per day on 25, 26, 27 January 1817, and by February was writing on the backs of cancelled folios.</p>
<p><sup><a href="http://www.ucl.ac.uk/Bentham-Project/journal/cfford.htm#156">156</a><a name="156b"></a></sup> Although Bentham was still writing what he intended as an introduction or postscript: Letter 2378 to John Herbert Koe, 25 January 1817, <em>Correspondence (CW),</em> ix. 78.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Paul's Words Are Often Construed To Unwittingly Support A Blasphemy</h2>
<p>Blasphemy is an<strong><em> insult of God, especially denying the goodness of God</em></strong>. Or to attribute the good God does to Satan. (Rives, DCMS:<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=did%20calvin%20murder%20servetus&amp;pg=PA323#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">323-24</a>.)</p>
<p>Paul says "many things difficult to understand" (Second Peter 3:14-17), and thus if what Paul says also sounds blasphemous, we were already warned. While we should try to find ways this is not true out of simple politeness, many mainstream Christian leaders take the blasphemous interpretation and promote it. They are completely insensitive that what they are doing is uttering and endorsing a blasphemy. Unaware of the definition of blasphemy, many Christians unwittingly utter blasphemies in reliance upon Paul's "difficult to understand words."</p>
<p>Thus, in reliance upon Paul, many Calvinists (in reliance upon Calvin who relied upon Paul) say God directs evil -- unaware this is pure blasphemy. They likewise affirm God's Law incites us to sin (in reliance on Paul's words), and makes us do what we don't want to do. But it is blasphemy to say God's law arouses sin - a major insult on God's Word.</p>
<p>Incidentally, I assume Paul did not mean to promote blasphemy, but the fact his words <em>easily</em> are read to support blasphemy <strong><em>underscores the dangerousness </em><em>o</em></strong><strong><em>f</em></strong> treating Paul as <em><strong>inspired</strong></em>.</p>
<h3>Paul, You Have No Excuse for This Statement</h3>
<p>There is one exception where I do believe Paul inexcusably and clearly uttered a blasphemy -- albeit thoughtlessly. This is when Paul said "God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and<em><strong> does not live in temples built by  human hands.</strong></em>" (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%2017:24&amp;version=NIV">Acts 17:24</a>.)</p>
<p>Paul's point was to tell the Greeks that their gods in their temples were mere idols. However, Paul's words cannot be so limited. By the explicitness of Paul's words, as explained below, Paul thereby thoughtlessly said Jews also worshiped an idol at the Temple of Jerusalem where God's Shekinah presence was said in the Bible to reside. For if God does not reside in temples made of human hands, as Paul says in Acts 17:24 to prove to Greeks their gods are mere idols, then the God worshiped at the Temple of Jerusalem also could only be a false god. Hence, Paul's words would constitute a blasphemy as it insults (thoughtlessly, of course) the God of the Bible as a false god.</p>
<p>One should remember Justin Martyr, who lived 100-165 AD, was a great Christian evangelist, and explained that many professed Christ but yet blasphemed God, just as Paul recklessly had done in this passage. As one scholar introduces this quote, we read:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px; ">Justin brands Marcion and the Gnostics as heretics, [but] <strong><em>it is not because they deny Christ</em></strong>: they do not. They <em>... confess the crucified Jesus as their Lord and Christ</em>, [and yet they...]<em><strong> blaspheme the Creator of the Universe</strong></em>, ... the God of Abraham and Isaac and Jacob. The very identification mark of heresy is thus the<em> blasphemia creatoris</em>.... (Oskar Skarsaune, “Heresy and the Pastoral Epistles,” <em>Themelios</em> 20.1 (October 1994): 9-14 at <a href="http://www.biblicalstudies.org.uk/pdf/heresy_skarsaune.pdf">10-11</a>.)</p>
<p>Should we perhaps not be surprised that Justin Martyr is also regarded by some scholars as clearly having rejected Paul as on par with Jesus' words? (See our <a href="/Recommended-Reading/early-church-views.html">link</a>.) Thus when Justin wrote about blasphemy by those who claimed to be Christians, Justin may very well have been thinking of Paul, just as we must ask ourselves if we truly love God.</p>
<p>Now we will review the various blasphemies which many have promoted as proper and necessary to believe based upon Paul's words.</p>
<h2>Example #1: 'The Law from God Causes Sin'</h2>
<p>In many places, Paul says lust/concupescience is stirred up by the Law (Romans 7:5; 1 Cor. 15:56) and without the Law stirring his lust, Paul would not have known to covet/lust. (Romans 7:7.)</p>
<p>Paul says that "by the law is the knowledge of sin." (Romans 3:20). He reiterates this later in the same epistle. In Romans 7:7, Paul says:  "I <em>would not have come to <strong>know sin</strong> except through the Law</em>; for <em><strong>I would not have known about coveting </strong></em>if the Law had not said, "<span style="color: #ff0000;">You shall not covet</span>." Thus, in Paul's view, Adam and Eve would have never committed the sin of eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil had God not issued a command not to eat from it. The command supposedly enticed them to think about doing so, and they would never have done so but for God's command to not do so. Hence, God's commands are entirely to blame, as Paul depicts the situation, for sin.</p>
<p>Paul's point is crystal clear elsewhere in Romans. He emphasizes in Romans <a href="http://bible.cc/romans/7-13.htm">7:13</a> that the good law 'works me up to sin and death' by the mere fact of making prohibitions (Romans 7:7)--sowing the seed for sin: "But sin, that it might be shown to be sin, by<strong><em> working death to me through that which is good</em></strong>; --that through<em><strong> the commandment sin might become exceeding sinful.</strong></em>"</p>
<p>John Locke in 1823 is troubled, but tries to put a good face on this. First, Locke mentions that the way Paul is interpreted some view Paul as saying</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">that the law excited men to sin, by forbidding it. A strange imputation on the law of God, such as, if it be true, must make the Jews more defiled,....</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><em>Works of John Locke</em> (1823) Vol. 8 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=J6dYAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=john%20locke%20apostle%20paul%20difficult%20to%20understand&amp;pg=PA313#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">313</a>.</p>
<p>But that is what Paul says, Mr. Locke. While Locke then says Paul surely could not mean this,  Locke himself ends up explaining it the very same way.</p>
<p>First, Locke takes on Romans 7:5: "For when we were in the flesh, the <em><strong>motions of sins</strong></em>, which <em><strong>were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death</strong></em>."</p>
<p>Locke explains Romans 7:5 (while 7:7 looms out there as even worse), and confesses its meaning -- blasphemous as it is without Locke admitting it. Locke says Paul means:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">nevertheless sin, persisting in its design to destroy <em>me, </em>took the opportunity of my being under the law, to<em><strong> stir up concupiscence</strong></em> in me; for <em><strong>without the law</strong></em>, which annexes death to transgression,<em><strong> sin is as good as dead, is not able to have its will on me</strong></em>, and bring death upon me. Conformable hereto, St. <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>says, 1 Cor. xv. 56, "the strength of sin is the law <em>i.e. </em><strong><em>it is the law, that gives sin the strength and power to kill men</em></strong>. (<em>Works of John Locke</em> (1823) Vol. 8 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=J6dYAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=john%20locke%20apostle%20paul%20difficult%20to%20understand&amp;pg=PA316#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">316</a>.)</p>
<p>What Paul does in Romans 7:5 and 7:7 is speak of the "sinful passions <strong><em>through </em></strong>the Law." Without it, Paul says we would have not been stirred to sin at all! This is very much like Paul said elsewhere in 1 Cor. 15:56 that the Law given Moses made sin to be wrought in our members. Tischendorf comments on Romans 7:5 that Paul in that verse means "the <strong><em>sinful passions...[are] coming into active exercise through the law</em></strong>" just as Paul said in 1 Cor. 15:56 about the Mosaic Law. (Tischendorf, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=2PpJAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=romans%207%20husband%20dies&amp;pg=PA57">57</a>.)</p>
<p>Again, this underscores that Paul's words in Romans 7:5, 7:7 and 1 Cor. 15:56 can reasonably be read to support blasphemy. Locke with all his might did not want to see it. Yet, when Locke got around to summarizing Romans 7:5, Locke could not sugar-coat Paul's words enough to hide it there.</p>
<p>Thus, many Christians unguarded to see the danger in Paul's "difficult to understand words" fall from "their steadfastness in Christ" by applying Paul to such blasphemous points about God and His Law. Here is an example of how someone has applied Paul to logical and blasphemous ends.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>I know what is sin. The Ten Commandments were not given so it could help us become sinless. We are by nature sinful. The Scripture also says that the<strong><em> law was given so sin could increase</em></strong>. The <em><strong>law helps us to sin more</strong></em>; it <em><strong>stirs up our sinful nature to commit evil deeds</strong></em>. Why? So we would seek God's grace. (</span><a href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ciCPuG290J8&amp;feature=youtu.be">Takanot and Ma'asim of the Rabbis</a>-YouTube, comment by Paulgem123.)</p>
<p>Many Christians unguarded to Paul's proximity to blasphemy actually say "religion" based upon the 10 Commandments is <em>evil.</em> So Robert Hamerton-Kelly <a href="http://www.hamerton-kelly.com/talks/Apocalypse_of_the_Cross.html">writes</a>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><strong><em>Religion </em></strong></span><span><strong><em>is a curse</em></strong> (Gal. 3:13)....The nub of Pauls argument is that the <em><strong>Law of Moses</strong></em>, which is religion, cursed Gods messiah (Gal. 3:13, quoting Deuteronomy 21:23), and thus showed that <strong><em>religion is hostile to God</em></strong>....The truth is...the ethnically restrictive Law of Moses is merely one among many<strong><em> temporary religious phenomena</em></strong> in the history of the fulfillment of that promise. Now the promise of God beyond religion has come true and all the distinctions made by Judaism ...are passé....</span><span> You do not need Moses!</span></p>
<p>Hamerton-Kelly correctly perceives that Paul derogates the Law given Moses to an evil curse without any blessings, designed as a temporary phenomenon. However, <em><strong>this is blasphemy</strong></em> -- an insult on God and His Law. As explained in the Conclusion to <em>Jesus' Words on Salvation</em>, the Law given Moses was a "light" to attract Gentiles to its wisdom; was "eternal for all generations," and was the means of justification by obedience, whereby atonement provided the payment-condition for God's forgiveness, but not the mechanism -- which always relied upon individual repentance and obedience. See "<a href="/JWOS/chapter-28jwos-conclusion.html">Conclusion</a>" to JWOS.</p>
<h2>#2: Paul Implies The God of Jerusalem Is A False Idol</h2>
<p>As briefly touched on above, at least one time Paul inexcusably (but thoughtlessly) uttered a blasphemy. This time none of his words are 'hard to understand.' This is when Paul said "God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and<em><strong>does not live in temples built by hands.</strong></em>" (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%2017:24&amp;version=NIV">Acts 17:24</a>).</p>
<p>If Paul is correct, then who did the Jews worship at the Temple of Jerusalem where God's Shekinah presence was said in the Bible to reside? It could not be a true God for Paul says the true God does not live in such temples. This was Paul's affirmation to prove to Greeks that their gods whom they believed lived in temples were nothing but false idols.</p>
<p>As James West in the <a href="http://www.aeonbytegnosticradio.com/2010/03/gospel-and-greek-philosophers.html">Gospel and the Greek Philosophers</a> correctly exposes, Paul's teachings about the Temple opposed that of the apostles (not to mention our Lord Jesus who spoke of it as "my Father's house" in Luke 2:41-52). On this verse in Acts 17:24, West correctly comments:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">But like the Stoic philosophers, the writer of Acts has “Paul” agreeing with them that “God” does not dwell in temples as the<strong><em> superstitious pagans</em></strong> believed. It is notable that Paul, in his own words, <strong><em>admitted his opinion that the Jews worshipped an “idol” in the </em></strong><st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on"><strong><em>Temple</em></strong></st1:place></st1:city><strong><em> at </em></strong><st1:city w:st="on"><st1:place w:st="on"><strong><em>Jerusalem</em></strong></st1:place></st1:city> (even as the author of Acts portrayed the Jewish Christians as<strong><em> pious temple devotees</em></strong>; cf. Acts <st1:time hour="14" minute="46" w:st="on">2:46</st1:time>, <st1:time hour="21" minute="20" w:st="on">21:20</st1:time>26; 1 Cor. <st1:time hour="10" minute="18" w:st="on">10:18</st1:time>19).</p>
<p>Thus, Paul unwisely and thoughtlessly made a statement, which if true, allowed one to think the 12 apostles and James who still worshiped at the Temple were worshipping something that could not be the true God. Paul instead says God supposedly does not live in temples made of human hands. And Paul was saying God does not live in such temples even though our Lord warned that Daniel's prophecy of a sacriligious prescence would soon defile the Holiness of the Temple (which Holiness stemmed from the Shekinah-presence of God dwelling at the Jerusalem Temple).</p>
<h3>Am I Being Unfair to Paul?</h3>
<p>I don't think so.</p>
<p>Put yourself back in the year 45 A.D. Imagine you are standing outside a pagan temple where the pagans claimed God supposedly lived inside. If you were Jewish, one reason you could offer to prove that a pagan's religion is false would have to be because the true God <strong><em>lives in the Temple at Jerusalem.</em></strong> That had to be in the mind of a truly Jewish person as a very valid difference. But if you said that the pagan god is false <strong><em>because God does not at all live in temples made of human hands</em></strong>, you just invalidated the entire Jewish faith. Something like this could not inadvertently escape Paul's lips.</p>
<p>It is like someone claiming to be a Christian but who then speaks of "my Buddhist faith." Even if he later claims such words inadvertently came out of his mouth, it does not wash.</p>
<p>While obviously Paul was not addressing the issue of the temple at Jerusalem <em>per se</em>, this is no excuse. Paul's words were thoughtless and reckless. Words have meaning. Paul's words in particular <strong><em>equally invalidated the true God of the Bible</em></strong> just as much as he invalidated the false gods whom Paul was trying to undermine with this teaching. Because Paul's words, if valid, equally apply to the God at the Temple at Jerusalem, Paul made out our True God to be a false god. Thereby, Paul clearly blasphemed God. The fact it was thoughtless and reckless does not excuse it.</p>
<h3>Did The Shekinah Presence Depart Prior to 70 AD?</h3>
<p>Some Paulinist with whom I spoke defended Paul's statement by claiming God's Shekinah presence left in 33 AD, and this is what the renting of the veil represented. Then supposedly Paul meant God "NO LONGER" lives in temples made of human hands. (That was not Paul's statement; instead, this is a gloss to try to save Paul. Instead, Paul made a clear categorical statement that applied as much to the Temple at Jerusalem as well as any other temple AT ANY TIME PERIOD.)</p>
<p>However, there is nothing in the renting that implies God departed the Temple in 33 AD.</p>
<p>Moreover, there are numerous historical sources from both Roman and Jewish writers that the Shekinah Presence was in the Temple until shortly before it was invaded by the Roman soldiers in 70 AD. See our "Miscellaneous Note" on "The Shekinah Presence Departed in 70 AD From the Temple" at the end of our article about "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/trophimus.html">Trophimus</a>."</p>
<h2>Example #3: The So-Called Sovereignty of God Doctrine</h2>
<p>Calvin contended that Paul in Romans 11:8, 32 says God causes the lost to be lost by hardening them in unbelief. (Rives, DCMS: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=did%20calvin%20murder%20servetus&amp;pg=PA451#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">451</a>.) Satan supposedly acts on orders from God to cause the lost to be lost. (Calvin, Institutes, Ch. XVIII, Book 1, No. 1.) The main criticism of this is that it means that God makes evil happen -- unbelief and a lost condition. Attributing evil to God is a quintessential example of blasphemy. As a result, many Swiss protestant pastors who were friends of Calvin personally<em><strong> told Calvin</strong></em> that <strong><em>he committed blasphemy</em></strong> by this doctrine. (Rives, DCMS: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=did%20calvin%20murder%20servetus&amp;pg=PA433#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">433</a>; <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=did%20calvin%20murder%20servetus&amp;pg=PA436#v=onepage&amp;q=bullinger&amp;f=false">436</a>) And the Lutheran party of Germany of the 16th Century were likewise adamant that Calvin taught a blasphemy in this doctrine. (Rives, DCMS: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=did%20calvin%20murder%20servetus&amp;pg=PA446#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">446</a> <em>et seq.</em>)</p>
<p>Later Calvinists deflected criticism of Calvin's doctrine by placing it under the innocuous label of the "Sovereignty of God" doctrine. They defended the broader notion that God directs even evil by relying principally upon two other verses from Paul.</p>
<p>Ephesians 1:11 says “we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works <strong><em>all things</em></strong> after the counsel of His will....”</p>
<p>Calvin-defenders say this means God “brings about” all things. “Everything is brought about by God.” See <em>The Sovereignty of God Over Evil </em>by Matt Berman in <a href="/thirdmill.org/newfiles/mat_perman/mat_perman.sov2.pdf">PDF</a> (5/21/08). They extend Paul to say God causes all evil things to happen.</p>
<p>In Romans 11:36 we likewise read: “For from Him and through Him and to Him are <em><strong>all things</strong></em>.” This same Calvinist voice rationalizes: “Thus, all things have their source in Gods eternal decrees, all things are brought to pass by Gods almighty power.” <em>Id</em>.</p>
<p>Berman, the writer of that piece, knows that the question necessarily will arise: how can God not thereby be the author of sin? Here is his answer, and you can plainly see a mind caught in a <strong><em>logical dilemma</em></strong> but who refuses to confess the error of the premise. He says: “[God] is behind good in a way that renders Him fully deserving of all of the credit for it, but <strong><em>He is behind evil </em></strong>in such a way that He deserves none of the blame for it.” Id. How so? “<strong><em>God is the ultimate cause of sin</em></strong>, but He is not the positive cause of sin.” Id. “He does not produce sin in peoples hearts, but directs it by means of negative causation.”<em>Id.</em></p>
<p>Such is the gobbledy-gook that you end up with when you claim God is "behind evil."</p>
<p>The key question is this: is God leaving people alone or is God directing them to sin? Following Calvin (who in turn relied upon Paul), this author says the latter is true - God supposedly directs sin: “I am not saying that God simply leaves a person to their own sinful nature, and that is all there is to it. God also <em><strong>directs the degree of evil in a person's heart by hardening it</strong></em> by means of negative causation.” <em>Id.</em></p>
<p>Besides Paul as proof, this author, like Calvin, cites 1 Kings 22:19-23 because it says God was “sending a deceiving spirit to entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead.’” But Micaiah who uttered this was a false, not true prophet. Why? Because when so speaking his words violate the Law -- Numbers 23:19 which says "God is not a man that He should<em><strong> lie</strong></em>." See S. Rives, <em>Did Calvin Murder Servetus</em> (2008) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=MlPrYQ5srKEC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=did%20calvin%20murder%20servetus&amp;pg=PA454#v=onepage&amp;q=kings%2022&amp;f=false">454</a>.) A true prophet who contradicts the Law is, the Law says, then a false prophet. (Deut. 13:1-5.)</p>
<h3>Example of Contemporary Presbyterian Adherence to View That God Lies</h3>
<p>This is a contemporary problem, and not one long in the dust. In reliance on Calvin citing 1 Kings 22 in support of his reading of Paul that God ordains evil, we still hear this doctrine in the PCA. Similar to what I heard with astonishment in the Presbyterian Church of America church which I attended for 10 plus years beginning in 1987, Robbins recounts in 2005 the following:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">[At the] 2005 Christian Worldview Student Conference sponsored by the Calvary Reformed Presbyterian Church (PCA) in Hampton, Virginia...Steve Schlissel, who has been preaching...for years, emphatically claimed that his God lies, too. His exact words were:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"<strong><em>God freely chose to lie</em></strong> to Ahab [in 1 Kings 22] by an appointed surrogate. He did not wince, did not squeal, did not seek to shift responsibility. In fact, he boasted about it to Ahab and Ahab's colleagues.... Someone says, 'God lies.' <strong><em>Yes, He does</em></strong>."</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Of the many PCA Elders who were present at this conference of several hundred students, apparently only one, Calvin Beisner of Knox Seminary, objected to Schlissel's [claim].</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Schlissel said that God lies, and God is responsible for his lies: "Consider the facts.<strong><em> God solicited the plan [to deceive Ahab]</em></strong>, God had his choice of plans, God approved THIS specific plan, and<strong><em> authorized it, and commissioned the lying spirit. </em></strong>According to the Word of God, presiding judges are responsible for their decisions and commanding generals are directly responsible for their instructions." (T. Robbins, "<a href="http://www.trinityfoundation.org/horror_show.php?id=39">Steve Schlissel: God lies</a>.")</p>
<p>Now consider that Paul to the contrary taught in Titus 1:2: "God...cannot lie." But we know that Paul was construed by Calvin due to the 'difficult to understand' words of Paul to say the contrary. Again, we can see the opportunity Paul provided in his Pharoah argument and predestination passages for controverting this, to support Calvin's view that God lies. Calvin found 1 Kings 22 to say God proves Paul's point that God directs evil rather than Calvin carefully dissecting the passage to see a false prophet, not God, was being recorded in 1 Kings 22.</p>
<h3>What about Paul's Example of God Hardening Pharoah's heart?</h3>
<p>God's hardening Pharaoah's heart in Genesis was to harden him to exert his lawful right as ruler to not let the Israelites go. "But I will harden his heart so that <em><strong>he will not let the people go</strong></em>." Exodus 4:21. See also Ex. 7:3.</p>
<p>Was this a sin?</p>
<p>All Pharoah had was Moses's authority to believe God required it. Since Pharaoh's magicians could duplicate all the signs and wonders which Moses demonstrated, Pharaoah was not convinced that God had spoken. No authority yet existed in Moses's words. As a result, there was no sin in which God was hardening Pharaoh's heart. God merely hardened the ruler to hold onto his sovereign rights.</p>
<p>But Calvinists disagree, and cite Paul's use of this example in Romans 9 to blasphemously claim "<strong><em>God himself actually arranged for Pharaoh to sin</em></strong>." <a href="http://www.christiananswers.net/q-aiia/aiia-pharaoh.html">ChristianAnswers.net</a>. But this is not true, for the reason just explained.</p>
<p>Incidentally, there is another alternative to the one I suggest. Some scholars point out that the idiom in Hebrew is consistent with permission, and not ordaining the hardening. See Kyle Butt, M.A., and Dave Miller, Ph.D., "<a href="http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/2259">Who Hardened Pharoaoh's Heart?</a>" <em>Apologetics Press</em> (accessed 7/31/2010.) But this will not suffice to answer Calvinism because these two scholars -- Butt and Miller -- do not address that Paul saw it as compulsion, and that was the basis of Paul's argument in favor of predestination. If Paul is inspired, Butt and Miller's explanation does not work.</p>
<p>Regardless, as you can see, the Sovereignty of God Over Evil doctrine blasphemes God by attributing to God the causation of all evil and hardening people in <strong>sin</strong>.</p>
<p>Hence, even if Paul's words did not mean what these Calvinists claim, their reading that Paul teaches God causes evil is plausible. This underscores<strong><em> the danger of Paul </em></strong>-- his difficult-to-comprehend words have <strong><em>caused many Christians to blaspheme God</em></strong>. (Contrast that nothing Jesus ever said ever remotely can be misconstrued to support a blasphemy on God's character for goodness.)</p>
<p>Incidentally, in <em>Jesus' Words Onl</em><em>y </em>(2007) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA412#v=onepage&amp;q=predestination&amp;f=false"> 412 </a>et seq., we discuss how the early church 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. universally regarded predestination doctrine as blasphemy although none mention Paul's words. They simply ignore him as the source, and excoriate the notion.</p>
<p>The modern era has been poisoned by this doctrine, which has repelled people from embracing Christianity because it is now popularly combined with such a horrible blasphemy:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Since Calvinism has largely dominated the Protestant landscape for the last five centuries, most skeptics have <em><strong>dismissed Christianity as absurd</strong></em>, and have <em><strong>turned away in utter disgust</strong></em> in order to embrace atheism. The smug Calvinist declares, “So be it! You have the problem!” (Kyle Butt, M.A., and Dave Miller, Ph.D., "<a href="http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/2259">Who Hardened Pharoaoh's Heart?</a>" <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Apologetics Press</span> (accessed 7/31/2010.)</p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p>Paul's words are easily and commonly construed to support the following blasphemies:</p>
<p>1. The Law of God stirs and causes sin;</p>
<p>2. God causes morally evil behavior; and</p>
<p>3. God does not live in temples made of human hands, implying that the God in the Temple at Jerusalem at that time was as invalid a god as a pagan god.</p>
<p>One does not have to agree Paul actually blasphemed to reject Paul as an inspired voice. The fact Paul's words perilously lead many to blaspheme -- unaware what is the definition of blasphemy (an insult on God's goodness, including equating Him to a pagan god), should put us all on guard whether to trust Paul as inspired. That's enough wisdom to take away from this topic.</p>
<p>However, I would not dispute with anyone who claims they see that Paul indeed blasphemed. I think, sadly, it is unquestionable. It is sad because Paul I believe was a devout person (although misguided to trust the 'blinding light' he met on the Road to Damascus. For more on that, see our <a href="/JWO/did-paul-ever-truly-meet-jesus.html">link</a>). But blasphemy does not require any maliscious intent to commit. Jesus told this to the Pharisees whom He accused of blasphemy by attributing His miracles to Satan. The Pharisees were not malisciously insulting God; instead they were simply wrong in their statement but it had the unwitting affect of insulting the Holy Spirit. Thus mere words that have the affect of insulting God's goodness / or equating Him to a pagan idol, whether spoken malisciously or unwittingly, are blasphemy. Hence, if one agrees Paul blasphemed, not only is Paul clearly not inspired, but also his writings are extremely dangerous poison sitting inside our modern bound New Testament. This is a further clear ground to support considering whether it is imperative to now issue future New Testaments without the writings of Paul or footnote clear warnings about his false and potentially blasphemous statements.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Boulanger, Critical Examination of Paul (1823)</h2>
<p>In 1746, Boulanger of France wrote an able criticism of Paul. It was republished in 1823 in English. Boulanger focused entirely upon Paul's validity, and found him wanting:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"We should never finish, were we to relate all the <strong><em>contradictions</em></strong> which are to be <strong><em>found in the writings attributed to St. Paul</em></strong>.... Generally speaking it is St. Paul ... that ought to be regarded as the true founder of Christian theology,... which from its foundation has been incessantly agitated by quarrels [and] divisions." (Boulanger and Peter Annet, <em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PP5#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Critical Examination of the Life of St. Paul</a></em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PP5#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> </a>(letter to <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=atUMAAAAIAAJ&amp;ots=uH1gOO7wfQ&amp;dq=%22Peter%20Annet%22&amp;pg=PR3#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Gilbert West</a>, 1746).) For Hutchin's discussion of this book, see this<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=AmAhfE57vBkC&amp;lpg=PA63&amp;ots=ivtu0I1LZj&amp;dq=%22Peter%20Annet%22%20%22Critical%20Examination%20of%20the%20Life%20of%20St.%20Paul%22&amp;pg=PA63#v=onepage&amp;q=%22Peter%20Annet%22%20%22Critical%20Examination%20of%20the%20Life%20of%20St.%20Paul%22&amp;f=false"> link</a></p>
<h2>Tenor of the Book</h2>
<p>The opening letter to a defender of Paul gives us some tenor of the book - that the truth about Paul has been veiled from our eyes by long conditioning:</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>"Sir,</span></p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>In </span>our last conversation you appeared to me, very much smitten with <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul </span>and his works; you recommended me to reperuse his writings; assuring me that I should there find arguments well calculated to shake incredulity and confirm a Christian in his faith.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">Although the actions of this celebrated Apostle, related in the Acts, and his doctrine contained in his Epistles, were already perfectly known to me, yet to conform myself to your desires, and give you proofs of my docility, <strong><em>I have again read those works</em></strong>, and I can assure you that I have done it with the greatest attention. You will judge of that yourself, by the reflections I send you; they will at least prove to you that I have read with attention. A superficial glance is only likely to deceive us or leave us in error. The passions and the prejudices of men prevent them from examining with candour, and from their indolence they are often disgusted with the researches necessary for discovering truth ; that has also been with <strong><em>so much care veiled from their eyes</em></strong>: but it is in vain to cover it, its splendour will sooner or later shine forth; the <strong><em>works of enthusiasm or imposture, will always end by betraying themselves</em></strong>. As for the rest, read and judge. You will find, I think, at least, some reasons for abating a little from that high opinion, that prejudice gives us of the Apostle of the Gentiles....I am not ignorant that it is<strong><em> very difficult to undo at one blow the ideas to which the mind has been so long accustomed</em></strong>; but whatever may be your judgment it will not alter the sentiments of friendship and attachment which are due to the goodness of your heart." (<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PP7#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Preface</a>)</p>
<p class="gtxt_body">However, mixed in with valid criticism are snipes at Christian doctrine when it appears Jesus is the one who is the source of such doctrine. For example, at one point Boulanger implies the Law does not permit one to think God had a son. This may be true of the Law but Psalm 2 does mention God having a son. Such irrelevant snipes are removed as I summarize to preserve the valid criticisms below.</p>
<h2>Paul's View Alters/Destroys Judaism And Not Merely Proclaims Fulfillment of Promises</h2>
<p class="gtxt_body">Boulanger's text begins.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>"Many </span>theologians would make us regard the miraculous conversion and apostleship of <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul </span>as one of the strongest proofs of the truth of Christianity. But in viewing the thing closely it appears that this conversion, far from proving any thing in favour of this religion, invalidates the other proofs of it....<span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul </span>himself willing to make use of these oracles of the Jewish nation to prove the mission of Christ, is <strong><em>obliged to distort them</em></strong>, and to seek in them <strong><em>a mystical, allegorical, and figurative sense</em></strong>. On the other side, how can these prophecies made by Jews and addressed to Jews, serve as proofs of the doctrine of <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul, </span>who had evidently <strong><em>formed the design of altering, or even of destroying, the Jewish religion, in order to raise a new system on its ruins</em></strong>? Such being the state of things, <strong><em>what real connection</em></strong>, or what relation, can there be between <strong><em>the religious system of the Jews, and that of </em></strong><span class="gstxt_hlt"><strong><em>St Paul</em></strong></span><span class="gstxt_hlt">? </span>For this Apostle to have had the right of making use of the Jewish prophecies, it would have been necessary that he should have remained a Jew; his conversion to Christianity evidently deprived him of the privilege of serving himself, by having recourse to the prophecies belonging to a religion that he had just abandoned, and the ruin of which he meditated. True prophecies can only be found in a divine religion, and a religion truly divine, can neither be altered, reformed, nor destroyed: God himself, if he is immutable, could not change it." (<em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA1#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">1</a>-2.)</p>
<h2>Paul's Incongruous Position on the Law</h2>
<p class="gtxt_body">Boulanger continues and shows the incongruity of Paul's attacks on the Law and his validity:</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">"In fact, might not the Jews have said to <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul, </span>"Apostate that you are! you believe in Our prophecies, and you <strong><em>come to destroy the religion founded upon the same prophecies</em></strong>. If you believe in our oracles, you are forced to believe that the religion which you have quitted is a true religion and divinely inspired. If you say, that <em><strong>God has changed his mind</strong></em>, you are impious in pretending that God could change, and was not sufficiently wise, to give at once to his people a perfect worship, and one which had no need of being reformed. On the other side, do not the reiterated promises of the Most High, confirmed by paths to our fathers, assure us, that his alliance with us <strong><em>should endure eternally</em></strong>? You are then <em><strong>an impostor</strong></em>, and, according to our law, we ought to exterminate you; seeing that Moses, our divine legislator, orders us to put to death, whoever shall have <strong><em>the temerity to preach to us a new worship, even though he should confirm his mission by prodigies</em></strong>. The God that you preach is <em><strong>not the God of our fathers</strong></em>: ....; thus your new God and your dogmas are contrary to our law, and consequently we ought to hold them in abhorrence." In short these same Jews might have said to <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul: </span>" You deceive yourself in saying, that you are the disciple of Jesus, your Jesus was a Jew, during the whole of his life he was circumcised, he conformed himself to all the legal ordinances; he often protested that <strong><em>he came to accomplish, and not to abolish the law</em></strong>; whilst you<em><strong> in contempt of the protestations of the Master</strong></em>, whose Apostle you say you are, <strong><em>take the liberty of changing this holy law, of decrying it, of dispensing with its most essential ordinances</em></strong>." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA2#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">2</a>.</p>
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<h2>Paul's Imbalances, Inconsistencies and False Reasonings</h2>
<p>Boulanger makes another introductory criticism at page 5:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">By what right can we then affirm to-day that the works of <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul, </span>formerly rejected by so many Christian sects, are authentic, that is to say, truly belong to this Apostle? On the other hand, how can we attribute to divine inspiration writings <strong><em>filled with inconsistencies, contradictions, mistakes, and false reasonings</em></strong>, in a word, which bear <strong><em>every character of delirium, of ignorance, and of fraud</em></strong>?</p>
<h2>Most Of The Original Church Rejected Paul</h2>
<p>Boulanger points out that the first disciples were known as Nazarenes, and continued to keep the Law after Jesus ascended:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">We know that the name of <strong><em>Nazarenes</em></strong> was the first which was given to the Christians. <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. </span>Epiphanius, from whom the preceding passage is taken, says, " that they were thus named because of Jesus of Nazareth," of whom they were the first disciples. The Jews called them Nazarenes from the Hebrew word Nozerim, which signifies one separated or excommunicated; again they designated them under the name of Mineans, that is to say, heretics. They were <strong><em>also by contempt called Ebionites</em></strong>, which signifies poor, mendicant, weak-minded. In fact, the Hebrew Ebion means poor, miserable, and we know, that the first followers of Christ, were every thing but opulent or intelligent men.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The first faithful, were Jews converted by Jesus himself,<span class="gtxt_body"> or by the most ancient Apostles, such as Peter, James, and John, who as well as their master, lived in Judaism. These Apostles, disciples, and new converts, differed from the Jews in nothing but the belief in Jesus Christ, whom they regarded as the Messiah predicted by the prophets; otherwise they believed themselves <strong><em>bound constantly to observe the Mosaic law</em></strong>, persuaded that their Messiah was come to<strong><em> accomplish and not to destroy this law</em></strong>. In consequence of this, they observed circumcision, the abstinence from certain meats, separation from the Gentiles, in a word, the Jewish rites and ordinances.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Thus the first Apostles, and their adherents, were only Jews, persuaded that the Messiah was already come, and was going soon to commence his reign, which made them hated and persecuted as schismatics or heretics by their fellow-citizens. <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. </span>Jerome informs us, "that even down to his time, the <strong><em>Jews used to anathematize the Christians, under the name of Nazarenes</em></strong>, three times a day in their synagogues." <em>Id.</em> at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA5#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> 5-6</a>.</p>
<p>Yet, Boulanger points out that the Nazarenes had a highly negative view of Paul:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The Acts of the Apostles, adopted by the Ebionites or Nazarenes, relate amongst other things, that, <span class="gstxt_hlt">"Paul </span>was originally a Pagan; that he came to Jerusalem where he dwelt for some time; that being desirous of marrying the daughter of the High Priest he became a proselyte, and was circumcised; but not being able to obtain the woman he desired, he quarrelled with the Jews, began to write against the circumcision, against the observation of the Sabbath, and against legal ordinances." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA5#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">5</a>.</p>
<p>Boulanger points out the presumed validity of the Ebionites' opinions about Paul:</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">All this evidently proves, that the Nazarenes, or Ebionites, <strong><em>were the first Christians</em></strong>, taught by the most considerable of the Apostles, and that the first Christians were only reformed Jews; this is clearly the only idea we can form of Christianity, such as it was taught by Jesus Christ himself.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">How then comes it that since Jesus, Christianity has been so separated from Judaism? a slight attention will prove to us that this is <em><strong>owing to </strong></em><span class="gstxt_hlt"><em><strong>St. Paul</strong></em>. </span>Repulsed by the Jews, or perhaps desirous of playing a more important part, we see him separate himself from his brethren of Jerusalem, and undertake the conversion of the Gentiles, for whom the Jews entertained no sentiment but horror. Encouraged by his first successes and wishing to extend them, he dispensed the Pagans from the painful ceremony of circumcision ; he <strong><em>declared that the law of Moses, was only a law of servitude</em></strong>, from which <em><strong>Jesus was come to free mankind</strong></em>; he pretended that all the old law was merely the emblem and figure of the new; he announced himself as the Apostle of the Gentiles, and leaving Peter and the other Nazarenes to preach the gospel of circumcision, <strong><em>he preached his own gospel</em></strong>, which he himself called the gospel of uncircumcision: in a word, he made <strong><em>a divorce with the Jewish laws</em></strong>, to which his apostolic brethren believed they ought to hold themselves attached, at least, in most respects.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">The conduct of <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul, </span>must naturally have displeased his seniors in the Apostleship, but fear appears to have determined them to cede, at least for a time, to our missionary who had already made a considerable" party. Nevertheless the Acts of the Apostles and the writings of <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul, </span>prove to us his quarrels with his brethren, who, according to appearances, never viewed with a friendly eye, his enterprizes and innovations. Moreover, Eusebius and <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. </span>Epiphanius inform us, that <strong><em>our Apostle was regarded as an apostate, an impostor, and an enemy by the Ebionites</em></strong>, that is to say, by <strong><em>the first faithful.</em></strong> But <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. </span>Paul's party having in the end prevailed, the Jewish law was entirely banished from Christianity, and the <strong><em>Ebionites, or Nazarenes</em></strong>, though of more ancient date and though formed by Christ and his first apostles <em><strong>were declared heretics</strong></em>." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA6#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">6</a>-7.</p>
<h2>Paul's Doctrines Just Coincidentally Give Him More Power To Grow</h2>
<p class="gtxt_body">Boulanger then makes a point that obviously impressed Kierkegaard -- that Paul's motivation for getting rid of the Law was to increase prosylites, and nothing more:</p>
<div class="flow">
<div class="gtxt_body">
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>lt </span>proves to us that <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>and his associate Barnabas found it much <strong><em>easier to convert the Gentiles</em></strong> than the Jews, who showed themselves almost always rebels to their lessons. The docility of the first, and indocility of the latter may be traced to very natural causes; the idolators were destitute of instruction, their priests, content with exacting from them their offerings and sacrifices, never thought of instructing (Acts of Apostles, chap. 12)  them in their religion; thus our missionaries encountered few obstacles in persuading them of the truth of the novelties which they came to announce to them. <strong><em>It was not thus with the Jews, who had a law, to which they were very strongly attached</em></strong>, since they were convinced that it had been <strong><em>dictated by God himself</em></strong>. In consequence our preachers could not make themselves listened to, but, in proportion, as the doctrine they preached agreed with the notions with which the Jews were previously imbued. The Apostles were therefore compelled to reason with the Jews, acccording to their own system, to shew them that the Christ whom they announced was the Messiah which they expected from their own prophets; in a word, in preaching the Gospel to the Jews, the preachers were driven into embarrassing discussions, and perpetually exposed to cavils and contradictions which they had <strong><em>no fear of on the part of the Gentiles,</em></strong> who received without disputing the novelties which they broached to them, and which besides agreed well enough with the notions of the pagan mythology, as we have shewn in another work.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">These reflections are sufficient to explain to us <strong><em>the reason of the great success that the Apostles had in preaching to the Gentiles,</em></strong> compared with their endeavours amongst the Jews; they likewise show us especially the true motives of Paul's conduct. In fact, <span class="gstxt_hlt">repulsed </span>by the cavils and opposition of the Jews, we see t;span class="gstxt_hlt"&gt;<strong><em>Paul </em></strong><strong><em>and Barnabas turn themselves to the side of the Pagans</em></strong>, who listened to them with more attention and declared to the Jews, that God had forsaken them.</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">The Gentiles were apparently flattered by the preference; numbers of them adopted the religion announced to them, which did not hinder the Jews from exciting, against our missionaries, the zeal of the female devotees whose clamour obliged them to quit Antioch. <em>Id. </em>at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA13#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">13-</a>14.</p>
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<h2>Paul's Improper &amp; Deceitful Behavior With the High Priest</h2>
<p>Boulanger points out that the account in Acts of Paul's claim to not know he disrespected the High Priest evinces much disingenuousness. Also, Paul's retort was not in keeping with Jesus's command to turn the other cheek. Boulanger writes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">He first declared that in all he had done, he had followed strictly the dictates of his conscience. At these words the <strong><em>High Priest gave him a box on the ear</em></strong>, at which <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>being irritated, <strong><em>instead of turning the other cheek</em></strong>, according to the precept of Jesus, abused the High Priest, treated" him as a hypocrite, or whitened wall. But as he perceived that he had given offence by his insolence to a man respected by the Jews, he moderated himself, and <strong><em>alleged that he was ignorant that it was the High Priest whom he had thus addressed</em></strong> in such terms; an ignorance, however, which cannot fail to excite surprise, considering that he was a man, who must have been informed respecting the place where he was, and the quality of those before whom he was speaking. <em>Id. </em>at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA23#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">23</a>.</p>
<h2>Boulanger Sees Preposterousness In Paul's Claim To Having Been Taken Up Into the Third Heaven</h2>
<p>Boulanger finds ill motives in Paul's assertion that he was taken into the third heaven to hear things which Paul was then not permitted to speak:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span class="gstxt_hlt"><span style="font-size: small;">St. Paul </span></span><span style="font-size: small;">in speaking of himself says: "That he knew a mau who was caught up into the third heaven, and that th'ere he heard unspeakable words, which it was not lawful for man to utter." [2 Cor. 12:2-4.] It appears in the first place that no one but a man of a very heated imagination could with sincerity pretend to have been caught up into the third Heaven; and no one but an </span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">impostor</span></em></strong><span style="font-size: small;">, could assert such a fact without being persuaded of it. In the second place we may ask of</span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;"> what use could it be to mankind that </span></em></strong><span class="gstxt_hlt"><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">St. Paul </span></em></strong></span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">should hear in the third heaven, unspeakable words</span></em></strong><span style="font-size: small;">, that is to say, such as it was unlawful for man to utter? What should we think of a man who should come and assure us, that he </span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">possessed a secret </span></em></strong><span style="font-size: small;">most important to our happiness, but yet one which he was </span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">not permitted to divulge</span></em></strong><span style="font-size: small;">? Thus the voyage of </span><span class="gstxt_hlt"><span style="font-size: small;">St. Paul </span></span><span style="font-size: small;">is either a chimera engendered by a </span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">sickly brain, or a fable, contrived by a cheat</span></em></strong><span style="font-size: small;">, who sought to make himself respected by </span><strong><em><span style="font-size: small;">boasting of the peculiar favours of the almighty</span></em></strong><span style="font-size: small;">. This voyage then was perfectly useless, since it was not permitted him who made it to relate that which he learnt from it. In short there is malice in </span><span class="gstxt_hlt"><span style="font-size: small;">St. Paul </span></span><span style="font-size: small;">thus irritating the curiosity of his hearers and refusing to satisfy it. Under whatever point of view then we behold this history or tale of Paul's ravishment into the third heaven, it can be of no utility to us, and reflects but little honour upon himself. </span><em><span style="font-size: small;">Id.</span></em><span style="font-size: small;">, at </span><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA31#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"><span style="font-size: small;">31</span></a><span style="font-size: small;">.</span></span></p>
<h2>Boulanger Suggests Paul Had Economic Motive</h2>
<p>Boulanger believes Paul's conversion most likely was due to a desire to have income without hard labor.</p>
<div class="flow">
<div class="gtxt_body">
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">There is reason to believe that <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>being <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>a very<span class="gtxt_body"> unquiet genius, was tired <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>his trade: desirous <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>trying his fortune, and <strong><em>living without work</em></strong>, he became the spy <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the priests and the informer against the Christians. Dissatisfied with the priests, who perhaps had not rewarded him to the extent <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>his expectations, he joined the new sect; which assisted by his talents promised good success, or even a probability that he might become the head; at least he might fairly calculate on an easy and honourable subsistence without being obliged to make tents. In fact he saw, that the<strong><em> apostles, who were vulgar men much inferior to himself, lived very well at the expence <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the new converts</em></strong>, who eagerly brought their wealth and laid it at the apostles' feet, consequently <strong><em><span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>was sensible, how easy it was for him to live in the same way</em></strong>, and provide himself a very comfortable birth, in a sect, in which he felt himself capable <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>playing a very important part. His ambition must have been more gratified with occupying one <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the first posts, even amongst beggars, than <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>cringing in an infamous and dishonourable capacity, under avaricious, haughty and disdainful priesls. Indeed <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>himself tells as that he had relations <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>considerable note among the apostles, who having embraced the </span>'faith before him, might have laboured with success for the conversion <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>a man so disposed. <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA33#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">33</a>.</p>
<h2>Boulanger Implies Paul Had Motive To Claim Miraculous Conversion</h2>
<p class="gtxt_body">Boulanger astutely argues that the miracle of Paul's conversion could be more the product of design then truth:</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;">His conversion, effected by a miracle, did honour to his mission, and showed the vulgar the protection <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>heaven, which changed the heart <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the most bitter enemy <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the Christians. As <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>was not ignorant that in <strong><em>this sect great value was set upon miracles, visions and revelations, he thought this was the most favourable door by which he could enter</em></strong>, and render himself acceptable to the Apostles; they received him with open arms well assured <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the sincerity <span class="gstxt_hlt">of [Paul.] <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA33#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">33</a>.</span></p>
<h2>Boulanger on Imperious Tone of Paul</h2>
<p class="gtxt_body">Boulanger calls Paul a despot. He explains:</p>
<p class="gtxt_body" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>It </span>appears by the writings attributed to <span class="gstxt_hlt">Paul </span>himself that the empire which he exercised over the members whom he had added to his sect, was not one <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>mildness. In proof <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>this, may be cited the rnanner in which this<strong><em> spiritual despot</em></strong><span class="gtxt_body"> speaks to the faithful <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>Corinth. "Moreover (says he) I call God for a record upon my soul, that to spare you, I came not as yet into Corinth." Again, " For to this end also did I write, that I might know the proof <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>you, whether <strong><em>ye be obedient in all</em></strong> things. He threatens the Corinthians, and says to them, "If I come again<em><strong> I will not spare</strong></em>." Again he justifies the tone in which he talks, by saying, "Therefore I write these things being absent, lest being present <strong><em>I should use sharpness, according to the power which the Lord hath given me to edification</em></strong>, and not to destruction." It is <span class="gstxt_hlt">probably by </span>virtue <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>this right <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>chastising, here assumed by <span class="gstxt_hlt">St. Paul, </span>that the Pontiffs and Priests <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the Christians have since arrogated to themselves an unlimited spiritual power over the thoughts <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>their subjects. Their empire extended itself by degrees over their persons; Christian priests, exceeding the Apostle to whom the Lord had given this power to edify, availed themselves <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>it to destroy those whom they found not sufficiently submissive to their decisions. If<span class="gstxt_hlt">St Paul </span>did not exercise over his sheep a power so extensive, it is doubtless because he had not, like our pastors, princes, magistrates and soldiers under his orders, capable <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>executing his holy will: <em><strong>with his imperious temper we may justly conclude that he would have conducted himself much in the same manner as some fathers <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>the church, the Pontiffs <span class="gstxt_hlt">of </span>Rome, or the Holy Inquisition</strong></em>. <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4BA_AAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=critical%20examination%20of%20st.%20paul&amp;pg=PA34#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">34</a>-35.</span></p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>The Famous Bultmann's Exalting Paul Leads To A Complete Invalidation of Paul</h2>
<h3>Introduction</h3>
<p>Beginning in the Reformation, Paul's epistles often supplanted any need to focus on the words of Christ. "Zwingli's copy of the NT was <strong><em>confined to Paul's Epistles</em></strong> and Hebrews." (Schaff, <em>Creeds of Christendom</em> Vol. 1 sec. <a href="http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:TyAoqFIemNwJ:www.lectionist.org/ccel/schaff/creeds1.ix.ii.i.html%3FscrBook%3DGal%26scrCh%3D5%26scrV%3D1+carlstadt+paul's+epistles&amp;cd=172&amp;hl=en&amp;ct=clnk&amp;gl=us">51</a>.)</p>
<p>Luther too emphasized Paul's words over the gospels. Luther quashed the co-founder of the Reformation - Carlstadt - when in 1520 Carlstadt wrote a book on canon which insisted Jesus's words had a priority over Paul's words. (See <a href="/JWO/carlstadt-research.html">Carlstadt Research</a>.)</p>
<p>The young Luther, however, triumphed and Carlstadt was banished.</p>
<p>Eventually, a rationale was needed to justify the continued maginalizing of Jesus' doctrines. For unlike Paul, Jesus taught justification is by repentance, not faith (Parable of the Publican and the Tax Collector, Luke <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=luke%2018:9-14&amp;version=ASV">18:9-14</a>). And unlike Paul, Jesus taught your only means to heaven is "heaven maimed" (by repentance) or you can go to hell "whole" (with no repentance). (Mark<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark%209:42-47&amp;version=KJV"> 9:42-47</a>.) A faith that was alone could not save -- if you based your doctrine solely upon Jesus' words.</p>
<p>To keep Paul's faith alone doctrine, Jesus' words had to be somehow marginalized. By 1929, a means was found that was explicitly based upon Paul's own direction to us in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20cor.%205:16&amp;version=ASV">2 Cor. 5:16</a> to ignore Jesus's words "in the flesh."</p>
<p>It was Bultmann who established first this modern notion that Paul correctly viewed Jesus' teachings in the flesh as irrelevant and we must realize the only way to follow Christ is to follow Paul.</p>
<p>Although living in Germany, Bultmann professed Protestant Christianity and became the "dominant theological figure of his day." (<a href="http://www.oup.com/us/catalog/general/subject/ReligionTheology/American/?view=usa&amp;ci=9780195341676">D'Elia</a>.) Bultmann is now regarded as one of the four most influential Christian theologians of the 20th Century. (<a href="http://www.absoluteastronomy.com/topics/Paul_Tillich">Tilich bio</a>.)</p>
<p>In 1929, Bultmann quashed the "From Paul to Jesus" movement led by William Wrede with the argument you are about to hear. This is what explains the modern trend to explicitly acknowledge that Paul's Gospel differs from Jesus's Gospel but trumps Jesus anyway. (For examples, see this<a href="/JWO/paulinism-examples.html"> link</a>.)</p>
<h3>Synopsis of Bultmann's Thesis That Marginalizes Jesus's Words To 12 Apostles Prior to Paul</h3>
<p>Bultmann admitted the lack of importance to Paul of Jesus's teachings when Jesus was in the flesh. That is, Paul did not consider important the teachings Jesus gave the 12 which are recorded in the Gospels.</p>
<p>However, Bultmann claims this was deliberate, and<strong><em> perfectly explains Paul's meaning in 2 Cor. 5:16. </em></strong> Bultmann says we must obey this passage from Paul which tells us to reject any further obedience/adherence to Jesus's words while "in the flesh" <em>i.e.</em>, the period when Jesus taught the 12 apostles prior to Jesus' Ascension.</p>
<p>Paul says in 2 Cor. 5:16 that "even though <strong>we <em><strong>once knew Christ </strong></em></strong><em> by means of the <strong><em>flesh [</em></strong></em> kata sarka], we<em> know him thus <em><strong>no longer.</strong></em></em>"</p>
<p>Bultmann interprets this to mean that Paul tells us that we once knew Jesus by means of doctrines delivered when in the flesh to the twelve, but now we know Jesus through messages delivered to Paul when Jesus was in his resurrected 'spiritual' body. Paul encountered a voice and light version of Jesus without flesh on the Road to Damascus. Based on such a reading of 2 Cor. 5:16, Bultmann exalts Paul's revelations from the resurrected Jesus as superior because Paul says in 2 Cor. 5:16 that we are "no longer" to know Jesus from the time Jesus taught while in the "flesh."</p>
<h3>Bultmann Concedes Jesus Pre-Cross Is Irrelevant To Paul</h3>
<p>William <span class="highlight">Wrede</span> (1859-1906) in his book<em> Paul</em> (1904) had argued Paul's writings show little knowledge of the teachings of Jesus reflected in the Gospels. This led to the "back from Paul to Jesus movement" which is now largely forgotten due to Bultmann's influential reply. (Andreas J. Köstenberger, L. Scott Kellum, <em>The Cradle, the Cross, and the Crown: An Introduction to the New Testament</em> (B&amp;H Publishing Group, 2009) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=g-MG9sFLAz0C&amp;lpg=PA369&amp;dq=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;pg=PA370#v=onepage&amp;q=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;f=false">370</a>.)</p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span class="Quoted">Rudolf Bultmann, a famous theologian, conceded the point of Wrede's in Bultmann's <em>Significance of the Historical Jesus for the Theology of Paul </em>(1929) -- also republished in </span><em>Faith and Understanding</em> (New York: Harper &amp; Row, 1969) Vol. I at 220. However, Bultmann turned it around as a proof that we should<em><strong> only be following Paul</strong></em> because of Paul's direction in 2 Cor. 5:16.</span></span></p>
<p>Bultmann thus starts by admitting that Jesus's teachings (pre-resurrection) were indeed irrelevant to Paul:</p>
<blockquote>
<p><span class="Bodytextflush">"It is most obvious that Paul does not appeal to the words of the Lord in support of his. . . . views. When the essentially Pauline conceptions are considered, it is clear that <strong><em>Paul is not dependent on Jesus</em></strong>. Jesus' teaching is -- to all intents and purposes --<strong><em> irrelevant for Paul</em></strong>." <em>Id.</em>, at 223.</span></p>
</blockquote>
<p>As others summarize Bultmann's initial point, they state:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Bultmann noted that Paul rarely alluded to or quoted from the teachings of Jesus, and that these quotations and allusions were related to ethical rather than theological matters. (Andreas J. Köstenberger, L. Scott Kellum, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=g-MG9sFLAz0C&amp;lpg=PA369&amp;dq=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;pg=PA369#v=onepage&amp;q=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;f=false">The Cradle, the Cross, and the Crown: An Introduction to the New Testament</a> (B&amp;H Publishing Group, 2009) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=g-MG9sFLAz0C&amp;lpg=PA369&amp;dq=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;pg=PA369#v=onepage&amp;q=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;f=false">369</a>.)</p>
<h3>Bultmann Interprets Paul As Saying To Ignore The Pre-Cross Jesus</h3>
<p>Bultmann next turned around this admission as a point in favor of Paul because Paul supposedly deliberately ignored Jesus's teachings while "in the flesh." Bultmann says Paul gives us a pattern that we should imitate rather than be revulsed by, as William Wrede had portrayed its consequence.</p>
<p>For proof, Bultmann relied upon Paul's remarks in 2 Corinthians 5:16. Bultmann said this verse meant we no longer know Christ in the flesh, <em>i.e.</em>, we can dispense with Jesus's teachings when He was in the flesh. Bultmann said that only the messages Paul received from the resurrected Christ - who supposedly no longer had flesh -- is the means to know Christ any longer. This reading of "in the flesh" is compatible with how Origen and Clement read 2 Cor. 5:16 in the early church, although they did not deduce this meant we are now free to ignore Jesus's earthly teachings. (See our discussion at this <a href="/JWO/2-corinthians-516.html">link</a>.)</p>
<p>Bultmann's view was first put forth by Christian theologian and physician <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Albert_Schweitzer">Albert Schweitzer</a> (1875-1965). In Schweitzer's view of 2 Cor. 5:16 in his book of 1911 <em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=J8HhOwAACAAJ">Geschichte Der Paulinischen Forschung</a> </em>(J. C. B. Mohr) at 191 (and in English translation, <em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=NRBmPQAACAAJ">Paul and His Interpreters</a>: </em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=NRBmPQAACAAJot;&gt; &lt;/a&gt;of 1912, at 245). Schweitzer believed "><em>The conception of authority in the Pauline writings</em> (1918) at </a><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=2XJCAAAAIAAJ&amp;dq=Albert%20Schweitzer%202%20cor.%205%3A16&amp;pg=PA36#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">36</a>), Schweitzer explained: "since the death and resurrection of the Lord [Paul believed] conditions were present that were so wholly new that <strong><em>they made his</em></strong> [<em>i.e.</em>, Jesus's]<em><strong> teaching inapplicable</strong></em>." (<em>Id</em>.) Thus, Albert Schweitzer says this is what explains Paul's failure to mention any significant teachings of Jesus: "If we had only St Paul to guide us, we should not know that Jesus spoke in parables, that He spoke the Sermon on the Mount and taught His people the Lord's Prayer." This was stated by Schweitzer to prove Paul intended us to similarly ignore such lessons from Jesus.</p>
<p>Schweitzer concluded we know Christ no longer in His historical teachings but through the spiritual Jesus of Paul's visions. Schweitzer wrote:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">The truth is, it is <strong><em>not Jesus as historically known</em></strong>, but as spiritually risen within, who is significant for our time and can help it. <strong><em>Not the historical Jesus</em></strong>, but the spirit which goes forth from Him...which overcomes the world. (Quoted in Mark Powell, <em>Jesus as a figure in history: how modern historians view the man from Galilee </em>(Westminster John Knox Press, 1998) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=IJP4DRCVaUMC&amp;lpg=PA19&amp;ots=KVHP56_wWM&amp;dq=bultmann%20acceptance%20evangelical%20christianity&amp;pg=PA19#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">19</a>, quoting Schweitzer.)</p>
<p><em></em></p>
<p>Bultmann saw things the same way, but took it further. Bultmann said the post-resurrection Jesus of Paul now held exclusive importance <em><strong>because Paul said so</strong></em>. As one commentator on Bultmann summarized his influential view of 2 Corinthians 5:16:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Bultmann...regards the <strong><em>historical Jesus as irrelevant</em></strong> as to the <em>kerygma</em> [<em>i.e., </em>preaching] of the risen Lord whom Paul proclaimed. Bultmann understood 2 Corinthians 5:16 ("even though<strong><em> we once knew Christ</em></strong> <em>kata sarka</em> [through/by<em><strong> means of the flesh</strong></em>], we<em><strong> know him thus no longer</strong></em>") to mean that Paul chose not to employ his knowledge of Jesus kerygmatically, a view with which<strong><em> Bultmann agreed</em></strong> [with Paul.]. Accordingly, the influential scholar of Marburg [<em>i.e.</em>, Bultmann] declared Paul the "founder of Christian theology." (Paul Barnett, <em>Paul: Missionary of Jesus</em> (Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing, 2008) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=J7tnFxRTlbYC&amp;lpg=PA13&amp;dq=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;pg=PA13#v=onepage&amp;q=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;f=false">13</a>.)</p>
<p>Thus, Bultmann was blunt: Paul in 2 Cor. 5:16 meant the pre-cross messages from Jesus were irrelevant because Jesus was then in the flesh. Jesus now had a resurrected body, and Paul says we now no longer know Jesus from the time He was in the flesh. Bultmann said that on the road to Damascus, Paul met the resurrected Christ, and Paul was <strong><em>passing those post-resurrection messages to us</em></strong>. The pre-cross Christ represented Jesus in the flesh whose doctrines, Paul wishes us to understand (per Bultmann), were now supposedly irrelevant for the NT church.</p>
<p>As a consequence of this view of 2 Cor. 5:16, Bultmann said it was nonsense to imagine we would abandon Paul and find Jesus as Wrede claimed. Bultmann insisted rather that "one could <em><strong>only find Jesus through Paul</strong></em>," as the authors of <em>The Cradle, the Cross</em>, etc.<em>, </em>summarized Bultmann's interpretation of Paul. <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=g-MG9sFLAz0C&amp;lpg=PA369&amp;dq=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;pg=PA370#v=onepage&amp;q=Bultmann%20Theology%20of%20Paul%20irrelevant%20jesus&amp;f=false">370</a>. Hence, Bultmann ridiculed as nonsense the notion of "the back from Paul to Jesus" movement. <em>Id.</em></p>
<p>Bultmann's view has filtered into popular opinion. In one post quoting 2 Cor. 5:16, the writer was blunt that Jesus in the Synoptics is dead and gone and now we only look to the Resurrected Jesus (whom Paul it is claimed presented): "The<strong><em> story</em></strong> that is chronicled in the Gospels and has been trumpeted by the church systems for two thousand years is one about the Jesus that is <strong><em>forever gone,</em></strong> never to walk the paths of earth again." (<a href="http://www.city-data.com/forum/christianity/995258-worshipping-jesus-man-idolatry.html">Elmer 6/30/2010</a>.)</p>
<p>Incidentally, in this analysis by Bultmann, he is guilty of an obvious logical fallacy of <em><strong>circular reasoning</strong></em>. While Wrede doubted Paul's authority because Paul treated Jesus' teachings as irrelevant, Bultmann affirmed Paul's own words as proving <em>why</em> Paul ignored Jesus's teachings as<strong><em> proof of Paul's authority</em></strong>. But that means Paul's authority to eradicate the historical Jesus's importance <strong><em>rests on no proof but the assumption of Paul's authority</em></strong>. This is <strong><em>circular logic</em></strong>. It assumes as a premise -- Paul has authority -- its own conclusion which is that Paul has authority over the historical Jesus'words in the flesh. Bultmann clearly engaged in the bootstrap fallacy but no one has ever pointed out this obvious defect in his reasoning.</p>
<h3>How This Aligns With Paul's Teaching That Flesh Cannot Inherit Eternal Life</h3>
<p>Regardless, Bultmann's view of 2 Cor. 5:16 appears a correct interpretation of Paul. (But a terribly wrong path for those following Jesus.)  Bultmann's interpretation lines up with Paul's view that "flesh cannot inherit eternal life" (1 Cor. 15:50-54). That verse confirms Paul's experience with a post-ascension "Jesus" was with a being who did not have flesh. For 1 Cor. 15:50-54 with 2 Cor. 5:16 support believing<em><strong> Paul admits he never met a Jesus who had flesh</strong></em>. Thus, Paul must have encountered someone on the Road to Damascus who said he was Jesus and did not have flesh, but had a "spiritual body" without flesh. The blinding "light" and "voice" version of Jesus in the three vision accounts, we are left to understand, was a "spiritual body" without flesh. For more on the distinction between a body of flesh and a spiritual body, see "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/bodies-upon-ascension.html">Bodies After Ascension</a></p>
<h3>How 2 Cor. 5:16 Aligns Further With Barnabas' Statement in Hebrews 6:1</h3>
<p>Tertullian ca. 200 AD said Barnabas wrote Hebrews. (See our <a href="/Bible/authorship-of-hebrews.html">link</a>.) Barnabas' ideas in Hebrews have many cross-mixtures with Paul's ideas, especially in its Christology. Plus Paul and Barnabas were missionary allies at one point. The Epistle to the Hebrews has a similar statement about leaving behind Jesus' doctrine, including repentance from sin / works (now denigrated as 'dead works), and instead building salvation doctrine upon faith alone, as Bultmann found in 2 Cor. 5:16. We read in Hebrews <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=hebrews%206:1&amp;version=ASV">6:1</a>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">“Therefore<strong><em> let us abandon</em></strong> (or<strong><em> leave behind</em></strong>)(Gk. <em>aphentes</em>) the<strong><em> elementary doctrine of Christ</em></strong> and go on to more maturity, <strong><em>not laying again a foundation of repentance from dead works </em></strong>but of faith toward God.”</p>
<p>The same verb <em>aphentes</em> is properly translated in Mark 1:18 as "<strong><em>threw aside</em></strong>." (Donahue &amp; Harrington, <em>The Gospel of Mark</em> (2005) at <a href="/Recommended-Reading/bodies-upon-ascension.html"> </a><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=FfAWQh9ybFYC&amp;lpg=PA74&amp;ots=zDVZRI48A-&amp;dq=aphentes%20greek&amp;pg=PA74#v=onepage&amp;q=aphentes%20greek&amp;f=false">74</a>.) Some translate as "forsook." (Mark 1:<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark%201:18&amp;version=KJV">18</a>, KJV.)</p>
<p>Barnabas draws a parallel between "elementary doctrine of Christ" and "a foundation of repentance from dead works...," thereby speaking derogatorily about a beginner's version of Christ's doctrine -- a <strong><em>foundation of repentance from dead works</em></strong>. Barnabas says this is now supplanted by a superior doctrine of "faith toward God" instead.</p>
<p>Hebrews 6:1 thus can be viewed just like 2 Cor. 5:16. If so, it represents a<em><strong> brazen attack</strong></em> by Barnabas upon <strong><em>the Christianity taught by Jesus</em></strong>. In this verse, Barnabas arguably implied that Jesus teaching was immature, while Barnabas was able to take Christianity to the next level. Hence, if Hebrews 6:1 is speaking just like 2 Cor. 5:16, Barnabas saw the message of Jesus in the same way that Bultmann read Paul in 2 Cor. 5:16. Barnabas would be seeing Jesus's doctrine as irrelevant, superseded by the new teaching brought by Paul about faith. This possible reading of Hebrews 6:1 thus lends credence that Bultmann is properly reading 2 Cor. 5:16 to make a similar point.</p>
<h2>Bultmann's Argument Implodes Unwittingly Any Validity for Paul</h2>
<p>No one has seen how Paul has invalidated himself if Bultmann's influential interpretation of 2 Cor. 5:16 were examined carefully.</p>
<p>From what Bultmann just said, Paul is claiming the message of the flesh-bound Jesus no longer applies once Jesus resurrected, right? Then this means the resurrected Jesus whom Paul met did not have flesh? Right? In fact, didn't Paul simply describe Jesus as a "light" and a "voice" when He returned to visit Paul? Indeed, because Paul teaches "flesh" cannot inherit eternal life (1 Cor. 15:50-54), Paul must have met a Jesus (so he assumed) who only had a "spiritual body," and not flesh.</p>
<p>And from what Bultmann says, it follows that the person communicating to Paul taught the commands Jesus gave in His earthly ministry no longer applied after the resurrection, right?</p>
<p>Each of these consequences of Bultmann's reading of 2 Cor. 5:16 separately <strong>destroy </strong>Paul's validity.</p>
<h3>Paul Did Not Meet The Resurrected Jesus If Bultmann Has Read 2 Cor. 5:16 Correctly</h3>
<p>First of all, didn't Thomas discover something unusual when Thomas met the resurrected Jesus? Jesus had flesh. But Paul seems to think that the resurrected Jesus has no flesh, right? For we are now no longer to know Jesus that way -- "through the flesh" -- the time Jesus had flesh, so Paul teaches. Paul encountered solely a Jesus without flesh - at least Paul thought it was Jesus. However, Thomas saw the nail holes in Jesus's hands and the scar on His side. That sounds like flesh to me. Doesn't it to you? Jesus even said to Thomas to handle him to prove He was "flesh and bone." (Luke <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke%2024:39&amp;version=KJV">24:39</a>.)</p>
<p>Thus, the person Paul claims to have encountered in the wilderness outside Damascus as Jesus in a post-resurrection period<strong><em> must not really have been Jesus</em></strong>. Paul should have seen Jesus's nail-holes and scars, and realized Jesus still had flesh. (See also <a href="/JWO/jesus-prophecy-about-who-identified-himself-as-jesus-to-paul.html">our discussion </a>of Matt 24:24-27 that Jesus said not to believe someone who says "I am Jesus" in the wilderness.)</p>
<p>But Paul in 2 Cor. 5:16, as Bultmann reads the passage, did not believe the resurrected Jesus whom Paul met in the wilderness had flesh, right? And the Paul who wrote 1 Cor. 15:<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%2015:50&amp;version=ASV">50</a> did not believe "flesh" could inherit eternal life, but that is precisely what Jesus enjoys "in the flesh" that He took into heaven. Both passages confirm Paul met in the wilderness only a spiritual body, and <strong><em>one lacking flesh</em></strong> -- a body wholly unlike what Thomas encountered when Thomas met the resurrected Christ.</p>
<p>This is further confirmed by the 3 vision accounts of Acts 9, 22, and 26 where Paul's account says Jesus merely appeared in the wilderness outside Damascus as a blinding "light" and a "voice." This apparently was a spiritual body.</p>
<p>Now we realize something that did not cross our mind earlier when studying the vision accounts of Paul in Acts. Nowhere in Paul's encounters do we know <strong><em>how Paul identified Jesus </em></strong>as Jesus. It appears Paul simply relied upon a spiritual body (lacking flesh) to tell Paul "I am Jesus." What did that prove? Paul <strong><em>never realized he could not just trust the voice</em></strong> in his vision accounts to say "I am Jesus." Paul should have realized<strong><em> he needed to see the nail-holes to validate whom Paul saw </em></strong>truly was Jesus. That's what Apostle Thomas saw. Yet, in <em><strong>none of Paul's three vision account</strong></em>s in Acts 9, 22 and 26 <strong><em>does Paul ever validate</em></strong>, like Thomas did visually, that <strong><em>this indeed was Jesus</em></strong>. Now we know why: Paul met a spiritual body who only was simply a blinding light and voice.  "The journey is interrupted when Paul sees a blinding light, and communicates directly with a divine voice." ("<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conversion_of_Paul">Conversion of Paul</a>," <em>Wikipedia</em>.) Paul did not meet a flesh-and-blood being--although a glorified one--who was Jesus Christ.</p>
<h3>Devil-in-Disguise Principle Eluded Paul</h3>
<p>Paul describes Jesus in Acts as a disembodied light. In the first account, Jesus is a light; in the next a great light, and in the third a light brighter than the Sun. (See Acts 9:1-9; 22:3-11; 26:9-20.)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"Apparently all it took to convince Paul that he was hearing the voice of Jesus was for the voice to say so."  (Delos B. McKown, <em>Behold the Antichrist: Bentham on Religion </em>(Amherst, N.Y.: Prometheus, 2004) at 122.)</p>
<p>McKown, a professor on religon, acknowledges that "taken at face value, this reveals credulity (or gullibility) of a high order." <em>Id. </em>at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?ei=TOTOTIyKD8SCngfG9vjeCQ&amp;ct=result&amp;id=qh3XAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=(Delos+B.+McKown+Behold+the+Antichrist:+Bentham+on+Religion&amp;q=gullibility#search_anchor">122</a>.</p>
<p>But Paul knows that the devil can disguise himself as an angel of light. See <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2+Corinthians+11%3A14&amp;version=NIV">2 Cor. 11:14</a>. Yet the Devil-in-Disguise Principle was not applied by Paul on this ocassion. Luke gives us no sign of any effort by Paul to verify the light and voice was truly from Jesus.</p>
<p>Delos B. McKown while critically summarizing Bentham's <em>Not Paul But Jesus</em> realizes the validity of some points of Bentham. So McKown recounts his exchange with a student on this point when a student claims Jesus told him to do something outrageous, and then McKown applies this to Paul for our benefit on how to interpret Paul's experience on the Road to Damascus:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">To this I said, But how can you be sure it was Jesus and not the <strong><em>Devil disguised as Jesus</em></strong> who told you to do as you are doing (see 2 Cor. 11:14 for Paul's description of the prowess of the Devil as a deceiver)? The waif, clearly shaken by the application of what I call the<em><strong> Devil-in-Disguise (DID) Principle</strong></em>, fell silent for a time. Then confidently, serenly he assured me saynig, 'Oh, it was Jesus all right.' Having done my best to '<strong><em>test the spirit</em></strong>' in question, I bade my visitors farewell. Even if we grant that Paul heard an extramental voice addressing him on the Damascus road, <em><strong>why did he not apply the DID principle</strong></em>? Why did the [author of Acts] not make inquiries about this and <strong><em>tell us how Paul verified the genuiness of the voice</em></strong>?  (Delos B. McKown, <em>Behold the Antichrist: Bentham on Religion </em>(Amherst, N.Y.: Prometheus, 2004) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?ei=TOTOTIyKD8SCngfG9vjeCQ&amp;ct=result&amp;id=qh3XAAAAMAAJ&amp;dq=(Delos+B.+McKown+Behold+the+Antichrist:+Bentham+on+Religion&amp;q=verified#search_anchor">155</a>.)</p>
<p>Indeed, in light of what Bultmann says, we have a serious factual flaw in Paul's encounter with a disembodied voice. Jesus could not be recognized in that manner, even if the voice said he was Jesus. In fact, our Lord warned that "many will come in my Name," but are false. They will point to terrestial appearances of Jesus with great "signs and wonders" (blinding light?) and many will be deceived. (Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+24&amp;version=NIV">24</a>.)  Jesus says in Matthew <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt.%2024:5&amp;version=NIV">24:5</a> (NIV) in particular that very soon some will come in 'my name" and say "I am the Messiah"-- several verses prior to Jesus warning about the false Christs that come near the end of this age:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">For many will come <strong><em>in my name</em></strong>, claiming, <em><strong>I am the Messiah</strong></em>, and will deceive many.</p>
<p>Paul did not care much for Jesus' words in the flesh, but these words among them would have warned him that a 'blinding light' whose 'voice' says "I am Jesus" (Acts <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%209:5&amp;version=NIV">9:5</a>) is precisely the kind of statement Jesus warned about in Matthew 24:5. It is someone coming in Jesus' name claiming 'I am the Messiah,' <em>i.e.</em>, I am Jesus. But Jesus said this kind of statement could lead astray <em>even</em> the elect to follow a false Jesus.</p>
<p>But Paul credulously, nay gullibly, believed this voice was from Jesus. It could not be because the post-resurrection Jesus had flesh, and 2 Cor. 5:16 proves Paul did not meet a flesh-and-blood Jesus.</p>
<h3>Had Jesus Come Back To Paul In A Different Manner Than When He Left?</h3>
<p>Another incongruity is that if Jesus returned as a "voice" and "light" to Paul, it contradicts the angel's message in Acts <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%201:11&amp;version=KJV">1:11</a> that "Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so <strong><em>come in like manner </em></strong>as ye have seen him go into heaven." Jesus left as a body of flesh. If He returned to visit Paul, He should still have had a body of flesh. This is what the angel prophesied.</p>
<h3>Recap on Bultmann's Point #1</h3>
<p>In sum on point #1, Bultmann's reading of 2 Cor. 5:16 (combined with 1 Cor. 15:50-54) reveals Paul had a misapprehension that Jesus no longer had human flesh after the resurrection. Paul is utterly and completely invalidated unwittingly by Bultmann. Hence, a pro-Paul reader of 2 Cor. 5:16 -- Bultmann -- actually found an interpretation that unwittingly destroyed Paul's validity.</p>
<h3><strong>Paul's Command To No Longer Know Christ According To The Flesh Contradicts Christ</strong></h3>
<p>Second, Jesus' final words on earth as He ascended into heaven were that the Apostles (the twelve - Paul was not there) should teach "<strong><em>everything that I commanded you</em></strong>...." Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2028:20&amp;version=NIV">28:20</a>.</p>
<p>If Paul is correct in 2 Cor. 5:16 as Bultmann construes him, then the Jesus of Matt. 28:20 is in total conflict with the "Jesus" who inspired 2 Cor. 5:16. Jesus is still in the flesh post-resurrection, as proven to Thomas. He wants teachings while still in the flesh taught to all the world. But Paul in reliance on the "Jesus" he met says <em>NO! </em>This proves the message of 2 Cor. 5:16 is not a message of the true Jesus. Paul's "Jesus" contradicts completely the final words on Earth of the true Jesus. The true Jesus could only have meant that post-Ascension the apostles were to teach the <strong><em>pre-Cross</em></strong> teachings of the true Jesus when our Divine Lord was clearly "in the flesh."</p>
<p>Hence, Paul taught we are "no longer" to know Christ through the teachings of Jesus while in the flesh (2 Cor. 5:16), when the true Jesus says the opposite to His true Apostles in Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2028:20&amp;version=NIV">28:20</a>.</p>
<p>And the true Jesus gives us an ominous warning if we follow Paul's command to no longer know Jesus according to Jesus' teachings while in the flesh: "He who rejects me and <strong><em>does not receive my sayings</em></strong> has a judge; the word that I have spoken <strong><em>will be his judge</em></strong> on the last day." (John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%2012:48&amp;version=NIV">12:48</a>.)</p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p>While very weak efforts have been attempted by scholars to refute Bultmann -- Voulgaris, for example, argues that knowing Jesus "according to the flesh" in 5:16 means knowing Jesus "as a Jew" -- these efforts only strengthen one's confidence that Bultmann's reading is the correct one. Bultmann's view is also consistent with the reading in the early church of 2 Cor. 5:16. See our discussion of the various readings of 2 Cor. 5:16 at this <a href="/JWO/2-corinthians-516.html">link</a>.</p>
<p>This means, if Bultmann is correct, that Paul in 2 Cor. 5:16 deliberately sought to displace the commands that Jesus gave to his true apostles with a set of commands Paul got from a stranger who lacked flesh -- who could not have had the verifying evidence of scars and flesh-wounds that Thomas saw -- and who gave a direction to dispense with the words of Jesus's earthly ministry contrary to Christ's command in Matt. 28:20.</p>
<p>Thus, <em>if Bultmann is correct</em> in his scholarly interpretation of 2 Cor. 5:16, and we have little reason to doubt it is correct, Paul was a<strong><em> total dupe of some strange figure who did not reveal any flesh, and this is why Paul assumed Jesus had solely a spiritual body. </em><span style="font-weight: normal;">This figure intended Paul not to see that he lacked the scars and nail-holes that would verify whether the blinding light and voice were from the true Jesus Himself.</span><span><em> The true Jesus would have no reason to conceal these wounds</em></span><span style="font-weight: normal;"> from Paul if Paul had met the true Jesus. Someone other than Jesus, however, would have motive to conceal his true identity from Paul, and thus only appear as a "voice" and "light," leading Paul to think Jesus no longer had a body of flesh in His resurrected state. </span></strong>We need not speculate on who that figure was of <strong><em>blinding</em></strong> light at this juncture. It is more important that we can say that we confidently know who it was NOT. If Bultmann is correct in interpreting Paul,<strong><em> it could not be the true Jesus.</em></strong></p>
<h2>Further Study</h2>
<p>On the Bible identifying Satan as Lucifer, an angel of blinding light -- in Hebrew <em>helel</em> -- from <em>Helios</em> -- the name of the "<strong><em>Sun-God</em></strong>" of paganism, see this <a href="/JWO/who-is-the-blinding-angel-of-light.html">link.</a></p>
<p>Bultmann has had a long acceptance among evangelicals. However, he was loose in terms of our NT text. He concluded any "I sayings" of Jesus in the Gospels were not actually uttered by Jesus. He says they came from the Palestinian or Hellenistic church. See Daniel S. Dapaah, <em>The relationship between John the Baptist and Jesus of Nazareth</em> (University Press of America, 2005) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=S0P18O3fGR4C&amp;lpg=PA33&amp;ots=1LXOZqgO25&amp;dq=%22The%20Gospel%20of%20Thomas%3A%20Does%20It%20Contain%20Authentic%20Sayings%20of%20Jesus%3F%22&amp;pg=PA14#v=onepage&amp;q=%22The%20Gospel%20of%20Thomas:%20Does%20It%20Contain%20Authentic%20Sayings%20of%20Jesus?%22&amp;f=false">14</a>-15. Professor Martin Hengel was the one evangelical scholar who tried to debunk Bultmann's pessimism about the authenticity of these portions of our NT. See<a href="http://blog.christianitytoday.com/ctliveblog/archives/2009/07/the_champion_wh.html"> this</a> <em>Christianity Today</em> discussion.</p>
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<h2>1. Matthew's Gospel</h2>
<p>Was the Greek version of Matthew originally written in Hebrew? If so, what impact does this have on the canon? For more information, see <a target="_blank" href="/images/stories/Canon_Studies/hebrew matthew.pdf" title="Jesus' Words Only Canon Studies The Original Matthew">The Original Matthew</a>.</p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"For early Jewish Christians the Bible consisted of the Old Testament and some Jewish apocryphal literature. Along with this written authority went traditions, chiefly oral, of sayings attributed to Jesus. On the other hand, authors who belonged to the 'Hellenistic Wing' of the Church refer more frequently to writings that <strong><em>later came to be included in the New Testament</em></strong>. At the same time, however, they very rarely regarded such documents as 'Scripture'.<br /><br />"Furthermore, there was as<em><strong> yet no conception of the duty of exact quotation from books that were not yet in the full sense canonical</strong></em>. Consequently, it is sometimes exceedingly difficult to ascertain which New Testament books were known to early Christian writers; our evidence does not become clear until the end of second century." (Metzger, <em>The Canon Of The New Testament: Its Origin, Significance &amp; Development</em> at 72-73.)</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Carlstadt: Elevating Jesus Over Paul</h2>
<p>In 1517, Andreas Bodenstein von Carlstadt (or Karlstadt) (1486-1541) and Luther began the Reformation together. (See <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=hruQ386SfFcC&amp;lpg=RA1-PA254&amp;dq=Canonicis%20Scripturis%20karlstadt&amp;pg=RA1-PA253#v=onepage&amp;q=Canonicis%20Scripturis%20karlstadt&amp;f=false">bio</a> by Beitenholz; see also "<a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Andreas_Karlstadt">Carlstadt</a>," <em>Wikipedia</em>.)</p>
<p>In fact, Carlstadt was as much or more of the Reformation's founder than Luther. This fact is obscured because of a later falling out between Carlstadt and Luther over their differences on issues like Paul. How Luther expelled Carlstadt and his followers from the Reform movement, see our <a href="/JWO/luther-killed-jwo.html">webpage</a> on those issues.</p>
<p>One of the key issues that divided these two men was Carlstadt's clear position in 1520 which held that <strong><em>Jesus's words hold supremacy over those of Paul's</em></strong>, and hence James's epistle is not to be dismissed as canon merely upon the fact it contradicts Paul.</p>
<p>This issue is discussed in detail in Charles Beard's <em>Martin Luther and the Reformation in Germany</em> (1889). Beard explains that Carlstadt's treatise<em> De Canonicis Scripturis</em> (Wittenb. 1520) divided the NT similar to how the Jews had divided the OT canon -- Law, Prophets and Writings. (For a graphic on how the OT was originally divided, go to this <a href="http://www.originalbiblerestored.com/bibleorder.html">link</a>.)</p>
<p>For the NT, Carlstadt made a parallel division: (1) the Gospel and Acts were of first rank; (2) the 16 Epistles comprising Paul and 1 John and 1 Peter were of second rank; and (3) Revelation, and the remaining epistles, including Hebrews were in third rank. (Bleek: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=d9oUAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=Canonicis%20Scripturis%20karlstadt&amp;pg=PA274#v=onepage&amp;q=Canonicis%20Scripturis%20karlstadt&amp;f=false">274</a>.)</p>
<p>By doing so, Carlstadt placed <strong><em>Paul's words as inferior to Christ's words</em></strong> in the Gospels, just as in the Jewish canon every Prophet was viewed inferior to Moses's words in the Law. Beard explains:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"But his most remarkable position -- one which Luther would have fiercely contested -- ...is that the first [books of the NT] are to be preferred to that of the second....<strong><em>On this ground, the word of Paul is not to be put on a level with that of Christ</em></strong>." (Reprint 2009 at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=emIdSf6gTR0C&amp;lpg=PA278&amp;ots=k26bn6FeJ5&amp;dq=carlstadt%20canon%20paul&amp;pg=PA278#v=onepage&amp;q=carlstadt%20canon%20paul&amp;f=false"> 278</a>; 1896 edition at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=YlzNSeh7YgMC&amp;dq=Paulinum%20sub%20literis&amp;pg=PA401#v=onepage&amp;q=Paulinum%20sub%20literis&amp;f=false">401</a>, quoting Carlstadt, <em>De Canonicis Scripturis</em> (ed. Credner) section 161)</p>
<p>Beard cited the Latin which supported this conclusion in which Carlstadt wrote:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Oportet enim servos dominis obsequi, atque sicut Spiritus Apostoli in came non fuit par vel major Domino, ita quoque pectus <em><strong>Paulinum sub literis non habet autoritatus tantundem, quantum habet Christus</strong></em>.</p>
<p>In translation, Carlstadt said:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">It is necessary in fact to preserve obedience to the Lord, and as the Spirit of the Apostles is not a guide equal or greater than the Lord, thus also the heart of<em><strong> Paul within his letters does not have as much authority as has Christ</strong></em>.</p>
<p>Beard correctly understands Carlstadt's principle as meaning that Pauline doctrine could not thrive unless one could find the same message in Christ's words:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Plainly the adoption of Carlstadt's principle would have made it impossible for the Reformer to embrace <strong><em>a Pauline theology</em></strong>, <strong><em>except under the condition</em></strong> of<em><strong> finding it</strong></em> in the books of first and greatest authority, <strong><em>the Gospels themselves</em></strong>. <em>Id.</em>, (1896) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=YlzNSeh7YgMC&amp;dq=Paulinum%20sub%20literis&amp;pg=PA401#v=onepage&amp;q=Paulinum%20sub%20literis&amp;f=false"> 401</a>.</p>
<p>And while Luther rejected James' epistle because it contradicted Paul, Carlstadt instead put James and Paul on the same level. Thus, neither could cancel the other out. Carlstadt's defense of James caused a "rift" between Luther and Carlstadt. (Beitenholz:<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=hruQ386SfFcC&amp;lpg=RA1-PA254&amp;dq=Canonicis%20Scripturis%20karlstadt&amp;pg=RA1-PA254#v=onepage&amp;q=Canonicis%20Scripturis%20karlstadt&amp;f=false"> 254</a>.)</p>
<p>(Luther instead used subjective criteria, mainly derived from Paul's Gospel, to reject four NT books which are still recognized canon today, <em>i.e.</em>, Revelation, James, Jude and Hebrews. Luther also dismissed Esther, Job, and Chronicles. See our page on <a href="/Recommended-Reading/luther-and-canon.html">Luther and canon</a>.)</p>
<p>Beard <strong><em>incorrectly</em></strong> then concluded these points by Carlstadt had little influence upon the Reformation. Instead, they were highly influential. In fact, Luther had to use considerable influence and civil authorities to crush the Protestant movement in Germany under Carlstadt that shared this perspective. See our webpage on<a href="/JWO/luther-killed-jwo.html"> Luther's Crushing the JWO movement in the Reformation</a>.</p>
<p>Schaff in <em>History of the Christian Church</em> (Scribner: 1888) , Volume 6 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=KmAsAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PA35&amp;ots=pyhPQ8DDiO&amp;pg=PA35#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">35</a> fn. 1, similarly summarized Carlstadt's book of 1520. Carlstadt put Moses and Jesus in first priority in canon, while the prophets and epistles regardless of authorship were in second tier:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">In this distinction Carlstadt had preceded him in his book, <em>De Canon. Scripturis </em>(Wittenb. 1520, reprinted in Credner's <em>Zar Gesch. des Kanons, </em>1847, p. 291— 412). Carlstadt divided the books of the canon into three <em>ordines: </em>(1) <em>libri <strong>summae dignitatis </strong></em>(the Pentateuch...and <em><strong>the Gospels</strong></em>); (2)<em><strong> secundae dignitats</strong></em><em> </em>(the Prophets and <strong><em>15 Epistles</em></strong>); (3) <em>tertiae dignitatis </em>(the Jewish Hagiographa and the seven Antilegomena of the New Testament).</p>
<p>One of the motivations of Carlstadt was he thought Luther too easily dismissed the book of James as not valid. If Paul is in first priority, the fact James contradicts Paul would require exclusion of James from canon, as Luther essentially did. If, however, Paul and James stood on the same second level of authority, then it was for the reader to determine which of the two was correct in light of first tier works such as the Torah and/or the words of Jesus.</p>
<p>It is clear that Carlstadt feared a salvation doctrine would arise that omitted Jesus's requirements of works/repentance besides faith. Specifically, on the issue of Luther's decision to exclude James, Carlstadt expressed the fear that <strong><em>faith alone without love</em></strong> would now reign as the gospel instead of what Jesus taught. Carlstadt wrote:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"I am grieved by the bold deprecation of James [by Luther].... Beware that you do not take a paper and <strong><em>loveless faith</em></strong> for the greatest work." (George H. Williams, <em>The Radical Reformation</em> (Philadelphia: Westminster, 1962) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?ei=j8KVTIOVN4P0tgOrtonACg&amp;ct=result&amp;id=apwIAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=george+williams+radical+reformation&amp;q=greatest+work#search_anchor"> 40</a>, quoting Carlstadt <em>Canonicis</em>.)</p>
<p>Carlstadt's fear soon became reality as 'sola fide' without any works (love or otherwise) became Luther's rallying cry.</p>
<p>Ironically, Luther later realized this was a mistake to teach as the path for salvation for a Christian. From 1530 onward, Luther, Bucer and Melancthon tried to restore Jesus' doctrine in the '<strong><em>double justification</em></strong>' movement. By 1541, their efforts almost bore fruit. Then after Luther's death in 1546, Melancthon made double justification official Lutheran doctrine. However, after Melancthon's death, in 1580 Lutheranism reverted back to Luther's young ideas, and officially made 'faith alone' the means of salvation for both the non-believer and the Christian. For a detailed history of the 'faith alone' fiasco in the Reformation and Luther's ultimately unsuccessful effort to reverse himself by the 'double-justification' solution, see our [1] <a href="/JWOS/preface-2-jwos.html">Preface</a> to <em>Jesus Words on Salvation </em>and [2] our article "<a href="/JWOS/george-major-and-melancthon.html">George Major and Melancthon</a>."</p>
<h3>STUDY NOTES</h3>
<p>Carlstadt aka Karlstadt believed that his view of salvation requiring obedience/works was still consistent with justification by faith, and not the deeds of the law. His idea was very similar to the double-justification solution that Luther, Melancthon and Bucer pushed in the ecumenical conference of 1541. Carlstadt said that once the Spirit was reborn by faith, it is now free to do righteousness, and hence the spirit, and not the will unaided, will produce righteousness that justifies the man. See Ronald J. Sider, <em>Andreas Bodenstein von Karlstadt: the development of his thought, 1517-1525</em> (Brill, 1974) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=tI2-w1GKVucC&amp;lpg=PA88&amp;dq=De%20Canonicis%20Scripturis%20Credner&amp;pg=PA31#v=onepage&amp;q=paul&amp;f=false"> 31</a>.</p>
<p>Carlstadt's book <em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=gplvQAAACAAJ">Canonicis Scripturis</a></em><em> </em>was reprinted by Karl August Credner in <em>Zur Geschichte des Kanons</em> (1847) at pages 291-412.</p>
<p>Carlstadt came to reject predestination. He taught we have the ability to choose to believe and obey; God does not force anyone into disobedience and unbelief. Otherwise, God would become the author of evil. (Madeleine Grey, <em>The Protestant Reformation</em> (Sussex Academic Press, 2003 ) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Z1qRnlLwWsgC&amp;lpg=PA34&amp;ots=qi-FZCcgOC&amp;dq=andreas%20karlstadt%20writings&amp;pg=PA34#v=onepage&amp;q=andreas%20karlstadt%20writings&amp;f=false"> 34</a>.)</p>
<p>Carlstadt in his pamphlet "Regarding the Sabbath and the Statutory Holy Days" depicted the Law as a positive. It was a guide to make us more like God in character. "It arouses our desire to become holy as God is holy."  (Edward Allen, "<a href="http://www.auss.info/auss_publication_file.php?pub_id=1119&amp;journal=1&amp;type=pdf">Was Karlstadt a Proto-Sabbatarian</a>," <em>Seminary Studies</em> 44 (Spring 2006) at 134.) "God has given us His commandments and counsels that we might become holy and conformed to God, which is to be like God, and as he is. Thus the Sabbath has become instituted by God that we might desire to become holy and is holy, and rest like Him, letting go of our works as He did." <em>Id.</em></p>
<p>The young Luther of 1525 condemned Carlstadt's positive view on the Law:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">We must  see to it that we retain Christian freedom and<strong><em> do not force such laws and works on the Christian conscience, as if one  through them were upright or a sinner</em></strong>. Here questions are in order concerning the place which images, foods, clothing, places, persons, and all such external things, etc., ought to have. . . . From which you now see that Dr. Karlstadt and his spirits <strong><em>replace the highest with the lowest</em></strong>, the best with the least, the first with the last. Yet  he  would  be considered the greatest spirit of  all,  he  who  has devoured the Holy Spirit feathers and all." (Luther, "Against  the  Heavenly  Prophets in the Matter  of  Images and Sacraments"  (1525),  in Luther  <em>Works</em> 40, ed.  Conrad Bergendoff  (Philadelphia: Muhlenberg, 1958) at 83.)</p>
<p>Carlstadt's view of the Law sharply contrasts with the young Luther's view which gave the Law only two functions: one for the magistrates to correct us and second for us to know our need for grace.</p>
<p>Carlstadt elevated Sabbath to a high level:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">"All who<strong><em> desire to be  saved </em></strong>have been given and commanded the Sabbath."  Bodenstein von Karlstadt, "On the Sabbath," in <em>The Essential Carlstadt: Fifteen Tracts</em>, trans. and ed. E. J. Furcha (Scottdale, PA: Herald Press, 1995) at 320-21.</p>
<p>Carlstadt also did not highly regard the Book of Revelation. It was a book in the "third order," which he did not "reject" (as Luther did outright for the early part of his career) but did not give it as much authority as other books. (<em>Penny cyclopaedia</em> (The Society for the Diffusion of Useful Knowledge 1833) Vol. I at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=swsDAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=RA1-PA162&amp;ots=r2pDXHVLsH&amp;dq=carlstadt%20view%20apostle%20paul&amp;pg=RA1-PA162#v=onepage&amp;q=carlstadt%20view%20apostle%20paul&amp;f=false">162</a>.)</p>
<h2>Bibliography</h2>
<p><a href="http://www.scribd.com/doc/29696947/The-Essential-Carlstadt-Fifteen-Tracts-by-Andreas-Bodenstein">The Essential Carlstadt</a> -- 15 tracts (Scribd)</p> </td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Eleven - Was James Writing His Epistle For A Trial of Paul?</h2>
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<h3>Introduction</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Scholars now recognize the Epistle of James was intended for a specific purpose: a trial. The epistle begins by explaining seating rules for a trial at a "synagogue," not at a church service.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">However, there is more to support this trial theory than what the scholars have acknowledged. When one looks at James' message, one has the unmistakable sense that James is dismantling the doctrines taught by Paul. This is particularly true in James' discussion of faith and works. James explains Genesis 15:6 in a diametrically different way than Paul explained the very same verse. James tells the story of Abraham in a manner at total odds with Paul's account. James leads the reader to a diametrically opposite doctrine of justification by works and "not faith [that is] alone." There is also no mistaking that James defines salvation as crucially relying on faith and works, not one without the other. He, in fact, mocks the idea that salvation depends upon doctrines you only mentally agree with. If mental belief alone were the true salvation formula, he says demons would be saved. The demons know and believe the truths about God, but they do not act upon them by pursuing God.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464099"></a>Finally, when you look through all of James, it is not just chapter two that takes Paul down a notch. It is almost every chapter and verse of James' Epistle that does so. It is as if James is spreading out Paul's letters on a table, finding flaws, and then writing messages that address those flaws.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464100"></a>This is precisely the kind of assistance one would expect from a leader in the early church to provide the judges in a pending trial of Paul. James' epistle would become the doctrinal reference guide for the judges.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464101"></a>However, did James have this role within the early church? Why would James, not Peter, provide an epistle for this special purpose if indeed that was its purpose?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464102"></a>It turns out that James (the brother of Jesus) was the bishop of Jerusalem. He was the first original head of Christ's church. This would make his input something to be expected at a heresy trial of Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464103"></a>All the pieces fit that the Epistle of James was intended for a trial of Paul at a Christian-controlled synagogue. It fits the trial at Ephesus spoken about in Revelation 2:2. It fits the story of Luke in Acts chapter 19 of a budding `synagogue'-church at Ephesus expelling Paul as a heretic.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464104"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-1.gif" /></div>
Was It Written for A Trial At A Synagogue?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464106"></a>In <a name="marker=464105"></a>James 2:2-4, James is discussing how a meeting at an assembly should be conducted. He discourages favoritism at this meeting. He gives rules for standing and sitting. The traditional understanding has been this was about a hypothetical gathering for worship. However, that now appears to have been a simplistic view. As Stulac mentions:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464107"></a>A second and more recently advocated position is that the meeting is a judicial assembly of the church, and that the rich and poor individuals are both members of the believing community who are involved in a dispute to be adjudicated.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464110" class="footnote"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464111"></a>In 1969, R.B. Ward concluded James is "describing a judicial assembly rather than a worship service." (Stulac: 91.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464114" class="footnote"> 2</a> He notes there is a subsequent reference to judges and courts. (James 2:4, 2:6.) Second,</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464115"></a>it rather neatly resolves the questions some have had about this illustration in a worship setting. Why would Christians coming to worship need to be told where to stand or sit?... Why would some stand and others be seated? In Ward's judicial setting, procedures of standing or sitting might well be unfamiliar to the participants, and clothing might be a factor that would unfairly impress the judges. (Stulac: 91.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464116"></a>Nor can we overlook that this proceeding was to take place in a synagogue. In James 2:2-4, James uses the Greek word synagoge for this meeting even though in other places in the same letter (in 5:14) he refers to Christ's church as an ecclesia. The word ecclesia was typically used to mean church, as distinct from meetings at synagoge. Also, incongruously, this word synagogue is only used in the New Testament for a church-meeting in James 2:2-4. James intends it to be a particular gathering place for Christians. James' context makes it clear as to this synagoge, there is "Christian ownership of and authority over this assembly." (Stulac: 91.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464117"></a>Thus, when we put these two facts together, we can deduce James was writing his letter in the context of an upcoming gathering at a Christian-controlled <a name="marker=464118"></a>synagogue to conduct a trial. The event would involve a large crowd. Some would stand and some would sit. This is completely consistent with the idea of a synagogue at <a name="marker=464119"></a>Ephesus at which Paul taught for three months. (Acts 19:8.) It fits the story of the synagogue at Ephesus from which Paul felt compelled to leave as recorded in Acts 19:9. It fits the place where Paul put on "his first defense" yet "all abandoned" him and "all in Asia abandoned" him. (<a name="marker=464120"></a>2 Tim. 1:15;<a name="marker=464121"></a>4:14-17.) Ephesus was the capital city of Asia--Western Turkey. (For more discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010.#39927" class="XRef"></a>et seq.) James' Epistle appears to have been written for a trial of Paul. It appears it was for the trial at Ephesus which Jesus alludes to in Revelation 2:2.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464126"></a>
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<a name="20206"></a>James Is the Head Bishop of the Church</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>Why would James be giving an evaluation of Paul's teachings for purpose of a trial? Because James was the head of the church at that time. Paul indirectly alludes to this in <a name="marker=464128"></a>Galatians 2:9:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464129"></a>James and Cephas and John, they who were reputed to be pillars...(ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a>Cephas was the Aramaic version of Peter's name. Thus, Paul says the main supports (pillars) in Jerusalem appeared to be James, Peter, and John.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>Second, we find in Acts that <a name="marker=464131"></a>James takes the position of the final decision-maker over and above the apostles on doctrinal issues. In <a name="marker=464133"></a>Acts 15:6, the "apostles and elders were gathered together to consider" the issue whether Gentiles needed to be circumcised. After Paul and Peter speak, James gets up in<a name="marker=464134"></a>Acts 15:19 and says "I judge" (Young's Literal). James then spells out exactly what is to be done and all the particulars. A letter is to be written and several specific requirements are to be demanded. Robertson's Word Pictures explains James uses an expression of <a name="marker=464135"></a>krino (to judge) in the first person form. Robertson further explains that this is exactly the form used by a judicial officer. It means "I give my judgment." Robertson says the implication on James' status is clear:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464136"></a>James sums up the case as President of the Conference in a masterly fashion and with that consummate wisdom for which he is noted.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464137"></a>The apostles including Peter were all present. Obviously, they previously had authorized James to exercise such authority on doctrine. In fact, they were evidently waiting for his final ruling.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464158"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-2.gif" align="RIGHT" />Lastly, the proof we have that James was the head of the church at the time of his epistle comes from abundant external ancient sources. These sources say James was appointed by the twelve apostles as the head over the Jerusalem church. Because there are some in Christendom who suppose this honor belongs to Peter, we need to review the evidence in depth.</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464159"></a>Historical Sources For James' Role</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a>First, <a name="marker=464160"></a>Eusebius (c. 260-341) in about 325 A.D. wrote the following in <em>Ecclesiastical History</em>. Eusebius is regarded as a conservative early Church historian, having at one time himself been bishop of Caesarea in Palestine. Eusebius agrees James was the initial leader of the church after Jesus' resurrection.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464162"></a>James, the brother of the Lord, to whom the episcopal seat at Jerusalem had been entrusted by the apostles. (<em>Ecclesiastical History</em>, Chapter XXIII.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a>What Eusebius says, we see occurring in Acts ch. 15.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a><a name="marker=464164"></a>Hegesippus (c. 120?), who lived immediately after the apostles in Palestine, had written a work divided into five books called <em>Memoirs</em>. In Book V, he mentions:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464166"></a>James, the brother of the Lord succeeded to the government of the Church in conjunction with the apostles. Memoirs of Hegesippus Book V (quoted by Eusebius).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a><a name="marker=464167"></a>Jerome, the famous translator of the entire Bible into the Latin Vulgate (405 A.D.), devotes chapter two of his<em> On Famous Men</em> to a biography of <a name="marker=464169"></a>James the Just. This is another name for the James who is talking in Acts chapter 15. Incidentally, as you read this quote, you will see Jerome is struggling on how this person can be "the brother of Jesus" and yet Mary was a perpetual virgin. By the 400s, the Roman Catholic church was now claiming Mary remained a perpetual virgin. Jerome gives a very odd explanation of how James could be the "brother of Jesus." Jerome suggests that James is the son of a sister of Mary. (This entire effort to make Mary a perpetual virgin is unscriptural and dangerous.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464174" class="footnote"> 3</a> However, what is important is that Jerome cites Hegesippus for the fact that James was appointed the "bishop<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464180" class="footnote"> 4</a> of Jerusalem" by the "apostles." Jerome writes:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464181"></a>James, who is called the brother of the Lord, surnamed the Just, the son of Joseph by another wife, as some think, but, as appears to me, the son of Mary sister of the mother of our Lord of whom John makes mention in his book, after our Lord's passion at once ordained by the apostles bishop of Jerusalem,... Hegesippus who lived near the apostolic age, in the fifth book of his Commentaries, writing of James. says `After the apostles, James the brother of the Lord surnamed the Just was made head of the Church at Jerusalem.'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464182"></a>Likewise, Epiphanius, a bishop in the late 300s, writes of James <a name="marker=464183"></a>in his<em> Panarion</em> 29.3.4. He says that "James having been ordained at once the first bishop, he who is called the brother of the Lord.... [W]e find as well that he is of David's stock through being Joseph's son...."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464186" class="footnote"> 5</a> To the same effect is Clement of Alexandria, who said the apostles did not pick from their own number "because the savior [already] had specifically honored them, but [instead] chose James the Just as Bishop of Jerusalem."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464189" class="footnote"> 6</a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-3.gif" align="RIGHT" /></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464211"></a>There is thus no question that James is the original head bishop of the church of Christ. He was appointed by the twelve apostles themselves. Acts ch. 15 gives witness to this, as well as all ancient historical sources. Thus, contrary to a popular misconception, Peter was not the bishop of the Christian church when it first began. Rather, as Acts chapter 15 depicts, in the early period Peter speaks but then everyone waits for James to decide the issue.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464213"></a>This is not to detract from <a name="marker=464212"></a>Peter's important role either. Around 42 A.D., ten years into James' service as bishop over Jerusalem, Peter founded a church at Rome. Peter was, in effect, its first bishop.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464217" class="footnote"> 7</a> (Every city in Christendom had its own bishop. Thus, Peter was de facto bishop at Rome even if some bishop lists omit his name.) By the same token, Peter's position at Rome ten years into James' primary position at Jerusalem does not detract from <a name="marker=464221"></a>James' role.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464222"></a>While scholars did not initially appreciate Professor Eisenman's resurrecting these historical references about James outlined above, renown Christian scholars have now come to Eisenman's defense. They acknowledge it was James, not Peter, who actually first led the church from Jerusalem.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464226" class="footnote"> 8</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464227"></a>The importance of this history is it proves why James was the right person to write a letter to Christians at Ephesus for a trial. As head bishop, he was the one to guide them on how to evaluate Paul's doctrines. James was the voice of what was orthodox in the church at that time.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464229"></a>
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<a name="38482"></a>Luther's Admission of James' Direct Conflict with Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464230"></a>The primary proof that the Epistle of James is directed at Paul is the clarity of the contradiction over faith and works. On this point, the contradiction by James of Paul is pervasive, thorough, and unmistakable. James certainly claims salvation is not by faith alone. James says that one is justified by works. He gives several examples. He uses Paul's favorite example of <a name="marker=464231"></a>Abraham. James quotes and re-analyzes Genesis 15:6 to reach a contrary conclusion to that of Paul. No gloss can legitimately efface James' point. Paul clearly says the opposite. (Rom. 4:3-4; Eph. 2:8-9; Gal. 3:6 et seq.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464233"></a>James begins his message on faith and works at <a name="marker=464232"></a>James 2:14-25. <a name="marker=464234"></a>James 2:17 reads: "Even so faith, if it hath not <a name="marker=464235"></a>works, is dead, being alone." James asks rhetorically "can such faith save?" which calls for a negative answer. Thus, faith without <a name="marker=464236"></a>works (in context, <a name="James"></a>works of charity), James says, cannot save.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464238"></a>What few commentators like to note is James' words on faith and <a name="marker=464239"></a>works are directly based on <a name="marker=464240"></a>Matthew 25:30-46. In this Parable of the Sheep and the Goats, the dividing line between the saved and lost, as <a name="marker=464241"></a>Jesus tells it, is whether one did works of charity to his brethren. Jesus requires the very same acts of crucial charity that James cites--provision of food, water, and clothes. (For further discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209.#14306" class="XRef"></a>et seq.) James then cites example after example to prove that works justify. He concludes "man is justified by works and not by faith alone" [i.e., a faith that is alone]. (James 2:24.) This is discussed in more depth later on in this chapter in the topic James on Faith and Works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a><a name="42313"></a>The stark contrast between James and Paul was evident to a luminary as great as <a name="marker=464247"></a>Luther. He writes of James' epistle:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464248"></a>In a word, he [James] wanted to guard against those who relied on faith without works, but was unequal to the task in spirit, thought, and words. He mangles the Scriptures and <strong><em>thereby opposes Paul</em></strong> and all Scripture.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464251" class="footnote"> 9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a>Another time, <a name="marker=464252"></a>Luther was even more blunt and somewhat humorous when he said:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>Many sweat hard at reconciling James with Paul... but unsuccessfully. `Faith justifies' [Paul] stands in flat contradiction to `Faith does not justify' [James 2:24]. If anyone can<strong><em> harmonize these sayings</em></strong>, I'll put my doctor's cap on him and <em><strong>let him call me a fool</strong></em>. <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464257" class="footnote">10</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464258"></a>Thus, indeed James is going directly after Paul's teachings on salvation. He is proving them, in his mind, to be false. The contrast is stark and blunt. There is no rational basis to imagine James intends to do something other than correct a perceived false teaching by none other than Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>What aids this conclusion is that this correction process continues throughout James' Epistle. The fact the entire epistle continues in anti-Paul directions therefore heightens the probability that James' Epistle was aimed at Paul. Before reviewing each of those smaller corrections by James of Paul, let's explore the larger conflict whether salvation can be by a faith that lacks works. James' points are so obviously aimed at Paul that it bespeaks this Epistle served as a road map in a trial against Paul.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464262"></a>
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<a name="42065"></a><a name="24851"></a>James on Faith and Works</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a>Paul teaches that one can be <a name="marker=464263"></a>justified by faith without works. (Rom. 4:5; Gal. 2:16.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464267" class="footnote"> 11</a> James taught the exact opposite in James chapter two. Faith without works cannot justify and cannot save.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464269"></a>James is relying upon Jesus for his position. For Jesus <a name="marker=464270"></a>taught the very same thing as James, using the same charitable works test. Jesus says such works were necessary to save you in <a name="marker=464271"></a>Matt. 25:30-46. James says you need these identical works to add to <a name="marker=464272"></a>faith to be justified. (<a name="marker=464273"></a>James 2:14 et seq.) The works-of-charity-as-nec<img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-4.gif" align="RIGHT" /> essary-for-salvation formula is merely a repeat of <a name="marker=464290"></a>Isaiah 58:5-8.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464294" class="footnote"> 12</a> Thus, Jesus and <a name="marker=464297"></a>James are saying nothing novel. Paul is the one staking out a novel claim that runs against the revealed word of God. Paul is claiming salvation must never turn on adding works to faith. Paul claims if you do so, you commit a heresy. You are making salvation depend on putting God in your debt--God owes you salvation. (Rom. 4:4.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a><a name="marker=464298"></a>Paul justified his conclusion based on<a name="marker=464299"></a>Genesis 15:6 where <a name="marker=464301"></a>God's promise in Genesis 15:5 was reckoned by Abraham as righteousness. In the Hebrew, Abraham, not God, is clearly the actor reckoning something as righteousness. However, Paul interpreted the verse to mean God imputed righteousness to Abraham based on faith. From this Paul deduced salvation based on Abraham's faith alone. (<a name="marker=464302"></a>Gal. 3:6-9; <a name="marker=464303"></a>Romans 4:3.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a><a name="27461"></a>Paul is thus claiming Genesis 15:6 is about Justification by Faith. As we will discuss below, however, this verse lends no support at all, just as James is asserting, to the concept of justification by faith alone. Paul was misled by an erroneous translation in the <a name="marker=464306"></a>Septuagint (247 B.C.) of the Hebrew of Genesis 15:6.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464308"></a>
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<a name="18191"></a>Justification in Abraham's Life: James and Paul at Odds</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464309"></a>In Young's, Genesis 15:6 reads: "And he believed [emn] in the Lord; and He counted it to him for righteousness." In the original Hebrew, however, this more correctly says "And he [Abram] believed the Lord, and [he, i.e., Abram] reckoned it [i.e., the promise of blessing in Gen. 15:5] to Him as justice." It had nothing to do with God reckoning anything to Abraham based on faith. It was always about how Abraham viewed God's blessing in Genesis 15:5.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464310"></a>As the evangelical scholar Victor Hamilton points out, the Young's capitalization effort misleads you if you followed normal Hebrew syntax and ignored Paul's spin of the passage. This is because the He with a capital h is an interpolation of what is assumed to be present. He is actually missing. When the he is missing, under normal rules of Hebrew, the he that must be interpolated is borrowed from the subject of the preceding clause, namely Abram. Because this starts as "he [i.e., Abram] believed the Lord," it must finish "he [Abram] counted it as righteousness to Him." It was wrong for the YLT to capitalize the he in the second part so it read "He [God] counted it to him as righteousness." Rather, it should have been "he [Abram] counted it to Him as righteousness/justice."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464311"></a>In Professor Victor P Hamilton's <em>New International Commentary on the Old Testament</em> (Eerdmans 1990), we read in Vol. I at 425:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464312"></a>The second part of this verse records Yahweh's response to Abram's exercise of faith: `he credited it to him as righteousness.' But even here there is a degree of ambiguity. Who credited whom? Of course, one may say that the NT settles the issue, for Paul expressly identifies the subject as God and the indirect object as Abram (Rom. 4:3).<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464315" class="footnote"> 13</a><strong><em> If we follow normal Hebrew syntax</em></strong>, in which the subject of the first clause is presumed to continue into the next clause if the subject is unexpressed, then <strong><em>the verse's meaning is changed</em></strong>... Does he, therefore, continue as the logical subject of the second clause? The <strong><em>Hebrew of the verse certainly permits this interpretation</em></strong>, especially when one recalls that sedaqa means both `righteousness' (a theological meaning) and `justice' (a juridical meaning). The whole verse could then be translated: "Abram put his faith in Yahweh, and <strong><em>he [Abram] considered it [the promise of seed(s)] justice</em></strong>."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464316"></a>Thus, in the Hebrew original version of this verse, it had nothing to do with justification of Abraham by God based on faith. It was Abraham counting the promise of God in Genesis 15:5 as justice by God. Professor Hamilton was being honest despite how a true translation would upset Hamilton's own Protestant theology.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464319" class="footnote"> 14</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464320"></a>Furthermore, even if He was the subject of counted, as the YLT renders it, then the it which is the object of counted would likely mean faith. The faith would be what is deemed righteousness, not Abraham. Abraham's faith would be deemed a righteous deed. This matches the Jewish view that faith can be described as a work.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464323" class="footnote"> 15</a> Thus, it is plausible to consider that every time you trust or believe in God despite reason to doubt Him, you perform a work that pleases God.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464324"></a>The fact that faith (not Abraham) would be the best alternative of what is imputed to be righteousness is clearly seen by comparing Genesis 15:6 with Psalm 106:30-31. Phinehas' action of killing the wicked was "counted to him as righteousness." In Hebrew, those words in Psalm 106:30-31 are identical to Genesis 15:6. In context, Psalm 106 means the act of killing wicked people was reckoned an act of righteousness. It did not imply any kind of salvific justification of Phinehas. Thus, one should not read any salvific justification of Abraham into the identical expression in Genesis 15:6. At best, it could be Abraham's faith was a righteous deed. It would be reckoned as righteousness. Therefore, even if we viewed the he who is reckoning to be God, the better view would be that faith, not Abraham, was deemed righteous.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464325"></a>The Misleading Septuagint Greek Translation of 247 B.C.</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465021"></a>In 247 B.C., the Hebrew Bible was translated into Greek, and is known as the Septuagint. Jewish scholars acknowledge "the Septuagint was translated by very bad translators" and "very often the [Septuagint] translators did not even know what they were reading and created nonsensical sentences by translating word for word." (Nehemiah Gordon, Hebrew Yeshua vs. Greek Jesus (Jerusalem: 2006) at 33-34.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465029"></a>Paul swallowed these errors in the Septuagint time and time again. Most important, Paul was misled by the highly ambiguous translation of Genesis 15:6 in the Septuagint Greek translation of 247 B.C. Paul quotes it twice. (Romans 4:3; Gal.3:6.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464327"></a>First, the Septuagint was missing it altogether as the direct object of counted in the verse. The Septuagint error made the verse now ambiguous. What was being counted as righteousness? Abraham, the faith or the promise of Genesis 15:5? The Septuagint aggravates the error by a second major mistake in translation of the verse.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464328"></a>The Septuagint next erred by revising the verb involved. The Septuagint tense in Greek for counted (<em>elogisthê</em>) is in the third person singular aorist passive indicative. This means was counted. While the third person means the subject could be he, she or it, in context, the most likely subject is it. This is because the passive form of the verb count--was counted--reads awkwardly if any subject other than it is used. Thus, it makes little sense to say he was counted to himself. Thus, the KJV correctly reflects the Greek Septuagint, which Paul relied upon. However, if the KJV is correct, the translation flaw by the Septuagint is self-evident. The he as the subject of counted in the original Hebrew has been erased, and now it is the subject. This leaves who is doing the counting as ambiguous in the Septuagint. "It was counted to him...." Perhaps it is God or Abraham doing the counting. However, in the original Hebrew, as Hamilton notes, normal Hebrew syntax says it was Abraham doing the reckoning, not God.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464329"></a>Thus, in 247 B.C., the Septuagint launched a highly ambiguous version of Genesis 15:6, omitting the it as the object of counted, and changing the subject of counted from he to it. Paul got sucked into these ambiguities, like a vortex.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464330"></a>Post-Septuagint Commentaries within Judaism</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464331"></a>Because of the Septuagint flaws, commentators within Judaism post-dating the Septuagint understood God was imputing a righteousness to Abraham. However, these same commentators believed it was based on Abraham's faithful obedience, not merely faith. This faithfulness preceded Genesis 15:6. Abraham did not suddenly believe in Genesis 15:6 and become justified for the first time.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464332"></a>Paul, by contrast, in Romans chapters 3-4 regarded Abraham as still a sinner who experienced his first justification by the mere believing recorded in Genesis 15:6.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464333"></a>The contrary Jewish understanding of Genesis 15:6 predating Paul is best exemplified by 1 Maccabees 2:52 (135 B.C.). This was written in Greek.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464336" class="footnote"> 16</a>The following allusion to Genesis 15:6 obviously derives from the Septuagint Greek translation. Maccabees 2:52 says "Was not Abraham found faithful in temptation, and it was imputed to him for righteousness?" This has it as the subject of counted, and thus tracks the Septuagint version, not the original Hebrew. More to the point, this reading viewed the Septuagint Genesis 15:6 as teaching it was faithful obedience that led to an imputed righteousness. As Gathercole comments, "Here it is faithfulness under temptation that leads to his being granted a state of righteousness."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464339" class="footnote"> 17</a> It was not faith that originally caused the imputation of righteousness, as Paul claimed. This must be true from a Biblical perspective as well. Otherwise, one has no explanation for all God's earlier promises and blessings on Abraham, including the promises to Abraham in Genesis 12 et seq.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464340"></a>Or must we succumb to a Pauline view that God did all this prior to Genesis 15:6 because Abraham was an unjustified sinner whom God wanted to impress to the point of faith? I think not. And I am in good company. The Christian scholars who address this hard question agree that Abraham had to be justified prior to Genesis 15:6.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464341"></a>What the Bible Teaches About Abraham's Status At This Point</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464342"></a>The Hebrew Bible does not depict Abraham as an unjustified sinner until the believing on the Lord mentioned in Genesis 15:6. This fact has not escaped thoughtful Christian scholars. In fact, such a notion that Abraham was a lost soul until Genesis 15:6 (implied by Paul in Romans chs.3-4) is ludicrous. James B. Coffman, a conservative scholar in the Church of Christ tradition, pointed this out about Genesis 15:6 in his famous commentary on the `Old Testament.' First, Coffman derides the view of this verse which Paul is understood in Romans chapters 3-4 to assert. "One may only be astounded at the amount of nonsense written about this verse, which is hailed as the plan of salvation for the sinners of all ages, some even claiming that Abram was `saved by faith only'...." Finally, Coffman concludes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464343"></a>It is absolutely impossible properly to observe this place [i.e., Gen. 15:6] as the record of a new covenant. Gen. 12:1f contains the embryo of all that is given here. Therefore, this chapter has a recapitulation and further explanation of the... [promises] he received in good faith, and... had already demonstrated his faith by OBEDIENCE....</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464344"></a>As Whiteside, a scholar of great discernment, exclaimed:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464345"></a>`One of the strangest things in all the field of Bible exegesis is the contention so generally made that this language refers to the justification of Abraham as an alien sinner. It seems to be taken for granted that up to the time spoken of in this verse, Abraham was an unforgiven, condemned sinner....<strong><em>The facts [from Scripture] are all against such a supposition</em></strong>.'<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464348" class="footnote"> 18</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464349"></a>Thus, Paul's contrary thesis in chapters three and four of Romans that Abraham was justified by his faith alone (first experienced in Genesis 15:6) is pure nonsense. Paul wants us to see Abraham became the father of all who believe by implying he was transformed from sinner to a justified saint only by the step of believing. (See Rom. 3:9-10, all have sinned; Romans 4:1-5, 10-18, Abraham first justified by faith, and thus becomes father of all who believe.) However, Paul's notion totally contradicts what is clearly implied from Scripture, namely how Abraham must have been justified prior to Genesis 15:6.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465521"></a>Paul also turns a mere promise to Abram in Genesis 12:2 and 15:5 and the faith it spawned in 15:6 into a covenant that we inherit. However, this overlooks entirely the covenant God actually made with Abram was in Genesis 17:1-7, which transformed him into Abraham. The covenant was squarely conditioned on obedience.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=465526" class="footnote"> 19</a> Only after Abraham died did God declare Abraham had kept the covenant faithfully and then God declared He would keep His side of the covenant.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=465551" class="footnote"> 20</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464350"></a>Why did Paul lend support to such nonsense that Abraham was justified by faith and that Genesis 15:6 was the Abrahamic covenant we inherit? As mentioned before, the ambiguities in the Septuagint Genesis 15:6 sucked Paul in, and led him to err.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464352"></a>
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<a name="15925"></a>James Likewise Sees Paul's Error on Abraham's Justification</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464353"></a>James, in his exposition of the very same verse, Genesis 15:6, still has the traditional interpretation of the Greek Septuagint in mind. God had made a new hard-to-believe promise to Abraham about offspring in his old age. (Gen. 15:5.) Yet Abraham trusted God's promise. At that point, this trust was simply just another good characteristic of Abraham. It merely added to the status of justification that Abraham already enjoyed. Because James assumed justification can be lost, to know how Abraham was justified in the sense of final salvation, James must look ahead. That issue depends crucially on the final test where Abraham offered up Isaac in Genesis 22. Thus, James understood the faith of Genesis 15:6 as part of the justification process. However, if you want to know how God measured Abraham's final justification, then James implies that you look at how he did on the last test, not at the test of his faith alone. (James 2:21, 23.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464354"></a>James starts by quoting Genesis 15:6 from the Septuagint.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464357" class="footnote"> 21</a> Then James explains Genesis 15:6 opposite of what Paul sees there. James says "see that by works a man is justified and not faith alone." (James 2:23-24.) Those commentators influenced by Paul, and those who attempt to translate Genesis 15:6 to match Paul's thoughts, are left mystified. They gasp: `How can James say this in light of what is contained in Genesis 15:6?'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464358"></a>However, James' understanding lines up precisely with the pre-Christian interpretation of Genesis 15:6, in particular the quote from Maccabees referenced above. To repeat, the non-canonical book of 1 Maccabees written in 135 B.C. says at 2:52: "Was not Abraham found faithful in temptation, and it was imputed to him for righteousness?"<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464361" class="footnote"> 22</a> This verse is precisely what James alludes to in James 2:21. James even phrased it almost identically: "Was not Abraham our father justified by works, in that he offered up Isaac his son upon the altar?"</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464362"></a>Now combine the parallel between Maccabees and James to see what you find: `was not Abraham found faithful in temptation, i.e., justified by works, and that faithfulness, i.e., offering up Isaac on the altar, was imputed to Abraham as righteousness?' Maccabees and James thus both say Genesis 15:6 is not the final verdict. It was an earlier step. If Abraham had failed the test of Genesis 22, and not offered up Isaac, James is saying that then Abraham would be lost. But Abraham passed the test, and it is this later obedience which justifies Abraham. The earlier faith, taken alone, could not have saved Abraham. If he had failed in Genesis 22, then faith alone would have failed him as a means of final justification. Cf. Ezek. 33:12 et seq.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464363"></a>How could James reach this conclusion based on Genesis 15:6? He saw, like 1 Maccabees saw, that Genesis 15:6 is not actually about faith, but about faithfulness. It is not about believing, but justification by faithful obedience. This is because James was using the Hebrew concept of faith to construe the Greek word for faith. In Hebrew, faithfulness cannot ever be separated from faith, contrary to what faith could mean in Greek.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464366" class="footnote"> 23</a> Thus, James knew the underlying Hebrew had to mean no less than that Abraham was faithful to God, and it was reckoned as righteousness.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464367"></a>Therefore, because Moses in writing Genesis 15:6 could not separate faith and faithfulness, a Jewish mind would understand it from a Hebrew perspective. Justification for Abraham would crucially depend on how Abraham's life finished, not how it started.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464368"></a>Thus, James saw the faith in Genesis 15:6 as a small step on a long road. He thus was exposing the error of how Paul was reading Genesis 15:6. James in James 2:21-24 saw faith as faithfulness in Genesis 15:6. James, like the Maccabees' interpretation, saw that the act of faith in Genesis 15:6 was good, but more important was Abraham's later faithful action of offering up Isaac in Genesis chapter 22<a name="marker=464369"></a>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464370"></a>Some Paulinists try to claim James is not talking about the topic of salvific justification, in order to avoid James' criticism of Paul's ideas. However, James is using justified in the way Paul was trying to spin Genesis 15:6. James uses the identical Greek word for "justified" that Paul used. He is thereby responding to Paul's interpretation of Genesis 15:6. James is saying that if you address the issue of justification that counts eternally, then Genesis 15:6 is not sufficient. Faith alone will not suffice. Nor was Abraham justified for the first time as a person in Genesis 15:6 by adopting a mental belief (which James derides). Abraham already had a long period of faithful obedience to God up to that point. The faith of Genesis 15:6 was just another step in what justified Abraham. However, if you want to find the moment of final justification that counts, it must come after faith. For Abraham, his continuing faithful obedience culminates in Genesis 22. Such faithful obedience--both before and at the moment of the offering of Isaac--is what keeps on justifying the man, not faith alone. Accordingly, James concludes that "man is justified by works and not by faith alone" [i.e., a faith that is alone]. (James 2:24.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464373" class="footnote"> 24</a></p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464374"></a><a name="31994"></a>James on Paul's Idea of Faith Alone</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464375"></a>Just as Paul's misreading of Genesis 15:6 led to a faith alone salvation (Romans 4:4-6), James' correction of how to read Genesis 15:6 led to a correction of Paul's faith alone doctrine. James says in the same context that a faith without deeds does not justify and cannot save. James says this precisely in James 2:14, at direct odds with Paul's teachings.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464376"></a>Stulac explains this verse in his commentary entitled <em>James</em> (Illinois: Intervarsity Press, 1993). James makes his point plain in James 2:14 by means of the rhetorical question "can such faith [without works] save?" The question calls for a negative answer. Stulac says James means that faith without works is useless for "salvation itself." (Id., at 108.) Peter Davids, another specialist on James, agrees. He says James means the "use [-lessness of faith without works] takes on serious consequences, for it is salvation which is at stake."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464379" class="footnote"> 25</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464381"></a>Stulac explains that while <a name="marker=464380"></a>James is not saying works alone without faith saves, James rejects the idea that "faith by itself, without the accompanying actions" can save. (<em>Id.</em> at 109.) Stulac (like others who admire James) tries to find ways to make Paul consistent with James. However, mincing words cannot work. Stulac concedes James "uses the same terms for deeds (erga) as Paul." (<em>Id.</em>, at 111.) The words are identical between Paul and James. However, the thoughts are at odds. There is no question that James means faith plus works justifies; faith alone does not.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464384" class="footnote"> 26</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464385"></a>Luther was blunt about there being a conflict between James and Paul. He said James contradicts Paul. Luther was right. This is what further proves the Epistle of <a name="marker=464386"></a>James was likely a document used to try Paul. As a matter of Biblical interpretation, the erroneous Septuagint misled Paul. As Hamilton's expert knowledge of Hebrew tells us, it was Abraham who was reckoning to God the promise of Genesis 15:5 as an act of righteousness. However, even if the Septuagint were correct, Psalm 106:30-31 likewise shows James (not Paul) was correct about Genesis 15:6.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464389" class="footnote"> 27</a> The Bible never taught <a name="marker=464395"></a>justification by faith alone without deeds. Paul's misinterpretation of Genesis 15:6 is a serious mistake.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464396"></a>
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<a name="26040"></a>What About Justification By Works in the Hebrew Scriptures?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464397"></a>How far off is James from the Bible itself? The Bible taught long before James that obedience to the Law (not faith alone) brings <a name="marker=464398"></a>justification.<a name="marker=464399"></a>Deuteronomy 6:25 clearly states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464400"></a>And it shall be righteousness unto us, if we observe to do all this commandment before Jehovah our God, as he hath commanded us. (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465087"></a>Here righteousness is imputed to the person if we observe all God's commands. The Protestants Keil &amp; Delitzsch in their Commentary on the Old Testament agree that this verse means precisely this:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=465088"></a>[O]ur righteousness will consist in the observance of the law; we shall be regarded and treated by God as righteous, if we are diligent in the observance of the law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464402"></a>Is this obedience of which Deuteronomy speaks impossible? No. God in <a name="marker=464403"></a><a name="marker=464404"></a>Deuteronomy 30:11 then assures us obedience "is not too hard for thee, neither is it far off." (ASV.) Apostle John likewise says: "And his commandments are not burdensome." (1 John 5:2-3.) As Jesus too says, "my burden is light." (Matt. 11:29-30.) It is a Pauline misconception that obedience is a task beyond our ability. (Romans 7:24.) God assures us we can do this.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>Paul directly <a name="marker=464405"></a>contradicts <a name="marker=464406"></a>Deuteronomy 6:25 by Paul's claim that righteousness (justification) is not <a name="marker=464408"></a>imputed from obedience. In fact, Paul tries to prove the futility of maintaining a righteousness before God by obeying the Law. Paul writes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464409"></a>[Y]et knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law.... (<a name="marker=464410"></a>Gal. 2:16) Now that no man is justified by the law before God, is evident. (<a name="marker=464411"></a>Gal. 3:11).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>Prior to Paul's confused analysis, the Bible gave us clear teachings on how to understand the interplay of obedience, sin, repentance, good works, and grace. The Bible teaches that once you sin, all your good works are forgotten and become as "filfthy rags." (<a name="marker=464413"></a>Isaiah 64:6.) This is clearly articulated in <a name="marker=464414"></a>Ezekiel 33:12. This is a passage every Christian should memorize. It explains that when the righteous transgress even one command of the Law, then all their righteousness is forgotten. However, when the sinner repents from sin, and turns to God, then all his sin is forgiven. Grace is thereby given. To him, complete righteousness is now imputed. <a name="marker=464415"></a>Ezekiel 33:12 reads:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464416"></a>The righteousness of the righteous shall not deliver him in the day of his transgression; and as for the wickedness of the wicked, he shall not fall thereby in the day that he turneth from his wickedness; neither shall he that is righteous be able to live thereby in the day that he sinneth. (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464418"></a><a name="marker=464417"></a>Imputed righteousness is caused by what? Turning from sin and going on the path of righteousness. Thus, staying on that path of righteousness, Deuteronomy 6:25 promises, will maintain an imputed righteousness before God: it "shall be righteousness unto us...."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464419"></a><a name="34099"></a>Imputed righteousness was not by atonement. Atonement was the payment for sin. It did not make you righteous, i.e., justify you. Rather, it made justification possible in God's eyes as long as His other standards are satisfied: <a name="marker=464420"></a>repentance from sin and turning from sin. Jesus taught this in <a name="marker=464421"></a>Matthew 5:23-24, although some translations make it more difficult to see His meaning. Jesus says that before you bring the "sacrifice"<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464424" class="footnote"> 28</a> (often mistranslated as `gift') to the "sacrifice place"<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464427" class="footnote"> 29</a> (poorly translated as `altar') make sure you are "reconciled to your brother" who has something against you. Thus, Jesus said receipt of atonement had to be post-poned when there was still an unresolved sin problem between you and someone else. The rabbis always taught repentance from sin must precede your receipt of atonement.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465121"></a>In the Judaism of Jesus' day, there was a ten day period between the Jewish New Year and the Day of Atonement. This ten day period "was designated for seeking forgiveness between individuals."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=465103" class="footnote"> 30</a> The Mishnah (the Rabbinic commentary) on the Days of Ten stated that for "transgressions that are between a person and his or her neighbor, the Day of Atonement effects atonement only if one has first appeased his neighbor."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=465114" class="footnote"> 31</a> Jesus simply made this principle a daily one. Atonement could not be pled by one who had not first appeased their neighbor to forgive them of some wrong.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464429"></a><a name="marker=464428"></a>Psalm 32:1, 5 repeats this principle of repentance from sin for forgiveness as the first step.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464431"></a><a name="39695"></a>(1) Blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, Whose sin is covered....(5) I acknowledged my sin unto thee, And mine iniquity did I not hide: I said, I will confess my transgressions unto Jehovah; And thou forgavest the iniquity of my sin. Selah</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464433"></a>Paulinists decry the promise in <a name="marker=464432"></a>Deuteronomy 6:25 and <a name="marker=464434"></a>30:11. In those two verses, God promises justification based on obedience to the Law. God assures us it is not too difficult to do. Paulinism has become so entrenched that if one cites these Hebrew Scriptures as if they were valid, one supposedly not only has a wrong salvation doctrine, but also one misunderstands God. Yet the Paulinist admits this is how God taught salvation in the Law God gave Moses. If we cite this admittedly inspired teaching on salvation as possibly still valid, we have supposedly made God finite. We are accused of blaspheming God even though no one disagrees this was at one time God's plan of salvation.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464438" class="footnote"> 32</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464439"></a>These same exponents of Paul never take this Pauline attack on Jamesian doctrine to its logical conclusion. If the Paulinists are correct, then the God of Moses was finite and Moses blasphemed God by attributing these words to God that obedience justifies.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464440"></a>What really is afoot is that some have made Paul's words and arguments more important than the words of God Himself. The danger of adding to Scripture in violation of the duty in Deuteronomy 4:2 is that God's very promises of justification by repentance and obedience are nullified. Thereby, a new conception of God takes His rightful place.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464454"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-5.gif" align="RIGHT" />I concur with the Paulinist that a new God appears depending on which side of this issue you end up teaching. If you are on James' side, you are looking at God Almighty Yahweh. You have <a name="marker=464455"></a>Deuteronomy 6:25 firmly fixed in your mind. However, if you look at it from Paul's side,<strong><em> you have a god who barely resembles the God of Hebrew Scripture</em></strong>. Paul's god teaches it is far too hard to keep the Law. Paul's god says it is fruitless to try to obey the Law as a means of remaining just. Instead, as Paulinist J. Vernon McGee was fond to say: "He [God] never lets go. Now sit back, relax, and enjoy your salvation."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464458" class="footnote"> 33</a> Paul is the effortless way. James and Jesus provide a way that requires agonizing effort to enter. (<a name="marker=464459"></a>Luke 13:24, Greek<em> agonozai</em>.)</p>
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What About Justification By Faith in the Hebrew Scriptures? [continued]</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464461"></a>Paul quotes the same Psalm 32 which I quote above. Paul does so to prove justification by <a name="marker=464465"></a>faith without repentance. However, when Paul quotes Psalm 32:1 in Romans 4:6, Paul <a name="marker=464466"></a>omits verse 5 of Psalm 32. That verse makes forgiveness contingent upon repentance from sin. Paul instead quotes Psalm 32:1-2 alone. He uses that passage to prove justification is without obedience to the Law or any action of turning in repentance. For Paul, it is solely by faith, because if anything else is required, then it makes salvation depend on a debt owed by God. (Rom. 4:4.) To prove this, Paul relies on blatantly out-of-context quotes of Scripture!<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464469" class="footnote"> 34</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464470"></a>However, Paul forgets that God made a promise, <em>i.e.</em>, a debt, that justification would result from obedience to the Law! (<a name="marker=464471"></a>Deut. 6:25.) God promised it was not too difficult on our side to do! (<a name="marker=464472"></a>Deut. 30:11.) Apostle John reaffirms that truth! (<a name="marker=464473"></a>1 John 5:2-3.) So there is nothing contrary to God's principles of mercy (grace) if I insist justification thereafter is owed by God as a debt. God says it is a debt. He will pay the debt for that justification, i.e., ultimately He will apply atonement for you. This is why it is called a Covenant!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464474"></a>Paul suffers from fallacious reasoning in this regard. He argues a false <a name="marker=464475"></a>dichotomy. He says if it is a debt, it is no more of grace. (Rom. 4:4.) Those are not the only two choices. Mercy (grace) only comes into play when you sin. Then forgiveness is given by unmerited favor (grace) to one who is repenting from sin. That is the doctrine of grace in <a name="marker=464476"></a>Ezekiel 33:12.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464477"></a>Then is justification distinct and at a different point? Yes, justification is at a different point in Ezekiel 33:12. Justification follows repentance (and the receipt of grace). Remaining justified is by staying on the "narrow" path of obedience. God makes a promise, i.e., a debt, to justify you whenever you are staying on the narrow path of obeying Him. (Deut. 6:25.) This is the Covenant promise of God!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464478"></a>Thus, Paul gave us a false set of choices: Paul claimed it either is debt or grace. Rather, it is both debt and grace. They are not mutually exclusive. The Bible says it is debt that God owes you justification when you obey, for He honors His word in <a name="marker=464479"></a>Deuteronomy 6:25. God keeps His word (<em>i.e.</em>, His covenant). However, it is grace when you disobey, and He will give you unmerited favor for true repentance in <a name="marker=464480"></a>Ezekiel 33:12. Both principles of debt and grace are simultaneously true, but operative at different points.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464481"></a>To arrive at Paul's different conclusion, Paul quotes passages out of context. As already mentioned, in Romans 4:6, Paul quotes <a name="marker=464482"></a>Psalm 32:1-2 to prove one is justified solely by faith without works of the Law (i.e., obedience to the Law). Yet, Paul omits verse 5. Paul only quotes Psalm 32:1-2 which provides:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464483"></a>(1) Blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, Whose sin is covered. (2) Blessed is the man unto whom Jehovah imputeth not iniquity, And in whose spirit there is no guile. (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464484"></a>Paul then spins this to mean faith alone, without any obedience to the Law, brings salvation. (See Romans 4:6 et seq.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464486"></a>However, as noted above, Paul is quoting <a name="marker=464485"></a>out of context. Psalm 32 is not how faith alone leads to imputed righteousness. Such an application is frankly impossible. Rather, in Psalm 32, David has the <a name="marker=464487"></a>Ezekiel 33:12 formula in mind. The verses that follow clearly prove it is repentance from sin which leads to initial forgiveness and grace. Psalm 32:3-5, which Paul omits, reads:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464488"></a>(3)....my bones wasted away Through my groaning all the day long. (4)...thy hand was heavy upon me. (5) I acknowledged my sin unto thee, And mine iniquity did I not hide: I said, I will confess my transgressions unto Jehovah; And thou forgavest the iniquity of my sin. Selah</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464489"></a>Paul was wrong. James was right.</p>
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<a name="16986"></a>James Used `Faith' in the Sense Genesis Used the Word</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464491"></a>In fact, in the Hebrew Scriptures that describe Abraham's alleged justification by faith, Paul misunderstood even there the nature of <a name="marker=464492"></a>faith. James understood it correctly.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464493"></a>In the Hebrew Scripture, faith and obedience were inextricably tied to one another. Abraham was not justified by faith without action. Paul was taking believed in Genesis 15:6 out-of-context of the entire Hebrew Scripture. In Deuteronomy 9:23, we can see clearly that obedience and faith are inextricably intertwined.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464494"></a>When Yahweh sent you from Kadesh-barnea, saying, Go up and possess the land which I have given you; then you rebelled against the commandment of Yahweh your God, and you didn't believe him, nor listen to his voice.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464495"></a>Hebrew Scripture thus was teaching that when you disobey God, it means you do not believe Him. You do not hear Him. Thus, by a corollary, when you obey God, it means you believe Him and you hear Him. They are inextricably intertwined.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464496"></a>As the <em>Dictionary of Fundamental Theology</em> explains, faith in the Hebrew Scriptures--what it calls the `Old Testament'--had this dual nature:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464497"></a>[T]he faith of the O[ld] T[estament]...is both trust and surrender to God... it is obedience that assimilates the person....<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464500" class="footnote"> 35</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464503"></a><a name="marker=464501"></a>Abraham did not have <a name="marker=464502"></a>faith in God that can exist apart from obeying God's voice. Mental belief apart from obedience is different from the Biblical-meaning of faith in the Hebrew Scripture. Works of obedience are never apart from faith, as if they are mere fruit of a tree. Rather, obedience has a synergy with mental belief. Together they form the core meaning of believing in Hebrew Scriptures. Abraham's believing was inextricably intertwined with works of obedience. See Gen. 26:4-5 ("In your seed will all the nations of the earth be blessed, because <a name="marker=464504"></a>Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.")</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464505"></a>Paul, however, wanted to read Abraham's story in a new way. Paul wanted to draw a line that you could be in disobedience to God's law (in fact abandon it) but still be able to be seen as just due to belief mentally in two statements. These two statements were: (1) Jesus is Lord and (2) Jesus was resurrected. See Romans 10:9.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464506"></a>To arrive at this, however, Paul was taking Genesis out-of-context. He was applying the Greek meaning of pistis to understand the Hebrew word for believe in Genesis 15:6. The Greek word pistis can mean a mental assent apart from obedience. However, in Genesis 15:6, the opposite meaning for faith was conveyed in the original Hebrew. The Hebrew concept of faith did not allow it to exist in the absence of obedience. There was no conceptual possibility that faith can be separated from obedience, as Paul saw it. Instead, faith in the sense of mental assent was inextricably dependent in Hebrew upon the necessity of a simultaneous turn toward obedience. (<a name="marker=464507"></a>Deut. 9:23.) This is precisely what James is explaining in James chapter two.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464508"></a>Thus, James' statement that "faith [i.e., pistis in Greek] without works" does not save merely was explaining the original Hebrew. James was putting back what was missing in the Greek Septuagint translation. It lacked the nuance which Hebrew implied about faith in the life of Abraham. Paul by contrast was explaining a Hebrew word for believe by a misleadingly deficient word in Greek--pistis. This Greek word sometimes can mean merely mental assent. Paul is interpreting Hebrew by a deficient and different Greek word used to translate faith in the Septuagint. By contrast, James is putting Gen. 15:6 back in context of the original Hebrew.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464509"></a>Accordingly, James teaches the Bible's doctrine on salvation which was at total odds with Paul. James was bringing the discussion back to the lessons of the Hebrew Scriptures. James was aware of the Septuagint translation, but urged us to use the original Hebrew meanings. Paul had relied upon an erroneous translation in the Septuagint of Genesis 15:6. James simply used the Hebrew meaning in the original passages to undermine Paul's doctrine.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464512" class="footnote"> 36</a></p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464514"></a>
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James' Reproof that Faith Without Endurance Saves (James 1:12)</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464515"></a>Paul is read by almost everyone today as saying that one is saved even if they do not endure in faith. Paul in <a name="marker=464516"></a>Romans 10:11 says that anyone who "trusts in Him will never be put to shame." Charles <a name="marker=464517"></a>Stanley says this trust is a singular moment in time. Paul's doctrine implies we do not have to have an enduring faith to be saved. Rather, we need only believe in a "singular moment in time" in our enduring Lord. (Stanley, <em>Eternal Security, supra</em>, at 80-81.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464519"></a><a name="marker=464518"></a>James 1:12 reproves this teaching. He says to the contrary:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464520"></a>Blessed is the man that endureth temptation; for when he hath been approved, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord promised to them that love him.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464521"></a>James was merely repeating Jesus' words. "He who endures to the end shall be saved." (<a name="marker=464522"></a>Matt. 10:22.) Jesus explained the lost ("withered away"/dead) includes those who "believe for a while" but "in time of temptation fall away." (<a name="marker=464523"></a>Luke 8:13.) Elsewhere, breaking faith by disobedience means one is unsaved. John 3:36 ("He who keeps on believing has eternal life, but he who keeps on disobeying the son, the wrath of God continues to remain on him.")</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464524"></a><a name="33806"></a>Habakkuk 2:4: What Does It Really Say?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464526"></a>How did <a name="marker=464525"></a>Paul establish the contrary view to James? Besides his out-of-context quote of Psalm 32:1-2 and his mistaken view of Genesis 15:6, Paul's faith alone doctrine had one other proof text. This came from <a name="marker=464527"></a>Habakkuk. Paul claimed this passage establishes a one-time faith saves, without any endurance in faithful living to the Law. Paul was quoting <a name="marker=464528"></a>Habakkuk 2:4. Paul, however, quotes from the erroneous Septuagint translation. This led Paul to a completely erroneous interpretation. Paul in <a name="marker=464529"></a>Romans 1:17 and <a name="marker=464530"></a>Galatians 3:11 states:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464531"></a>For therein is revealed a righteousness of God from faith unto faith: as it is written [in Habakkuk 2:4], But the righteous shall live by faith. (Romans 1:17) But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. (Gal.3:11 KJV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464532"></a>Paul was apparently unaware that the Septuagint erred in its Greek translation of the Hebrew original. The key word in Habakkuk is not faith (<em>i.e</em>., <em>pistis</em> in Greek), but faithfulness (<em>i.e.</em>, <em>emunah</em> in Hebrew). Also, Paul omits a crucial word that appears both in the Septuagint and Hebrew: it is the word <em>his</em> before faithfulness. Both corrections overturn Paul's intended interpretation. The restoration of these missing pieces establish the opposite of what Paul was trying to prove.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464534"></a>H. Ray Dunning, Professor of Theology at Trevecca Nazarene College in Nashville, Tennessee, did a thorough study on <em>emunah</em> and <em>pistis</em> in Habakkuk 2:4. Professor <a name="marker=464535"></a>Dunning gently shows you they are diametrically different. The professor is certainly normative in his views. He does not show any sign of sympathy with my conclusions about Paul. Yet Professor Dunning is clearly showing that Paul erred in his understanding of Habakkuk 2:4. Here is the fruit of Professor Dunning's study:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464536"></a>The just shall live by his faith. The word rendered faith is the Hebrew <em>emunah</em>, from a verb meaning originally "<strong><em>to be firm</em></strong>," and is used in the Old Testament in the physical sense of <em><strong>steadfastness</strong></em> (Smith, <em>op. cit.</em>, p. 140). Thus the better rendering is "<strong><em>faithfulness</em></strong>." Faith is a word for which, in the New Testament active sense, the Hebrew has no equivalent--though the term "believe" is derived from the same root as <em>emunah</em>.(IB, VI, 989).<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464539" class="footnote"> 37</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464540"></a>Professor Dunning is explaining that there is a gap in translating <em>faithfulness</em> in Hebrew into Greek. The simple concept faith in Greek does not work. Thus, the noun <em>emunah</em> in Hebrew does not correspond properly to the word<em> pistis</em> in Greek, despite the Septuagint making this choice. The Hebrew text therefore means the just shall live by his faithfulness. What does faithfulness mean?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464541"></a>Professor Dunning gives many Biblical examples of emunah's meaning. He also does not shrink back from pointing out a meaning that disaffirms Paul's interpretation:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464542"></a><em>Emunah</em> is the word used to describe the uplifted hands of Moses, which were steady (Exod. 17:12). It is also used of men in charge of money who "dealt faithfully" (II Kings 12:15). It is closely akin, if not identical, to the English idiomatic statement "Hold steady," implying that if one does not "bolt," the circumstances that surround him will alter. Lehrman's suggested meaning of the intention of this exhortation is good: "The righteous Israelite, who remains unswervingly loyal to the moral precepts, will endure, although he has to suffer for his principles; whereas the wicked, who enjoy a temporary ascendancy through their violation of right, are in the end overthrown and humbled." (Op. cit., p. 219). (Emphasis added.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464543"></a>Emunah thus means faithfulness with its core meaning `holding steady, holding firm, holding true to moral precepts.' This is why for James separating faith and faithfulness made no sense.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464544"></a>Professor Dunning goes on to explain that Paul was led into his erroneous interpretation by relying upon the Septuagint translation of the Hebrew into Greek. The Septuagint renders emunah with pistis. The professor is thereby making an excuse for Paul's misapplication. Professor Dunning states:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464546"></a>The <a name="marker=464545"></a>Septuagint translated <em>emunah</em> by <em>pistis</em> (faith). It was this translation which the New Testament writers made use of and thus incorporated the vision of Habakkuk into the very heart of the Christian preaching (kerygma). Paul quotes this clause twice (Rom. 1:17; <a name="marker=464547"></a>Gal. 3:11) in support of his doctrine of justification by faith. By it he "intends that<em><strong> single act of faith</strong></em> by...the sinner secures forgiveness and justification."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464548"></a>Hence, Professor Dunning is saying Paul has a one-time faith in mind. This fits the Septuagint's choice of pistis. Yet, as the professor already explained, the meaning in Hebrew requires <a name="marker=464549"></a>faithfulness, which means in context an "unswerving loyalty...to endure...."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464550"></a>Paul simply erred.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464553"></a>Thus, once more we see <a name="marker=464551"></a>J<a name="marker=464552"></a>ames 1:12, 17 is reproving Paul's entire notion that a one-time faith saves. Rather, it is the faith that endures times of temptation that will receive the "crown of life." James brushes aside <a name="marker=464554"></a>Paul's contrary view with one quick jab.</p>
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</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464555"></a>
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James Ridicules A Faith Based on Mere Mental Assent</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464557"></a>Paul in <a name="marker=464556"></a>Romans 10:9 says that part of saving faith is "believing in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead...." The focus in Paul's salvation formula is on acknowledgment of two facts: Jesus is Lord and Jesus resurrected from the dead. However, demons surely know and believe both facts. It thus makes no sense that believing just these facts gives you a guarantee that "you shall be saved" without any repentance and obedience to follow. In modern evangelism, Paul's actual words in his sterile salvation formula in <a name="marker=464558"></a>Romans 10:9 are generally ignored. Paul said you were saved if you believed Jesus is Lord and you believed in the fact of the resurrection of Jesus. Modern evangelists such as Stanley and <a name="marker=464559"></a>Spurgeon must realize how sterile this salvation formula appears upon reflection. Thus, they change the formula to mean one has saving faith if one is "acknowledging the fact you are a sinner and Jesus paid for your sins." If you accept these facts as true, you are assured that you are "saved."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464562" class="footnote"> 38</a> Yet, that is not Paul's true formula in Romans 10:9.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464563"></a>Whether Paul's formula or the Stanley-Spurgeon formula, modern evangelism presents this as a decision that you can do in the privacy of your own heart. You do not have to confess it out loud. Otherwise that would be a works-salvation, modern Paulinists teach. Whether we keep to Paul's formula for salvation (i.e., belief in the Lordship and resurrection of Jesus) or the modern formula (i.e., belief in your need for Jesus and the atonement), James ridicules that salvation could be acquired by mere mental assent to facts.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464564"></a>James says that the "demons believe" in God, but they are not thereby saved. James says in 2:19: "Thou believest that God is one; thou doest well: the demons also believe, and shudder." James then goes on to state works are necessary to add to mental assent to make faith complete, as mentioned above. Faith without such works, James relates, is therefore akin to the faith which demons have. It lacks something essential.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464565"></a>James is, in fact, recalling events in the gospels themselves. These events prove mere intellectual acceptance that Jesus is divine or Messiah means nothing if they end up being alone. As Pastor Stedman, an evangelical scholar and Pauline thinker, unwittingly states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464566"></a>Remember that back in the Gospel accounts there were demons that acknowledged the deity of the Lord Jesus? When he appeared before them they said, `We know who you are, the Holy One of God.' (cf, <a name="marker=464567"></a>Mark 1:24, <a name="marker=464568"></a>Luke 4:34.) They acknowledged what the Jews were too blind to see, the full deity of Jesus Christ, as well as his humanity. But, though demons acknowledged this, they never confessed it. They never trusted him. They did not commit themselves to him, they did not live by this truth.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464571" class="footnote"> 39</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464572"></a>Pastor Stedman does not realize how this demonstrates Paul's invalidity. Paul said we are saved if we believe in Jesus' resurrection and that Jesus is Lord. (<a name="marker=464573"></a>Romans 10:9.) The demons not only believe both facts but are personally knowledgeable about them. The demons pass Paul's test for salvation. Stanley and Spurgeon also say that to be saved you must believe in the atonement and that you sin. Demons likewise know Jesus died to atone for sin. Demons would admit they sin against God and they are proud of it! Thus, demons could be saved under either Paul's criteria (Romans 10:9) or even Stanley's or Spurgeon's criteria for salvation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464575"></a>Now you can see that <a name="marker=464574"></a>James 2:19 is a perfect response to Paul's teaching in <a name="marker=464576"></a>Romans 10:9. James ridicules that formula by saying mere mental assent by demons to truths about God would not save them any more than it alone would save you. James' response in 2:19 is perfectly adapted to respond to Paul's salvation formulas. Paul emphasized mental assent as what saves you. James says this notion is wrong.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464577"></a>Again, the Epistle of James appears perfectly adapted to be used at a trial of Paul.</p>
<div>
<h4 class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464605"></a>Jesus' View on Works: Forensic Test or Intrinsic Requirement?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464604" class="footnote"> 40</a></h4>
</div>
</div>
<p> </p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464580"></a></h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=465017"></a><em>Servant, Branch, Tree</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464587"></a><em>Works Intrinsically Necessary</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464589"></a>"branch in me" (John 15:2)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464591"></a>"bear much fruit if remain in me...If not remain in me, it is a branch that is withered, <a name="marker=464592"></a>thrown outside and is burned." (<a name="marker=464593"></a>John 15:5-6.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464596"></a>"his Lord" (<a name="marker=464595"></a>Matt. 25:26)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464598"></a>"Evil and lazy slave!...It was necessary you give my <a name="marker=464599"></a>money to bankers, and having come I would receive mine with interest....Throw the worthless servant into outer darkness...[where there is] weeping and gnashing of teeth." (<a name="marker=464600"></a>Matt. 25:26-30.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=465014"></a>"Every tree" (Matt. 7:19)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=465016"></a>"that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and thrown in the fire." (Matt. 7:19.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p> </p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464607"></a>
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<a name="marker=464606"></a><a name="37933"></a>James Critique of Paul's Idea That The Law Arouses Sin</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464609"></a>In <a name="marker=464608"></a>James 1:13-14 (ASV), we read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464611"></a>(13) Let no man say when he is <a name="marker=464610"></a>tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: (14) But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. (15) Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464612"></a>What is James saying here? God does not tempt anyone to sin. To say so is a <a name="marker=464613"></a>blasphemy against God. When you sin, it is because you were enticed by your own desires. Right? Theologically sound? Of course.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464614"></a>What did Paul teach? The exact opposite. Paul says in <a name="marker=464615"></a>Romans 7:7-13:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464616"></a>(7) What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. (8) But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead. (9) For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died. (10) And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death. (11) For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me. (12) Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464617"></a>(13) Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464618"></a>What is Paul saying? First, Paul very clearly says that he would not have known to lust after women had he not been commanded against doing so. Prior to that time, "without the law, sin was dead." (v. 8).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464619"></a>Paul then comes about this from the other side, making his point more shocking. Prior to the law, Paul says "I was alive without the law" (i.e., spiritually alive), but then the law came, and "sin revived and I died." (v. 9) <a name="marker=464620"></a>Paul is clearly saying the law<a name="marker=464621"></a>brought sin to life in him. Without the law, he was living sinless and spiritually, without any temptation to sin. However, when the law came and he read its prohibition, sin, by virtue of the law's commands inciting in him to lust, occurred. Paul sinned and spiritually died.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464630"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-6.gif" align="RIGHT" />James must have scratched his head reading this. How can anyone attribute to God and His law the temptation to sin? Yet, Paulinists defend and explain that is precisely what Paul means.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464633" class="footnote"> 41</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464634"></a><a name="11253"></a>However, Paul knows what he is saying, and knows we will object. So Paul twice does a "God forbid hand-waive." (<a name="marker=464635"></a>Rom. 7:7, 13.) Paul takes what he has just said and claims "God forbid" you should think he is saying what he has otherwise clearly said. Yet, despite the <a name="marker=464636"></a>God forbid message, Paul leaves you, the reader, with only words to support the view that the law tempted him to sin. Listen to the hand-waive in<a name="marker=464637"></a>Romans 7:13:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464638"></a>Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful. (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464666"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html-7.gif" align="RIGHT" />This quote reveals Paul senses the blasphemy of saying the law "which is good" was "made death to me." So he says, if you think that were true, God forbid. Yet, that is precisely what Paul has just said, and then immediately repeats. He goes back to what he was saying before, adding the post-script, "by the commandment [i.e., the Law] sin became exceeding sinful." Paul was not being equivocal on that point. That is what Paul said backwards and now forwards. Paul gives himself an out from making a blasphemous statement by saying that if you think he is saying the law, which is good, "made death to me," God forbid. However, Paul then does not explain how we are supposed to square what he previously said with his God forbid statement. He uses mumbo-jumbo of impenetrable words that you are somehow to think answers your concern:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464667"></a>But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful. (Rom. 7:13.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464668"></a>Those are Paul's only words to take the sting out of saying the Law tempted him to sin. Rather, it appears to be re-inforcing his prior blaming his sin on the Law. He says by means of the "good" (the law) and "by the commandment" sin became exceedingly sinful. What does that mean? It appears to be repeating what Paul just said "God-forbid" you should think is what he means. Paul reduces his words into pure mumbo-jumbo. He seeks to dumbfound the reader into thinking your natural concern that Paul is uttering blasphemy has somehow been addressed. Yet, it never <a name="marker=464669"></a>happens!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464670"></a>In response, James simply trashes the entire discussion in James 1:13-14. One quick jab, and Paul's ideas are again refuted.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464673"></a>
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<a name="marker=464671"></a><a name="14048"></a>James 3:17: Is It a Response to Being the Victim of Paul's Hypocrisy?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464675"></a>The word <a name="marker=464674"></a>hypocrite in Greek means an actor. It is someone who pretends to be something he is not. Jesus' harshest words were reserved for hypocrites. (<a name="marker=464676"></a>Matt. 23:13, 14, 23-28.) The Pharisees wore an actor's mask. They appeared righteous when inwardly they were full of dead men's bones. (<a name="marker=464677"></a>Matt. 23:38.) Jesus used the term hypocrite just as we would. A hypocrite pretends to be something he is not.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464679"></a>James writes about hypocrisy in <a name="marker=464678"></a>James 3:17:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464680"></a>But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, easy to be entreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without variance, without hypocrisy.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464682"></a>What was this supposed to address about <a name="marker=464681"></a>Paul? By the time James wrote his epistle, he must have been fully aware that Paul did teach the Law was abrogated as to <a name="marker=464683"></a>Jews. Paul says this clearly in Romans chapter 7 which James is apparently still reading. All James can see is the blatant hypocrisy that Paul previously committed against James in <a name="marker=464684"></a>Acts 21:21 et seq. (For more on Paul's position on the Law, see the chapter entitled, <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#19182" class="XRef"></a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464689"></a>Most of us are unaware but in <a name="marker=464688"></a>Acts 21:21 Paul misleads James that he, Paul, was teaching the Law still applied to Jews who found Christ. That is why the attack on hypocrisy in <a name="marker=464690"></a>James 3:17 is a response to Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464691"></a>What led to this attack on hypocrisy is that James in <a name="marker=464692"></a>Acts 21:21 tells Paul the following about Jews coming to Christ:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464693"></a>[T]hey have been informed concerning thee, that thou teachest all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, telling them not to circumcise their children neither to walk after the customs (ethos). (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464694"></a>James tells Paul that Paul can prove he is not teaching such Jews coming to Christ to forsake Moses by Paul submitting to the Nazirite vow from Numbers 6. Paul does so. Paul is thus leading James to believe that James is indeed misinformed. Paul is letting James think Paul does not advocate the Law given Moses has been abrogated even as to Jews who would accept Christ. James clearly was seeking assurance from Paul to this effect in <a name="marker=464695"></a>Acts 21:21.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464697"></a>Yet, Paul in <a name="marker=464696"></a>Romans 7:2 proudly says that by virtue of Jesus' death, under the Laws of remarriage, <a name="marker=464698"></a>Jews are "loosed from the Law" (KJV) "released from the Law" (ALT) "discharged from the Law" (ASV) and "set free from the Law" (YLT). They are now free to re-marry another--a God who has no Law of Moses any longer for them. The key Greek word is <a name="marker=464699"></a>katarge. Robertson's Word Pictures explains this means "to make void." Literally, Paul says the Law becomes of none effect for Jews any longer when Christ died. Paul uses the same expression in <a name="marker=464700"></a>Ephesians 2:15 when he says the Law was "abolished." The word there is again katagsas--the aorist active participle in Greek of the same word in Romans 7:2. Paul's point is this principle of abolition applies to the Jews. This is why, based on Romans 7:2, some Paulinists teach Jews and Christians who follow the true Sabbath (i.e., sunset-to-sunset Friday to Saturday) are "guilty of spiritual adultery."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464703" class="footnote"> 42</a> The Law is so totally abolished as to Jews that a Jew (and a Christian) actually shows unfaithfulness to God by following the original command from God Himself! Oh my! What man cannot believe when he is at first deceived!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464705"></a>But what explains Paul letting James in <a name="marker=464704"></a>Acts 21:23-26 believe erroneously that Paul taught the Law of Moses was still valid for Jewish Christians? Clearly James asks Paul to submit to the Nazirite vow to prove Paul does not in fact teach otherwise. Paul does submit to the vow. This action and Paul's silence thereby misleads James that Paul was living like a Jew not out of pretence but from a sincere belief that the Law had to be followed.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464707"></a><a name="marker=464706"></a>How could Paul justify such behavior? Paul gives us the answer: he <a name="marker=464708"></a>consciously practiced to make observers think he was observant of the Law when he did not believe it was any longer valid. In 1 Corinthians chapter 6 Paul says he is "not under the Law" and in 1 Corinthians chapter 9 Paul repeats this. Paul then adds that when around Jews he acts like he is under the Law (Torah). When around Gentiles who are not under the Law (Torah), he acts like one who is under no law even though he is under the Law of Christ [i.e., back to Paul's "expedient" and "not be dominated" test of right and wrong in one's conscience]. Listen to Paul's open admission of such blatantly hypocritical tactics in <a name="marker=464709"></a>1 Corinthians 9:20-21:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464710"></a>(20) And to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, not being myself under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law; (21) to them that are without law, as without law, not being without law to God, but under law to Christ, that I might gain them that are without <a name="marker=464711"></a>law. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464713"></a>One Pauline pastor himself defines "without <a name="marker=464712"></a>hypocrisy" in <a name="marker=464714"></a>James 3:17. He unwittingly gives us a clear understanding of the problem that James saw in Paul. This pastor says James means true wisdom, if from God, involves "no attempt to play a role or pretend to be what we are not."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464717" class="footnote"> 43</a> Paul blatantly admits he does this. Paul did this with James clearly in Acts 21:21 et seq. Therefore, James 3:17 was saying Paul cannot be a prophet from God. <a name="marker=464718"></a>Paul <a name="marker=464719"></a>plays the hypocrite, and teaches others to do the same. The end justifies the means. James says such a person does not have true wisdom from God.</p>
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<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464720"></a>
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James 3:17 on Variances (Inconsistencies)</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464721"></a>In the balance of James chapter 3, you can sense James is still reading Paul. He finds other character flaws than merely hypocrisy which mark the fruit of a false prophet. James in <a name="marker=464722"></a>3:17 says the wisdom from above is "first pure, then peaceable, gentle, easy to be entreated [i.e., asked a question], full of mercy and good fruits, without variance...."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464723"></a>The Greek word for variance is adiakritos. To be adiakritos means to be "unintelligible" or "undecided." (Liddell Scott Lexicon.) Thus, if you suffer from adiakritos, you engage in ambiguity. James says God's true wisdom lacks ambiguous double-speak. By contrast, muddled self-contradictory thoughts make one's teaching ambiguous, hard to discern, or unintelligible. James says God's wisdom is, instead, pure, single, and unambiguous. When two thoughts are at odds with one another, they reveal the speaker is somewhat undecided which direction to take. The speaker wants to please both sides of an argument. He is saying things each side wants to hear. By contrast, God's wisdom is unwavering, direct and not waffling.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464725"></a>How can this test apply to <a name="marker=464724"></a>Paul?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464726"></a>James obviously saw the numerous "variances" (self-contradictions) in Paul's writings and deeds. We also saw earlier Paul's oft-repeated technique of throwing a God-forbid hand waive into daringly blasphemous discussions. It throws a bone to one side of an argument. Paul then goes on to emphasize a message contrary to the implication that one would assume from the God-forbid statement. [ ] This methodology bespeaks intentional effort to befuddle the reader/listener with ambiguous double-speak.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464730"></a>Another example of Paul's self-contradiction is that Paul taught the Galatians that if they became circumcised they would be "severed from Christ." (<a name="marker=464731"></a>Gal. 5:4.) Yet, in <a name="marker=464732"></a>Acts 16:1-3, Paul has <a name="marker=464733"></a>Timothy circumcised. Either Paul is contradicting himself or he is encouraging hypocrisy, i.e., Timothy pretending to be submissive to the Law. Either way, Paul comes out as not a godly teacher, i.e., either he is self-contradictory or he plays the hypocrite to deceive people.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464734"></a>Another example of Paul's "variances" is Paul writes: "A man is not justified by the works of the Law" (<a name="marker=464735"></a>Gal. 2:16). However, to the Romans Paul wrote: "For not the hearers of the Law are just before God, but the doers of the Law shall be justified" (<a name="marker=464736"></a>Rom 2:13). Which way is it?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464737"></a>Another time Paul says salvation is by works plus faith. In Romans 2:6-7, Paul says God "will render to every man according to his works: to them that by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and incorruption, eternal life." The Greek words translated as `patience in well-doing' more correctly says endurance in good works. Paul thus says `to those who endure patiently in doing good works, God will render eternal life.' Paul thus contradicts his own claim that eternal life is a free gift, without works. (Eph. 2:8-9; Romans 4:4.) Which way is it?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464739"></a>Likewise, in <a name="marker=464738"></a>Philippians 2:12-13, Paul makes a statement that is self-contradictory. First, in Philippians 2:12, Paul says "work out your own salvation with fear and trembling." Yet, in Philippians 2:13, Paul appears to negate your responsibility by saying "for it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do [His] good pleasure." The commentators have engaged in an endless struggle to match verse 12 against verse 13. Verse 12 emphasizes human responsibility while verse 13 emphasizes the 100% agency of God in your human will. Which way is it Paul? Were you unable to decide? Or did you have another purpose in speaking out of both sides of your mouth at once? James senses this problem, and says God's true wisdom lacks variances.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464740"></a>Further, Paul traps himself in a self-contradiction when he says the following:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464741"></a>One of themselves, a prophet of their own said, `Cretans are always liars, evil beasts, lazy gluttons.' This testimony is true (<a name="marker=464742"></a>Titus 1:12).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464743"></a>Paul thereby made a self-contradictory statement. For Paul says "one of themselves" (a <a name="marker=464744"></a>Cretan) made a statement that "Cretans are always liars," and Paul says this "is true." However, it cannot possibly be simultaneously true that a Cretan made a true statement and Cretans are "always liars." Many scholars have poured over this to find an escape, and salvage Paul's inspiration. Christian academics have struggled to solve this logical impossibility. However, no amount of multi-dimensional analysis (which is the only solution so far that conceivably works) is a serious answer. Paul is trapped in a logical dilemma because Paul says a Cretan was telling the truth when he said "Cretans are always liars....." Paul's slur on all Cretans is a <a name="marker=464745"></a>self-contradiction in terms.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464746"></a>James, of course, can see all these self-contradictions, just as we can easily see them. He says the true wisdom from God is not unintelligible, ambiguous, difficult to discern, or self-contradictory. Paul's writings cross all those boundaries.</p>
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<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464747"></a>
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James Faults Overbearing Rebukes</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464749"></a>Again, James in <a name="marker=464748"></a>James 3:17 notes other problems with Paul which are evident in Paul's writings.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464750"></a>For example, it is hard to ignore Paul's overbearing non-gentle style. Paul is not gentle with the Galatians who want to keep the Sabbath and festivals and circumcision. Paul responds to the issue by calling the Galatians "foolish" (i.e., stupid) (Gal. 3:1.) To intimidate opponents further, Paul calls down curses (anathema, "cursed") on those who contradict him among the Galatians. (Gal. 1:8.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464751"></a>How does James respond? He says one having the wisdom of God would be writing "full of mercy," not "cursing." (<a name="marker=464752"></a>James 3:10.)</p>
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<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464753"></a>
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Are James's Remarks on Boasting Aimed for Paul?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464754"></a>The Epistle of James shows another earmark that it was used as Exhibit A in a trial of <a name="marker=464755"></a>Paul. James writes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464756"></a>[T]he tongue is a small member, yet it boasts of great exploits. How great a forest is set ablaze by a small fire!....Who is a wise man and endued with knowledge among you? Let him show out of a good conversation his works, with the meekness of wisdom. But if you have bitter jealousy and contentiousness in your heart, do not boast and lie against the Truth. (<a name="marker=464757"></a>James 2:26-3:14).<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.html#pgfId=464760" class="footnote"> 44</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464764"></a>James is extolling meekness in contrast to boasting. Jesus likewise promised salvation to the meek: "the meek...shall inherit the earth." (Matt. 5:3,5.) This was the quality that endeared Moses to God: "Now the man Moses was very meek, above all the men that were upon the face of the earth." (Numbers 12:3.) By contrast, God does not "respect the proud." (Ps. 40:4.) Proverbs 16:5 says: "Every one that is proud in heart is an abomination to Jehovah." James makes both points simultaneously in his famous line: "God resists the proud, but gives <a name="marker=464765"></a>grace to the meek." (James 4:6.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464767"></a>Paul in numerous places <a name="marker=464766"></a>boasts, but the most blatant is in Second Corinthians. The <a name="marker=464768"></a>KJV translation makes it difficult for you to recognize this. It changes Paul's admission that he is boasting into an admission he is glorying. Yet, Paul's Greek word is boast or boasting. Paul's admission of this behavior uses the same Greek word as used by James when he condemns such behavior in James 4:6. What the <a name="marker=464769"></a>KJV incorrectly translates as glorying when Paul speaks, the KJV then correctly translates as boasting when James condemns the behavior. Oh the mysteries of Bible translation!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464770"></a>Regardless, Paul in Second Corinthians has a passage that is nothing but boasting. Paul admits this boasting behavior repeatedly in the very same context:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464771"></a>Let no man think me a fool; if otherwise, yet as a fool receive me, that I may<em><strong> boast myself</strong></em> a little. That which I speak,<em><strong> I speak it not after the Lord</strong></em>, but as it were foolishly, in this confidence of<strong><em> boasting</em></strong>. Seeing that many glory after the flesh,<em><strong> I will glory</strong></em> also...Are they Hebrews? So am I. Are they Israelites? So am I. Are they the seed of Abraham? So am I. Are they ministers of Christ? (I speak as a fool) I am more; in labors more abundant, in stripes above measure, in prisons more frequent, in deaths oft...In journeyings often, in perils of waters, in perils of robbers, in perils by my own countrymen... in perils among false brethren;....<em><strong> in nothing am I behind the very chiefest of the apostles, though I be nothing</strong></em>.... (<a name="marker=464772"></a>2 Corinthians 11:16-12:19 (ASV).)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464774"></a>Throughout this litany of <a name="marker=464773"></a>boasts, Paul confesses he is boasting. Paul appears to be admitting it is foolish to do this ("I speak as a fool"), but he does it anyway. James calls such behavior and lack of self-control a serious error:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464775"></a>But now ye rejoice in your boastings: all such rejoicing is evil. (<a name="marker=464776"></a>James 4:16.)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464777"></a>If any man among you seems to be religious, and does not bridle his tongue, but deceives his own heart, this man's religion is vain. (<a name="marker=464778"></a>James 1:26).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464779"></a>James tells you point blank, by inference, Paul's religion is "empty" and his boasts are "<a name="marker=464780"></a>evil." Such a person "lies" against the truth. (<a name="marker=464781"></a>J<a name="marker=464782"></a>ames 1:26; 3:14.) If Paul knows this is foolish but cannot `bridle his tongue,' then "this man's religion is vain." (James 1:26.) This is just the kind of information the Ephesians needed to have to try the one who "says [he is] an apostle and is not but [is a] liar." (<a name="marker=464783"></a>Rev. 2:2.)</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464784"></a>
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Conclusion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464785"></a>James is the head of the church in Paul's day. His epistle is intended to set up rules for attendance at a judicial assembly in a Christian-controlled synagogue. The assembly at Ephesus that pressured Paul to leave in Acts chapter 19 was in fact a synagogue.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464786"></a>Then the theological issues addressed in James' epistle all skewer Paul. It would perfectly serve as a trial brief to examine Paul's teachings for heresy if the synagogue at Ephesus requested it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464787"></a>This is self-evident because James' Epistle uses all Paul's terminology, in particular the Biblical example of Abraham. James reinterprets Genesis 15:6 as having a diametrically opposite meaning from Paul's interpretation. On this and many other points, James' views are at direct odds with Paul's doctrines. It thus appears likely that James' epistle was intended for the confrontation between Paul and his detractors at the Ephesus synagogue where he had led many to Christ previously, as reflected in Acts chapter 19. With the help of James' letter, this Christian synagogue apparently found Paul not to be a true apostle of Jesus Christ. They received the highest commendation possible for doing so. A commendation from the glorious One Himself in Revelation 2:2.</p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464110"></a>Stulac,<em> James</em> (1993), supra, at 90.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464114"></a>Stulac cites R.B. Ward, "Partiality in the Assembly: James 2:2-4," <em>Harvard Theological Review</em> 62:87-97 (1969).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464174"></a><a name="marker=464172"></a>Roman Catholicism insists Mary remained a <a name="marker=464173"></a>perpetual virgin. Yet, in <a name="marker=464175"></a>Matthew 13:55-56 when the people of Nazareth are amazed at Jesus, they ask: "Is not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas [i.e., Jude]?" Catholic authorities claim brother here should be understood as cousin. However, there is a word in Greek for cousin, anepsios. When ancient writers spoke of James, they called him the brother of Jesus. In the same context, they identified Jesus' cousins, using the word anepsios. (Eusebius, Hist. Eccl. 4.22.4; see 2.23.4 and 3.20.1 (quoting Hegesippus).) Also, <a name="marker=464176"></a>Matthew 1:24-25 states Mary and Joseph had sex after Jesus was born. Once he knew of the pregnancy, Joseph "had no marital relations with her until she had born a son." This is the same as saying he had sexual relations with Mary only after she had a son. Furthermore, if Mary never had sexual relations with Joseph, she would have defrauded him. (<a name="marker=464177"></a>1 Cor. 7:5.) Marriage in Judaism meant having sex with God's purposes in mind: to sustain a family line. (Ben Witherington, <em>Woman in the Ministry of Jesus</em> (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1984.) The notion of perpetual virginity is based on the pious but unsupportable idea that Mary has to be purer than pure sexually.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464180"></a>The concept of bishop in those days was a person whose principal function was to officiate and give a sermon at church gatherings (besides having authority over sibling churches in the same city). We learn this by the evidence of the <em>Canons of Hippolytus</em> (ed. Paul F. Bradshaw)(Grove Books, 1987) which discusses church offices and functions in an Egyptian church sometime between 311 and 400. Hippolytus does not mention pastors, ministers, or priests. The only other officers were elders and deacons. Deacons gave sermons sometimes.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464186"></a>Joseph was in the Davidic line, not Mary. Thus, James was born through the seed of Joseph. Epiphanius says James was picked as bishop because he shared the Davidic blood-line. Consequently Joseph must be the father of James. Could Mary not be his physical birth-mother? It is possible but not plausible. Either Joseph must have been previously married or Mary predeceases him. The latter alternative makes no sense. When Mary is still very much alive, the townspeople ask about Jesus and his brother James. In Matthew 13:55-56, the townspeople of Nazareth ask: "Is not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas [i.e., Jude]?" Thus, the only other possibility where Mary was not James' mother is if Joseph had children prior to marrying Mary. Yet, the picture of the flight to Egypt mentions only Jesus as their son at that time. Consequently, James was born of Joseph and Mary. There is no sin in Mary having sex with her husband. (See Song of Solomon.) In Jewish custom, it was virtuous and appropriate to have children. It is wrong to imply married sex is sin.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464189"></a>Clement of Alexandria,<em> Hypostases</em>, Bk. 6, cited by Eusebius, <em>The History of the Church</em> (trans. ed. G.A. Williamson) (Penguin: 1965) at 72.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464217"></a>Peter was crucified in <a name="marker=464216"></a>Rome in 67 A.D. during the reign of Nero. Eusebius says that this was after coming to Rome twenty-five years earlier. (Eusebius, <em>The Chronicle</em>.) Peter thus arrived at Rome about 42 A.D. Several sources claim Peter was the first bishop of Rome prior to Paul's arrival. However, two more ancient Christian sources--the Constitution of the Apostles (ca. 200 A.D.) 7:46 and Origen (Haer.3.3.3)--in their lists of the bishops of <a name="marker=464218"></a>Rome begin with <a name="marker=464219"></a>Linus. Constitution says he was appointed by Paul. However, Paul did not arrive in Rome, according to <a name="marker=464220"></a>Jerome, until 25 years after Jesus' resurrection. This means Paul arrived sometime after around 57 A.D. (Jerome,<em> Lives of Famous Men</em>, ch. V.) Peter apparently was acting bishop without ordination of the church he founded at Rome until Paul in 57 A.D. arrives. Then in Peter's absence, Paul appoints a bishop--Linus. The Constitution then records Peter appointed the next bishop of Rome after Linus.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464226"></a>When Professor <a name="marker=464225"></a>Eisenman first reminded people about James' role, the response was very hostile. Eisenman was accused of "contradicting the New Testament" which supposedly "depicts Jesus' successor as Peter." (See "Book About Brother of Jesus Stirs Up Furor," <em>L.A. Times</em> (June 14, 1997) Metro, at 4.) Other professors claimed Eisenman's views on James were "marginal." He is not even coming from "left field," but "from over the fence." Id. Yet, Eisenman's view is the only conclusion supported in history. Professor Eisenman now has allies willing to defend him, including the renown Christian scholar Ben Witheringon III, in <em>The Brother of Jesus</em> (N.Y.: Harper Collins, 2003) at 89-211.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464251"></a>"Preface to the Epistles of St. James and St. Jude (1522)," from the American Edition of <em>Luther's Works</em> (St. Louis: Concordia, 1963) Vol. 35 at 395-399.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464257"></a>W. G. Kummel, <em>The New Testament: The History of the Investigation of its Problems</em> (Nashville/New York: Abingdon, 1972) at 26.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464267"></a>Romans 4:5 states: "But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness." (KJV). This clearly says you are justified by faith even if you have no works. Paul says the same thing in <a name="marker=464268"></a>Galatians 2:16: "Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law.... [E]en we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464294"></a>The same message is in Isaiah 58:5-8 (NLT). God tells the people that "you humble yourselves by going through the motions" (v. 5) but what God wants is for "you to share your food with the hungry and welcome the poor wanderer into your homes. Give <a name="marker=464295"></a>clothes to those who need them." (v. 6-7). Then quite clearly, God says: "If you do these things, your salvation will come like the dawn." (v. 8.) Isaiah means mere verbal expression of faith or even humility is not enough. Action must follow. It is not optional or merely forensic proof of an already completed salvation. Paul's view is at odds with Isaiah whom we know was inspired.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464315"></a>This is implied by Paul from the Septuagint -- the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures circa 250 B.C. Romans 4:3 and Galatians 3:6 both have "it was counted unto him for righteousness." This is the Septuagint translation. Thus, Paul is reading into the ambiguity spawned by the Septuagint translation which has it as the subject of counted.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464319"></a>Victor P. Hamilton's background is formidable. He is Professor of Bible and Theology at Asbury College. He has a B.A. from Houghton College 1963, a B.D. from Asbury Theological Seminary 1966; a Th.M. Asbury Theological Seminary 1967, an M.A., Brandeis University 1969; and a Ph.D. Brandeis University 1971. Hamilton's commentary is based on his complete translation of Genesis itself.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464323"></a>To Jews, Abraham's faith was just another work. (C.E.B. Cranfield, <em>The Epistle to the Romans</em> (Edinburg, T. &amp; T. Clark LTD, 1975) Vol. 1 at 229.) However, one cannot be sure this is true Biblically from the single ambiguity in Genesis 15:6. Some try to prove faith can be a work from what Jesus says in John 6:29: "This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent." (KJV) The translation, however, is misleading by addition of punctuation and the wrong verb tense. Robertson's Word Pictures points out, citing Westcott, the verse uses a present active subjunctive for pisteuo, meaning "that you may keep on believing" (trusting). Thus, literally Jesus says "This is the work of God that you may keep on believing on Him whom He sent." In this usage, Jesus means by this Himself (including His ministry) is the work of God presented so that you may believe. The Greek is ho theos, "work of God," not "work required by God." When the subjunctive tense may believe is properly revealed, it rules out the typical interpretation. For the subjunctive makes it impossible to believe God's work is that you merely only may believe. Rather, in context, it means Jesus is inviting them to accept Himself as "this is the work of God" which God presents so "they may keep on believing/trusting." Thus, we cannot rely upon John 6:29 to prove faith can be a work.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464336"></a>1 Maccabees was written in Greek, although it shows traces of use of Semitic (Hebrew or Aramaic) idiom. ("Books of Maccabees," <em>Jewish Encyclopedia</em> at http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=18&amp;letter=M (last accessed 5-30-06).)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=464339"></a>Simon J. Gathercole.<em> Where Is Boasting: Early Jewish Soteriology and Paul's Response in Romans 1-5.</em> (Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, 2002) at 51.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=464348"></a>Coffman cites R. L. Whiteside, <em>A New Commentary on Paul's Letter to the Saints at Rome</em> (Fort Worth, Texas: The Manney Company, 1945) at 89-90.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=465526"></a>God said Abraham's Covenant is an "eternal covenant" for all generations (Gen. 17:7). God said He "will" create such a covenant only if Abraham would first "walk before me blamelessly." (Gen. 17:1)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=465551"></a>After Abraham was dead, God declared Abraham had been obedient to all His "law, commandments and statutes," and then affirmed He was about to institute His end of the covenant with Isaac. (Gen 26:4-5.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=464357"></a>James' epistle reads similar to the Septuagint. This Septuagint translation became the accepted version by most, and James apparently elects not to debate the translation.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=464361"></a>J. W. Roberts, <em>The Letter of James</em> (Austin, Texas: Sweet Publishing Company, 1977) at 92.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=464366"></a>Later, at <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011html.#16986" class="XRef">See James Used `Faith' in the Sense Genesis Used the Word</a> , we discuss that in Hebrew, unlike Greek, faith could not be distinct from faithfulness.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=464373"></a>James links the lack of justification with the concept of incomplete works. (Jesus did likewise in the Parable of the Sower &amp; his letter to the church of Sardis in Revelation chapter 2.) James does so by saying in James 2:20-24 first that Abraham's "faith was working with his works" (synergei tois ergois). Then James says Abraham's faith was made complete by works. "The verb eteletiothe means `perfected' (or `brought to maturity')." (Stulac, <em>James, supra</em>, at 115.) Stulac confesses that the Scriptural promise of justification that Paul ascribes to faith, James says is "to be fulfilled by works." Id. Thus, James says, like Jesus says, that there is no justification without faith completed by works.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">25.</span> <a name="pgfId=464379"></a>Peter H. Davids, <em>The Epistle of James: New International Greek Commentary</em> (Eerdmans: Grand Rapids, Michigan, 1982) at 120.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">26.</span> <a name="pgfId=464384"></a>Paulinists try to spin James as saying works prove justification rather than works justify. This is a distortion of James. He explicitly says works justify. For discussion, see Richard Lusk in his<em> Future Justification for Doers of the Law</em> (2003).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">27.</span> <a name="pgfId=464389"></a>Of course, if you believe both James and Paul are inspired, you will hear attempts to reconcile the two. <a name="marker=464390"></a>Stulac is an example. He contends "James is not attempting to refute Paul." (Id. at 114.) How so? Stulac concedes James viewed salvation apart from works as impossible. Faith and <a name="marker=464391"></a>works are an<a name="marker=464392"></a>integral unity in the salvation formula. (Id. at 110.) While most view Paul as teaching salvation by faith alone apart from any works, Stulac disagrees. He claims Paul teaches salvation cannot be by "rituals" or "acts of obedience" alone. (Id. at 111.) In other words, Stulac claims Paul teaches salvation is not by works alone. If true, then Paul and James are saying the same thing, and Stulac would be correct. However, <a name="marker=464393"></a>Paul and James are diametrically apart. Stulac has ignored Paul's actual teachings. Paul makes it clear that if you are saved "by grace it is no more by works." (Romans 11:6.) This is even clearer in Rom 4:4-5: "(4) Now to him that worketh, the reward is not reckoned as of grace, but as of debt. (5) But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is reckoned for righteousness." This verse 5 clearly says that if you believe, and have no works, your faith alone justifies you. Hence Paul excludes the very possibility that Stulac's solution proposes to make Paul fit James. Paul teaches faith alone saves. James teaches to the contrary that faith alone without works does not save. If you believe Paul is an apostle, and inspired, you can see he would make a heretic out of James. That means the twelve apostles appointed as their leader (<a name="marker=464394"></a>James) a lost man. This is an implausible solution.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">28.</span> <a name="pgfId=464424"></a>The Greek word is <em>doron</em>. It can mean "gift," but its primary meaning in context is "oblation" (sacrifice) (Interlinear Scripture Analyzer.) To assess this word's meaning, we first look at the Hebrew equivalent. The Hebrew word for sacrifice is <em>minchah</em> (Hebrew Stg 4503). It came from an unused root meaning to apportion, i.e., bestow; a donation; euphemism tribute; specifically a sacrificial offering (usually bloodless and voluntary). As a noun, this Hebrew word meant "gift, oblation, (meat) offering, present, sacrifice." The Greek equivalent word is <em>doron</em> (Greek Stg 1435): "a present; specially a sacrifice: gift, offering."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">29.</span> <a name="pgfId=464427"></a>The Greek word is <em>thusiasterion</em>. It literally means "sacrifice place." (Interlinear Scripture Analyzer.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">30.</span> <a name="pgfId=465103"></a>Brad H. Young, <em>The Parables:Jewish Tradition and Christian Interpretation</em> (Massachusetts: Hendrickson, 2000) at 123.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">31.</span> <a name="pgfId=465114"></a>Quoted in id., at 124.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">32.</span> <a name="pgfId=464438"></a>The following is a common teaching among Paulinists: "<a name="marker=464437"></a>Blasphemy. The idea of earning anything from God by one's meritorious works is, strictly speaking, not simply a problem in soteriology but in theology proper. You are not just saying something about your works, or about sin, if the object of acquisition is salvation from the wrath to come, but you are saying something about God--or rather, about god, for you have made him finite. Thus, the best corrective to merit legalism is found in Paul's preaching to the pagans, not so much to the circumcision party in the Church." See, http://www.hornes.org/justmark/archives/2003_09.htm (accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">33.</span> <a name="pgfId=464458"></a>McGee, <em>How You Can Have the Assurance of Salvation</em> (Pasadena: 1976) at12.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">34.</span> <a name="pgfId=464469"></a>Paul does the same in his quotes from Psalm 36 in Romans 3. This out-of-context proclivity of Paul is discussed in S.L.Edgar, "Respect for Context in Quotations from the O.T.," <em>New Testament Studies</em> 9 (1962-63) at 56.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">35.</span> <a name="pgfId=464500"></a>Langevin, Gilles. "Faith," <em>Dictionary of Fundamental Theology</em>. Ed. (Latourelle, Rene. New York: Crossroad Publishing Company, 1994) at 309.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">36.</span> <a name="pgfId=464512"></a>It is ironic but Paulinist historians recognize this contradiction, and use it to argue the Epistle of James was not written by James. "The far-reaching differences in soteriology indicate that the author of the Letter of James cannot be identical with James the Lord's brother, who according to <a name="marker=464513"></a>Galatians 2.9 gave the right hand of fellowship to Paul and explicitly acknowledged his proclamation of the gospel among the Gentiles." (Udo Schnelle <em>The History and Theology of the New Testament Writings</em> (Minneapolis: Fortress Press, 1998) at 385-86.) However, this ignores Acts chapter 21 is after the events Paul mentions in Galatians 2:9. In Acts chapter 21, James still does not know Paul's doctrine on the Law. James asks and receives Paul's implicit reassurances that Paul is not teaching the Law's abrogation.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">37.</span> <a name="pgfId=464539"></a>H. Ray Dunning, "The Divine Response, Habakkuk 2:4," <em>Beacon Hill Commentary</em> (Kansas City, Mo.: Beacon Hill Press, 1966) Vol. 5 at 277-78.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">38.</span> <a name="pgfId=464562"></a>Stanley, Eternal Security, supra, at 33-35 (trust in Jesus' payment for sin saves you). Spurgeon's The Warrant of Faith (1863) typifies the modern evangelical sermon. He adds an interesting twist that tries to explain away James' point in James 2:19. Spurgeon does this by making faith in faith alone the act that James seeks beyond mere acknowledgment of facts. At first, Spurgeon appears to agree with James. After giving the Pauline gospel, he says: "The mere knowledge of these facts will not, however, save us...." What then must we do? Spurgeon then says we must trust in Jesus so we always accepts these facts and assure ourselves of salvation by faith alone. Spurgeon required the work of enduring in a faith in faith alone without works. This is an obvious self-contradiction.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">39.</span> <a name="pgfId=464571"></a>Ray C. Stedman,<em> When Unbelief is Right</em> (1967), reprinted at http://www.pbc.org/dp/stedman/1john/0161.html (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">40.</span> <a name="pgfId=464604"></a>A popular way of reconciling Paul to <a name="marker=464603"></a>James is to say James merely means that works prove you were saved. This is known as the forensic test. The contrary says works are an intrinsic requirement to salvation. The intrinsic view is correct because Jesus warns Christians repeatedly to have works or perish. (Matt. 7:19, "every tree without good fruit shall be cut down and thrown in the fire").</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">41.</span> <a name="pgfId=464633"></a>Paulinists admit Paul claims that reading the Law arouses sin. Paul Borden's audio online sermon The Frustration of Doing Good is an exposition on Romans 7. Borden, an American Baptist, introduces his sermon by saying "the apostle Paul eloquently explains how the law causes us to do the very things we don't want to do--clearly accentuating our need for grace." Borden is blunt: "Paul says the law caused his sin to `spring to life'--makes him want to sin." See Christianity Today which hosted this sermon in 2005 at http://resources.christianity.com/ministries/christianitytoday/main/talkInfo.jhtml?id=26945 (last visited 6/2005). Incidentally, Borden's explanations later contradict Paul, claiming Paul means the Law merely incites rebellion when we are told to stop the sin we love. Borden explains we like our ways prior to hearing the Law. When the Law tells us that we are sinning, we continue in our ways rebelliously. In Borden's spin, the Law did not cause the sin to start. In this manner, Borden's spin contradicts Paul. For Paul says he did not know to lust for women until he read the Law's command against doing so. Paul says he was previously living spiritually alive. Paulinists spin Paul to prevent exposing his blasphemy.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">42.</span> <a name="pgfId=464703"></a>"All Sabbatarians are guilty of adultery:...Paul said that [obeying the Ten Commandments] is equal to spiritual adultery, because in order to be joined to Christ, all the old Law must be abolished." http://www.bible.ca/7-10-commandments-abolished-Romans-7-1-7.htm (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">43.</span> <a name="pgfId=464717"></a>Pastor Gil Rugh (Indian Hills Community Church, New Jersey), <em>Wisdom From Above James</em> 3:17,18 (1978), reprinted at http://www.biblebb.com/files/GR772.HTM (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">44.</span> <a name="pgfId=464760"></a>Paulinists try to save Paul from what James condemns by lifting out-of-context <a name="marker=464761"></a>James 3:16. There James continues and says, "But now you are boasting in connection with your arrogance. ALL boasting of this kind is evil." Thus, they read James to only condemn boasting in arrogance. They insist Paul does not do this. However, boasting of your own exploits and background rather than God's accomplishments is likely James' meaning. The latter is appropriate "boasting in the Lord" (<a name="marker=464762"></a>Jeremiah 9:23-24.) <a name="marker=464763"></a>Thus, you can boast of God's accomplishments, not your own.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter 15: Does Jesus End Up Marginalized To Make Room For Paul?</h2>
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<h3>Marcionism: The First Marginalization of Jesus</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464096"></a>In 144 A.D., <a name="marker=464095"></a>Marcion, a defrocked bishop, claimed that only Paul had the true gospel. Marcion insisted the twelve apostles, including Matthew and John, were legalistic. Marcion claimed they did not have the true gospel of grace of Paul. Marcion adopted as the sole correct narrative of Jesus' life an account similar to Luke's gospel. However, it omitted the first three chapters and had several other omissions. (Appendix B: How the Gospel Was Formed.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464097"></a>As Marcionism spread throughout the Roman Empire, and had its own churches and liturgy, the apostolic church rose up to fight Marcionism as heresy. The key spokesperson of the early church was Tertullian of Carthage, North Africa. In about 207 A.D., <a name="marker=464098"></a>Tertullian wrote <em>Against Marcion</em>. He reminded everyone that Paul's authority was subordinate to the twelve apostles. Tertullian insisted Paul could not be valid if he contradicted the twelve or Jesus.<a name="marker=464099"></a>Tertullian even noted that if we were being scrupulous, we must note that there is no evidence except from Paul's own mouth that Jesus made him an apostle.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464102" class="footnote"> 1</a> Since nothing can depend on one witness (John 5:31 "If I bear witness of myself [alone], my witness is not true."), Tertullian said we cannot conclude Paul was an apostle of Jesus Christ.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464107"></a><a name="marker=464106"></a>Tertullian's points were designed to counter Marcion's preference for Paul. Marcion blatantly marginalized Matthew, Mark and John's Gospel to suit his preference for a Pauline Jesus. Marcion could see the contradictions between Paul and the writings of the twelve apostles. Marcion decided to choose Paul over Jesus as presented by the twelve. The early Christian Church felt compelled to rise up and brand Marcion a heretic.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464108"></a>For three hundred years, the apostolic church had to fight vigorously Marcion's rival church system. The Marcionites had adherents in numerous cities alongside the early church. Marcion was not battling the Roman Catholic Church (RCC). Rather, Marcion was being fought by the universal Christian church that predated the era of modern Roman Catholicism. (The RCC as we know it today did not take hold until after 325 A.D.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464109"></a>Where did Marcion go wrong? Rather than re-evaluate Paul because of the contradictions with the gospel accounts, Marcion assumed Paul had the greater insight. As E.H. Broadbent in <em>The Pilgrim Church</em> concludes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464110"></a>Marcion's errors were the inevitable result of his accepting only what pleased him and rejecting the rest.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464113" class="footnote"> 2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464114"></a>Marcionism once more has crept into the church. It has done so with stealth and cunning. We must go back to Tertullian's sage advice from 207 A.D. It is Paul who must fit into the words of Christ in the Gospels. It is not the Gospel accounts which must be truncated to fit the words of Paul.</p>
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<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464115"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html-1.gif" /></div>
Luther Marginalizes The Synoptic Gospels In Preference for Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464118"></a><a name="marker=464116"></a>Luther's view was that the <a name="marker=464117"></a>Synoptics (<em>i.e.</em>, Matthew, Mark &amp; Luke) did <a name="marker=464119"></a>not contain the pure gospel. Paul and the Gospel of John instead were all that you needed to know about the true gospel. Luther wrote in 1522 that Paul and John's Gospel "far surpass the other three Gospels, Matthew, Mark and Luke." Paul and John's Gospel are "<strong><em>all that is necessary and good for you to know, even though you never see or hear any other book or doctrine</em></strong>."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464122" class="footnote"> 3</a> Luther also wrote even more bluntly elsewhere that Paul had the truer gospel than what is presented in the Synoptics:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a>Those Apostles who treat oftenest and highest of<em><strong> how faith alone justifies</strong></em>, are <strong><em>the best Evangelists</em></strong>. Therefore St.<strong><em> Paul's Epistles are more a Gospel than Matthew, Mark and Luke</em></strong>. For these [Matthew, Mark and Luke] do not set down much more than the works and miracles of Christ; but the grace which we receive through Christ no one so boldly extols as St. Paul, especially in his letter to the Romans.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464126" class="footnote"> 4</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>Thus, Luther like Marcion knew there was something different in the Synoptics. He did not acknowledge Jesus contradicted Paul's doctrine. Yet, if Paul's doctrine were true, then why would the Synoptics omit it? If Paul and the Synoptic-Jesus taught the same thing, then why do Luther and Marcion insist the truer gospel is in Paul's writings?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464129"></a><a name="21699"></a>Besides Luther's down-pl aying the Synoptic Gospels, <a name="marker=464130"></a>Luther also rejected the Book of <a name="marker=464131"></a>Revelation. He claimed it was uninspired. He dismissed it with a conclusory statement that he could not see the "Holy Spirit" in it. Luther declared it was "neither apostolic nor prophetic," and he claimed that "Christ is not taught or known in it."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464134" class="footnote"> 5</a> Yet, in Revelation Jesus is talking much of the time. Also, Apostle John is certainly the human hand involved.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464834" class="footnote"> 6</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465717"></a>Luther's reason for rejecting the Book of Revelation is easy to deduce. Numerous Pauline thinkers have recognized the <a name="marker=465718"></a>anti-Pauline emphasis on salvation by faith and <a name="marker=465719"></a>works in Revelation. This is highly dangerous to their Pauline doctrine because Jesus' message was freshly delivered after Paul died. For that reason, modern Paulinists urge the rejection of Revelation as inspired canon. (See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209.#42255" class="XRef"></a>et seq.) It thus takes little to realize what caused Luther to reject the Book of Revelation. Christ was present in Revelation, but it is not the Christ of Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464141"></a>This is corroborated by the fact <a name="marker=464140"></a>Luther also concluded James' Epistle was uninspired. Luther <a name="marker=464142"></a>freely admitted <a name="marker=464143"></a>James' Epistle contradicted Paul on the same point that Jesus in Revelation contradicts Paul: James and Jesus in Revelation reject faith alone as the appropriate salvation formula.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464148" class="footnote"> 7</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a>As a result of Luther's view, the Synoptics (<em>i.e.,</em> Matthew, Mark, &amp; Luke), Revelation, and James were effectively put on the shelf by the Reformation's founder. These New Testament writings were too far afield of Paul to be given 100% validity on par with Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a>Thus, we can see the banner of <a name="marker=464151"></a>Sola Scriptura had quickly degraded into Only the Scripture that Fits Paul. Daniel Fuller correctly faults Luther's approach:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a>But when he set up his understanding of justification by faith as the basis for<strong><em> suppressing such books as the Synoptic Gospels, Hebrews, and James</em></strong>, he then made it impossible for these books to deepen or improve his understanding of this doctrine.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464156" class="footnote"> 8</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a>Because Luther was blatantly marginalizing Jesus' words in the New Testament, the Sola Scriptura banner was quickly being taken down. In its place the reformed congregations re-established the banner of `approved' church doctrine. This meant de facto that Paul's doctrines must triumph. Even though Jesus' words conflicted with Paul, Paul's words trumped Jesus' words every time.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464158"></a>This approach led eventually to an explicit abandonment of <a name="marker=464159"></a>Sola Scriptura. The reformers quickly turned to Catechisms to give the right spin to things. Flacius, a Lutheran, in his <em>Key to the Scriptures</em> (1567) -- the first hermeneutics book to emerge from the Reformation, he wrote:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a>Every <em><strong>understanding and exposition of Scripture</strong></em> is to be <em><strong>in agreement with the faith</strong></em>. Such [agreement] is, so to speak, the norm or limit of a sound faith, that we may not be thrust over the fence into the abyss by anything, either by a storm from without or by an attack from within (Rom. 12:6). For <em><strong>everything that is said concerning Scripture</strong></em>, or on the basis of Scripture, <em><strong>must be in agreement with all that the catechism declares</strong></em> or that is taught by the articles of faith.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464164" class="footnote"> 9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a>Fuller aptly criticizes this view. Flacius was urging Christians "to conform their language and thinking about a passage of scripture to an a priori [i.e., a presupposed] understanding of what God's Word must be like."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464166"></a>By such illogic and violation of reformed principles of Sola Scriptura, marginalization of Jesus became encrusted in official reformed confessions. These writings were quickly put above Scripture. They were put above challenge even if someone were quoting Jesus' words.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a>The effort by Luther, Calvin and certain Protestant catechisms to marginalize Jesus' words, giving preference to Paul, have now reaped their logical conclusion. Some put it bluntly: we cannot any longer view the four gospels as truly part of the New Testament--they reflect all `Old Testament' principles. As one sincere Paulinist, Dr. Russ Kelly, put it:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a>Even though <em><strong>uninspired persons designated the four Gospels as `New Testament' books</strong></em>, most thinking Christians realize that, in reality, the<strong><em> New Covenant did not begin until the very moment Christ died on Calvary</em></strong>. The blood of Christ, the blood of the New Covenant, or testament, sealed and ratified the New Covenant and ended the Old Covenant, or Mosaic Law once for all time.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464172"></a>Paulinists are thus so dedicated to Paul that no amount of contradiction of Paul by Jesus matters. It is all Paul, even if we must get rid of all of Jesus. They want the Jesus of the Synoptics to disappear.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464173"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html-1.gif" /></div>
Why Was John's Gospel Favored At All By the Reformers?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464174"></a>As mentioned elsewhere, the Synoptics (i.e., Matthew, Mark &amp; Luke) do not convey a<a name="marker=464175"></a>gospel of salvation by faith alone. It is a very different gospel. See <a href="file:///E:/Jwo%20#1/es14.#20396" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464179"></a>However, Luther viewed John's gospel as consistent with Paul. If the verb tense for believes in John's Gospel is translated to convey a one-time faith for salvation, then John's salvation message can sound consistent with Paul. However, John's true meaning was that one who continues to believe/trust should have eternal life. It was not a one-time step of faith that should save, as we will soon discuss. However, Luther's conception of salvation could not easily incorporate the Greek progressive continuous tense which is in <a name="marker=464180"></a>John 3:16. Why?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464182"></a>Because in the <a name="marker=464181"></a>German language, Luther could not express the Greek continuous meaning. There is <strong><em>no German verb form equivalent to the <a name="marker=464183"></a>Greek progressive tense</em></strong>, <em>i.e.</em>, the Greek Present Active tense. The German language "has no progressive mood."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464186" class="footnote"> 10</a> Thus, due to a weakness of the German language, Luther could not even unequivocally express a progressive meaning--continues to believe. (The King James translators in 1611 did a<a name="marker=464187"></a>similar slight of hand to believing in John 3:16.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464190" class="footnote"> 11</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464191"></a>However, the flaw in Luther's translation is self-evident to anyone who knows classical Greek. If John's meaning had been a one-time belief saves you, the corresponding Greek tense should have been the aorist for believes. Instead, in John 3:16 and all other Johannine salvation passages, believe was in the Greek form of the present participle active. The meaning was a faith/trust that "continues" should save, not that a one-time expression of faith saves. (For a discussion of the Greek involved, see Appendix A: Greek Issues.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464192"></a>Yet, Luther wanted John's Gospel to fit Paul. Otherwise, there would have been no consistency whatsoever between Paul and any of the four gospel accounts. It may have been a subconscious bias. It may have been simple error. Regardless, the <a name="marker=464193"></a>Greek issues involved in translating believe in John's Gospel are rudimentary and beyond any dispute. The Greek present participle active in <a name="marker=464194"></a>John 3:16 is continuous in meaning. Had it meant a one-time faith (which fits Pauline doctrine), an aorist tense in Greek would have been used to convey such meaning. Paul used the aorist tense in Romans 10:9 to identify a faith that saves is a single step. By contrast, John's Gospel never chose to use the aorist tense to identify any faith-condition for salvation. Rather, John's Gospel always used the continuous tense of the present participle active for believes. John's Gospel is not Pauline; it is anti-Pauline. <a name="marker=464198"></a>Luther's translation of John 3:16 was misleading.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464199"></a>Yet, Calvin came along and perpetuated this misleading rendering of <a name="marker=464200"></a>John 3:16 that Luther first proffered. As a result, to the same degree that Luther had done, Calvin insisted John's Gospel must be viewed as the lense to read and understand Matthew, Mark and Luke. The Synoptics were of a lesser character. Calvin wrote in his Foreword to the Book of John:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464201"></a>The doctrine which points out to us the power and the benefit of the coming Christ, is <strong><em>far more clearly exhibited by John <a name="marker=464202"></a>than by the [<a name="marker=464203"></a>synoptists]</em></strong>. The three former [synoptic Gospels] exhibit [Christ's] body...but John exhibits his soul. On this account I am accustomed to say that this Gospel is a key to open the door for understanding the rest...In reading [the four Gospels] a different order would be advantageous, which is, that when we wish to read in Matthew and others that Christ was given to us by the Father, we should first learn from John the purpose for which he was manifested.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464204"></a>
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Elimination of Synoptics in Modern Gospel Message</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a>This perverse down-playing of Jesus' actual words in the Synoptics continues today. Even someone of <a name="marker=464206"></a>Billy Graham's stature tells us that Jesus' gospel was not in the words spoken in His ministry. It was in nothing Jesus said. It was all in His death and resurrection, which is what Paul taught. If you believe these two facts about Jesus (<a name="marker=464207"></a>Romans 10:9), Paul taught you are saved. Here is what Billy Graham's Evangelistic Association said in 1980 in a tract entitled The Gospel. It says Jesus "came to do three days work, to die, be buried and raised" and that "He came not primarily to preach the Gospel... but He came rather that there might be a Gospel to preach."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464208"></a>To say this means that Jesus' message in the Gospel accounts is not important to know about in evaluating salvation doctrine. It is far more important to believe the two simple facts about Jesus being Lord and was resurrected. (Romans 10:9.) Paul said you will be instantly saved forever if you merely acknowledge these two facts. (Romans 10:9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a>What about the validity of the Billy Graham Association's claim that Jesus did not primarily come to preach a <a name="marker=464210"></a>gospel? Of course, it is impossible to reconcile these statements with Jesus' declaration "I came to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom; that is the reason why I was commissioned." (<a name="marker=464211"></a>Luke 4:43.) Roy Gustafson of the Billy Graham Association explains the reasoning behind the crusade tract's opposing view:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464212"></a>The word Gospel occurs over one hundred times in the New Testament...What then is the Gospel of the grace of God? Let us ask<em><strong> Paul</strong></em>. He would point us to I Cor. 15:1-4: `I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you...that Christ died for our sins, that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day'...<strong><em>Paul never discussed the earthly life of our Lord.</em></strong>..The fact that the Lord Jesus died to save is one half of the Gospel! The fact that he rose from the dead...is the other half of the Gospel.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464213"></a>As Gustafson defines the Gospel of Jesus, it is all contained in Paul's simple message about the death and resurrection of Jesus. (<a name="marker=464214"></a>1 Cor. 15:1-4.). The Gospel is not found in anything Jesus said. You won't find it in His sermons or His parables. Jesus could not be proclaiming the Gospel because had Jesus been doing so, Gustafson asks: `why then didn't Paul ever mention anything Jesus said in that regard?' Indeed! That is precisely the question I am posing!<strong><em> Gustafson cannot see the issue right in front of his nose</em></strong>. How could Paul be preaching the Gospel of Jesus if he never quotes Jesus? Furthermore, Gustafson's reasoning ignores Jesus' own statement that "I came to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom; that is the reason why I was commissioned." (Luke 4:43). <a name="marker=464215"></a>Jesus and Gustafson cannot both be correct.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464216"></a>Gustafson's view that Jesus' words do not matter and are unimportant to comprehend how to be saved is not new. It is what Luther was saying. Calvin too.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464217"></a>The purpose in defining the Gospel in this way is to focus only on Paul. Its aim is to exclude Jesus' Gospel in the Synoptics. Why? Because Luther, Calvin and everyone else knows Jesus' Gospel in the <a name="marker=464218"></a>Synoptics is a message of faith plus works, not faith alone. As Jesus most bluntly put it: "every tree therefore that bringeth not forth [i.e., "does not keep on producing"] good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire." (Matt. 7:19.) The Gospel of the Synoptics is a message of the necessity of adding good fruit and repentance from sin to your faith. Jesus' Gospel is not about just belief in facts about Himself. As Jesus likewise states, His <a name="marker=464219"></a>Gospel message promises "eternal life" for denying oneself, taking up one's cross and following Jesus. (<a name="marker=464220"></a>Matthew 19:27-29 ("shall inherit eternal life".) See also, <a name="marker=464221"></a>Matthew 10:37-39.) The Gospel in the Synoptics contains the message of James.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464222"></a>What a dilemma! If Jesus' Gospel in the Synoptics is the Gospel, we would have to re-write all these gospel tracts. For Jesus' Gospel in the Synoptics is the antithesis to Paul's Gospel.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465341"></a>So what are these theologians like Gustafson doing? As Bonhoeffer states, "theologians...simulate concern" for Jesus but try to "avoid the encounter" with Him, and thereby "Christ is still betrayed by the kiss." (Christ the Center (1933 lectures) at 35.) Thus, those who deny Jesus even had a Gospel of His own so they can hold onto Paul have turned their backs on the only one who matters: Jesus.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=465448"></a>
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Elimination of Jesus' Message of the Sermon on the Mount</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464224"></a>The consequence of putting emphasis on Paul's Gospel over Jesus' Gospel is dramatic. Christians are blatantly told to dismiss Jesus' words in the Synoptics as "unimportant." For example, Jesus' <a name="marker=464225"></a>Sermon on the Mount promises the kingdom to people with various characteristics. Without Paul weighing on us, Jesus would promise in the Sermon on the Mount salvation<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464228" class="footnote"> 12</a> for those who are humble, meek, merciful, peacemakers, and who hold their faith under pressure to disavow Christ, etc. With Paul in the mix, this must be dismissed. Walvoord is typical:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464229"></a>[The Sermon on the Mount]<em><strong> treats not of salvation</strong></em>, but of the character and conduct of those who belong to Christ...That it is suitable to point an unbeliever to salvation in Christ is plainly not the intention of this message...The Sermon on the Mount, as a whole, is <em><strong>not church truth precisely</strong></em>...It is <strong><em>not intended to delineate justification by faith or the gospel of salvation</em></strong>. (John Walvoord, <em>Matthew: Thy Kingdom Come</em> (Moody Press: 1984) at 44, 45.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">[2012 Amendment: After Walvoord strips the Sermon of any importance to the church, he gives a feint claim that even so, the Sermon "should not be pushed aside lightly by unnecessary stricture which would relegate it to <strong><em>unimportant truth</em></strong>." Thus, Walvoord tries to imply that despite stripping the sermon of any church-truth or salvific lessons based upon behavior, it somehow is still 'important.' Hence, many scholars wish to denigrate somethings importance, but then claim that is not what they are doing.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464231"></a>Thus, even though Jesus promises the <a name="marker=464230"></a>kingdom to persons exhibiting certain behaviors, Walvoord insists this is not about the promise of the kingdom for persons exhibiting certain kinds of behaviors. This is about the kingdom being given to persons who do not necessarily have these behaviors. Why? Obviously because Paul tells us the kingdom is for those who simply believe. Because Walvoord does not want us to see the incongruity, Walvoord must direct us promptly away from the Sermon. It is "unimportant truth."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464232"></a>Walvoord actually leaves us puzzled. Jesus is promising the kingdom but then ties the promise to behaviors, making us doubt Paul's canonicity. Yet, that is unthinkable. So how do we cope? Walvoord's answer is that we are to abandon Jesus' words as `unimportant' and stay on the path of following Paul. To me, it just doesn't make sense that we can be a Christian, treat Jesus' words as "unimportant" and prefer Paul over Jesus. A sickening feeling should overcome any true Christian. You are being told to ignore Jesus and listen only to Paul. This is the emerging mainstream Christianity of today.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464233"></a>Yet, Walvoord is in line with Calvin, Luther and Billy Graham's Evangelical Association. They insist we must see Jesus' words in Matthew are secondary to Paul's words in his epistles. They claim we need to put Jesus' Gospel aside as "unimportant truth" when compared to Paul's Gospel.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464234"></a>The True Meaning of the Sermon: Reading Paul through Jesus' Words</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464235"></a>The lesson of the Sermon on the Mount is clear but is lost on our modern ears. The best description appears from the pastor who runs Believe:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464236"></a>Jesus concludes the sermon by setting up certain requirements that relate directly to one's being saved or lost. He divides mankind into three classes: those who (1) follow him (7:13-14, 17, 21, 24-25), (2) do not follow him (vss. 13-44, 26-27), and (3) pretend to follow him (vss. 15-20, 21-23). To be saved one must actually follow the teachings of the sermon, but Jesus does not say they must be performed perfectly. The saved are those who accept and actually attempt to direct their lives by the sermon; the lost are those who pretend to follow or who reject these teachings....<em><strong>Mere profession of belief, without the following,</strong></em> will secure <em><strong>Jesus' condemnation</strong></em>, `I never knew you. You evildoers, depart from me' (vs. 23).<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464239" class="footnote"> <sup>13</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464240"></a>What about Paul's contrary teaching? This pastor accepts Paul, but he shares my outlook . He insists we must read Paul through the lense of Jesus' words and not the other way around. He explains:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464241"></a>An unfortunate feature of much post-Reformation Christianity has been the interpretation of Jesus in light of Paul rather than the converse. One of the contributions of Bonhoeffer's treatment of this sermon is his insistence on<strong><em> reading Paul in light of Jesus </em></strong>and, hence, his stressing the necessity of doing the sermon. Perfection is not demanded and aid is provided, but still the true disciple is `the who does the will of the Father' (vs. 21).</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464242"></a>
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The Misleading Suggestion by Emphasizing John's Gospel Account</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a>Also, the elevation of John's Gospel by Luther and Calvin feeds an erroneous assumption. Those unfamiliar with John's Gospel are misled to assume there is no trouble for Paul anywhere in John's Gospel. Yet, <a name="marker=464244"></a>John's Gospel is filled with <a name="marker=464245"></a>problems for Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a>For example, John quotes Jesus saying that those who are following Him and losing one's life in this world to serve Him do so for "life eternal." <a name="marker=464247"></a>(John 12:25-26.) Not for rewards, but for eternal life.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464650"></a>Another example is Jesus saying: "Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation." (John 5:28-29 KJV) Jesus focuses the difference between the saved and lost on who did good and who did evil. It is not a contrast between those who believe versus those who do not believe.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465066"></a>In fact, John 3:16 becomes another example when we reveal the subjunctive tense in the verse. It reads: "whosoever keeps on believing in Him should not perish but should have eternal life." There are two subjunctives in the verse--the subjunctive tense in Greek being used to show uncertainty and conditionality. (The NIV, without support in a textual variant, has it "shall have eternal life.")<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464897" class="footnote"> 14</a> Faith alone, Jesus implies in John, is not the sole criterion for judgment. You should be saved, but it is not necessarily going to be the case. Example in chief: the "believing" rulers who were too cowardly to confess Jesus. (John 12:42.) As cowards, their fate is in hell despite their believing. (Rev. 21:8, "cowards, unbelievers" are in hell.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464974"></a>Another example, assuming the NIV translation as correct, is we find in John's Gospel a competing formula for eternal life that depends on obedience. Jesus says: "Verily, verily, I say unto you, If one keeps my word, he shall never see death." (John 8:51, NIV) A better translation of keep my word is "obeys my teaching...." (GNB.) (On <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018.#37294" class="XRef"></a>, we will see 3:16 and 8:15 provide a synergistic path to salvation.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a>Next, John 3:36 is another very significant problem passage in John's Gospel for the Paulinist. John the Baptist (whom Jesus calls the greatest prophet) is quite clearly amplifying John 3:16 to say that a faith that should save is destroyed by disobedience to Jesus' commands. Thus, John 3:16 does not have Paul's meaning. John 3:16 has been quoted insufferably countless times out-of-context (besides being grossly mistranslated to fit Paul.) The Prophet John clearly is amplifying 3:16 in 3:36 by evoking the salvation formula of John 3:16 but modifies it. John contrasts believing with disobeying as a warning to the one-time believer about the impact of disobedience. Here is what John 3:36 says literally in a correct translation:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>He that<strong><em> keeps on</em></strong> believing/trusting on the Son keeps on having everlasting life [cf. the 3:16 formula], and he that keeps on disobeying [apeitheo] the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God keeps on remaining on him.</p>
<p class="BodyInd"><a name="pgfId=464255"></a>This means a faith that should save is destroyed by disobedience. As John MacArthur says in <em>The Gospel According to Jesus</em> (Zondervan: 1994), John 3:36 teaches that salvation depends on a lasting obedience to Christ's authority, not on a one-time obedience to believe. (Id. at 39 fn.) A saving faith is one that "produces obedience." (<em>Id</em>. at 53.) Hence, disobedience to Jesus' commands means God's wrath rests on you regardless of your subjective experience of a one-time belief. (Paulinists deflect this verse by the simple step of mistranslation.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=465115" class="footnote"> 15</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464998"></a>A final example, although not the last, is <a name="marker=464997"></a>Jesus in John says a branch "in me" that does not produce fruit will be cut off, and is thrown outside the vineyard. It is as a branch that is withered (died). It will be burned. (<a name="marker=464999"></a>John 15:1-6.) <a name="marker=465000"></a>Faith without works is dead. The branch is the Christian, not the fruit on the branch. The burning is of you, not some poor fruit (i.e., defective works) as Paulinists try to spin this passage. Thus, in John 15:1-6, Jesus is explaining that works are crucial to add to one's connection to Christ, even though the connection is how one produces fruit. Otherwise, faith (connection) without fruit (works) makes you withered (dead), to be thrown "outside" to be "burned." Jesus agrees with <a name="marker=465001"></a>James 2:14!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464256"></a>Thus, Paulinists ignore the many passages in John's Gospel that contradict Paul. They emphasize John 3:16 as if it is saying the same thing as Paul's Gospel. However, it does not. John's Gospel, correctly translated, is the antithesis to Paul's gospel.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464257"></a>
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Even C.S. Lewis Is In The Primarily-Paul Camp</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464258"></a>One of my favorite fiction writers is C.S. Lewis. He was a brilliant author. Yet, even C.S. Lewis revealed himself to be a Paulinist who marginalized Jesus. Listen to his reasoning:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>The epistles are for the most part the earliest Christian documents we possess. The Gospels came later. They are not `the Gospel,' the statement of the Christian belief...In that sense the epistles [of <strong><em>Paul] are more primitive and more central than the Gospels </em></strong>-- though not of course than the great events which the Gospels recount. God's Act (the Incarnation, the crucifixion, and the Resurrection) comes first: the earliest theological analysis of it comes in the epistles [of Paul]: then when the generation which had heard the Lord was dying out, the Gospels were composed to provide the believers a record of the great Act and of <strong><em>some of the Lord's sayings</em></strong>. (C.S. Lewis, "Introduction" to J. B. Phillips' <em>Letters to Young Churches</em> (Fontana Books n.d.) at 9, 10.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464260"></a>Thus, Lewis is saying that Paul's epistles are more primary than the Gospel accounts. The key facts are the death and resurrection of Jesus. If we believe these two facts, we are saved. (<a name="marker=464261"></a>Romans 10:9.) Beyond that, Lewis acknowledges we can find "some sayings" of Jesus in the gospel accounts. However, they are not the gospel message. Then what of Jesus' contrary claim? <a name="marker=464262"></a>Jesus said: "I came to preach the Gospel of the Kingdom; that is the reason why I was commissioned." (<a name="marker=464263"></a>Luke 4:43.) Lewis is confident that, to the contrary, the Gospel Jesus preached is not the Gospel we must obey. Instead, Lewis believed Paul had the Gospel we must follow.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a>Again, Lewis is saying nothing new. It was Luther's view. It was Calvin's view. It was or is the Billy Graham Association's view. It was <a name="marker=464265"></a>Marcion's view two millennia ago. (See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.) Yet, how can a Christ-centered life be based on de-emphasizing Jesus to accept Paul? It just doesn't make any sense.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464266"></a>
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A Better Explanation Why the Gospel Accounts Came Second</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464267"></a>May I suggest an alternative to Lewis' view which better explains why Paul's epistles came first and then the gospels? God did not make Paul's writings come first to prove the primacy of Paul over Jesus' words. Nor did God make Paul silent on Jesus' preaching to prove how irrelevant Jesus' words were on salvation doctrine. Rather, the gospel accounts were recorded after Paul to address partly the problem of Paul's written letters. The <a name="marker=464268"></a>gospel accounts were to correct Paul's views and give us Jesus' words lacking in Paul's writings. Jesus thus was able to set forth the correct nature of salvation. That is why Jesus' views conflict so directly with Paul. Jesus says you can go to heaven maimed or hell whole in <a name="marker=464269"></a>Mark 9:42-47. Repentance from sin is crucial; belief is just one step. Jesus in the <a name="marker=464270"></a>Parable of the Sheep and the Goats, Matt. 25:32 et seq., also said you can do works of charity for Jesus' brethren and thus go to Heaven. Alternatively, you can fail to do so and go to Hell. There is no third option of pleading a covering of Christ and skating the personal obligation. Jesus had clearly a faith-plus-works formula as the correct teaching on salvation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464271"></a>Accordingly, the Gospel accounts come after Paul precisely to remind Christians of Jesus' warnings about the coming false prophets after Jesus' crucifixion. Jesus' warning covers the period of Paul's preaching. <a name="marker=464272"></a>Jesus <a name="marker=464273"></a>warned prophets would come to teach in His name but be false. (Matt. 7:15 et seq.) They would preach a-nomia, which literally means "negation of the (Mosaic) Law." Jesus says `I will tell them on Judgment Day that I never knew you.' Jesus warns also these same preachers will do signs and wonders, and will have prophecy to deceive you into falsely trusting them. <a name="marker=464274"></a>Jesus says their signs and wonders prove nothing. All that matters is that they are workers of <a name="marker=464275"></a>a-nomia. If they are workers who seek to negate the Mosaic Law, flee from them, Jesus warned. (For a full discussion on this passage, see the chapter <a href="file:///E:/Jwo%20#1/anomia.#13006" class="XRef"></a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464279"></a>Thus, the sequence that Lewis is citing as proof of Paul's primacy is actually proof of the opposite. It is more likely explained by the problem of Paul. The gospel accounts were intended to correct Paul. <a name="marker=464280"></a>Without their documentary existence, no one could expose Paul as a false apostle. No one could prove Paul was coming with another gospel than that of Jesus Christ Himself!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464281"></a>In fact, all this effort to dismiss the Synoptics by Luther, Calvin, C.S. <a name="marker=464282"></a>Lewis, Billy <a name="marker=464283"></a>Graham, and Walvoord is itself proof that Paul must have come with another gospel. Otherwise, why all this effort and spin to dismiss the Synoptics? If the gospel in them were the same as Paul taught, why would one have to say Paul has primacy at all over them?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a>The truth is one cannot make Jesus' words serve Paul's doctrines. The effect of this primacy given to Paul over the Synoptics has destroyed the integrity of commentators. As discussed next, when confronted by a contradiction of Paul by Jesus, they presuppose Jesus must fit Paul. They admit this by the most blatant illogic.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464286"></a>
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<a name="11425"></a>Circular Logic to Obscure Jesus' Words</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464288"></a>The following are examples of <a name="marker=464287"></a>circular logic made to force Jesus' words in the Synoptics fit Pauline interpretation. The authors insist boldly, openly but illogically that Jesus must be interpreted to fit Paul's theology. Never once does the fact of contradiction draw the commentators to question Paul's validity in canon.</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464290"></a>"The interpretation of the <a name="marker=464289"></a>parable [of the Prodigal by Jesus] requires deduction compatible with known doctrine [i.e., Paul]." (R.B. Thieme Jr., <em>The Prodigal Son</em> (1974) at 1.)</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464291"></a>"In other words, once [eternal] security [primarily deduced from Paul] is established, there really are `no problem passages.' There are only Scriptures [i.e., statements by Jesus apparently to the contrary] to properly interpret in light of an already established doctrine [i.e., Paul's teaching.]" (<em>Ankerberg Theological Research Institute News Magazine</em> (Vol. 4 No. 7) (July 1997) at 16.)</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464293"></a>"In Mt. 25:34, we find that inheriting the <a name="marker=464292"></a>kingdom is conditioned [by Jesus] on obedience and service to the King, a condition far removed from the New Testament [i.e., Pauline] teaching of justification by faith alone for entrance into heaven. [Thus, it must mean something other than what it appears to mean.]" (Dillow,<em> Reign of the Servant Kings</em> (1992) at 72.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464294"></a>These statements all share blatant illogic. The commentator interprets what Jesus is saying from the theological system of Paul. Thus, the very point of whether Paul is valid or not is avoided by rewriting Jesus' words to fit Paul. It is known as the bootstrap fallacy. Instead, the very issue raised by the contradiction is whether Paul belongs among inspired canon. Rather than face the unthinkable, bootstrap illogic is used to demand the reader accept any spin of Jesus that erases Jesus' contradiction of Paul.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464295"></a>
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Dispensational Strategy To Avoid Jesus</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464296"></a>A more intellectual effort to displace Jesus with Paul was developed in what is called <a name="marker=464297"></a>Dispensational Theology. It has given this Jesus vs. Paul division a theological basis. The fact people have had to devise a theological explanation for the division is proof that it is otherwise impossible logically to keep Jesus and Paul in the same canon. One or the other must go.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464298"></a>What some Christians have done, trying to be faithful to both Jesus and Paul, is take all the tension away by a theological crutch. They deem Jesus' conflicting statements as addressing the era of Law. All Paul's contrary teachings were addressed to the present era of Grace. The conflict is resolved elegantly because Paul and Jesus conflict for good reason: they are talking to different people who are subject to different covenants. These different covenants are described as different dispensations.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464299"></a>As a result, Jesus' words are deprived of any ongoing relevance. As John MacArthur says in <em>The Gospel According to Jesus</em>:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a>This lamentable hermeneutic [<em>i.e.</em>, Jesus' words were for a different dispensation] is<strong><em> widely applied in varying degrees to much of our Lord's earthly teaching, emasculating the message of the Gospels</em></strong>.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464303" class="footnote"> <sup>16</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464304"></a>Any doctrine that tells us to ignore Jesus' words should raise an immediate red flag. If we take this route, we have a legitimized barrier, however well-intentioned, against listening any longer to Jesus on salvation issues. Jesus' words on how to be saved and have eternal life no longer interest us (unless, of course, we think they agree with Paul). Jesus' statements lose their ongoing validity after His death on the cross. Only Paul thereafter is left to address us on how to be saved. With this kind of reasoning, Paul trumps Jesus every time.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a>Yet, to the contrary, Jesus said "heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not <a name="marker=464306"></a>pass away." (<a name="marker=464307"></a>Matt. 24:35.) Jesus was saying His words were not only valid now, but remain continuously valid in the kingdom up through the passing away of the heaven and earth. (<a name="marker=464308"></a>Rev. 20:7-10.) Dispensationalism ignores this. Instead, it gives Jesus' words only a brief continuing validity on the doctrine of salvation. Once the Law was abolished at the crucifixion, as they interpret Paul's Gospel, Jesus' words on salvation became all moot. Jesus' words were meant for those under the Law. Because Jesus nailed the Law to a tree in His crucifixion, Jesus did away with the Law. Thus, all Jesus' statements no longer have any bearing on how God will deal with us who live under Grace, and who no longer are under the Law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464309"></a>Can you see how the dispensational argument has an obvious logical flaw when used as a harmonization instrument? Essentially, this argument depends on the presupposition that Paul is inspired and he could define a covenant of Grace that excludes relevance of the Law (i.e., repentance from sin, obedience, works, etc.) Yet, the very issue that Jesus' words raise is the legitimacy of this point of view. Only a presupposition that Paul is correct would force you to marginalize Jesus by claiming His words cannot possibly apply to those under a new covenant of Grace. Absent this bootstrapping, this conflict in salvation messages is proof itself that Paul is uninspired. It actually proves Paul is a false apostle. Thus, a crucial assumption of the dispensational/covenant argument is the same as its conclusion. The <a name="marker=464310"></a>bootstrap is the a priori assumption that Paul is inspired to declare a covenant of grace that excludes repentance, obedience, and works. (Deut. 6:25.) Instead, that is the very issue at stake. This is discussed in more detail below at <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.#28822" class="XRef">See The Circular Reasoning Involved in Dispensationalism</a> .</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464314"></a>Paul's Flawed Covenant Theology</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464315"></a>Of course, there is also a Biblical flaw in Paul's presentation of a New Covenant of Grace that excludes the Law (Torah). It contradicts the Bible prophecy of a <a name="marker=464316"></a>New Covenant. This prophecy appears in <a name="marker=464317"></a>Jeremiah 31:31 et seq. This prediction about the <a name="marker=464318"></a>New Covenant expressly says the New Covenant continues the Torah and continues God's special relationship with the seed of Israel. The New Covenant of Grace is specifically mentioned in that passage too, saying it is based on God "forgiving sins."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464323" class="footnote"> 17</a> Thus, despite a New Covenant of Grace, God told us already some things will never change: the Torah and God's covenant partner is Israel. Please read Jeremiah 31:31 et seq. right now if you have any doubt. For a fuller discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.#19232" class="XRef">See Irreconcilable Differences in Paul's New Covenant Theology</a> .</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464328"></a>
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Historical Background of Dispensationalism</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464330"></a>Dispensationalism has its modern roots in the <a name="marker=464329"></a>covenant theology which was first set forth in the Calvinist <a name="marker=464331"></a>Westminster Confession of 1647. Prior to that date, it only appeared in <a name="marker=464332"></a>Marcionism. It never appeared in any mainstream Christian writings, including those of <a name="marker=464333"></a>Luther and <a name="marker=464334"></a>Calvin.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464337" class="footnote"> 18</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464340"></a>Gradually covenant theology gave way a hundred years ago to a method of analyzing Jesus' words called Dispensationalism. It is a doctrine whose most significant purpose is to resolve conflicts between Paul and Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464341"></a>This doctrine is quite forthright: once a verse from Jesus is deemed too difficult to reconcile with Paul, the explanation is Jesus was talking to a different dispensation. We are safe to ignore Jesus' words for we are in the <a name="marker=464342"></a>dispensation of grace. Jesus' words were meant in that instance for those under the dispensation of Law (i.e., the Jews). The Law after the cross supposedly had now become a curse and was abrogated. Therefore, Dispensationalists reason that Jesus' words at issue no longer involve any important truth for us.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464343"></a>For example, Dispensationalists do not ignore the inconsistencies between Jesus and Paul in the Sermon on the Mount. Jesus emphasizes works to enter the kingdom. Jesus called us to have a "righteousness that exceeds that of the Pharisees," absent which "you shall in no case enter the kingdom of heaven." (Matt. 5:20.) Jesus is making <a name="marker=464344"></a>obedience a condition of entrance into heaven. This is clear from the verses that follow in the Sermon. Jesus explains what it means to have a righteousness that exceeds the Pharisees. You must not call your brother a fool (5:21-26); you must not lust after a married woman (5:27-30); you must not divorce your wife absent certain circumstances (5:31-32); you must not make false vows (5:33-37);<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464705" class="footnote"> 19</a> and you must not return evil for evil (5:38-48). The Pharisees obviously committed all these sins. Jesus was promising "entry...into the kingdom of heaven" (5:20) for obedience to His principles.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464345"></a>The Dispensationalists began their modern movement by insisting there is<strong> nothing to worry about in the Sermon on the Mount</strong>. Their leading text, still cited today, is by Clarence Larkin, Dispensational Truth (Philadelphia: Larkin, 1918). Based on dispensational logic, Larkin explains Jesus' teachings in the Sermon on the Mount "have <strong><em>no application to the Christian</em></strong>, but only to those who are under the Law, and therefore must apply to another <a name="marker=464346"></a>Dispensation than this." (<em>Id.</em>, at 87.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464347"></a>Thus, beginning in 1918, dispensationlists demonstrated how easily one could eliminate the Sermon on the Mount. Jesus was talking to Jews under the Law. Paul is talking to everyone else who exists in the `era of grace.' The era of the Law died at the cross. Thus, this Sermon on the Mount's message died there too. Dispensationalists proclaim victory for Paul's words over Christ's words. They are not troubled in the slightest. To them, it is simply grace triumphing over Law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464348"></a>As a result, for the modern Dispensationalist, the following principles of <a name="marker=464349"></a>Jesus are inapplicable to us:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted-11pt"><a name="pgfId=464350"></a>Jesus' mention of the Law's ongoing validity and how crucial it is to teach every command, small and large. (Matt. 5:18-19.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted-11pt"><a name="pgfId=464351"></a>Jesus' promise of justification for repentance from sin. (Luke 18:10 ff.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted-11pt"><a name="pgfId=464352"></a>Jesus' salvation principles in the Sermon on the Mount. (Matt. 5:1 ff.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted-11pt"><a name="pgfId=464353"></a>Jesus' hell-whole or heaven-maimed statement. (Mark 9:42 ff.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted-11pt"><a name="pgfId=464355"></a>Jesus' emphasis on works for salvation in the <a name="marker=464354"></a>Parable of the Sheep &amp; The Goats without which one will go to hell. (Matt. 25:32 ff.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted-11pt"><a name="pgfId=464356"></a>Jesus' emphasis on works in Revelation without which Jesus will spew you out of His mouth. (Rev. 3:16 ff.)<a name="pgfId=464357"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464358"></a>All such principles have been carved out of the essential values necessary for New Testament Christians. They are no longer applicable in the "Era of Grace" as defined by Paul.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464363" class="footnote"> 20</a> They are wholly irrelevant.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464370"></a>Thus, even though <a name="marker=464369"></a>Jesus said His words would remain valid even though "heaven and earth pass away" (<a name="marker=464371"></a>Matt. 24:35), dispensationalism harmonizes away Jesus' teachings as invalid. They were supposedly only valid for another two years after Jesus spoke them,<em> i.e.</em>, they expired at the crucifixion. "It is finished" for Paulinist-dispensationlists means all of Jesus' lessons are cancelled unless they fit Paul's doctrines.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464372"></a>This conclusion was driven by the necessity to harmonize Jesus with Paul. The founders of <a name="marker=464373"></a>dispensationalism such as Dr. <a name="marker=464374"></a>Chafer were fully aware of the tension between Jesus and Paul. Miles J. <a name="marker=464375"></a>Stanford became a renown proponent from Dr. Chafer's university. He expressly recognized contradictions between Jesus and Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464376"></a>However, this was not a problem, he claimed. Stanford insisted Paul had a different gospel from the other apostles. Thus, Stanford taught that when they do not line up, we must realize Jesus and the twelve were directed at a different dispensation--Jews under the Law. Paul was directed at humanity in the "era of grace." There is nothing therefore to reconcile when we find conflict. God just has different covenants with Jews than with the world after Jesus' ascension.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464380" class="footnote"> 21</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464381"></a>That such a theology would ever arise reflects how impossible it is to reconcile <a name="marker=464382"></a>Jesus with Paul on too many points. How can Paul fit in with a `hell-whole or heaven-maimed warning' of Jesus? In <a name="marker=464383"></a>Mark chapter 9, Jesus gives no quarter to Paul: you can go to hell whole (unrepentant) or heaven-maimed (after severe repentance from sin). There is no third option of refusing to repent from sin and enjoy a covering of Christ based on mere belief. <em>Cfr</em>. 1 Cor. 5:5. In line with Jesus, John tells us the covering applies to a Christian only after confessing and repenting from sin. (<a name="marker=464384"></a>1 John 1:7-9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464386"></a>Jesus and Paul are certainly at odds. Paul and <a name="marker=464385"></a>Apostle John are also at odds. John thinks the covering of Christ only applies upon confession of sin. However, Paul says it permanently happens upon belief that Jesus is the Lord and He rose from the dead. (<a name="marker=464387"></a>Romans 10:9. See also, Romans 8:1.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464388"></a>Thus, this dispensational doctrine is necessary to cope with the conflict within Christianity between Paul and Jesus. Also, it is used to cope with the conflict between Paul and the other apostles' teachings. Dispensationalism is an old solution, going back to Marcion. The early church defeated Marcion's attempt to marginalize Jesus in preference for Paul. Will we?</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464390"></a>
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<a name="28822"></a>The Circular Reasoning Involved in Dispensationalism</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464393"></a><a name="marker=464391"></a>Dispensationalism and <a name="marker=464392"></a>Covenant theology as pertains to the Jesus-Paul conflict rests upon <a name="marker=464394"></a>circular reasoning. It reconciles the two by making an assumption that Paul is inspired and correct. Yet, that is precisely the challenge involved that they are hoping to resolve. The illogic involved is not evident to its proponents apparently because they never have done a logic diagram of their argument.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464395"></a>First, let's review some basic logic about what a conflict between Jesus and Paul should mean. This will help unlock rather easily the illogic of how dispensationalism and covenant theology reconcile Jesus and Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464396"></a>Everyone knows if Jesus is inspired and Paul is inspired that they cannot contradict. If they do, either Jesus is not inspired or Paul is not inspired. Between the two, only Jesus proved to be a prophet (and more than a prophet). Paul was just a person with a vision of Jesus. So if we were forced to concede Jesus and Paul contradict, then Paul would be found uninspired.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464397"></a>Dispensationalism agrees that Jesus and Paul contradict but points out their audiences may have materially varied. Dispensationalism seizes on this point to resolve the apparent dilemma of a contradiction. Dispensational theology says Jesus was not talking to those under a covenant of grace when He taught justification by repentance from sin. Jesus aimed at Jews His <a name="marker=464398"></a>Parable of the Publican and the Pharisee and His heaven-maimed-or-hell-whole lesson in <a name="marker=464399"></a>Mark 9:42-48. Thus, Jesus was supposedly talking to Jews under their old and now expired covenant relationship which did depend on repentance. However, this notion that Jesus brought a new covenant-of-grace which excludes <a name="marker=464400"></a>repentance from sin for salvation comes exclusively from Paul.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464404" class="footnote"> <sup>22</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464405"></a>Thus, the solution proposed to reconcile the conflict between Jesus and Paul is to assume the validity of Paul's teaching of the covenant of grace. Paul's doctrines (a) exclude repentance from sin as necessary for salvation and (b) exclude Jews as the principal partner. Yet, the validity of Paul as an inspired teacher to teach these two ideas is the very question at issue. To derive the dispensational solution that Jesus was talking to those under the covenant of Law and not grace, one has to assume <a name="marker=464406"></a>Paul's validity. This assumption is the same thing as your conclusion. Paul alone teaches a break between the seed of Israel and God in forming a New Covenant people. (See Galatians 4:22 ff.) The Dispensational theory at issue overcomes the question of Paul's inspiration by assuming Paul is inspired despite the contradictions. The conclusion of Paul's inspiration is hidden in the discussion as a premise. Hence, dispensationalism as a tool to reconcile Jesus and Paul is based on circular logic.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>You can diagram the fallacy rather easily:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464408"></a>Premise #1: If Jesus and Paul would truly contradict then Paul is uninspired.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464409"></a>Premise #2: Jesus and Paul addressed different audiences.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464410"></a>Premise #3: Jesus and Paul have direct contradictions in talking to different audiences.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464411"></a>Premise #4: <em><strong>Paul is inspired </strong></em>in expounding on a new covenant of grace to one audience.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>Premise #5: Jesus was inspired in expounding to a different audience who are under the covenant of Law but not under Paul's covenant of grace.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464413"></a>Conclusion: Therefore both Jesus and Paul are inspired.<a name="pgfId=464414"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464415"></a>It is premise number 4 that contains the bootstrapped-conclusion. When one of your premises contains your conclusion, we call the conclusion a bootstrap fallacy. Thus, but for that assumption in premise number 4, you would have Jesus expounding principles of the kingdom applicable to a New Covenant member at odds with Paul. Premise number 4 marginalizes that truth, puts it in doubt, and bootstraps the conclusion. If you fallaciously contain your conclusion in a premise, you cannot help but reach the conclusion you desire. To repeat, this is known as the bootstrap fallacy.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464417"></a>
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<a name="19232"></a>Irreconcilable Differences in Paul's New Covenant Theology</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464418"></a>Furthermore, there are certain contradictions between Jesus and Paul that refute the whole idea that Jesus and Paul can be reconciled on the covenant-of-grace explanation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464419"></a>Jesus taught that anyone who would teach against the keeping of the least command in the Law would be least in the kingdom of heaven. Not until heaven and earth pass away, Jesus says, will one little letter of the Law cease until all things are accomplished. (<a name="marker=464420"></a>Matt. 5:18.) If Jesus intended that the Law would be accomplished in toto six months later when He died on the cross, He made an incongruous statement that the Law would continue until "heaven and earth pass away...." And Jesus would have made the further incongruous remark that a New Testament kingdom member must keep "the least command in the Law."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464422"></a>Obviously, Jesus sees the <a name="marker=464421"></a>New Covenant precisely as J<a name="marker=464423"></a>eremiah 31:31 explained. The New Covenant continued the Torah (Law). And as Isaiah said, Servant-Messiah "will <strong><em>magnify the Law</em></strong> (Torah), and make it honorable." (Isaiah 42:21.) The New Covenant in Jeremiah and Isaiah is thus just as Jesus sees it: the Law continues forward in the New Covenant, reinforced but never done away with until the heavens and earth pass away.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464429"></a>Paul clearly <a name="marker=464427"></a>contradicts <a name="marker=464428"></a>Jesus in this respect. Paul says the Law is nailed to a tree, abolished, etc., by Christ's death on the cross. (See chapter five<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#19182" class="XRef"></a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464433"></a>Also, Paul sees Israel is displaced as covenant partner. Paul says Israel now corresponds to the cursed child of Hagar, in bondage to keep the Law which cannot save. Paul insists Israel can reap no blessing from obeying the Law given Moses. Paul continues and says we under the New Covenant are free to live without the Law. We are analogized to be Isaac's children. We live instead under a covenant of grace. (Gal. 4:28 ff.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464434"></a>However, this means Jesus and Paul contradict on one of the core premises upon which hangs the validity of the Dispensational Jesus-Paul solution.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464435"></a>Remember Premise #5? It said:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464436"></a>Premise #5: Jesus was inspired in expounding to a different audience who are under the covenant of Law but not under Paul's covenant of grace.<a name="pgfId=464437"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464439"></a><a name="marker=464438"></a>Jesus would not agree that persons of the New Covenant are free to disregard the Law. Remember Jesus said the one who teaches against the validity of the least command in the Law would be least in the kingdom of heaven. Jesus then reiterates that not a jot will depart from the Law of Moses until heaven and earth pass away.<a name="marker=464440"></a>(Matt. 5:18.) Jesus is obviously warning a member of His New Covenant community to follow the Law. For Jesus, there is no such thing as a <a name="marker=464441"></a>Covenant of Grace that throws out the Law two years later. <a name="marker=464442"></a>Jeremiah 31:31 et seq. expressly promises a New Covenant of "forgiveness and mercy" in which the Law continues and the covenant relationship with Israel's seed continues. That is why there is no such thing as a dual audience of different covenant partners--one under law and one under grace--as <a name="marker=464443"></a>covenant theology adopts to protect Paul's validity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464445"></a>As Pastor John <a name="marker=464444"></a>MacArthur says, "both law and grace are part of the program of God in every dispensation." (J. MacArthur, <em>The Gospel According to Jesus, supra</em>, at 31-32.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464446"></a>Thus, dispensationalism/covenant theology, in its explanation of how to reconcile Paul to Jesus, insists Paul is correct on a key premise at odds with Jesus and Jeremiah 31:31 <em>et seq.</em> and Isaiah 42:21. See also Isaiah 59:21.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464447"></a>
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The Consequences of Dispensational Ideas</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464448"></a>Dispensational theory has now drastically reduced the New Testament applicable to us. Our New Testament that applies after the ascension of Jesus is, in effect, only the words of Paul. We have now returned 100% to the position of the early heretic <a name="marker=464449"></a>Marcion of 144 A.D. He said only Paul had the message of Jesus. He rejected the salvation message of the twelve apostles. Marcion claimed their gospels were at odds with Paul. He circulated a gospel narrative that had much in common with Luke, but was much shorter. (See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464450"></a>It has taken almost nineteen-hundred years, but everything has come full circle back to <a name="marker=464451"></a>Marcion's doctrine and his truncated gospel account. The early church branded him a heretic. Marcion was forgotten. The four gospels were later joined to canon. They appeared safely ensconced as valid until the rise of covenant theology and dispensationalism took over. By these doctrinal developments, we have come back to a Marcion heresy enveloping Christianity day by day.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464452"></a>These developments should disgust any true Christian. As John <a name="marker=464453"></a>MacArthur correctly states about this aspect of Dispensationalism:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464454"></a>It is no wonder that the evangelistic message growing out of such a system<strong><em> differs sharply from the gospel according to Jesus</em></strong>. If we begin with the presupposition that much of Christ's message was intended for another age, <strong><em>why should our gospel be the same as He preached</em></strong>?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464457" class="footnote"> <sup>23</sup></a></p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464464"></a>
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Dispensationalist Admits Jesus' Words Are No Longer Relevant Because of Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464465"></a>Some Christians are unfamiliar with the streak of Dispensationalism invading the churches. You have never heard this viewpoint boldly proclaimed in a sermon. Yet, its influence is growing because the contradictions between Jesus and Paul do not go away by mere spin.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464466"></a>Here is a very blunt but yet accurate and sincere summary of Dispensational theory. It is from a sermon by Pastor Mike <a name="marker=464467"></a>Paulson of Touchet Baptist Church in Touchet, Washington. In a sermon entitled What Would Jesus Do or What Would Paul Do? Pastor Paulson boldly dismisses the What Would Jesus Do bracelets as <a name="marker=464468"></a>heretical. He bases this squarely on mainstream dispensational teaching today. Pastor Paulson explains why this bracelet is heretical: it is wrong to teach anything that Jesus taught; we should instead only teach what Paul taught. Dispensational truth justifies this conclusion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464469"></a>To avoid any claim that I am misleadingly taking his words out of context, I include almost all of Pastor Paulson's points. He says:</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464470"></a>In regards to that heretical piece of jewelry and money-making modern Christian symbol based on the mentality of modern Christianity, What Would Jesus Do, we should know that it really doesn't matter what Jesus would do in any specific situations these days. In fact, the question is not even what Peter would do, or Mary either! The question should be, <strong><em>What Would Paul Do!</em></strong>....</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464472"></a>When most people start to read their `bible,' they usually don't get very far; in fact, most just read up to the Gospels and ignore the rest claiming they don't understand it all.</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=465062"></a>***[T]hen [they] put their itching ears to their `modern scholarly educated Greek/Hebrew trained' pastor and let him...teach the<strong><em> teachings of Jesus</em></strong> according to the Gospels thus making them `feel' like they are a good Christian following Jesus' teachings!</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464473"></a>Well, what's wrong with that, you ask? It goes <strong><em>against the Scriptures</em></strong>!!!!</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464474"></a>Keep in mind as you read this sermon, Acts is a transitional book. We go from Jew to Gentile; Jerusalem to Rome; Law to Grace; and Peter to Paul!</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464475"></a>Let's remind ourselves about the proper place of Peter in today's Christianity:</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464476"></a>According to Matthew 10:5-7, Peter, as were the rest of the twelve, was an apostle to Jews only.... In fact, Jesus is not even our spokesman for today! His `target' was the lost sheep of Israel. Matthew 10:5,6.</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464477"></a>Jesus' teachings in the Gospels were geared to the Jews--if they had accepted Him as their Messiah. They killed Him instead--thus the<strong><em> teachings in the Gospels</em></strong> will become the `constitution' <strong><em>when He is on the earth again</em></strong>--however, this time He will enforce those teachings! That is what the Millennium is all about. <strong><em>Unfortunately, most `modern' Christians follow those teachings today</em></strong>--I call them Beatitudinal Christians and a simple reading of the Sermon on the Mount should [show] them that they can NOT live that sermon completely today--no way, not at all--not even close! The stuff in the<strong><em> Sermon on the Mount actually contradicts Paul's teachings</em></strong> in everything from salvation to doctrinal belief! You would think folks would see this--but like Jesus said of them, ye err not knowing the Scriptures...</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464478"></a>So now, let's consider the proper place of <strong><em>Paul</em></strong> in today's New Testament Christianity:</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464479"></a>He is our one and only apostle. Jesus really came to be the Messiah to the Jews! But as they killed Him, we now are the `target' from God....</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464480"></a>Jesus sends us our own apostle to follow--Paul!</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464496"></a>.... <img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html-2.gif" align="RIGHT" />The Apostle <strong><em>Paul</em></strong> instructs us how to live as Christians. He instructs us to do those things we have learned, received, heard, and seen <strong><em>him do</em></strong>.....`Those things, which ye have both learned, and received, and heard, and seen in me, do: and the God of peace shall be with you.' Philippians 4:9.</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464497"></a>If you want to understand the differences associated with the various instructions given in the scriptures (sometimes referred to as `contradictions'), then we must consider what Paul says--any instructions contradicting his writings apply to a group other than the Church--other than the Christian today.</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464498"></a>We shouldn't follow Peter...</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464499"></a>We really <em><strong>shouldn't even follow Jesus' Millennialistic-Gospelic teachings</strong></em>...</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464500"></a><strong><em>We are to follow Paul</em></strong>!</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464501"></a>We shouldn't care what Peter would do!</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464502"></a><strong><em>We shouldn't care what Jesus would do!</em></strong>....</p>
<p class="QuoteExt" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464505"></a>We should <em><strong>only <a name="marker=464504"></a>care WWPD</strong></em> [i.e., What Would Paul Do?]!<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html.html#pgfId=464508" class="footnote"> 24</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464510"></a>What Paulson, a Baptist Pastor, admits is that <a name="marker=464509"></a>Jesus' <a name="marker=464511"></a>Sermon on the Mount contradicts Paul on general doctrines as well as salvation doctrine. Rather than this being proof that Paul is a false apostle, Pastor Paulson sees this as proof that Paul alone is valid for our times. He insists all Jesus' words are invalid until the Millennium. Pastor Paulson says that it is heretical to ask `what would Jesus do' in the era of grace. The only commands to search out are those in Paul's writings. We not only can ignore Jesus' words. We must ignore Jesus' directions and salvation theology. If we follow Jesus' words, Paulson insists we are the heretic! Oh My!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464512"></a>Pastor Paulson is a symptom of a much larger problem. Paulinism is taking over the churches. Jesus' words are being diminished and marginalized. The question of Paul's canonicity thus is becoming more and more urgent to resolve. If we wait too long, it may soon be regarded as heretical to teach anything Jesus taught about salvation or morality.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464513"></a>People's salvation is at risk. People will lose the promise that <a name="marker=464514"></a>Jesus gives them that if you "kept guard" of His word you "should never taste death." (<a name="marker=464515"></a>John 8:51.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464516"></a>If we wait too long to re-examine Paul, John tells us that if anyone accepts any writing that <a name="marker=464517"></a>transgresses a teaching of Jesus Christ, that Christian loses God ("doesn't have God"). John writes in <a name="marker=464518"></a>2 John 1:8-11 (Websters' Bible):</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464519"></a>(8) Watch yourselves, that we [i.e., the twelve apostles] don't lose the things which we have accomplished, but that we receive a full reward. (9) Whoever transgresses [i.e., goes beyond] and <strong><em>doesn't remain in the teaching of Christ</em></strong>, <em><strong>doesn't have God</strong></em> [<em>i.e.</em>, breaks fellowship with God]. He who remains in the teaching [of Jesus Christ], the same has both the Father and the Son.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464520"></a>John clearly warns that if you go beyond and transgress the teachings of Jesus Christ, you do not have God any longer. Yet, if you remain in the teachings of Jesus, you have both Jesus and the Father. <a name="marker=464521"></a>Dispensationalism is precisely what John is warning about. Dispensationalism removes any relevancy to any teaching of Jesus. It is fundamentally misguided. It risks breaking our relationship with God upon which our salvation depends. For what benefit? Just for the opportunity to quote Paul's very different gospel from Jesus Christ? It is not worth the risk.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464522"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015html-1.gif" /></div>
Conclusion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464523"></a>Jesus' words were marginalized by Marcion in 144 A.D. The early church recognized this as heresy. History has repeated itself. Will we recognize Marcionism of today as heresy?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464524"></a>We have to go back to the same solution as used in early Christianity. We could simply republish Against Marcion by Tertullian, and find all the lessons we need. Tertullian re-examined in what sense Paul's words could be read. Tertullian said Paul was not an inspired person, and we have no adequate proof he was even an apostle of Jesus Christ. Tertullian respected Paul and regarded him as edifying. But for Tertullian, his respect for Paul neither proved inspiration nor true apostleship. Can we make this leap and adopt Tertullian's 207 A.D. view of Paul is the true basis upon which Paul was placed in the New Testament? Can we dispense with our comfortable paradigms and return to the early church's view of Paul? Can we finally accept Jesus' Words Only as the true inspired NT canon?</p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464102"></a>For example, not even Luke in Acts mentions Jesus ever said Paul was an apostle.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464113"></a>E.H. Broadbent, <em>The Pilgrim Church</em> (2nd ed.) (London: Pickering &amp; Inglis, 1935) at 15.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464122"></a>Martin Luther, "Preface to the New Testament [1522]," <em>Works of Martin Luther:The Philadelphia Edition</em> (trans. C.M. Jacobs) (Grand Rapids: Baker Book House, 1982) Vol. 6 at 439-444.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464126"></a>Martin Luther, quoted in G.F. Moore, <em>History of Religion</em> (Scribners: 1920) at 320. As Bainton says: "That this doctrine [i.e., faith alone] is not enunciated with equal emphasis throughout the New Testament and appears denied in the Book of James did not escape Luther." (R. Bainton, <em>Here I Stand, supra</em>, at 331.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464134"></a>Martin Luther, "Preface to the New Testament [1522],"<em> Works of Martin Luther: The Philadelphia Edition</em> (trans. C.M. Jacobs) (Grand Rapids: Baker Book House, 1982) Vol. 6 at 439-444 (or 1932 edition at 488-89.) See <em>The Canonicity of the Book of Revelation</em> (2005), available online at www.jesuswordsalone.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464834"></a>Papias (ca. 100 A.D.), Bishop of Hieropolis, is the one witness who unquestionably was an associate of Apostle John. In an ancient text, Exposition of the Oracles of the Lord, which Eusebius frequently cites, we learn in section VIII: "With regard to the inspiration of the book (Revelation), we deem it superfluous to add another word; for the blessed Gregory Theologus and Cyril, and even men of still older date, Papias, Irenaeus, Methodius, and Hippolytus [of Rome], bore entirely satisfactory testimony to it."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464148"></a>[    ]</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464156"></a>Daniel Fuller, "Biblical Theology and the Analogy of Faith," Unity and Diversity in N.T. Theology. E<em>ssays in Honor of George E. Ladd</em> (R. A. Guelich (ed.)) (Eerdmans: 1978) at 195-213.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464164"></a>Kemmel, <em>History of Investigation, supra,</em> at 30.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464186"></a>"German does not have the...progressive mood" (i.e., `is believing'). (http://io.uwinnipeg.ca/~oberle/courses/review.html#The Present Tense.) See also, <em>Simple present or present continuous?</em> at http://www.lingualearn.co.uk/learners/ge/tenses.htm ("As German does not have continuous tenses, you just use the simple present for general statements, habits and future actions as well as present occurrences.") See also German Language Course which explains English has the "Present Progressive," e.g., "are believing" but German "is able to do without the progressive forms." (See, http://www.geocities.com/CollegePark/Hall/1238/intro.html (accessed 2005). The author explains thus "I go and am going would translate the same into German." (Id.) Thus, in German, there is no ending that makes a verb correspond to the Greek present continuous/progressive tense. Instead, in German, the present tense can mean action in the present that continues or does not continue. Thus, unlike Greek, the German present verb tense has no endings to specify one way or the other whether action is one-time or continuous. This may have been a primary reason why Luther could convince others that John's Gospel sounded Pauline. Until Young's Literal, Luther's rendition has dominated all English translations.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464190"></a>The 1611 translators could have used the English Continuous Present ("is believing"). Instead, they arrived at a translation that effaced the original meaning by rendering the Greek for is believing in John 3:16 as believes. In English, this is the Simple Present tense. In this context, it implies a one-time faith saves. This would have been correct if the underlying Greek had been in the aorist tense. However, the Greek was present participle active. (See Appendix A: Greek Issues.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464228"></a>Absent pressure to distort the Sermon, Jesus is teaching salvation principles. Matthew 5:3 et seq. promises the receipt of the kingdom of heaven, mercy, inheriting the earth, and being children of God in return for various behaviors.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464239"></a>http://mb-soft.com/believe/txw/sermonmt.htm (last accessed 5-24-05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464897"></a>The Greek have is echêi. It is in the subjunctive. However, the NIV's translation is defended because it conforms better to salvation supposedly purposed by God based on faith alone. See, Daniel B.Wallace, <em>Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics</em> (Zondervan: 1997) at 461, 473. Wallace claims we may vary the translation where the Divine will is involved, claiming that in such cases, "ina [so that] is used to express both the divine purpose and result." (Id. at 473.) Wallace explains: "The fact that the subjunctive is all but required after <em>ina</em> does not, of course, argue for uncertainty as to the fate of the believer. This fact is obvious, not from this text, but from the use of <em>ou mh</em> in John 10:28 and 11:26, as well as the general theological contours of the gospel of John." What Wallace is doing is claiming <em>ina</em> creates a purpose clause that defeats the subjunctive meaning because we know from doctrine that God guarantees He will achieve His purpose of saving those who believe. (The proof he offers is utterly circular, as we shall see.) No one has ever explained why the purpose conjunction of <em>hina</em> would justify changing <em>should</em> into <em>shall</em>. In Greek, the contingency has actually a purpose of explaining the continuous tense that precedes it. Also, Wallace even concedes that there are over a dozen future indicatives after<em> hina</em> in the New Testament. (His footnote 71.) Thus, Jesus' use of the subjunctive must be deliberate in John 3:16, designed to differentiate the result from a future guaranteed result. Why is Wallace's proof circular? Because for support of the NIV translation, he cites two examples which are more of the same use of subjunctives conditioned on continuous verbs which are mistranslated as if they were future tense. (John 10:28 and 11:26.) Thus, to cite these two passages to support translating should as shall is simply to use the same error in the other verses as proof. That is the essence of circular proof!</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=465115"></a><em>Apeitheo</em> only has one Greek meaning: disobey. (Lidell-Scott.) This is followed in ASV, RSV, NASV, WEB and GNB. Cfr. KJV and Luther's Bible ("not believe"). Why the difference in the KJV &amp; Luther? Because Pauline dictionaries of ancient Greek, while admitting "not believe" is a meaning "not found outside our literature," claim the word apeitheo must mean disbelieve when used in Christian literature. (<em>Greek Lexicon of the New Testament </em>(eds. Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, and Danker) at 82.) But why? Because unless we adopt a Pauline and idiosyncratic meaning `just for us Christians,' then John 3:36 undermines our favorite notions about salvation by faith alone, and our favorite verse to prove it: John 3:16.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464303"></a>John MacArthur, <em>The Gospel According to Jesus</em> (Zondervan 1994) at 33-34.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=464323"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010.#18659" class="XRef"></a>ff.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=464337"></a>Dr. Ryrie points out: "It [covenant theology] was not the expressed doctrine of the early church. It was never taught by church leaders in the Middle Ages. It was not even mentioned by the primary leaders of the Reformation. Indeed, covenant theology as a system is only a little older than dispensationalism....Covenant theology does not appear in the writings of Luther, Zwingli, Calvin, or Melanchthon... There were no references to covenant theology in any of the great confessions of faith until the <a name="marker=464338"></a>Westminster Confession in 1647...." It should be noted that <a name="marker=464339"></a>Agricola was a follower of Luther who taught dispensationalism.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=464705"></a>The Greek text against any oath-taking is a corruption of the original Matthew. George Howard published the Hebrew Matthew which, when differences exist, often show the underlying original text. Here, the Hebrew Matthew reveals a single but crucial word was missing in the Greek translation: the word falsely. A Jewish scholar, Nehemiah Gordon, admires Jesus and shows Jesus' command against any oath would have Jesus contradict Scripture, but the command against falsely taking an oath would be consistent with it. He notes the significant variance in the original Hebrew Matthew that has the word falsely. He then explains how this makes perfect sense in what Jesus says in context about various oaths. Jesus was saying `do not ever testify falsely in an oath, whether taken in Yahweh's name or otherwise.' The Pharisees' doctrine was that a false oath was permissible as long as not in God's name, such as if `by the gold in the Temple.' See Nehemiah Gordon,<em> Hebrew Yeshua v. the Greek Jesus</em> (Jerusalem: 2006).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=464363"></a><a name="13362"></a>Sometimes this is explained as an Israel vs. Christian dispensation. For example, Lewis Spencer Chafer (who founded Dallas Theological Seminary) in He That is Spiritual (rev. ed.)(Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1967) claimed that the dispensation to Israel is distinct from the Christian church. He then contended the era of "pure law" is exclusive of our current era of "pure grace." Thus, before Christ died was the law. Now we are in grace. In the Millennial kingdom, the Law will be restored. In this manner, only Paul's teachings have current validity. The Book of Revelation, with its emphasis on repentance, has no applicability in salvation doctrine until the Millennium. Chafer is wrong on all points. First, as MacArthur says, "both law and grace are part of the program of God in every dispensation." (J. MacArthur, <em>The Gospel According to Jesus, supra</em>, at 31-32.) Furthermore, it is a false dichotomy to separate the church from Israel in dispensations. The New Covenant is with the "House of Judah and Israel." (Jer. 31:31.) We are the Gentiles who, if righteous sojourners, share in that covenant, but we are not the main target of Jeremiah 31:31.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=464380"></a>For more on Stanford (whose doctrine harkens to <a name="marker=464379"></a>Marcion), see his work<em> Pauline Dispensationalism</em> reprinted at http://withchrist.org/MJS/index.htm.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=464404"></a>See Gal. ch. 4, the Jews now correspond to <a name="marker=464403"></a>Ishmael and are cursed to follow the Law in the desert; we are children of grace, freed from bondage to the Law, etc.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=464457"></a>John MacArthur, <em>The Gospel According to Jesus</em> (Zondervan: 1994) at 33. <a name="marker=464458"></a>MacArthur does not share my view of Paul. Instead, he tries valiantly to claim his view of Jesus' gospel is consistent with Paul. To do this, MacArthur argues that "<a name="marker=464459"></a>repentance" (which Jesus preached) is no more a work than faith. However, because MacArthur defines repentance as "active submission" to Jesus (id., at 34, 113), it just cannot wash with Paul. I tried that path myself. I found Paul is just too plain-speaking. For example, in <a name="marker=464461"></a>Romans 4:4, Paul says if salvation is by works then it would be by a "debt." Paul then clearly says in <a name="marker=464462"></a>Romans 4:5: "But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is reckoned for righteousness." Clearly Paul is excluding all kinds of effort, including active submission. <a name="marker=464463"></a>Paul thus eschews repentance from sin as part of salvation. By doing so, Paul clearly contradicts Jesus.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=464508"></a>The sermon quoted is entitled <em>WWJD v. WWPD</em>? and is reprinted at http://www.touchet1611.org/PeterPaulMary2.html (last visited 2005).</p>
<p class="Footnote">2012 Update: the trend to ask What would Paul Do? (WWPD) has not disappeared. One church glories in it ... solely asking '<a href="http://www.ourchurch.com/member/w/WWPD/">What would Paul do?</a>" to answer all kinds of issues. They have a WWPD newsletter. And a Paul page. This is Paulinism on steroids!</p>
<p class="Footnote">One blogger Jared defends ignoring Jesus and only heeding Paul on <a href="http://jaredtotten.blogspot.com/2011/03/what-would-paul-do.html">March 13, 2011</a>:</p>
<p class="Footnote"> </p>
<h3 itemprop="name" class="post-title entry-title">What Would Paul Do?</h3>
<div class="post-header">
<div class="post-header-line-1"></div>
</div>
<p>I was thinking about WWJD bracelets today (don't ask me how I got there) and I suddenly realized that, in so many instances, that question is irrelevant, verging on incoherent. Almost like asking, "What would my iPad do?" Jesus, while human, was (and is) also God and that makes the position from which he did and said everything completely <span>other</span>.</p>
<p><br /><span>You see, I've been reading the Gospels a lot in the past two years and, as I take a mental inventory of all that Jesus did in his three years of ministry, I can't do most of it. For instance, Jesus forgave sin. Yet he affirmed the protestation from the Pharisees that only God can forgive sin. Jesus healed and even raised people from the dead. My track record in those two columns is nil. Jesus preached and spoke with authority, as one from God. Jesus walked on water. Turned water into wine. Cleared the temple. Fed thousands with a Lunch-able. You get my point.</span></p>
<p><span></span><br /><span>So I was thinking—as heretical as this sounds—that a better question to ask yourself as a Christian is simply "What would Paul do?"</span></p>
<p>So perhaps "WWPD?" is too near-heretical to be beneficial for most Christians. But I would suggest that there<strong><em> are better alternatives to WWJD that actually have biblically grounded answers we can directly apply to our lives.</em></strong> Try this one on for size: "Based on the Gospel, what would Jesus have me do?" So, does anyone want to buy a BOTG,WWJHMD? bracelet?</p>
<p>NOTES</p>
<p>Tekton Walvoord</p>
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<td valign="top" ><span id="en-NLT-13599" class="text Job-31-34">Have I feared the crowd </span><span class="indent-1"><span class="text Job-31-34">or the contempt of the masses, </span></span><span class="indent-1"><span class="text Job-31-34">so that I kept quiet and stayed indoors? (Job 31:34 NLT)</span></span></td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Sixteen: Long Tradition of JWO and Minimization of Paul</h2>
<h3><strong>Introduction</strong></h3>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464097"></a>The oldest tradition in the church relied upon Jesus' Words Only (JWO) as the test of orthodoxy. In the period of 125 A.D. to 325 A.D., after the twelve apostles were gone, the church faced the crisis of <a name="marker=464098"></a>Marcion (144 A.D.). He claimed only Paul had the true gospel. Marcion insisted the teachings of the twelve, particularly in the gospel of Matthew and John, did not reflect the true gospel. Marcion thus forced the early church to speak out on the issue of Paul's authority compared to the words of Christ from the twelve. <a name="marker=464099"></a>Tertullian was the early church's spokesperson on Marcion. In<em> <a name="marker=464100"></a>Against Marcion</em> (207 A.D.), Tertullian clarified that Paul was inferior to the twelve. Tertullian insisted Paul cannot be permitted to contradict Jesus' words in the Gospels of Matthew and John. (Tertullian put Luke's and Mark's gospels a notch below the apostolic gospels of Matthew and John.) Tertullian also said Paul's claim to being an apostle was unsupported by any corroborating witness. Tertullian's cautions about Paul were an important basis upon which the early church defeated Marcionism.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464101"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html-1.gif" /></div>
Early Church Believed in Jesus' Words Only</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464102"></a>First, the Jesus' Words Only (JWO) perspective was the initial view of the church. <a name="marker=464103"></a>JWO as a standard for orthodoxy was used long before any official canon was proposed in the late 300s. Daniel Lieuwen, a researcher-writer from the Orthodox church tradition, explains in his work The Emergence of the New Testament Canon (1995): "Initially, only the life and sayings of Christ were considered of equal authority with the Old Testament scriptures."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464106" class="footnote"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464107"></a>Lieuwen gives several proof texts. For example, <a name="marker=464108"></a>Hegessipus in the first half of the second century said <a name="marker=464109"></a>canon was only "the Law, the Prophets, and the Lord"; to this alone "a right faith must conform."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464112" class="footnote"> 2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464114"></a>The early church leaders (e.g., <a name="marker=464113"></a>Tertullian) simultaneously were saying that Paul's message was deemed inferior to those Gospel accounts of Jesus' life and teachings. Thus, orthodoxy focused on the words of Jesus from the Gospels. Jesus' words were the test of orthodoxy. The early church, through Tertullian in 207 A.D., said Paul's teachings were below these gospel accounts. In particular, Paul's words were inferior to the gospels of Matthew and John. If there was any conflict between these gospel accounts and Paul's teachings, Tertullian said we were to prefer Matthew and John over Paul. Thus, JWO has the longest support in Christendom. It also is the most common-sense position to take on determining what is orthodox. If Paul cannot be reconciled to the words of Christ, we do not bend Jesus' words to fit Paul. Rather, all of Jesus' teachings must be given precedence regardless of the impact on Pauline doctrine. Jesus must not be marginalized to fit Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464115"></a>We shall explore the history behind JWO and its rationale in the next two sections.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464117"></a>
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<a name="37629"></a>The Earliest Canon of the Ebionites Excludes Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464118"></a>The first canon list was prepared by The Poor, otherwise known as the <a name="marker=464119"></a>Ebionites. (See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464120"></a>As explained in Appendix B, sometime around 64 A.D., the <a name="marker=464121"></a>Ebionites developed a canon that only included Matthew in its Hebrew original. They specifically excluded Paul's writings. As to Paul, the Ebionites made a blatant claim that Paul's words were heretically contrary to those of the Lord Jesus. Thus, Paul must be excluded, they said. We can infer their simple canon list was created around 64 A.D. because (a) Paul's writings existed and were circulating at that point and (b) the Ebionites do not comment positively or negatively on the inclusion of Mark, Luke or John's Gospel (or any other epistle, for that matter). These works date from 65 A.D. onward. Presumably these writings did not exist when the Ebionites declared the Hebrew Matthew was canon, and Paul was to be excluded.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a>Incidentally, the existence of this <a name="marker=464122"></a>Hebrew version of Matthew comes as a surprise to some Christians. However, its existence is confirmed by numerous ancient sources, including <a name="marker=464124"></a>Jerome who made a complete translation of the Hebrew Matthew which later was lost. (Jerome was the translator of the Latin Vulgate released 405 A.D.) The same ancient sources say a Hebrew version of Matthew was later translated into Greek, and it is this translation which ended up in our New Testament.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464127" class="footnote"> 3</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464128"></a>In sum, the Ebionites insisted that this Hebrew Matthew was the canon at that time. All of Paul's writings had to be excluded as uninspired, the Ebionites claimed. (For more details, see Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>Thus, the Ebionites were the first to insist Jesus' words alone were canon. They excluded Paul. In fact, the Ebionites were the first to propose a canon.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464134"></a>
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<a name="42229"></a>Tertullian (207 A.D.) Says Paul Is Inferior</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464135"></a>In the period after the apostles from 125 to 325 A.D., Paul's views on salvation were held in very low esteem by the orthodox leaders of Christianity. It is true we can find Paul is cited as an authority by the early leaders, such as Tertullian, Origen, etc. We even can find some leaders such as Polycarp were effusive, calling Paul "glorious." Yet, they never expressly say Paul is a prophet. They never say Paul has specific prophecies that would put him on par with Jeremiah, Isaiah, Ezekiel or Jesus. Nor do they ever teach Paul's faith-alone (i.e., without works) doctrine is the valid test for salvation. The early church (125-325 A.D.) always found a way to fit Paul into what Jesus says, as recorded by the twelve.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464137"></a>In fact, <a name="marker=464136"></a>Tertullian, a well-respected Christian lawyer and apologist for the faith, wrote in 207 A.D. <a name="marker=464138"></a>Against Marcion. This work was to attack the rising influence of <a name="marker=464139"></a>Marcion. The Marcionites, beginning about 144 A.D., claimed that only Paul had the true gospel. Marcion claimed the books of Matthew, Mark, and John contradicted Paul's gospel. Marcion only accepted a shortened version of Luke's gospel as valid. As a result of Marcionism, the issue of Paul's level of authority had to be resolved by the apostolic churches. The apostolic church had to answer whether Marcion's emphasis on Paul was valid. (See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464140"></a>In response, Tertullian in 207 A.D. made several points in Against Marcion that clearly reduce Paul to a completely marginal figure.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464141"></a>First, as discussed below, Tertullian proves that Paul is inferior to the twelve apostles. Paul had to submit to their authority in Acts chapter 15. Second, Tertullian said there is no evidence other than Paul's own word that Jesus made Paul an apostle. Luke's account in Acts omits any evidence for this key claim of Paul that he was an apostle of Jesus Christ.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464142"></a>Lastly, one by one, Tertullian tears apart Marcion's doctrines of total depravity, predestination, salvation by faith alone, and eternal security. On this second cluster of issues, Tertullian never identifies what verses in Paul that Marcion is citing. However, we all know what they were. We can hear in Tertullian's paraphrase of Marcion's ideas the ring of Paul's doctrines. Tertullian is silent on where these specific ideas of Marcion derive, but they are all too familiar to us.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464143"></a>But first, let's provide a little more background on Marcion and the rival church system he founded. Here was the first splinter group within Christianity.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464145"></a><a name="10166"></a>Background on Marcionism</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464146"></a>In 144 A.D., one particular ex-bishop of the church named <a name="marker=464147"></a>Marcion proclaimed three core teachings:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464148"></a>Salvation-by-faith alone. "The Good [God of the NT] redeems those who believe in Him but He does not judge those who are disobedient to him." (Marcion, <em>Antitheses </em>#19.)(See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203.#35003" class="XRef"></a>.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a>The Law was not given by God the Father and could be disregarded; and</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a>Jesus did not come in sinful human flesh but only appeared to have a body of human flesh.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a>Marcion relied upon Paul exclusively for doctrine. He rejected any of the Gospels written by the twelve apostles. Marcion claimed they were written solely for Jews. In a sense, he was simultaneously Dispensational and Sola Scriptura. His claim that Paul alone had the correct gospel dispensation allowed Marcion to shuffle aside any of the apostles' writings as unimportant if they did not match Paul's gospel. (Appendix B: How the Canon was Formed at <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#16930" class="XRef"></a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a>We have seen previously that Paul indeed taught:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a>Salvation by faith alone. (Romans 4:4; <a name="marker=464155"></a>Ephesians 2:8-9.) Even unrepentant disobedient Christians (committing incest) are saved. (1 Cor. 5:5.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a>The Law of Moses was given to Moses by angels who are "not gods" and no obedience to the Law was therefore necessary. (Galatians 3:17; <a name="marker=464159"></a>3:19-29, <a name="marker=464160"></a>Gal. 4:8-9.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a>Jesus only appeared to come in sinful human flesh (<a name="marker=464164"></a>Romans 8:3) and Jesus only appeared to be a man (Philippians 2:7).</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464170"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464171"></a>Yet, despite Paul teaching the three core teachings of Marcion, Marcion was rejected universally by the post-apostolic church leaders.<a name="marker=464172"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464173"></a>Marcion was a serious threat to the survival of Christianity. Marcion had created a church system, with many churches. Marcionite churches had bishops and teachers. Marcion's church was in almost every land and community. Some believe in certain cities there were more Marcionites than orthodox Christians. The<em> Encyclopedia Brittanica</em> in "Marcion" reflects this understanding:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464174"></a>The Marcionite sect, highly ascetic and celibate, grew rapidly until it was second in strength only to the original church; it had churches and an episcopal hierarchy and practiced the sacraments of baptism and the Eucharist... Marcion rejected the Old Testament and almost all of the New Testament...<strong><em> basing his teachings on ten of the Epistles of St. Paul</em></strong> and on an altered version of the Gospel of Luke... Marcionism flourished in the West until about the 4th century....</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464175"></a>Thus, Tertullian was the voice of orthodoxy. He was the most prominent voice in the cause against Marcion. Tertullian's words must have been crucial to defeat Marcionism.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a>What was the main point of Tertullian's attack on Marcion? As we shall see, Tertullian primarily attacks Marcion for his undue reliance on Paul. Paul's apostleship is dubious, Tertullian explains. Likewise, Tertullian believed Paul was not an authority on par with the twelve apostles. If Paul contradicts the twelve, Paul's words are not to be followed. When Tertullian wants to isolate those contradictions, Tertullian is circumspect. Tertullian finds flaws in Pauline doctrines without citing Paul as the source of Marcion's wrong ideas. However, we can recognize Paul's words in Marcion's mouth.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464178"></a>Another major vulnerability of <a name="marker=464177"></a>Marcion exploited by Tertullian was Marcion's theological explanation why the Law did not have to be followed. Marcion must have realized that Paul's claim that the Law was given by angels was unsound Biblically. So Marcion devised what he regarded as a better reason to prove the Law of Moses was invalid. What was this?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464179"></a>Marcion had a very elaborate and well-defended view why the Law was invalid, set forth in his Antitheses.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464182" class="footnote"> 4</a> Marcion claimed that the God of the `Old Testament' could not be the God of the New. Jesus is God, and the Father is God, but both are kindly and loving. Marcion sought to prove the creator God of the Old is a different type of God: mean, willing to do evil, sometimes unsure of His aims, repenting of plans or actions, etc.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464183"></a>Marcion's exposition raises `Old Testament' verses that have perplexed many theologians to this day. Yet, Marcion's solution exposed him to the charge of polytheism. He claimed one member of the Godhead had a distinct and different nature from the other two.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464184"></a>Tertullian had a field day with this claim of Marcion. The Marcionites were vigorously persecuted as heretics, but not simply for this polytheistic flaw. Tertullian in Against Marcion relied on much more than this. Tertullian's primary defense of Christ was based on lifting up Jesus' words in the Gospels above Paul, thereby defeating the core doctrines of Marcion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464185"></a>Based on Tertullian's work, the apostolic churches defeated Marcionism. The Marcionites early Paul-only-ism almost swallowed the church. Yet, the early church bravely fought back and survived. Marcionism took almost three hundred years to be defeated within Christianity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464186"></a>In fact, Marcionism--despite being crippled by the 300s--had a strong fascination for centuries thereafter. Paul-only-ism lived on within the fringe of Christianity. This was because the <a name="marker=464187"></a>Marcionite churches had entered Armenia early on. They re-emerged as a force in Armenia in the eighth century. Their Christian opponents labelled them <a name="marker=464188"></a>Paulicians because of their adherence to Paul. Eventually they spread to Bulgaria and Turkey. The Paulicians claimed: (a) only Paul's gospel is the true gospel; (b) salvation is by faith alone; (c) the gospels Matthew, Mark and John had to be eliminated as canon; and (d) there is to be selective receipt of Luke's gospel account. This was unmistakably similar to the core doctrines of Marcion. In 844, the <a name="marker=464189"></a>Paulicians took control of a state in Turkey and became a military power. In 871, they were defeated by Emperor Basil I of Byzantium. The Eastern Orthodox treated the Paulicians as heretics. Yet, the Paulicians survived into the twelfth century.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464192" class="footnote"><sup>5</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464193"></a>Thus, Marcionism remained a persistent force within Christianity from 144 A.D. to the 1200s. Yet, in all this time, they were always viewed universally as heretics.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464194"></a>What cannot be ignored is that in Marcionism, we have the first representatives of what today would otherwise pass as an evangelical Protestant sect. Even Marcion's view of the `God of the Old' versus the `God of the New' appears today in the repackaged form of dispensational theology. The virtue of modern dispensationalism is that it does not expose the advocate to an accusation of polytheism. Instead, it only exposes the advocate to the charge that God changes His nature in time.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464195"></a>Thus, Marcion forced the early church to weigh modern Pauline theology. Yet, the post-apostolic church of 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. clearly rejected Marcion and his Pauline theology.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464196"></a>
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Tertullian Demonstrates Paul is Inferior to the Other Apostles</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464198"></a>In Book 4, chapter 2 of Tertullian's <a name="marker=464197"></a>Against Marcion (ca. 207 A.D.), Tertullian clearly says <a name="marker=464199"></a>Paul's authority is inferior to that of the twelve apostles. Tertullian explains Paul's gospel is only valid so long as it is consistent with Jesus and the twelve.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464200"></a>First, Tertullian starts out by emphasizing the priority of the gospels written by the actual <a name="marker=464201"></a>twelve apostles, namely the gospels of Matthew and John. Those of Luke and Mark were inferior because they were produced merely by disciples of their teachers. Later Tertullian identifies Luke and Mark as "apostolic men," but not apostles. Tertullian writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a>I lay it down to begin with that the documents of the gospel have the apostles for their authors, and that this task of promulgating the gospel was imposed upon them by our Lord himself. If they also have for their authors apostolic men [<em>i.e.</em>, Luke and Mark], yet these stand not alone, but as <strong><em>companions of apostles or followers of apostles</em></strong>: because the preaching of disciples [i.e., Luke or Mark] might be made suspect of the desire of vainglory, unless there stood by it the authority of their teachers [<em>i.e.</em>, the twelve apostles], or rather the authority of Christ, which made the apostles teachers. In short, from among the apostles<strong><em> the faith is introduced to us by John and by Matthew</em></strong>, while from among <em><strong>apostolic men</strong></em> Luke and Mark give it renewal, &lt;all of them&gt; beginning with the same rules &lt;of belief&gt;, as far as relates to the one only God, the Creator, and to his Christ, born of a virgin, the fulfillment of the law and the prophets.****Marcion seems to have singled out Luke for his mutilating process <em>[i.e.,</em> writing a gospel apparently based on Luke but altering it].<strong><em> Luke, however, was not an apostle,</em></strong> but only an<strong><em> apostolic man</em></strong>; not a master, but a disciple, and so<strong><em> inferior to a master</em></strong>....<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464205" class="footnote"> 6</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464206"></a>This unquestionably puts Luke below the other Gospels of Matthew and John. Thus, Tertullian was saying that (a) to the extent Marcion is using Luke legitimately then (b) <a name="marker=464207"></a>Luke is still inferior to the gospel accounts of Matthew and John.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464208"></a>Tertullian's view of Luke's Gospel as subordinate to Matthew has de facto been accepted by conservative Christians today, as we must. Otherwise<a name="marker=464209"></a>Luke has Jesus uttering a command to "hate your" mother and father which is contrary to prior Scripture.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464213" class="footnote"> 7</a> Matthew's account of the same exchange materially differs. Jesus' command in Matthew is consistent with Scripture, saying we cannot "love more" our mother and father than Jesus. (<a name="marker=464214"></a>Matt. 10:37.) Thus, today it is recognized that Luke is inferior to Matthew or John when there is a conflict, just as Tertullian teaches.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464218" class="footnote"> 8</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a>The reason Tertullian is mentioning Luke is inferior to Matthew and John is that <a name="marker=464220"></a>Marcion's gospel narrative of Jesus' life reads very close to the Gospel according to Luke. Tertullian is thus suggesting that Luke's Gospel is the source of Marcion's gospel account of Jesus' life. Tertullian is then saying that to the extent Marcion's gospel account was written by Luke, it is not as authoritative as either Matthew or John. The latter were apostles of Jesus. Luke was not.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464221"></a>Next, Tertullian discusses the possibility that Marcion is claiming Paul wrote this proto-Luke gospel. Scholars believe Tertullian was not merely hypothesizing. They believe that Marcion indeed was claiming Paul wrote proto-Luke. Whatever the truth, Tertullian is going to discuss what would be the authority of a gospel narrative of Jesus' life even if it were written by Paul as compared to narratives written by Matthew or John. We are going to get to a key issue: would such a gospel narrative written by Paul be on par with a gospel written by Matthew or John? Tertullian answers no, thereby demonstrating a lower regard for Paul than the twelve, in particular lower than the writings of Matthew and John.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464222"></a>Tertullian's quote below continues from the last quote above. In this next quote, Tertullian starts out by making clear that<a name="marker=464223"></a>Luke is inferior to the other apostles' gospel because Luke's Master (Teacher) was Paul, and Paul was a "lesser" apostle than the twelve. Tertullian then explains Paul (a) could not come with another gospel than the twelve and (b) Paul's authority derived from the twelve and Paul was inferior to them. He cites Acts chapter 15 as proof. Tertullian explains:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464224"></a>Now Luke was not an apostle but an apostolic man, not a master but a disciple, in any case<em><strong> less than his master [i.e., Paul]</strong></em>, and assuredly even more <strong>of lesser account</strong> as being the<strong><em> follower of a later apostle, Paul,</em></strong><a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464227" class="footnote"> 9</a> to be sure: so that even if Marcion had introduced his gospel under the name of Paul in person, that<strong><em> one single document would not be adequate for our faith, if destitute of the support of his [i.e., Paul's] predecessors</em></strong> [the twelve apostles]. For we should demand the production of that gospel also which Paul found &lt;in existence&gt;, that to which he gave his assent, that with which shortly afterwards he was anxious that his own should agree: for his intention in going up to Jerusalem to know and to consult the apostles, was lest perchance he had run in vain--that is, lest perchance he had not believed as they did, or were not preaching the gospel in their manner. At length, when he [i.e., Paul] had conferred with the original &lt;apostles&gt;, and there was agreement concerning the rule of the faith, they joined the right hands &lt;of fellowship&gt;....If he [i.e., Paul] therefore who gave the light to Luke chose to have his pre-decessors' authority [i.e., the twelve] for his faith as well as his preaching, much more must I require for Luke's gospel the authority [i.e., from the twelve] which was necessary for the gospel of his master [i.e., <a name="marker=464228"></a>Paul].<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464231" class="footnote"> 10</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464232"></a>Tertullian could not be more clear. Paul's authority was not recognized as direct from Jesus or by revelation. It only derived from Paul's recognition by the twelve apostles. He was their disciple, and they were Paul's masters. If Paul created a gospel text, Tertullian responds that Paul's conduct in Acts chapter 15 reveals Paul's authority could not exceed the words and guidance of the twelve. Paul was not allowed to run beyond the teaching of Christ that the twelve had. Thus, if Paul was Luke's source for his gospel, then Luke's gospel still must be consistent with the apostolic canon of Matthew and John or otherwise it is invalid. This means that for Tertullian, Paul was not free to utter doctrines that were inconsistent with the gospels of Matthew or John.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464234"></a>
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<a name="25630"></a>Tertullian Questions In What Sense Paul Was An Apostle</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464235"></a>Tertullian is not through analyzing Paul's authority within the New Testament church. Tertullian even gets to the issue in what sense Paul was an apostle of Jesus. Tertullian in Book 5 of Against Marcion remarks that there is actually no proof in the gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke or John that Paul was made an<a name="marker=464236"></a>apostle. It is solely Paul's word. Tertullian says that if we are forced to admit any contradiction between Paul and the twelve, we must abide in the words from the twelve. (Tertullian never admits a contradiction, and seeks to harmonize Paul, as discussed later. Thus Tertullian further on "claims him as my own," robbing Paul from Marcion.) Here is Tertullian in book 5, chapter one, of Against Marcion:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464237"></a>I desire to hear from Marcion the <strong><em>origin of Paul the apostle</em></strong>. I am a sort of new disciple, having had instruction from no other teacher. For the moment my only belief is that nothing ought to be believed with-out good reason, and that is believed without good reason which is believed without knowledge of its origin: and I must with the best of reasons <strong><em>approach this inquiry with uneasiness when I find one affirmed to be an apostle, of whom in the list of the apostles in the gospel I find no trace</em></strong>. So when I am told that he [i.e., Paul] was subsequently promoted by our Lord, by now at rest in heaven, <strong><em>I find some lack of foresight in the fact that Christ did not know beforehand that he would have need of him</em></strong>, but after setting in order the office of apostleship and sending them out upon their duties, considered it necessary, on an impulse and not by deliberation, to add another, by compulsion so to speak and not by design <em>[i.e</em>., on the Road to Damascus]. So then, shipmaster out of Pontus [i.e., Marcion],<strong><em> supposing you have never accepted into your craft any smuggled or illicit merchandise</em></strong>, have never appropriated or adulterated any cargo, and in the things of God are even more careful and trustworthy, will you<em><strong> please tell us under what bill of lading you accepted Paul as apostle, who had stamped him with that mark of distinction, who commended him to you, and who put him in your charge</strong></em>? Only so may you with confidence disembark him [i.e., Paul]: only so can he avoid being proved to belong to him who has put in evidence all the documents that attest his apostleship. He [i.e.,<em><strong> Paul] himself, says Marcion, claims to be an apostle</strong></em>, and that not from men nor through any man, but through Jesus Christ. Clearly <strong><em>any man can make claims for himself: but his claim is confirmed by another person's attestation</em></strong>. One person writes the document, another signs it, a third attests the signature, and a fourth enters it in the records.<strong><em> No man is for himself both claimant and witness</em></strong>. Besides this, you have found it written that many will come and say, I am Christ. If there is one that makes <strong><em>a false claim to be Christ, much more can there be one who professes that he is an apostle of Christ</em></strong>. Thus far my converse has been in the guise of a disciple and an inquirer: from now on I propose to shatter your confidence, for<strong><em> you have no means of proving its validity</em></strong>, and to shame your presumption, since you make claims but reject the means of establishing them. Let Christ, let the apostle, belong to your other god: yet you have no proof of it except from the Creator's archives.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464238"></a>****[You may argue:] `And do you then deny that Paul is an apostle?' I speak no evil against him whom I retain for myself. If I deny, it is to force you to prove. If I deny, it is to enforce my claim that he is mine. Otherwise, if you have your eye on our belief, accept the evidence on which it depends. If you challenge us to adopt yours, tell us the facts on which it is founded. Either prove that the things you believe really are so: or else, if you have no proof, how can you believe?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464241" class="footnote"> 11</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a><a name="marker=464242"></a>Tertullian is emphasizing that the story in Acts is a dubious credential for Paul, if one is objective. Why must Jesus have belatedly thought to add a thirteenth apostle? Was God pressured to pick someone who was attacking the church and could not have planned this out better? Is this the best credential that Paul can come up with? Tertullian says we would precisely suspect <a name="marker=464244"></a>Paul to be a <a name="marker=464245"></a>false apostle because Jesus <a name="marker=464246"></a>warned us that many would come in his name but be false prophets. Tertullian refers to the "many false prophets who will come and say `I am [of] Christ.'" (Luke 21:8.) Finally, Tertullian says Paul is basically the only witness for his own apostleship, and that is invalid. (See John 5:31.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464247"></a>Tertullian then says in the quote above that he asks all these hard questions to force <a name="marker=464248"></a>Marcion to prove Paul's authority apart from the twelve. Tertullian says Paul's authority is valid only to the extent it derives from the apostolic twelve and their teaching. There is no unique authority that Paul can ever have apart from the twelve, as Marcion was claiming.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464249"></a>Tertullian then goes on to prove that Paul is "his apostle" but only by Tertullian's elaborate effort to prove Paul does not contradict the twelve (i.e., Matthew and John). Tertullian's arguments in the balance of Book 5 of <em>Against Marcion</em> (as well as in Book I) reveal efforts to save Paul as the source of edifying material by harmonizing him with Jesus, as we shall see in the next section.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464250"></a>Furthermore, elsewhere Tertullian denies that Paul had any experience in his heavenly visions that would allow him to contradict the Gospel message. Some were apparently claiming in Tertullian's day, as they do now, that Paul received ongoing revelations by being taken up into the third heaven where Paul heard "unspeakable" mysteries. Then some argued these visions give Paul a priority over the apostolic accounts of Matthew and John. Paul could give contrary principles to what Matthew or John said because Jesus gave Paul a subsequent revelation. Tertullian disagreed:<a name="pgfId=464751"></a></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464251"></a>Now, although Paul was carried away even to the third heaven, and was caught up to paradise [implied in 2 Cor. 12:4], and heard certain revelations there, yet these cannot possibly seem to have qualified him for (teaching) another doctrine, seeing that their very nature [<em>i.e</em>., they were `unspeakable'] was such as to render them communicable to no human being.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464254" class="footnote"><sup>12</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464255"></a>In conclusion, Tertullian's statements in Against Marcion and Prescription Against Heretics completely marginalized the status of Paul. The church was being forced to examine Paul's credentials. Tertullian found them wanting. Yet, Tertullian was not through.</p>
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Tertullian Criticizes Every Pauline Doctrine of Marcion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464257"></a>Tertullian throughout Against Marcion shows how Marcion's understanding of<a name="marker=464258"></a>Paul does not square with reason, Jesus, or Paul himself. Tertullian's approach is typically "Paul says this," but `you Marcion do not understand.' However, in a stretch of four chapters beginning at chapter 23 to chapter 27 of Book One, Tertullian does a 180 degree turn. He discusses doctrines of <a name="marker=464259"></a>Marcion which come from Paul but Tertullian never mentions Paul. Then Tertullian crushes each doctrine in turn. The interesting thing is that each of these doctrines were unquestionably Pauline. However, Tertullian no longer could attack Marcion for taking Paul out of context or misunderstanding him. These topics that Tertullian attacked in chapters 23 through 27 were: salvation by faith alone, eternal security, predestination and total depravity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464260"></a>What was Tertullian's method in this regard? Instead of quoting Paul or using clearly Pauline verbiage, and then explaining his `true meaning,' Tertullian simply destroyed the substance behind all of Paul's major doctrines. Tertullian did so with logic and reason deduced from the nature of God revealed in Scripture. Paulinists today might not accept these deductions because Tertullian does not use our modern `citation' method to refute a point. However, the issue I am raising here is not to ask you to agree with Tertullian. Rather I ask you to acknowledge that the very early church was proving as heresy everything that Paulinists emphasize today as valid.</p>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464262"></a>Tertullian on <a name="marker=464261"></a>Predestination: Is Double Predestination Fair? Can Marcion's God Be Truly Good If He Thwarts Salvation In The Greater Part of Humanity?</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464263"></a>"Now, when the greater part thus perish, how can that goodness [of God] be defended as a perfect one which is inoperative in most cases, is somewhat only in few, naught in many, succumbs to perdition, and is a partner with destruction [<em>i.e</em>., wills the lost to perdition]? And if so many shall miss salvation, it will not be with goodness, but with malignity, that the greater perfection will lie. For as it is the operation of goodness which brings salvation, so is it malevolence which thwarts it [i.e., if it is goodness of God that predestines salvation, Marcion must imply it is evil in God that intentionally thwarts it]." (<a name="marker=464264"></a>Against Marcion 1.24.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464267" class="footnote"> 13</a></li>
</ul>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464269"></a>Tertullian on <a name="marker=464268"></a>Total Depravity and Justification of the Ungodly Rather than the Righteous: Why Would God Capriciously Grant Salvation On Enemies Rather than Prefer Those Who Love Him and Are Righteous?</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464270"></a>"Now I deny that the goodness of Marcion's god is rational, on this account first, because it proceeded to the <a name="marker=464271"></a>salvation of a human creature which was alien to him [i.e., an enemy not seeking Him.] [I omit here T.'s discussion on limits to love of enemies principle.]....Since, therefore, the first step in the reasonableness of the divine goodness is that it displays itself on its proper object in righteousness [i.e., a person seeking God and to please Him, not an enemy], and only at its second stage on an alien object by a redundant righteousness over and above that of scribes and Pharisees [i.e., apply kindness, not salvation, to enemies], how comes it to pass that the second is attributed to him [i.e., salvation for enemies] who fails in the first [i.e., salvation for those who are not enemies], not having man for his proper object, and who makes his goodness on this very account defective? Moreover, how could a defective benevolence, which had no proper object whereon to expend itself, overflow on an alien one? Clear up the first step, and then vindicate the next....Suppose now the divine goodness begin at the second stage of its rational operation, that is to say, on the stranger [i.e., salvation for them], this second stage will not be consistent in rationality if it be impaired in any way else. For only then will even the second stage of goodness, that which is displayed towards the stranger, be accounted rational, when it operates without wrong to him who has the first claim [i.e., preference to save enemies/strangers is wrong if it neglects those who are seeking God]. It is righteousness which before everything else makes all goodness rational. It will thus be rational in its principal stage, when manifested on its proper object, if it be righteous. And thus, in like manner, it will be able to appear rational, when displayed towards the stranger, if it be not unrighteous. But what sort of goodness is that which is manifested in wrong, and that in behalf of an alien creature? For peradventure a benevolence, even when operating injuriously, might be deemed to some extent rational, if exerted for one of our own house and home. By what rule, however, can an unjust benevolence, displayed on behalf of a stranger, to whom not even an honest one is legitimately due, be defended as a rational one? (Tertullian, <em>Against Marcion</em> 1.23.) <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464274" class="footnote"><sup>14</sup></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464286"></a></p>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464894"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html-2.gif" align="RIGHT" />Is It True If God Be In You, and You Pay Him Homage, That God Will Never Inflict Punishment? Should We Never Fear God? Didn't Jesus Threaten to Throw The Sinner Outside Mean Loss of Salvation for a Sinning Christian? (<a name="marker=464287"></a>Refutation of Eternal Security.)</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464288"></a>"Listen, ye sinners; and ye who have not yet come to this, hear, that you may attain to such a pass! A better god has been discovered [n.b., T. is mocking Marcion], who never takes offence, is never angry, <em><strong>never inflicts punishment</strong></em>, who has prepared no fire in hell, no gnashing of teeth in the outer darkness! He is purely and simply good. He indeed forbids all delinquency, but only in word. He is in you, if you are willing to pay him<a name="marker=464289"></a>homage....the Marcionites with such pretences, that they have<em><strong> no fear of their god at all</strong></em>. They say it is only a bad man who will be feared, a good man will be loved. Foolish man, do you say that he whom you call Lord ought not to be feared, whilst the very title you give him indicates a power which must itself be feared? But how are you going to love, without some fear that you do not love?...Still more vainly do they act, who when asked, What is to become of every sinner in that great day? reply, that <strong><em>he is to be cast away out of sight</em></strong>. Is not even this a question of judicial determination? He is adjudged to deserve rejection, and that by a sentence of condemnation; unless the sinner is cast away forsooth for his salvation, that even a leniency like this may fall inconsistently with the character of your most good and excellent god! And what will it be to be cast away, but to lose that which a man was in the way of obtaining, <strong><em>were it not for his rejection-that is, his salvation</em></strong>? Therefore his being cast away will involve the forfeiture of salvation; and this sentence cannot possibly be passed upon him, except by an angry and offended authority, who is also the punisher of sin--that is, by a judge." (Tertullian, <em>Against Marcion</em>, 1.27.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464292" class="footnote"> 15</a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464295"></a>Thus, Tertullian crushed all the core teachings of Paulinism in our day. Tertullian was not alone. This was the standard viewpoint of the early post-apostolic church from 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. One can never find the slightest agreement in this period with eternal security, total depravity, predestination, bondage of the will, or salvation by faith alone (i.e., repentance/works are not necessary). Instead, all were rejected universally and expressly, as we will next review.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464297"></a>
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<a name="34087"></a>Patristic Era (125-325 A.D.) Rejected Paul's Salvation Doctrine</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465310"></a>Jesus' Words Only was the earliest post-apostolic standard of orthodoxy. The era that predates the Roman Catholic period is traditionally called the Patristic era. It spans 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. In this period, the bishop of Rome was just one of many bishops competing for influence within a loose fraternity of bishops in all major cities of the Mediterranean world. It is in that period we find church leaders, traditionally called the fathers, who are setting forth the earliest doctrines of churches founded by the twelve apostles. (This is why it is called the Patristic Era.) They thereby serve as a witness of what the twelve apostles likely must have been teaching. A universal consensus from this early period would be a particularly compelling proof that a teaching had an origin with the twelve apostles.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464299"></a>What was the position of the early church leaders on salvation? Was it Pauline?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464301"></a>David <a name="marker=464300"></a>Bercot, an attorney, has synthesized the beliefs of the church leaders in the post-apostolic era between 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. He is the author of the 703 page comprehensive<em> A Dictionary of Early Christian Beliefs: A Reference Guide to More than 700 Topics Discussed by the Early Church Fathers</em> (Peabody, Mass.: Henrickson Publishing, 1998.) Based on this extraordinary research, Bercot claims "early Christians universally believed that works or obedience play an essential role in our <a name="marker=464302"></a>salvation."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464305" class="footnote"> <sup>16</sup></a> This was completely contrary to Paul's teaching in Ephesians 2:8-9.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464306"></a>If true, then Bercot's claim causes us to ponder. Are we to believe the twelve apostle taught works were not essential to salvation? If we believe this, then we must also believe the church which had a diffuse organization as of 125 A.D. became heretical immediately after all the apostles died. This also had to occur simultaneously in numerous disparate congregations under different authorities. Further, as Paulinists concede, we have to believe this `heresy' that rejected Paul's doctrines on salvation continued universally for 1400 years until Luther rediscovered the true salvation formula in 1517. If Bercot is correct, the Paulinist asks us to swallow a host of implausibilities if we assume the twelve accepted Paul's teaching on salvation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464307"></a>Thus, Bercot's claim is a big one. However, it is one which Bercot backs up with thorough quotes. For example, while the early church believed you were not saved by <a name="marker=464308"></a>works alone, they did not believe you were saved by faith alone. <a name="marker=464309"></a>Polycarp, the bishop of Smyrna, and at one-time pro-Paul, wrote:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464310"></a>He who raised Him from the dead will also raise us up-<strong><em>-if we do His will and walk in His commandments, love what He loved, and keeping ourselves from all unrighteousness</em></strong>, covetousness, love of money, evil speaking, falsewitness;...forgive, and it shall be forgiven unto you; be merciful, that ye may obtain mercy;.....(Polycarp, <em>Letter to the Philippians</em>, ch. 2.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464313" class="footnote"> 17</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464315"></a><a name="marker=464314"></a>Hermas, whose work of about 132 A.D. was one of the favorites of that early era, wrote: "Only those who fear the Lord and keep His commandments have life with God." (Hermas, <em>Shepherd</em> II. comm. 7; III sim. 10 ch. 2.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464332"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html-3.gif" align="RIGHT" /><a name="marker=464331"></a>Clement of Alexandria (150-212 A.D.), an elder of his church and whose works quote the New Testament 2,400 times,<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464335" class="footnote"> 18</a> wrote around 190 A.D.:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464336"></a>Whoever obtains [the truth] and distinguishes himself in <strong><em>good works shall gain the prize of everlasting life</em></strong>....Some people correctly and adequately understand how [God provides necessary power], but attaching slight importance to the works that lead to salvation, they fail to make the necessary preparation for attaining the objects of their hope. (Clement, <em>Rich Man</em> chs. 1 &amp; 2.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464337"></a>In response to the Marcionites' claim that salvation was by faith alone, Clement further responded:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464339"></a>Let us not merely<strong><em> call Him <a name="marker=464338"></a>Lord, for that will not save us</em></strong>. For He says, `Not everyone who says to me, Lord, Lord, will be saved, but he who does what is right.' Thus, brothers, let us acknowledge him by our actions....This world, and the world to come are two enemies. This one means adultery, corruption, avarice, and deceit, while the other gives them up. We cannot, therefore, be friends of both. <strong>To get the one, we must give the other up</strong>. (<em>Second Epistle of Clement</em> ch. 4.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464342" class="footnote"> 19</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464344"></a>What led into this quote was <a name="marker=464343"></a>Clement's explanation that a true confession of Christ is not with the lips but with the heart by action.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464345"></a>For He himself declares, `Whosoever shall confess me before men, him will I confess before my Father.' This, then, is our reward if we shall confess Him by whom we have been saved. But in what way shall we confess Him? <strong><em>By doing what He says</em></strong>, and<strong><em> not transgressing His commandments</em></strong>, and by honouring Him not with our lips only, but with all our heart and all our mind. For He says in Isaiah, `This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me.' (<em>Second Epistle of Clement</em>, ch.3.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464346"></a>What if we should strive to win the crown in Christ, but commit sin en route? Clement is clear in the next quote below: damnation is the result for such a Christian. Clement did<strong><em> not acknowledge for a moment Paul's contrary teaching of <a name="marker=464347"></a>eternal security</em></strong> in Romans 8:1 that there is now no condemnation for those in Christ Jesus. Nor did Clement recognize we can never separate ourselves from the love of God by sinning, as some today read Paul's words in <a name="marker=464348"></a>Romans 8:39.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464351" class="footnote">20</a> Clement wrote instead:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464352"></a>We must remember that he who strives in the corruptible contest, if he be found acting unfairly, is taken away and scourged, and cast forth from the lists. What then think ye? If one does anything unseemly in the incorruptible contest, what shall he have to bear? For of those who do not preserve the seal [unbroken], [the Scripture] saith, `Their worm shall not die, and their fire shall not be quenched, and they shall be a spectacle to all flesh.' (Second Epistle of Clement ch. 7.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464353"></a>These and numerous other sources demonstrate Paul's salvation theory was not recognized. Paul's ideas were that <a name="marker=464354"></a>salvation was by a one-time faith alone, without works, and there was no condemnation once in Christ. (Eph. 2:8-9; Rom. 8:1.). However, the only proponents who took these verses seriously were the Marcionites. They were branded, however, as heretics by the early post-apostolic church. Paul's salvation formulas were never accepted in the universal post-apostolic Christian church from 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. In that period, Paul, even if quoted on salvation by faith, was always read to line up with Christ's emphasis on the essential nature of works and the damning power of sin in a Christian's life.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464355"></a>For example, Polycarp is the only ancient `father' to quote Ephesians 2:8-9 that we are "saved by grace, not of works." (Epistle of Polycarp to the Philippians 1:6.) Yet, in the very next breath in the same epistle, Polycarp has a diametrically opposed idea of how we read Ephesians 2:8-9 today. Polycarp writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464356"></a>But He who raised Him up from the dead will raise up us also,<strong><em> if we do His will, and walk in His commandments, and love what He loved, keeping ourselves from all unrighteousness</em></strong>.... (<em>Epistle to the Philippians</em>, 2:13-14.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464359" class="footnote"> 21</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464360"></a>Thus, whenever tension between Paul and Jesus were apparent, our Lord Jesus was never interpreted to fit Paul, as is the norm today. As <a name="marker=464361"></a>Bercot puts it:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464362"></a>The early Christians <strong><em>didn't put Paul's letters to the Romans and Galatians up on a pedestal above the teachings of Jesus</em></strong> and the other apostles. They read Paul's words about grace in conjunction with...Scriptures [where Jesus requires endurance for salvation, Matt. 24:13, doing the will of God for salvation, Matt. 7:21, the resurrected will be those who have done good, John 5:28, 29, etc.] (Bercot, <em>Will the Real Heretics Stand Up, supra</em>, at 63.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464364"></a><a name="marker=464363"></a>Calvin's research corroborates Bercot's position. Calvin was the second major figure in the Reformation after Luther. Calvin cited Augustine as the only early church figure who agreed with any aspect of salvation in Paul's teachings. However, <a name="marker=464365"></a>Augustine was from the mid-300s. Even here, Augustine's agreement was limited to the teaching of predestination and perserverance in good works as a gift of God's divine intervention. Augustine did believe works were necessary. However, Augustine placed that requirement outside human responsibility. If God <a name="marker=464366"></a>predestined a Christian to salvation, Augustine taught God would also give the gift of perseverance in good works.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464370" class="footnote"> 22</a> Thus, works were necessary, but God would give you the gift of doing good works if you were predestined. Accordingly, Augustine did not teach Paul's doctrine of salvation by faith alone. Regardless, the point is that Calvin like Bercot could find no one earlier who had any agreement with Paul's salvation doctrine. This is most revealing.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464372"></a>Thus, all the evidence strongly supports that salvation in the early post-apostolic church was never thought to be correctly stated by Paul as faith-alone without works. While Paul was quoted on salvation by faith, he was always put back in the context of Jesus' words. Paul was always then interpreted to line up with Jesus' emphasis on the essential nature of works for salvation, i.e., obedience to Jesus' commandments, doing righteousness, charity, repentance from sin, etc. The early apostolic age emphasized always the damning effect of denying Christ or failing to obey Him. In the early church, salvation doctrine was dependent on Jesus' words alone.</p>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464409"></a>Table: Some <a name="marker=464408"></a>Reasons Why Early Church Believed Works Essential</p>
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<p> </p>
<table>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464375"></a><em>Verse</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464377"></a><em>Condition</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464379"></a><em>Result</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464382"></a><a name="marker=464381"></a>1 John 1:7</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464384"></a>"if we walk in the light"</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464386"></a>"the blood of Jesus, his Son, cleanses us from all sin"</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464389"></a><a name="marker=464388"></a>Mark 13:13, Matt. 10:22</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464391"></a>If you "stand firm to the end"</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464393"></a>You "will be saved"</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464396"></a><a name="marker=464395"></a>Matthew 6:12-15</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464398"></a>"if you forgive men when they sin against you"</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464400"></a>"your heavenly Father will also forgive you."</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464403"></a><a name="marker=464402"></a>Matthew 12:48-50</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464405"></a>If you do "the will of my Father in heaven"</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>You are "my brother, sister, etc."</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464411"></a>
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<a name="10879"></a>The Patristic Era Church Also Rejected Paul's Predestination Doctrine</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>Further proof of the low regard for Paul can be seen in the early church's view of predestination. The early church from 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. universally rejected Paul's teachings on <a name="marker=464413"></a>predestination. Paul was not named, but they universally regarded his teaching as blasphemy and impiety of the worst sort. <a name="marker=464414"></a>Justin Martyr died in 165 A.D. by preferring execution than to renounce his faith in Christ. He explained:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464415"></a>We have learned it from the prophets, and we hold it to be true, that punishments, chastisements, and rewards are rendered according to each man's actions. Otherwise, if all things happen by fate, then nothing is in our own power. For if it is predestined that one man be good and another man evil, then the first is not deserving of praise or the other to be blamed. Unless humans have the power of avoiding evil and choosing good by free choice, they are not accountable for their actions--whatever they may be.... (Justin, <em>First Apology</em>, ch. 43.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464418"></a>Clement, <a name="marker=464416"></a>Archelaus, and <a name="marker=464417"></a>Methodius all spoke against predestination, and in favor of free-will.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464421" class="footnote"> 23</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464423"></a>The Epistle of <a name="marker=464422"></a>Second Peter also reflects this early rejection of predestination. It states that God "is not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance." (<a name="marker=464424"></a>2 Peter 3:9.) If God is not willing any should perish but <a name="marker=464425"></a>predestination of the lost were true, then God would not be willing to have happen what He supposedly predestines to happen. God would be schizophrenic. Evidently because 2 Peter 3:9 refutes predestination, Calvin was willing to reject the entire epistle as inspired. Calvin held tightly to Pauline predestination. <a name="marker=464426"></a>Calvin declared <a name="marker=464427"></a>Second Peter a false addition to scripture.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464430" class="footnote"> 24</a> Indeed, Second Peter likely is a pseudograph. Yet, even as such, 2 Peter 3:9 is still an early fourth century reflection of church doctrine. It proves the post-apostolic age rejected predestination of the lost.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464431"></a>Methodius, a Christian martyr from the late 200s, likewise said predestination doctrine was an impious (blasphemous) claim. He wrote:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464432"></a>Those who say that man does not have free will, but say that he is governed by the unavoidable necessities of fate, are guilty of impiety toward God himself, making Him out to be the cause and author of human evils. (Methodius, The Banquet of the Ten Virgins, Discourse 8, ch. 6.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464457"></a><a name="marker=464433"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html-4.gif" align="RIGHT" />Methodius was not exaggerating the meaning behind Paul's writings on predestination. Calvin in explaining Paul's writings says Paul means that God predestines all evil--God actually directs all evil thoughts with its evil outcome. God does not merely allow evil to happen by God's permissive will. Calvin insists Paul means God makes all evil happen.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464461" class="footnote"> 25</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464463"></a>It was not until Luther that predestination resurfaced as a doctrine again. Luther went even farther than Augustine in drawing out Paul's meaning. <a name="marker=464464"></a>Luther insisted Paul meant God damns the lost to hell without any free-will opportunity to accept Jesus. He said that Paul's doctrine takes great faith because God "saves so few and damns so many" yet we must believe God is "just" despite His own will "makes [the lost] necessarily damnable." (Martin Luther, Bondage of the Will.) Even though this makes God abominable, Luther skates the issue by saying "it is not lawful" to ask why God does not "change this fault of will in every man." Thus, Luther thought you proved you had great faith when you could believe Paul is correct that God is still just despite doing something so apparently unjust as damning people while depriving them of the ability of accept Him.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464477"></a><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html-5.gif" align="RIGHT" />Neither Luther nor Calvin stopped and asked whether Paul could be inspired when Paul ascribes such incongruous impious behavior to God.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464478"></a>More important, the post-apostolic rejection of <a name="marker=464479"></a>predestination from 125-325 A.D. proves that the universal church was still following Jesus' words alone. Without naming Paul specifically, they rejected every word of Paul at odds with Jesus. In particular they rejected the notion that the lost were damned due to God's predetermined will. Rather, God is not willing that any should perish. (<a name="marker=464480"></a>John 3:16; cf. <a name="marker=464481"></a>2 Peter 3:9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464482"></a>Calvin's writings indirectly corroborate Bercot's conclusion. Calvin could not find anyone other than Augustine from the late 300s who agreed with Paul's doctrines. And Augustine's agreement was limited only to Paul's predestination d<a name="marker=464483"></a>octrine.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464485"></a>
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<a name="27469"></a>The Patristic Era Also Blasted Paul's Doctrine on Eating Idol Meat</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464486"></a>We previously demonstrated that Paul three times expresses complete indifference if a Christian <a name="marker=464487"></a>eats meat sacrificed to idols. Paul would prohibit it only being <a name="marker=464488"></a>eaten in front of a weaker brother who thinks an idol is something. (<a name="marker=464489"></a>Romans 14:21;<a name="marker=464490"></a>1 Corinthians 8:4-13, and 1 Corinthians 10:19-29.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464494"></a>In the Patristic Era (125-325 A.D.), Paul's teaching was condemned with no thought of even discussing Paul. <a name="marker=464495"></a>Irenaeus (120-202 A.D.) wrote in his Against Heresies, chapter XXIV, that Saturninus and Basilides were heretics because:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464496"></a>He attaches no importance to [the question regarding] meats offered in sacrifice to idols, thinks them of no consequence, and makes use of them without any hesitation; he holds also the use of other things, and the practice of every kind of lust, a matter of perfect indifference.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464497"></a>By today's standards, however, Saturninus and Basilides are not heretics on the issue of idol meat. They simply took time to read Paul's words. They got the issue straightened out by Paul's clear permission to eat such meat. However, Irenaeus' view is so clearly opposed to Paul's teaching that it reminds us how little regard anyone had for Paul's words back then.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464498"></a>However, the most intriguing quote on this issue is Irenaeus' criticism of Valentinus as a heretic. In book II of <em>Against Heresies</em>, chapter XIV, we read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464499"></a>Again, their opinion as to the indifference of [eating of] meats and other actions, and as to their thinking that, from the nobility of their nature, they can in no degree at all contract pollution, whatever they eat or perform, they have derived it from the Cynics, since they do in fact belong to the same society as do these [philosophers]. They also strive to transfer to [the treatment of matters of] faith that hairsplitting and subtle mode of handling questions which is, in fact, a copying of Aristotle.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464500"></a>Irenaeus precisely condemned the hair-splitting quibbling with God's commands that Paul utilized himself. Paul troubles us with questions such as `do you think an idol is really something?' Can't you eat it `if you don't believe in idols'? No one back in the Patristic era showed any appreciation for Paul's teaching or methodology in how to interpret God's commands. You did not try to find hair-splitting ways to devise exceptions to commands. You simply obeyed God's<a name="marker=464501"></a>word.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464502"></a>
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What Explains Almost Two Millennia of Ignoring Paul's Teachings?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464506"></a>As demonstrated above at <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.#34087" class="XRef">Patristic Era (125-325 A.D.) Rejected Paul's Salvation Doctrine</a>, all the churches founded by the apostles never taught after the apostles had died that salvation was by faith alone without works. Instead, all the apostolic churches taught salvation was by a faith that zealously seeks after God plus works. This formula was not only true in the pre-Roman Catholic era (125-325 A.D.), but in the post-Catholic era from 325 A.D. to the present within the territories that comprised the Roman empire.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464509" class="footnote"><sup>26</sup></a> Likewise, salvation by <a name="marker=464510"></a>faith-plus-works based on Jesus' words continued on in the East where the Orthodox church flourished. For fourteen hundred post-apostolic years, no one other than Marcion, the <a name="marker=464511"></a>Paulicians, and <a name="marker=464512"></a>Pelagius (410 A.D.) taught salvation by faith alone without works.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464516" class="footnote"><sup>27</sup></a> Yet all three were regarded universally by Christendom to be heretics.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464519"></a>Furthermore, for fourteen hundred post-apostolic years no one taught predestination or the bondage of the will except during a small episode where it appears in <a name="marker=464520"></a>Augustine's writings from the 300s. Augustine endorsed these doctrines to condemn Pelagius as a heretic. However, Augustine's ideas on predestination and free-will never became official teachings of the Roman Catholic church. Once Pelagius was found a heretic, the issue died off. The Roman church instead always has taught humans have free-will. God foreknows whom He will save, but He does not compel them to believe.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464524" class="footnote"> 28</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464527"></a>Another example was that in the entire post-apostolic era, no Christian leader ever agreed with Paul's teaching that we could eat meat sacrificed to idols. Paul's indifference on the issue was soundly condemned whenever discussed in the early church.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464528"></a>Thus, between 125 A.D. and 1517 A.D., no church body took Paul seriously. Only <a name="marker=464529"></a>Marcion did. Only <a name="marker=464530"></a>Pelagius did. Only Augustine did on predestination as a temporary tool to destroy Pelagius. However, Pelagius--a pariah of Reformed theology--not only taught free-will but also Paul's doctrine of salvation by faith alone. (See footnote 27 below.) Yet, Pelagius and the Marcionites were expelled from the church in both East and West as heretics!</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464532"></a>
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<a name="22325"></a>The Eastern Orthodox Church &amp; Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464533"></a>We in the West often ignore there was an older and wider church than Roman Catholicism: the Orthodox. Its view on Pauline doctrine deserves great respect due to its antiquity. This original church is still going strong with<a name="marker=464534"></a>250 million members. (Protestantism represents, by comparison, only 350 million members worldwide.) We know the Orthodox today in the West as the Eastern <a name="marker=464535"></a>Orthodox church.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464536"></a>The Orthodox church has continuously flourished from the first century in Israel, Ethiopia, Egypt, Turkey, Syria, etc. Each national church traces their roots to <a name="marker=464537"></a>James as the first bishop of Jerusalem. They insist it was to him alone that the original bishops looked to for guidance. ("Eastern Orthodox Church," Encarta.) The Orthodox maintain an unbroken list of bishops in all its original territories (including Rome), tracing back name-by-name right down to the period of <a name="marker=464538"></a>James and Paul. As Paul says, the Jerusalem church, in those earliest days, was regarded as the "mother of us all." (Cf. Gal. 4:21-26.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464539"></a>But isn't the Roman Catholic Church the original church? No. This is pure myth. The original church was the one founded at Jerusalem and led by James, described in Acts chapter 15. Ten years later, Peter went to <a name="marker=464540"></a>Rome and founded a church there. Peter also had founded a church at Antioch in Syria.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464546" class="footnote"> 29</a>Neither the one at Rome nor at Antioch could claim superiority over the other. Each was founded by Peter.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464547"></a>Furthermore, prior to the 300s, the bishops throughout the Roman and non-Roman world operated as one inter-connected Christian church. There was no single head except initially James at Jerusalem. In the 300s, the Roman bishop, with the power of the Emperor behind him, began to exert direct control over churches within the Roman territories. This led to the Roman bishop (aka the pope) developing doctrines divergent from the bishops outside of Roman territorial control. These Orthodox Christian bishops outside the control of Rome in <a name="marker=464548"></a>1054 excommunicated the bishop of Rome (aka the pope). Particularly irksome to the original church of Christ was that the Roman bishop (aka the pope) had developed doctrines on purgatory and original sin which the Eastern bishops rejected. However, the grounds of divorce in 1054, also known as the Great Schism, rested upon the fact that the bishop of Rome (aka the pope) altered the Nicene Creed. Since then, the bishops outside of Roman influence have called themselves the Orthodox Church. As already noted, we in the West call them and their 250 million members the Eastern Orthodox Church.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464550"></a>What is the Orthodox Church's view on <a name="marker=464549"></a>Paul's teachings? Despite Paul's presence in their New Testament canon, the <a name="marker=464551"></a>Orthodox church's official salvation doctrine as far back as the post-apostolic records take us (125 A.D.) up through today completely ignores Paul. Not a single doctrine of Paul surfaces in the Orthodox' church doctrine. Not the doctrine of original sin from Romans chapter 5 (which the Orthodox specifically reject). Not predestination of the will. Not total depravity. Not grace alone. Not faith alone. Not one iota of anything uniquely Pauline appears in the official teachings of the Orthodox church from the earliest post-apostolic records to the present. As one Calvinist Reformed writer puts it in his critique of the Eastern Orthodox:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464552"></a>Eastern Orthodox Christians <em><strong>reject</strong></em> the Reformed [<em>i.e</em>., Pauline] teaching of the natural man's <strong><em>bondage of the will </em></strong>as well as the Doctrines of Grace. They <em><strong>reject</strong></em> the Reformed view of <strong><em>Predestination</em></strong>....They<em><strong> reject the doctrine of justification by grace alone</strong></em> through faith alone. The Orthodox <em><strong>reject</strong></em> the biblical idea (Romans 5) of<strong><em> inherited (imputed) guilt</em></strong>...Orthodox hold to baptismal regeneration--no one can be saved unless he is baptized with water.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464555" class="footnote"><sup>30</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464556"></a>For the Orthodox, only the words of Christ and His twelve apostles have influence over belief and practice. Their foremost creed was the <a name="marker=464557"></a>Nicene Creed (325 A.D.). To this day, they insist it is the most accurate summary of the faith of the Church. Yet, this Creed too contains nothing uniquely from Paul!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464905"></a><a name="10089"></a>So what does the Eastern <a name="marker=464559"></a>Orthodox church teach about salvation? Most succinctly, it teaches you have to stay on the narrow road of following Jesus. This aims at being perfect in conduct, obeying all of Jesus' commands. We will never be perfect while on earth, but starting with baptism and following Jesus we will become more and more like God in perfection. This is called theosis. It means becoming like God by imitation, not like God in one's nature. For support, they rely upon Jesus' words: "whoever obeys my teaching should never ever die." (John 8:51.) When one sins, the Orthodox urge repentance and penance. Their doctrines are heavily focused therefore on Jesus' teachings. The Orthodox wholly ignore Paul's unique doctrines.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464562"></a>In fact, perhaps most startlingly of all, the Orthodox have an unbroken string of twenty centuries of ongoing belief in the validity of the true Saturday<a name="marker=464563"></a>Sabbath. This is hardly a Pauline view. This was the early church's practice as well.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464567" class="footnote"> <sup>31</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464568"></a>The Orthodox' views on salvation are hard to amalgamate in our way of thinking because of our long conditioning to Paulinism. We need to mull over their ideas. They are calling for an internal transformation, not merely a verbal or internal confession of some knowledge about Jesus. When we realize this is their point, it is truly closer to Christ's teaching. It completely ignores the Paulinist-inspired teachings of the Western church that focus on a mental belief change.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464569"></a>Regardless, what cannot be denied is the Orthodox represent a longer tradition than Roman Catholicism. Their doctrines are deeply rooted in the post-apostolic period of 125 A.D. to 325 A.D. Yet, it thoroughly rejects everything that Paul uniquely stands for. Are all 250 million Orthodox Christians lost because they emphasize Jesus' words? Whatever the answer, the history of the Orthodox church proves one thing: Paul early on and a long time thereafter was never taken seriously.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464570"></a>
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Protestants Agree For 1400 Years No One Had The Correct Salvation Formula</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464571"></a>Protestant historians agree. For over fourteen centuries after the death of the apostles, the Protestant story agrees that Paul was never followed by the official churches, <img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html-6.gif" align="RIGHT" />either East or West. It was Luther who alone in this period first discovered Paul in what eventually became a large-scale movement. "But when we say Luther `rediscovered' this [salvation] doctrine, we are implying that the doctrine had been lost or obscured between the New Testament era and Luther's day."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464593" class="footnote"> 32</a> I will label this the <a name="marker=464594"></a>Luther Rediscovery Thesis.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464596"></a>However, in this <a name="marker=464595"></a>Luther Rediscovery Thesis, this departure from true Christianity includes the post-apostolic era in both East and West. This Luther Rediscovery Thesis brands all the churches founded by the twelve apostles as quickly having become heretical. It is not merely the Roman Bishop who strays. Rather, all the bishops everywhere all simultaneously became heretical. This has to include what we know today as the Eastern <a name="marker=464597"></a>Orthodox who never were under the control of the Roman Catholic Church. At the outset, the Orthodox bishops were far more numerous and territorially larger than Roman Catholicism. They grew independent from the bishop of Rome (i.e., whom we today call pope). They even later excommunicated the Roman pope in 1054 for his innovations on the apostolic faith. These Orthodox Christians existed in Egypt, Ethiopia, Carthage, Turkey, and numerous other regions of the Middle-East.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464598"></a>Thus, the Luther Rediscovery Thesis insists the Orthodox--although independent from the RCC--departed simultaneously into heresy.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464600"></a>The <a name="marker=464599"></a>Luther Rediscovery Thesis also teaches the early church leaders in the Western territories between 125-325 A.D. simultaneously turned heretical. This cannot be attributed to Roman Catholic corruption. There was not yet any papacy at Rome that could exert its influence as binding over Polycarp, Papias, Irenaeus, <a name="marker=464601"></a>Origen, Justin Martyr and many others in the West. These voices are simply students of the apostles, not disciples of the bishop (pope) of Rome. In fact, none of these men knew of a Roman <a name="marker=464602"></a>papacy as we do today. There were no Roman catechisms to which they had to conform. Such catechisms came much later--after the emperor <a name="marker=464603"></a>Constantine (post-325 A.D.) and his successors gave muscle to the words of the bishop of Rome.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464607" class="footnote"> <sup>33</sup></a> Thus, the Luther Rediscovery Thesis must also explain how in the Western pre-papist Roman church these early leaders from 125-325 A.D. quickly abandoned apostolic teachings if the apostles shared Paul's peculiar doctrines.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464608"></a>In sum, we can see the Luther Rediscovery Thesis has a fatal problem when it comes to the validity of Paul's salvation doctrine. It suffers from the same notion that <a name="marker=464609"></a>Marcion had--he claimed that he alone found the true gospel in Paul twenty to eighty years after the Twelve Apostles died.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464611"></a>In response to Marcion, <a name="marker=464610"></a>Tertullian in 207 A.D. ridiculed this idea. Tertullian's language is even more apt for the modern claim that the church suffered 1400 years of error of ignoring Paul in the early post-apostolic churches everywhere. Tertullian skewered Marcion's similar claim, saying:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464612"></a>[I insist that] no other teaching will have the right of being received as apostolic than that which<em><strong> is at the present day proclaimed in the churches of apostolic foundation</strong></em>. You will, however, find no church of apostolic origin but such as reposes its Christian faith in the Creator [being the same in the Hebrew Scriptures as in the new]. But<strong><em> if the churches shall prove to have been corrupt from the beginning, where shall the pure ones be found</em></strong>? Will it be amongst the adversaries of the Creator [i.e., Marcion saying the God of the New is not the God of the Old]? Show us, then, one of your churches, tracing its descent from an apostle, and you will have gained the day. (<a name="marker=464613"></a>Tertullian,<em> Against Marcion</em>, 1.23.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016html.html#pgfId=464616" class="footnote"> <sup>34</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464617"></a>The same point holds true here. If one believes the <a name="marker=464618"></a>Luther Rediscovery Thesis, one has to believe the very same churches founded by the twelve apostles were corrupt soon after the apostles died, missing out on Paul's teachings. You are being asked to believe this happened simultaneously among diverse churches in diverse locations even though there was no single controlling bishop after 70 A.D. The bishops in the 125-325 A.D. period did not yet know of a superior council that could impose doctrine on everyone simultaneously. Yet, despite this diffuse spread of churches, run by independent bishops, <strong><em>we cannot find a single church tracing to one of the twelve from the Patristic Era who ever espouses Paul's core salvation doctrines</em></strong>. None teach his ideas of predestination. None teach his ideas of total depravity. None teach his ideas of salvation by <a name="marker=464619"></a>faith alone. Instead, Paul's doctrines were universally rejected.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464621"></a>Tertullian rightly argues in the case of <a name="marker=464620"></a>Marcion that such facts invalidate some late discovery previously not taught in any early apostolic church. Here, Paulinists assume there was 1400 years of darkness. Neither Paul's salvation doctrine nor most of his unique doctrines can be found in the apostolic early church. Instead, Paul's major doctrines were ignored for 1400 years until Luther `rediscovered' them. Tertullian's logic is right. It is absurd to believe that the early bishops at diffuse and separate churches which had been founded by the apostles could reject Paul's doctrines unless such rejection was indeed the orthodox view of the original twelve apostles themselves.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464622"></a>The lesson for us is we need to steer back to Jesus' words as the sole test of orthodoxy. If you cannot find justification for a doctrine in Jesus' words or the inspired Scripture that preceded Jesus, then you do not have to follow it. If a doctrine is proposed, whether from Paul or anyone else, that does not line up with Jesus' words or the inspired Scripture that preceded Jesus, then it is not possibly a prophetic voice. We must not fall into the same trap the Young Prophet suffered when he trusted the Old Prophet who permitted him to do what God previously prohibited. (1 Kings 13.) We must not elevate such a voice to respect as inspired.</p>
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<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464106"></a>This work is reprinted at http://www.orthodox.net/faq/canon.htm.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464112"></a>Hans von Campenhausen, <em>The Formation of the Christian Canon</em> (J. A. Baker, trans.) (Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1972) at 167.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464127"></a>Professor George Howard recently re-published a medieval text that has the earmarks of this Hebrew original Matthew. It was preserved ironically by a Jewish critic of Christianity as an appendix to his rebuttal work to Christianity. It reads virtually identical to our current version. Yet, its variances repair some textual errors in our Greek New Testament (e.g., Jesus' ascribes the 30 pieces of silver in the Hebrew Matthew to Zechariah, but our Greek NT version ascribes this erroneously to the prophet Jeremiah). Thus, this Hebrew Matthew must be closer to the original Matthew. For more information, see the Hebrew Matthew at www.jesuswordsonly.com. See also, Nehemiah Gordon, <em>Hebrew Yeshua versus the Greek Jesus</em> (Jerusalem: 2006).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464182"></a>You can find this work--patched together from various sources--at http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Ithaca/3827/antithesis.html.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464192"></a>See "Paulicians," <em>Catholic Encyclopedia</em>. It mentions they "[1]rejected the Old Testament...[2][T]o believe in him [Jesus] saves men from judgment....[3] Their Bible was a fragmentary New Testament." In N. G. Garsoïan, <em>The Paulician Heresy</em> (1968), it mentions "The sect especially valued the Gospel of Luke and the Pauline Epistles."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464205"></a>Tertullian, <em>Adversus Marcionem</em> (ed. trans.) (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1972) at 262-63, Book 4, chapter 2. It is available online at http://www.tertullian.org/articles/evans_marc/evans_marc_10book4_eng.htm (accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464213"></a>In <a name="marker=464212"></a>Luke 14:26, Luke says Jesus said, "If any man cometh unto me, and hateth not his own father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464218"></a><a name="marker=464217"></a>Clarke realizes the contradiction between Luke &amp; Matthew, and the terrible import of Luke's variance. He says "Matt. 10:37 expresses the true meaning" of Jesus. Gill likewise sees the problem in Luke, saying Jesus could not have uttered a command to hate, for this would be contrary "to the laws of God...and divine revelation." He says Matthew is a better "explanation" of Jesus' meaning.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464227"></a>For the doubting Thomas' over this Oxford translation, the Latin original confirms this is correct. It is: "Porro Lucas non apostolus sed apostolicus, non magister sed discipulus, utique magistro minor, certe tanto posterior quanto posterioris apostoli sectator, Pauli sine dubio."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464231"></a>Tertullian (ed. Evans), <em>Against Marcion, supra</em>, at 263, 265, Book IV, ch.2.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464241"></a>Tertullian, Against Marcion (Oxford University Press, 1972) at 509, 511, reprinted online at http://www.tertullian.org/articles/evans_marc/evans_marc_12book5_eng.htm.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464254"></a>Tertullian, <em>The Prescription Against Heretics</em>, Ch. XXIV, available online from http://www.tertullian.org/anf/anf03/anf03-24.htm, quoting entire text from Anti-Nicene Fathers Vol. III.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464267"></a>You can find this at Calvin College's online resources at http://ccel.org/fathers2/ANF-03/anf03-28.htm#P3804_1266834</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464274"></a>Paul teaches we are all enemies of God, but God then bestowed His mercy on us while we were yet sinners. (Rom. 5:10.) Tertullian says this is absurd because he believes there are those who seek after God. The Lord Almighty should pick them to bestow His mercy. Tertullian is basing this on Jesus' clear teaching of the saved fourth seed who had prior to hearing the word been a good and noble heart. (Luke 8:15.) However, a Paulinist does not acknowledge ever that such a person exists. Yet, the Bible teaches they do exist: e.g., Job 1:1, 8.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464292"></a>Tertullian's chapter title is interesting: "Dangerous Effects to Religion and Morality of the Doctrine of So Weak a God." He saw eternal security as a threat to morality. Tertullian repeats this attack on eternal security forcefully in his book The <a name="marker=464293"></a>Scorpion's Bite (207 A.D.) He felt the doctrine sapped the resolve of those under persecution. Many were teaching that if you denied Christ, Christ would not deny you and you remained saved (quoting Paul in 2 Timothy). Tertullian regarded this <a name="marker=464294"></a>eternal security doctrine as the Scorpion's Bite.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464305"></a>David W. Bercot, <em>Will the Real Heretics Please Stand Up: A New Look at Today's Evangelical Christianity in the light of Early Christianity</em> (Texas: Scroll Publishing, 1999) at 57.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=464313"></a>http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/polycarp-roberts.html</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=464335"></a>Josh McDowell, <em>Evidence that Demands A Verdict</em> (San Bernardino, CA: Here's Life, 1972) at 50-52.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=464342"></a>A reprint online from the Roberts-Donaldson translation is at http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/2clement-roberts.html (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=464351"></a>If you go to www.earlychristianwritings.com, every time a verse is discussed in a patristic writing, it is linked. However, neither Romans 8:1 nor 8:39 are ever once cited by any patristic-era `father.' See, http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/e-catena/romans8.html (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=464359"></a>The epistle is available online from Calvin College at http://ccel.org/fathers2/ANF-01/anf01-11.htm#P776_145896 (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=464370"></a>Ironically, it was <a name="marker=464369"></a>Augustine who formulated all the core problematical doctrines of Roman Catholicism too. Thus, <a name="marker=464371"></a>Calvin thought Augustine was heretical on almost everything but Paul's doctrine of predestination. Why should Calvin think someone so heretical on so many doctrines could be correct about just these few points?</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=464421"></a>Bercot, <em>Will the Real Heretics Please Stand Up, supra</em>, at 71.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=464430"></a>Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">25.</span> <a name="pgfId=464461"></a><a name="marker=464460"></a>Calvin,<em> Institutes of the Christian Religion</em> Book 1, ch. XVIII. For example, Calvin writes that God "<a name="marker=464462"></a>directs [Satan and his angels'] malice to whatever end he pleases, and employs their iniquities to execute his judgments." (<em>Institutes</em>, Ch. XVIII, Book 1, No. 1) Calvin says some dishonestly seek to evade this truth by claiming a distinction between God permitting evil and doing evil. But God "himself, however, openly declare[s] that he does this, [and hence God] repudiates the evasion." Id. Calvin means that God's word insists He does the evil. He does not merely permit it. Another example is Calvin says: "That men do nothing save at the secret instigation of God, and do not discuss and deliberate on anything but what he has previously decreed with himself, and brings to pass by his secret direction, is proved by numberless clear passages of Scripture." Id. Later Calvin, twisting Scripture, insists: "The<strong><em> fiction of bare permission [of evil] is at an end,</em></strong>" meaning it is false that God merely permits evil rather than directs it. Id. It was largely this blasphemous teaching that first led me to ever question the doctrine of the Presbyterian church I attended.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">26.</span> <a name="pgfId=464509"></a>The Roman Catholic Church at the Council of Trent (ca. 1543), in its Sixth Session on Justification, declared as heretical two teachings in particular: (1) that "the sinner is justified by faith alone" (Canon 9) and (2) that "men are justified either by the sole imputation of the justice of Christ or by the sole remission of sins...." (Canon 11.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">27.</span> <a name="pgfId=464516"></a>A little known fact about <a name="marker=464515"></a>Pelagius is that he taught salvation was by faith alone. In Augustine's attacks on him as a heretic, he focused on Pelagius' belief that human free-will could, in theory, permit one to live a sinless life. Augustine never revealed what truly made Pelagius dangerous. Pelagius was resorting to Marcion's doctrine that Paul taught salvation by faith alone. <a name="marker=464517"></a>Zimmer in the modern era discovered a work by Pelagius that was spared destruction. It survived because it was miscatalogued as a work of Jerome. In it, Pelagius defends that free-will allows one to live a sinless life. However, in this same book entitled Commentary on the Epistle of St. Paul (410 A.D.), Pelagius is a proponent of salvation by faith alone, without repentance. Pelagius even ridiculed James' doctrines. The <em>Catholic Encyclopedia</em> comments on this modern discovery, noting Pelagius taught: "By justification we are indeed cleansed of our personal sins through faith alone (loc. cit., 663, `per solam fidem justificat Deus impium convertendum'), but this pardon (gratia remissionis) implies no interior renovation of sanctification of the soul." (Zimmer, "Realencyklopädies fur protest," <em>Theologie</em> XV, 753 (Leipzig, 1904.) The <em>Catholic Encyclopedia</em> comments: "Luther's boast of having been the first to proclaim the doctrine of abiding faith [must be re-evaluated because] Pelagius [earlier] insists expressly (loc. cit. 812), `Ceterum sine operibus fidei, non legis, mortua est fides.' [transl. "Moreover, without the work of faith, not of law, faith is dead."] Pelagius was making fun of James by twisting his words around to sound Pauline. This raises the question whether Augustine went after Pelagius merely on the issue of capacity of free-will to avoid sin or because Pelagius rejected James' teaching in favor of Paul's on salvation. For more on this, see "Pelagius," <em>Catholic Encyclopedia</em>, reprinted at http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/11604a.htm (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">28.</span> <a name="pgfId=464524"></a>In 1520, Luther attacked the doctrine of <a name="marker=464523"></a>free-will. Pope Leo X condemned Luther's claims. <a name="marker=464525"></a>Erasmus, a Catholic reformer, in 1524 rebutted Luther, pointing out that if man lacks a free-will ability to do good, then God is unjust to condemn man for sin. Luther's response in 1525 was to say that Paul's doctrine of grace excludes any ability of man to contribute positively toward his salvation. Otherwise salvation would be by works. However, Luther's response did not address the question posed by Erasmus: how can God condemn the lost if they have no free-will ability to do good? Regardless, this episode demonstrates that <a name="marker=464526"></a>Paul's doctrines are used to defend the notion that man lacks free-will to do good. Paul teaches God gives man a will bound to evil unless God `in His infinite wisdom' having nothing to do with our behavior decides to spare some. God then infuses the few with the will to believe and be saved. Then, and only then, can man do good. For Jesus' contrary teaching, see Jesus' Idea of Faith at www.jesuswordsonly.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">29.</span> <a name="pgfId=464546"></a>See discussion of the Jerusalem church at 242, 295, 298, and 304.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">30.</span> <a name="pgfId=464555"></a>http://www.monergism.com/thethreshold/articles/topic (last visited 2004).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">31.</span> <a name="pgfId=464567"></a>As one encyclopedia says, the "Eastern Orthodox churches distinguish between `the sabbath' (Saturday) and `the Lord's day' (Sunday), and both continue to play a special role for the believers...though the Lord's day with the weekly Liturgy is clearly given more emphasis. Catholics put little emphasis on that distinction and most of them, at least in colloquial language, speak of Sunday as the sabbath." (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sabbath.) Thus, the Orthodox not only reject all uniquely Pauline teachings, they also reject Paul's fright over the Galatians observing "days" (Sabbath). (Gal.4:10.) Irenaeus (130-202 A.D.) of Lyon, France gave the early rationale at total odds with Paul. "The decalogue [Ten Commandments] however was not cancelled by Christ, but is always in force: men were never released from its commandments." ("Against Heresies," <em>Anti-Nicene Fathers</em>, Bk. IV, Ch. XVI, at 480.) He then explains the Sabbath must be kept on Saturday as a sign. This explains why the earliest Christian tradition followed Saturday Sabbath except at Rome and Alexandria. Socrates the Historian (b. 380 A.D.) wrote: "For although almost all Churches throughout the world celebrate the sacred mysteries [the Lord's Supper] on the Sabbath of every week, yet the Christians of Alexandria and Rome, on account of some ancient tradition, refuse to do this."(Socrates, <em>Ecclesiastical History</em>, Bk 5, Ch. 22.289). Likewise Bingham summarizes numerous ancient sources: "The ancient Christians were very careful in the observation of Saturday, or the seventh day... It is plain that all the Oriental [Eastern] churches, and the greatest part of the world, observed the Sabbath as a festival... Athanasius likewise tells us that they held religious assemblies on the Sabbath, not because they were infected with Judaism, but to worship Jesus, the Lord of the Sabbath, Epiphanius says the same." (Joseph Bingham,<em> Antiquities of the Christian Church</em> (1878) Vol. II, Bk. xx, Ch. 3, Sec. 1, 66. 1137,1136).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">32.</span> <a name="pgfId=464593"></a>Sermon, Dr. Michael Haykin, Grace Fellowship Church, Toronto (January 24, 2004), reprinted at http://www.gfcto.com/articles/theology/nof3.htm (last visited 2005.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">33.</span> <a name="pgfId=464607"></a>The first use of the title<a name="marker=464606"></a>pontiff or pontifex summus for the bishop of Rome dates to the Sixth Century. This is recorded in Niermeyer's Mediae Latinitatis Lexicon Minus, citing the Leonine Sacramentary of the late sixth century. The term papa from which pope derives in English means father. It was used early on of any priest. It is impossible to say early on the title papa had the connotation we give it today. The notion of superiority of the bishop of Rome, justified on the successor-to-Peter principle, first was asserted in the late half of the second century. However, this attempt was "strongly criticized even by friends of Rome such as Irenaeus of Lyon." (B. Schimmelpfennig, <em>The Papacy</em> (New York: Columbia Press, 1992) at 12-14, viz, 12-13.) The papacy was not recognized until the Fourth Century but only in Roman territories.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">34.</span> <a name="pgfId=464616"></a>http://ccel.org/fathers2/ANF-03/anf03-28.htm#P3804_1266834</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Chapter Eighteen: Preach and Teach from Jesus' Words Only</h2>
<h3><strong>The Duty to Distinguish False Prophets Is How to Show We Love God</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482599"></a>In Matthew <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%2022:37-38&amp;version=ASV">22:37-38</a>, we read:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=482600"></a>(37) Jesus said to him, "`You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.'</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=482601"></a>(38) This is the first and great commandment."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482602"></a>Jesus is not only quoting Deuteronomy<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=deut.%206:5&amp;version=ASV"> 6:5</a>, as most commentaries mention. Instead, Jesus is also quoting Deuteronomy <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=deut.%2013:3&amp;version=ASV">13:3</a>. In that verse, God explains why He allows prophets with true signs and wonders to appear who yet are false prophets. It is our duty to recognize their doctrines as false because they seduce us from following God's Law. (Cf. Isaiah 8:20.) God explains how this is a supreme test of the command Jesus says is the most important:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=482603"></a>[Y]ou shall not listen to the words of that prophet, or to that dreamer of dreams: for Yahweh your God proves you, to know whether you love Yahweh your God with all your heart and with all your soul. (Deut. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=deut.%2013:3&amp;version=ASV">13:3</a>, ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482604"></a>Thus, obedience to the command to love God with your whole heart and mind is associated with <strong><em>distinguishing true prophets from false prophets</em></strong>. God says He tests your love by allowing persons to come with true "signs and wonders" who you should identify as false due to their doctrine. You must disregard their signs and wonders "that come true" because their doctrine teaches you to not follow the Law. It is a privilege and a supreme duty to make this assessment.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486199"></a>Even a man of God, and true prophet, should be recognized as having become a false prophet when he<strong><em> gives you permission to do what God has previously prohibited</em></strong>. This is the lesson the Young Prophet from Judah learned bitterly when he was deceived by the Old Prophet in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20kings%2013&amp;version=ASV">1 Kings 13</a>. (See also <a href="/JWO/false-prophecy-deceived-young-prophet.html">our commentary on 1 Kings 13</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482605"></a>In a revelation-based faith, such as Judaism and Christianity, it is no wonder that God puts such a high value on making such an assessment. Distinguishing true from false prophecy is integral to His plan to reveal Himself through writings of prophets. If we fail to honor God's plan by obeying His command to distinguish true from false prophets, we are demonstrating a failure to love God with our whole mind, heart and soul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482606"></a>Therefore, if you refuse to apply God's word to test Paul's validity, God says you do not love God with your whole heart, mind and soul. On the other hand, if you do test Paul's doctrines by God's revealed word, you are showing your supreme allegiance to God Himself, and not to any human hand that purports to speak in His name.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482610"></a>The conclusion follows that this is a duty from which we cannot shrink. We must make a finding no matter how unpleasant and contrary to human supposition.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=484374"></a>The Question of Paul's Apostleship</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484805"></a>The result concerning Paul's supposed apostleship is unavoidable from all the evidence adduced in prior chapters. Paul was a false apostle. His evidence in support is totally self-serving. Jesus said even for Himself, a self-interested statement as the sole proof He was Son of God would mean Jesus' claim was "not true." John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%205:31&amp;version=ASV">5:31</a> ("If I bear witness of Myself, my witness is not true.")<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483415" class="footnote"> 1</a> Tertullian in 207 A.D., speaking on behalf of apostolic Christianity, made the same point about Paul. He said the proof that Paul was an apostle of Jesus Christ was based solely on Paul's self-serving statements. Tertullian wrote in <em>Against Marcion</em>.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=484823"></a>I must with the best of reasons approach this inquiry with uneasiness when I find one affirmed to be an apostle, of whom<strong><em> in the list of the apostles in the gospel I find no trace</em></strong>.... [Let's] put in evidence all the documents that attest his apostleship. He [i.e., Paul] himself, says Marcion, claims to be an apostle, and that not from men nor through any man, but through Jesus Christ. Clearly any man can make claims for himself: but his claim is confirmed by another person's attestation. One person writes the document, another signs it, a third attests the signature, and a fourth enters it in the records. <strong><em>No man is for himself both claimant and witness</em></strong>. (See Tertullian, <em>Against Marcion</em> (207 A.D.) reprinted online at <a href="http://www.tertullian.org/articles/evans_marc/%20evans_marc_12book5_eng.htm">http://www.tertullian.org/articles/evans_marc/ evans_marc_12book5_eng.htm</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484807"></a><a name="41583"></a>Tertullian's critical analysis is what thereafter thwarted the movement of Marcion. Why was it crucial to defeat Marcion? Because Marcion was claiming Paul's Gospel was the only true gospel. He claimed the Gospel Message presented in Matthew and John were legalistic, and no longer applied.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484813" class="footnote"> 2</a> In response, universal Christianity as it existed prior to the rise of Roman Catholicism vigorously combatted Marcionism. It saw as horrifying heresy any notion that Paul had superiority over the message from Jesus carried by Matthew and John.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484835"></a>When the church was forced to address this crucial issue about Paul, the verdict was clear: the evidence for Paul's apostleship did not meet a Biblical standard. We have no choice but to concur. Other than Paul's own assertions, there is no proof anywhere in the New Testament writings that Paul was appointed an apostle of Jesus Christ. None in the Gospels, none in Acts, and none in any valid apostle-epistle. This is why the doctrine of the early church on salvation ignored Paul, and preached Jesus' doctrine alone.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489930" class="footnote"> 3</a></p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=484378"></a>The Question of Being The Prophesied Ravening Wolf</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483260"></a>Nor can we ignore God in the Prophecy of the Benjamite Ravening Wolf in Genesis warned us of the ravening wolf to come from the tribe of Benjamin.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483265" class="footnote"> 4</a> He would come in the latter days -- in the same epoch as Messiah. In Ezekiel, we learn the characteristics of ravening wolves. They would destroy the Law, cause people to no longer keep the true Sabbath, and cause the cessation of distinguishing the clean from unclean. Paul fit all these characteristics. The Benjamite Ravening Wolf Prophecy further said this Benjamite would divide his spoil. Paul did this as well, claiming the right to exclusively preach to the Gentiles. (Galatians <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=galatians%202:9&amp;version=ASV">2:9</a>.) Paul claimed in that verse the twelve apostles agreed to narrow their mission field to be exclusively the Jewish people. (Any notion the twelve consented to exclude themselves from a Gentile ministry, as Paul claimed, is ridiculous.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=488579" class="footnote"> 5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486009"></a>Thus, even the early church writer and Roman church leader Hippolytus (170-235 A.D.) observed around 205 A.D. that the Benjamite "ravening wolf" prophecy of Genesis "thoroughly fits Paul."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483335" class="footnote"> 6</a> (JWO at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=jesus+words+only&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=1t9NTdSgEYKosAP1v5TeCg&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;output=reader">338</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483288"></a>Jesus likewise warned of the "ravening wolf" that was coming who would be a false prophet. (Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%207:15&amp;version=ASV">7:15</a>.) The false prophet would have "signs and wonders," and come in Jesus' name, tell us the "time is at hand," teach eating meat sacrificed to idols was permissible, but be a worker of anomia.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483303" class="footnote"> 7</a> Anomia in Greek literally means negation of Nomos -- the sole and specific Greek word used to refer to the Law of Moses.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483329" class="footnote"> 8</a> This ravening wolf false prophet would work the negation of the Law just as the Benjamite Ravening Wolf of the Genesis prophecy would work.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483918"></a>It takes enormous defiance of Jesus to ignore who is the subject of Jesus' warnings. Paul declared all the Law abolished.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483873" class="footnote"> 9</a> As to Sabbath specifically, even as Luther said: "Paul [Col. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=colossians%202:16&amp;version=ASV">2:16</a>]...abolish[ed] the sabbath...."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483323" class="footnote"> 10</a> Paul also abolished all distinction of clean versus unclean. (1 Tim. 4:4, `no food is to be rejected if prayed over and God is thanked'; Romans 4:2.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=486204" class="footnote"> 11</a> Paul also said the "day is at hand" in precisely the words Jesus warned a false prophet would use, while "coming in My name." (Luke <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=luke%2021:8&amp;version=ASV">21:8</a>; Romans 13:12.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483376" class="footnote"> 12</a> Paul fit Jesus' depiction of a false prophet in Revelation <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=revelation%202:20&amp;version=ASV">2:20</a> who teaches it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. (<a name="marker=483879"></a>E.g., Corinthians 8:4-13, 1 Corinthians 10:19-29.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483889" class="footnote"> 13</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486057"></a>Finally, Paul twice unwittingly pointed at himself Jesus' warning about the "signs and wonders" prophet who would seek to "seduce the elect."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=486970" class="footnote"> 14</a> For Paul said twice that "signs and wonders" prove his validity. (Romans 15:19 "in the power of signs and wonders... I preached the gospel"; 2 Cor. 12:12 "Truly the signs of an apostle were wrought among you in all patience, by signs and wonders and mighty works.")</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483877"></a>Consequently, the coincidence of descriptions between the Benjamite Ravening Wolf of Genesis and the false prophet `ravening wolf' Jesus described is too powerful to ignore. Their identical convergence on Paul is also too uncanny to deny.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=484385"></a>Seduction From the Law As Key Biblical Test</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484386"></a>Moreover, Jesus also left a trail of clear doctrine by which to test Paul's doctrine on the Law of Moses. Even if we balk at seeing Paul as the ravening wolf, Jesus made it impossible for us to deny there is a blatant contradiction by Paul of what Jesus (and Prophets of Old) taught on what would be the Law even in the era of the New Testament.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484272"></a>First, Jesus told us that anyone who teaches us not to follow the "least command (in the Law of Moses)" would be "least in the kingdom of heaven," but whoever told us to follow the "commandments (from the Law of Moses) would be the greatest in the kingdom of heaven." (Matt. 5:19.) God had told us likewise beforehand that the "New Covenant" was based on "inscribing the Law (Torah) on our hearts...." (Jeremiah 31:<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Jeremiah+31:31-34&amp;version=NIV">31-33</a>.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484103" class="footnote"> 15</a> When His Servant (Messiah) comes, God "will magnify the Law (Torah), and make it honorable." (Isaiah <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah%2042:21&amp;version=ASV">42:21</a> ASV/KJV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490303"></a>Jesus fulfilled this by condemning the Pharisees for teaching traditions that "make of none effect" express commands in the Law given Moses. (Matt. 15:16.) This included Jesus' faulting the Pharisees' notion that a special korban payment could excuse honoring your parents (by supporting them if they fell in poverty). (Matt. 15:16.) This included Jesus attacking the Pharisees' emphasizing the duty to tithe to the neglect of the weightier matters of the Law of Moses. Matt. 23:23. This also included Jesus faulting the Pharisees for teaching one did no wrong engaging in adulterous lust as long as one did not follow through and commit the act of adultery. (Matt. 5:28.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484094" class="footnote"> 16</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484074"></a>Paul did not share any concern to correct the Pharisees' shallow doctrines on the Law. Paul never shared Jesus' concern that the Pharisees' traditions had made of none effect the express commands in the Law given to Moses.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484284"></a>To the contrary, Paul, like the Pharisees, came teaching his own tradition which did away with the Law given Moses. However, Paul went further than most Pharisees. He abrogated it down to the very last jot and tittle.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484294"></a>For Paul said the New Covenant "abolished... the Law of commandments" (Eph. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=eph.%202:15&amp;version=ASV">2:15</a>). Paul likewise said the Sabbath command was "but a shadow of things to come," and henceforth let no man judge you for failure to keep it, for Christ "blotted out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way." (Col. 2:14-17.) Paul insisted that the Law given Moses was a "ministration of death engraven on stones" because the "letter of the law kills," which now has "been done away" and "is abolished;" henceforth, instead, in the Lord we have "liberty." (<a name="marker=484122"></a>2 Corinthians <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20cor.%203:6-17&amp;version=ASV">3:6-17</a>.) Paul defined this liberty quite clearly: "All things are lawful but not all things are necessarily expedient." (1 Cor. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%206:12&amp;version=ASV">6:12</a>, ASV). "All things are lawful for me." (1 Cor. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%2010:23&amp;version=ASV">10:23</a>.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=485068" class="footnote"> 17</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484200"></a>Paul's regard for the Law reached a total low-point in Galatians with utterances which no doubt would shock our Lord. Paul says the Law given the mediator Moses was "ordained by angels." (Gal. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%203:19&amp;version=ASV">3:19</a> ASV KJV.) Anyone who wants to be in bondage to them desires to be in bondage to those who "are no gods" (Gal. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%204:8&amp;version=ASV">4:8</a>) and is seeking to be "in bondage again" to "weak and beggarly elements (angels)." (Gal. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%204:9&amp;version=ASV">4: 9</a>.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484179" class="footnote"> 18</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484392"></a>Paul then goes so far as to say in the same letter that even if an "angel from heaven" should come with a gospel different than Paul, such "an angel from heaven" should be "cursed." (Gal. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%201:8&amp;version=ASV">1:8</a>.) In Galatians, therefore, Paul put his words expressly above the same source he ascribed as the source of the Law given Moses: angels from heaven. Paul deliberately did so in order that we would accept his word as a superior authority to the Law of Moses. This was crucial because Paul was informing us that the Law of Moses was now abolished. Such a bold declaration only had validity if the Law "ordained by angels" was given by "angels of heaven" over whom Paul was asserting a superior authority -- even a right to curse them. Only by this bold contrast and curse upon such an "angel from heaven" (Gal. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%201:8&amp;version=ASV">1:8</a>) could we ever dare think a mere human could single-handedly abolish the Law given Moses. Paul's hubris had therefore reached as high as he could take it to justify his doctrine.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484244"></a>Paul did not limit this abolition to merely the commands in the Law applicable to Sojourners (i.e., Gentiles). Paul taught this truth of abrogation also applied to all the Law's commands directed at Israel (<em>i.e</em>., Jews/the twelve tribes). According to Paul, by the death of Christ, the Jews now experienced the death of the husband (God) who bound them to the covenant at Sinai. The legal effect of His death under the Law of Moses thereby released the wife (the Jews) to remarry a resurrected Jesus who no longer held out the Law of Moses as any sort of guidepost in the New Covenant. (Rom.<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=rom.%207:1-4&amp;version=ASV"> 7:1-4</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490328"></a>In Galatians <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%204:22-31&amp;version=ASV">4:22</a> ff, Paul likewise said that the Jews of Jerusalem no longer correspond to sons of Israel, but instead to the son Ishmael of Hagar; and they continue in bondage (to the Law of Moses), and are thereby thrown out in the desert.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484234" class="footnote"> 19</a> However, how could Paul be inspired by God in this when the same God said in Jeremiah 31:31 ff that He could never base a New Covenant other than on the Law given Moses or enter into it with any other people than the seed of Israel?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484263" class="footnote"> 20</a> Eisenman is perhaps too kind when he says Paul's remarks in Galatians 4:<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal.%204:22-31&amp;version=ASV">22-31</a> contain "a series of sometimes outrageous allusions."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=484247" class="footnote"> <sup>21</sup></a><sup> </sup>(Eisenmann at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=eT4CFLWCB8wC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=eisenman%20new%20testament%20code&amp;pg=PA587#v=onepage&amp;q=outrageous%20allusions&amp;f=false">587</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484366"></a>These are all hard questions with unpleasant answers. The answers call us to trust in Jesus' words above Paul's words.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=487019"></a>
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Jesus: Our Sole Teacher</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=476217"></a>Now we are prepared to receive Jesus' doctrine on the centrality of His message. This is the meaning of Jesus' Words Only -- it is a doctrine actually taught by Our Lord. This doctrine made His commandments the sole focus for the church. He will teach us that His commandments are necessarily diminished when we treat as inspired every word of any apostle (including the one we added by tradition as a thirteenth). Jesus clearly did not intend to impart such an authority to every word of any one of the individual twelve apostles merely because spoken by them. Because Jesus never extended such authority to any of the twelve, we have utterly no justification extending such authority to someone who was not even among the twelve, namely Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482796"></a>This doctrine begins with Jesus' teaching that we have one Rabbi, one Teacher. We were not to call anyone in the church, even an apostle, a teacher. Speaking to both the apostles and the crowds, Jesus said: "Don't let anyone call you Rabbi [i.e., Teacher] for you have only One Teacher, and all of you are equal as brothers and sisters." (Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt.%2023:8&amp;version=NLT">23:8</a> NLT.) "And don't let anyone call you Teacher, for you have only One Teacher, the Messiah (Christ)." (Matt. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt.%2023:10&amp;version=NLT">23:10</a> NLT.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482049"></a>Jesus was thereby admonishing the Apostles to not assume any authority above His message. As Matthew Henry explains this passage:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=482033"></a>The disciples must<strong><em> not assume the authority and dominion implied in those names</em></strong> [i.e., teacher]; they must <em><strong>not domineer over their brethren</strong></em>, or over God's heritage, as if they had dominion over the faith of Christians. (Henry, <em>Commentary</em> (1836) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=Fg1MAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=henry%20not%20assume%20authority%20implied%20in%20those%20names&amp;pg=PA231#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> 231</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=476448"></a>Furthermore, because Jesus was addressing both apostles and the crowd, His remark that all in attendance were "equal" as brothers has a key significance. Yet, it is often overlooked. Jesus meant all Christians are equal "brethren" with a perfectly equal authority. In this sense, no one believer is higher in position or importance than any other believer. Any sense of superiority or sense of inferiority among believers is to be avoided. None are to be masters or teachers in the church of Christ. We are all disciples of the same Master. Thereby, Jesus remains always and forever The Teacher, The Master, solely and uniquely.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482069"></a>Yet, as we shall see, the twelve apostles were commissioned to teach something. Thus, while they were to teach something, they still were not to be called teachers. In other words, they did not have the authority of a teacher apart from the message they were to teach. They held no unique superiority over anyone else merely because they had the function of teaching a certain message. Rather, the message that they carried from Jesus was what was superior to any other message. We miss this point because we do not have the immediate recognition as first century Christians would that the word apostolos means messenger in Greek. Thus, the apostles had no independent authority to teach apart from carrying the message of the words of Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488625"></a>This was in keeping with how Jesus explained the Holy Spirit would work in the New Testament church. The Holy Spirit will not say anything to us other than what the Spirit already heard from the Lord. The Spirit does not speak from within Himself anything! In other words, no inspired words will come directly from the Spirit unless the Spirit already heard it from the Lord. Please listen attentively to our Lord explaining this:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=488639"></a>Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he shall guide you into all the truth: for he shall not speak from himself; but what things soever he shall hear, these shall he speak: and he shall declare unto you the things that are to come. He shall glorify me: for he shall take of mine, and shall declare it unto you. (John 16:13-14 ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488622"></a>Clarke says this bolded language means "He shall teach nothing contrary to what I have taught you."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489516"></a>Thus, the Holy Spirit would do three things: (a) guide them in all truth; (b) provide prophecy of future events, as John later received in Revelation; (c) but otherwise, only repeat what the Spirit already heard from the Lord Himself (thus never contradicting Jesus' words). Jesus tells us why! Because this would glorify Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490352"></a>Later, Jesus gave a contrast in John 7:18: "He that speaketh from himself seeketh his own glory." Thus, if anyone spoke new principles different than what Jesus already said, they actually were speaking for themselves alone. Their words would be to "seek their own glory."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490367"></a>Jesus helps us understand this in another passage. He says to the twelve that the Holy Spirit will bring "remembrance" of Jesus' words and "teach you all things."</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=488671"></a>But the Comforter, even the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said unto you. Joh 14:26 ASV</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488926"></a>Thus, combining John 14:26 and 16:13-14, it means the Holy Spirit "shall...bring to your remembrance all that I said to you." But the Holy Spirit will not cause a recollection of any words contrary to what Jesus said in the hearing of the twelve. This is so because the Holy Spirit does not speak of itself. Clarke explains John 14:26 thusly: "Here Christ promises them that inspiration of the Holy Spirit which enabled them not only to give a true history of his life and death, but also gave them the most perfect recollection of all the words which he had spoken to them...."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488909"></a>But what about the Holy Spirit's teaching and guiding in all things? What does this mean? Because the Holy Spirit would not speak from itself, and not speak anything other than what Jesus already said, we know the teaching and guiding would itself not involve distinct new commands or doctrine. Rather, to keep the glory of God focused on Jesus, its teachings would be solely explanation. It would be teaching the meaning of Jesus' words. As Gill explains: the Holy Spirit would "explain all things which Christ had said to them; to make them more plain and easy to their understandings."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488994"></a>Moreover, we know Jesus was not implying this teaching operation of the Holy Spirit effected an instantaneous infallible understanding in the apostles, let alone anyone else who enjoys the Holy Spirit. Why is this?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489601"></a>First, because the function of teaching and guiding has always been a work of the Holy Spirit in all who have received it. As MacDonald comments on this part of the verse: "But it is, of course, true in all ages that the Spirit guides God's people into all the truth." (MacDonald, Believer's Bible Commentary.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489564"></a>And the Holy Spirit did not uniquely belong to the apostles in the New Testament era.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489612" class="footnote"> 22</a> Peter says the "Holy Spirit God has given to them that obey Him." (Acts 5:32.) Peter said the Holy Spirit would be received by a crowd of 3,000 if they "repented and [were] baptized" in the name of Jesus. (Acts 2:38.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489545" class="footnote">23</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490383"></a>Thus, if the Holy Spirit did not uniquely belong to the Apostles, then Jesus could not possibly mean the teaching and guidance of the Holy Spirit implied instantaneous infallible understanding. If instead He did mean this, then all who "obey Him" and have "repented and been baptized" would have infallible identical understandings of church doctrine. Alas, no such miracle has yet happened.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489512"></a>Furthermore, Jesus' choice of words appears intended to confirm there is no infallible result guaranteed by this work of the Holy Spirit: "He (the Holy Spirit) shall guide you into all the truth...." (John 16:13.) When you are guided to something, it means you can be at the wrong point of understanding along the way. The Guide here is never wrong. Yet, the guidee might be. As Clarke says, Jesus' terminology is "as a father leads a child by the hand." The Holy Spirit is teaching you the path; you are a child; your understanding may be imperfect along the path even as you hear and try to apprehend your teacher. Your teacher is infallible; you are not.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489476"></a>In similar fashion, Jesus compares the Spirit's guiding role to that of a teacher. "He shall teach you all things...." (John 14:26.) Again this does not guarantee that the student will correctly get every lesson. The Teacher here is never wrong. But Jesus did not say the student will always correctly understand the teacher. The student can be wrong or growing in his or her understanding. Thus, all who have the Holy Spirit will be guided and taught by the Holy Spirit, but it does not mean any Christian can affirm they have an infallible understanding. This is true whether they are an apostle or the corner grocer.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489024"></a>Thus, the metaphors of guiding and teaching that Jesus used when the Holy Spirit operated in them was different than how Jesus described the Holy Spirit's work in the apostles which He said will assuredly "bring to your remembrance" the words of Jesus. Their remembrance was guaranteed to be accurate. However, whether they (or any Holy Spirit-filled Christian) would understand the Spirit's teaching or guidance infallibly was not guaranteed. This understanding was to grow from the Holy Spirit's guiding and teaching assistance in understanding the infallibly-recollected words of Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488709"></a>What confirms that teachings had to be measured for accuracy against the words of Jesus is that Apostle John understood it this way. He is the one writing these words in John chapters 14 and 16. Therefore, his personal understanding speaks volumes. John said anyone whose teachings "go beyond" or "overstep" the "teachings of [Jesus] Christ doesn't have God." (2 John 1:8-11.) This means the Holy Spirit is not present (note the verb is has, have) in anyone when such a person insists the church follow doctrine that goes beyond or oversteps the teachings of Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488743"></a>John's lesson paralleled precisely Jesus' lesson that the Holy Spirit would not go beyond what Jesus ever said to the apostles: "for he [the Spirit] shall not speak from himself; but what things soever he shall hear." (John 16:13-14.) Thus, anyone who comes with a teaching that goes beyond Jesus' teaching is speaking "from himself" and not for Jesus' glory, and hence without the Holy Spirit. Such a speaker does not have God at that moment or in those teachings. Their teaching can and must be ignored.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489036"></a>Thus, whether one's teaching really reflects the teachings of the Holy Spirit depends crucially upon whether one's words are truly compatible with the words of the Lord Jesus (both given to the twelve apostles and the prophets that preceded them).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489070"></a>If, however, anyone insists Jesus intended instead that the apostles could each be individual oracles of God on every teaching they uttered, and this was beyond testing by the words of Jesus or the Law and the Prophets, Jesus would Himself become a false prophet. He would be giving the apostles an authority that God previously said no prophet can have. Even a true prophet, like Balaam and the Old Prophet of 1 Kings 13, had to be tested by their consistency with what had been revealed first to Moses and then by the words delivered to every verified prophet thereafter. Balaam and the Old Prophet failed the test later. Jesus cannot establish a new group of super prophets whose words we are not permitted to test for consistency with what preceded without Jesus Himself contradicting the word before Him. Thus, Jesus could never have intended any such class of super prophets.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488747"></a>Accordingly, we know instead that Jesus was telling us about the limited speaking authority of the Holy Spirit so we would know the legitimate and limited sources for church doctrine. It starts and finishes with Jesus' words. The Holy Spirit will help teach their meaning. But the Holy Spirit is not going to add as inspired canon anything apart from Jesus' words any more. The only other thing the Holy Spirit will do (and did do in Revelation) is give a message about things that are to come to pass.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489040"></a>In fact, the Book of Revelation is a perfect picture of how the Spirit was operating in this self-limited way after the Ascension. This book John calls the "Revelation of Jesus Christ." (Rev. 1:1.) John summarizes up front what His sources are: he "bare record of the word of God, the testimony of Jesus and all things that he saw." Nothing is spoken doctrinally that does not come from Jesus. The Lord Jesus is present throughout, talking to John directly just before the visions and just after they finish. (Rev. 1:8,11,17-20; 2:1-29; 3:1-22; 21:5-8; 22:12-13,16.) The angel explains the context of the various visions with Jesus present at all times. This is similar to what happened with the Prophet Daniel: the Son of Man (Jesus) tells the angel Gabriel to make Daniel understand the visions. (Dan. 8:15-16.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489093"></a>Thus, here we see the Holy Spirit is giving all glory to Jesus. Apostle John hears nothing but Jesus' words and things to come. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit is relaying visions to John while Jesus is present observing everything. This tracks the Holy Spirit's role that Jesus explained in John 16:13-14.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=489643"></a>The Importance of John The Baptist's Actions</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488621"></a>John the Baptist is placed in the New Testament by God partly to demonstrate to us the sharp break off of the work of the Holy Spirit once Jesus' ministry began. As we all know, John the Baptist was the "greatest prophet" of all the prophets (Matt. 11:11). John had been preaching and teaching prior to Jesus' ministry. Yet, John saw that once Jesus arrived on the scene, John's prophetic ministry had to recede away. The Teacher and The Prophet had arrived. John then only gave a message that insisted everyone turn to Jesus to hear His doctrine. John's independent message was to decrease. John explained why:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=488206"></a>He must increase, but I must decrease. He that cometh from above is above all: he that is of the earth is of the earth, and of the earth he speaketh: he that cometh from heaven is above all. John 3:30-31 ASV.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488234"></a>John knew if he continued his own message distinct from that of Jesus, John would necessarily diminish from the centrality of the message Jesus was now bringing. To allow emphasis and allegiance to switch to Jesus and His doctrine, John the Baptist was willing to let the focus on himself decrease. In the above speech, John the Baptist gives a long explanation of why Jesus is now the focus. Had John lived past the ascension of Jesus, no doubt John would still have had a ministry that focused now on the centrality of Jesus and His words. That's why John the Baptist preached in John 3:36 that "all who keep on disobeying the Son, the wrath of God continues to remain on him."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=488241" class="footnote"> 24</a> John understood the gospel very well and repeated it. Teaching the nations to "obey all that [Jesus] commanded" (Matt. 28:20) was all that now mattered.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=489359"></a>Jesus' Warning Of Treating An Apostle On Par With Him</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489360"></a>Jesus likewise warned us to not let any apostle's importance grow to the point the apostle's words were on par or greater than words from Jesus. Jesus said this plainly enough in John 13:16 but this is obscured in the KJV translation. Jesus said:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=481465"></a>I tell you the truth, slaves are not greater than their master. <em><strong>Nor</strong></em> is the<strong><em> Apostolos</em></strong> (messenger) <em><strong>more important than the One who sends the message</strong></em>. (John 13:16 NLT with Greek <em>Apostolos</em> revealed.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=481468" class="footnote"> 25</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481469"></a>Thus, if we put greater emphasis upon the words of an apostolos than Jesus' words, we commit the error identified in John 13:16. For example, if we dismiss Jesus' words as applicable only to a supposedly defunct dispensation, preferring some competing doctrine we like in a presumed apostle's letter, we would violate John 13:16. Yet, this is what a large segment of modern evangelical Christianity has opted to do in the doctrine of Dispensationalism. This doctrine gives a current validity to Paul's teachings while blatantly claiming any of Jesus' teachings to the contrary are defunct.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483510" class="footnote"> 26</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=476505"></a>However, to give any equal or superior authority as a teacher to any of the apostles when they were not quoting Jesus would be to allow the apostle to assume a role exceeding the bounds of their apostleship -- their role as messengers. To allow an individual apostle to assume such a role in the church would permit focus on that apostle's doctrine apart from the lessons of Jesus. The Lord wanted us to have one Master, one Teacher: Himself. This was to protect His glory.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483041"></a>Thus, Jesus intended His message was what gave the apostles any cause to be a teacher. They were not authorized to be teachers in their own right, with their own unique doctrines. This is why the fact Paul barely mentions even one sentence from Jesus,<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489440" class="footnote"> 27</a> and paraphrases very few of Jesus' words, makes his doctrine completely his own.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486569"></a>As a result, we must reject Paul's statement in 2 Thessalonians 2:15 that we are to "stand fast and hold the traditions you were taught... by our epistle." Such a doctrine makes Paul's epistles on par with Jesus' words. If Paul were construing Jesus' words, it would not be so serious a problem. But Paul never mentions any specific doctrine of Jesus (except the smallest snippet).<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=486760" class="footnote"> 28</a> And Paul has doctrines so contrary to Jesus that most evangelicals have made up the fiction of separate dispensations containing contrary salvation principles to rationalize the differences.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=488265" class="footnote"> 29</a> Thus, when Paul invites us to elevate tradition, including Paul's own epistles, to the point we should remain "steadfast" in them, we must reject that idea. Only Jesus' doctrine is something to remain steadfast in.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=482803"></a>
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Unwarranted Catholic Tradition Expanded Apostolic `Binding' Authority</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=479487"></a>Then what did Jesus mean by saying that "whatever" the apostles bound or loosed on earth was bound or loosed in heaven? (Matt. 16:19.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489729" class="footnote"> 30</a> The simple answer is the judicial function of adjudicating cases. It did not authorize them to make up new laws or doctrine not already given by God/Jesus. There are several clear proofs this was Jesus' meaning.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486592"></a>First, Jesus' terminology of `binding-and-loosing' clearly was a reference to what a first century Christian knew was a function of a judge. In that day and consistently up until only a century ago, a judge would "bind" or "loose" a prisoner with a leather strap.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=479949" class="footnote"> 31</a> Jesus was merely alluding to what Jesus repeatedly told the twelve early in His ministry: they were going to be the "twelve judges" who were judging the "twelve tribes of Israel."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=479493" class="footnote"> 32</a> Such judicial authority did not make them individually or corporately oracles of God or some new Moses-like law-givers from God. Such judicial authority merely allowed their decision on judicial matters to be bound in heaven.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489717"></a>Second, Jesus explained a judicial authority is intended in Matthew 16:19 (binding/loosing) by means of an exactly parallel statement in John 20:21-23 where we read:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=489703"></a>(22) And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Spirit: (23) whose soever sins ye forgive, they are forgiven unto them; whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained. John 20:22-23 ASV.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489699"></a>Thus, the authority the apostles enjoyed was the power to bind their decisions on guilt or forgiveness in heaven as on earth.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=479917"></a>It was a later Roman Catholic innovation to make this apostolic authority into more than it really was. The Catholic church claimed this `binding' and `loosing' meant an oracle-like power. This was to their advantage because they taught this power belonged to each individual pope who became the bishop of Rome in the footsteps of Peter. Each pope was thereby an `infallible' oracle of God.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=481537" class="footnote"> 33</a> Whatever the pope taught was de facto on par with what Jesus ever said.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481560"></a>Pauline Protestants have proven equally anxious to have the twelve apostles have such demi-god status. Such Protestants unhesitatingly ascribe the same infallibility to each of the twelve based on this "binding and loosing" verse.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=479916" class="footnote"> 34</a> This way we evangelicals have been able to extend this mantle of infallibility to Paul. We do so on the presumption that Paul's claim to being an apostle is valid. However, Paul was not one of the twelve apostles and did not enjoy whatever power Jesus was giving the twelve. Regardless, such an interpretation of Jesus' remarks is a Roman Catholic anachronism which needs to be finally recognized as such.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482809"></a>We must eject all Catholic traditions that do not have a warrant in the Bible itself. The notion of apostolic authority as binding in delivery of unique new doctrines, rather than when issuing a judicial decision or with inspiration relaying Jesus' words, is wholly unwarranted. This was a self-serving expansion of apostolic authority by the Catholic church. It is connived at by Pauline Protestants who find such doctrine conducive to giving an elevated importance to Paul's words.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=482813"></a>
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Apostolic Decisions Were Binding In Heaven Only When Reached Jointly</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482880"></a>An example of the Apostles acting as judges over a case is when they decided to add Matthias as the twelfth apostle. This was their remedy for the transgression they found Judas had committed.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489734" class="footnote"> 35</a> (Acts chapter one.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482842"></a>Peter did not assume a superiority, and declare Matthias an apostle. It was a joint decision. Why did the apostles act this way on such a matter?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482841"></a>Because Jesus made it quite clear that the apostles, if they wanted their judicial decision to be binding in heaven, had to act jointly, and not in solitary fashion. (Matt. 20:26-27.) With regard to the question of a twelfth apostle, the apostles recognized this was the kind of decision they wanted bound in heaven, and not just on earth. That's why the apostles acted jointly.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482860"></a>This is the true import of Jesus' lesson to the apostles in Matthew 20:26-27. Unfortunately, the translators do not assist us. They leave the meaning obscure. The correct translation is:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=483047"></a>(25) But Jesus called them unto him, and said, Ye know that the supreme magistrates (archon, plural) of the Gentiles lord against them, and their great ones exercise a full privilege over them. (26) Not so shall it be among you: but whosoever would become first (protos) among you shall be your servant (diakonos, deacon); (27) and whosoever would be first (protos) among you shall be your slave (doulos). (Matt.20:26-27.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483048"></a>Jesus is talking to twelve new judges who shall be supreme over Israel. He is contrasting how supreme judges operate among the Gentiles. He wants the apostles to be sure not to copy how an archon operated among the Gentiles. An archon acted as the first over and above other magistrates, as a supreme solitary magistrate. An archon did so in his jurisdiction, thereby lording it over the people.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482941"></a>How do we know this was Jesus' intention? First, because in context, Jesus is speaking to twelve judges he just gave such similar supreme judicial power over Israel. Second, Jesus was being disparaging of acting first among other judges, which is something we will in a moment discuss was the archon practice. Lastly, Jesus used the word archon to precisely mean such a supreme magistrate in Luke 12:58. When the Luke passage is translated, archon is always translated as magistrate. Somewhat perplexingly, in Matthew 20:26-27, its plural is always translated as rulers.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482949"></a>Vine's New Testament explains what archon meant in Luke 12:58. It says that</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=482961"></a>archon, a `ruler,' denotes, in Luke 12:58 `a local authority, a magistrate,' acting in the capacity of one who received complaints, and possessing higher authority than the judge, to whom the `magistrate' remits the case.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482962"></a>Thus, when Jesus speaks of an archon in Luke 12:58, Jesus is talking about someone whose role included acting as a supreme court justice who acted alone. Archons in that judicial role did not function in a council to apply existing law to new cases. They acted as first among judges who were beneath them, reviewing cases sent them by lower level judges.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483038"></a>Why was Jesus concerned the apostles might copy the Gentile archon approach and behave as first over other judges, and thereby lord it over the church of Christ?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482970"></a>Jesus' intent is obvious when you compare the binding authority among judges under Jewish law of that era.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482974"></a>In Jewish legal tradition as of the first century, supreme judicial authority was always held by a joint committee. It was never held by a solitary individual. Jewish law required judicial decisions at the supreme level of the Sanhedrin to be done by joint votes. (<em>Tractate Sanhedrin</em>, Herbert Danby trans. (1919) at 68.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482990"></a>This ancient text Tractate Sanhedrin then explained the binding nature of joint decisions:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=482995"></a>If in a case, the majority decreed a thing to be unclean, it was unclean; if clean, it was clean. Thence did the legal decision go forth and spread abroad in Israel.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482994"></a>As John Gill notes, time and time again these judicial rulings of the Sanhedrin were said in the Talmud to be binding in heaven as on earth.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=483554" class="footnote"> 36</a> Thus, when Jesus gives the twelve a similar power to bind/find guilt or loose/forgive sin, they knew He meant such authority was to be exercised jointly. Consequently, when Jesus condemns the Gentile archon practice of operating as the first among what should be equals, we know Jesus is extolling the Jewish format of joint judicial decision-making. Just as the Sanhedrin believed their joint council rulings were bound throughout Israel, the apostles were being told similar joint action by themselves on judicial matters would be binding on heaven as on earth.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482872"></a>Roman Catholic authorities ignore this background because they wanted to invest the solitary pope with a supreme authority acting as first among all officers of the church. Their entire theory of papal infallibility was on the presumption that Peter could be deduced to be first among the twelve. Not only did Jesus fault the apostles when they started to speculate who was the most important among them (Mark 9:33-34), but here in Matthew 20:26-27, Jesus gave clear direction against this principle. There is to be no first apostle among apostles on judicial matters. Jesus uses the word first twice to disparage the superiority principle among apostles on judicial issues. Jesus warned that such a unilateral approach can potentially lead to abuse of judicial power. It was not in Roman Catholicism's interest to bring out Jesus' meaning. Thus, they buried it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484747"></a>Yet, since the same approach serves treating the solitary-speaking Paul, assumed to be a true apostle, as a solitary binding oracle, Paulinist Protestants leave in place the Roman Catholic tradition. No one faults the idea that a single apostle could act just like an archon. Jesus, in truth, abhorred this idea.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483066"></a>Thus, even if Paul were a valid thirteenth apostle, and even supposing Jesus meant a binding decision could extend to more than judicial decisions, Paul could not act in this regard on his own say-so.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=484045"></a>Yet, in Scripture, the only evidence of a joint apostolic judicial decision is in Acts 1:23-24. To remedy Judas' transgression, the twelve put forth two candidates for a twelfth to replace him. Then they let the lot decide. Interestingly, there is no evidence in scripture of a joint decision by the apostles over doctrine.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=489907" class="footnote"> 37</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=489804"></a>This means there was never any judicial decision by the twelve apostles confirming Paul was an apostle or a prophet. Paul thus never enjoyed a finding by the apostles about himself that was binding in heaven by the twelve which would ever give us justification to treat Paul's words as binding over Christ's church.<strong><a name="pgfId=489889"></a></strong><strong><a name="pgfId=479990"></a></strong></p>
<h3>
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Violating JWO By Having A Second Master</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=476665"></a>Accordingly, if we treat someone like Paul as an inspired voice who makes the criteria for salvation even in the slightest any different than what Jesus announced, we have a problem. We have created a risk of Two Teachers and Two Masters. However, Jesus told us what happens when you have two masters (teachers) competing for control of doctrine:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=476239"></a>No man can serve two masters (kurios); for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to one, and despise the other. (Matt. 6:24 ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=476681"></a>Despite this warning, many hold to one Master (Paul) while despising the words of Jesus. This is most obvious in how they treat Jesus' words defining the Gospel.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487362"></a>For indeed, Jesus' doctrine of salvation is not hard to discern. His Gospel was reflected right within the Great Commission itself. Jesus told the apostles to make disciples of all the nations, "teaching them to obey [tereo] everything I commanded you." (Matt. 28:19-20.) Why were these commandments to be taught and obeyed by the nations? Because Jesus explained in John 8:51: "I tell you the truth, anyone who obeys [tereo] My teaching will never die!"<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=486836" class="footnote"> 38</a> To be more accurate, "obeys" is "should have kept on obeying" and "will never" is actually "should never ever."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490071" class="footnote"> 39</a> Thus, it says, "all those who should have kept on obeying My Teaching should never ever die."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490120" class="footnote"> 40</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490193"></a>Well then, to whom does Jesus affix the absolute promise of salvation? It is to only one type of person. In Matthew 10:22, Jesus says "the one who has endured (aorist active) to the end shall be saved (future indicative)."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490415"></a>Jesus said likewise in the Parable of the Sower. From among the four seeds, even the seed which sprouted and thus "believed for a while" (<a name="marker=490221"></a>Luke 8:13) but fell in time of temptation, Jesus said only one was saved. Jesus said it was the fourth seed. It was the only seed which `brought forth fruit with patient endurance to the end.'<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490141" class="footnote"> 41</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490199"></a>Thus, whenever the Great Commission is fulfilled by teaching obedience to Jesus' commands, including the necessity to endure successfully in them, the Gospel that saves is spread.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486853"></a>This is the same message in Jesus' parable about the one who builds on sand. "And every one that heareth these words of mine, and doeth them not, shall be likened unto a foolish man, who built his house upon the sand [whose end is destruction]." Matt. 7:26-27 ASV.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490160"></a>So what are these commandments which lead to life if obeyed in patient endurance, or hell if disobeyed? Here is a small sampling of verses from just the early chapters of Apostle Matthew's Gospel. None are parabolic. Hence, there is no mystery involved. All threaten damnation if certain principles are disobeyed. Or they promise eternal life if certain principles are obeyed:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487045"></a>"One who is angry with his brother shall be in danger of judgment." Matt. 5:22.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487052"></a>"Whosoever shall say `Fool' shall be in danger of Hell fire." Matt. 5:22.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487090"></a>"Every tree that bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire." Matt. 7:19 ASV.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487105"></a>"[B]ut I say unto you, that every one that looketh on a [married] woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. And if thy right eye causeth thee to stumble, pluck it out, and cast it from thee: for it is profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not thy whole body be cast into hell." Matt. 5:28-29.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487120"></a>"[B]ut I say unto you, love your enemies, and pray for them that persecute you; that you may be sons of your Father who is in heaven." Matt. 5:44-45.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487165"></a>"And be not afraid of them that kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell...But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father who is in heaven...He that findeth his life shall lose it; and he that loseth his life for my sake shall find it." Matt. 10:28, 33, 39 ASV.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=487317"></a>"And behold, one came to him and said, Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he said unto him,... `[I]f thou wouldest enter into life, keep the commandments. He saith unto him, Which? And Jesus said, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Honor thy father and mother; and, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.'" Matt. 19:16-19 ASV.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=486829"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490247"></a>Yet, despite the clarity of Jesus' Gospel, how many evangelicals would teach obedience to the commands in these verses actually are crucial for salvation? Each verse expressly says so. Each verse points us away from thinking that John 3:16 means that faith alone should save. (John 3:16.) Now we realize that with equal force, Jesus says in John 8:51 that obedience should save. Jesus obviously intends us to read both John 3:16 and 8:51 together. When both verses are combined, it is faith and obedience that Jesus simultaneously says should save.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490573" class="footnote"> 42</a> Where have we heard that before? In James' Epistle! James says when faith is working together with obedience (works) in synergy, one is justified. (James 2:20-24.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490253" class="footnote"> 43</a> Jesus then assures us the result after a lifetime of patient endurance in both principles is that we "shall be saved." (Matthew 10:22.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490235"></a>Thus, we cannot emphasize for salvation the importance of faith that neglects obedience. Nor can we emphasize obedience for salvation that neglects faith. They are working together to justify one who calls on the name of the Lord. Jesus only gives assurance of salvation when both principles are operative.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490430" class="footnote"> 44</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490170"></a>However, we all know that no evangelical teaches the necessity of obedience to any of Jesus' commands quoted above for salvation-sake itself, whether in patient endurance or otherwise.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487503"></a>Why is this?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487504"></a>There is no secret here. Most of us evangelical Christians claim that teaching that our salvation depends on any kind of obedience to any Law, whether from Jesus or Moses, is the heresy of works. For this proposition, we rely upon Paul. (Romans 4:3-5.) In fact, most evangelicals will mock anyone who dares teach the necessity to obey these commandments of Jesus to spare ourselves from damnation. More to the point, the Modern Pauline Gospel teaches us emphatically that we are saved without having "kept guard" or "obeyed" Jesus' teaching, despite Jesus saying the opposite in John 8:51. This implies that anyone who teaches what Jesus teaches in John 8:51 is, in fact, lost. Thus, to most evangelicals, anyone who teaches the literal meaning of what Jesus taught in John 8:51 or any of the numerous verses quoted above is damned!</p>
<h3><strong><a name="pgfId=489942"></a></strong><strong>The Evangelical Rationale</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487270"></a>What is the rationale that explains away Jesus' contrary statements? The evangelical position is that the only command we must obey from Jesus is faith. That supposedly answers all these other commands with a `not guilty' declaration! Atonement applies across the board now and for every future sin as long as I said I believe in Jesus and trust in His work on the cross. That's the only superficially-satisfactory explanation that has ever been offered on how to square these demanding words from Jesus with Paul's doctrine.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=487523" class="footnote"> 45</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487519"></a>But no one cares that Jesus refuted that idea Himself. Jesus was emphatic that the atonement sacrifice does you no good if you have not first appeased the one you had sinned against. Jesus commands you to leave your sacrifice at the sacrifice-place (Jesus' true words), and be first reconciled to the one you offended. Then come with the atoning sacrifice to the sacrifice place. <a name="marker=487275"></a>Matthew 5:23-24.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=487301" class="footnote"> 46</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487540"></a>Jesus was saying nothing new. The Prophets of old always said that it was an abuse of the atonement-offerings for an unrepentant person to expect forgiveness from God by such offerings. Unless one already had repented from sin and turned from evil, the atonement had no application to you. <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=487545" class="footnote">47</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487607"></a>Furthermore, no one seems to care that this inflated significance to atonement directly discourages taking seriously the numerous warnings of Jesus to believers. Where Jesus sows doubt, this argument sows assurance. Where Jesus wants believers to fear damnation, this argument sows the unalterable promise of heaven. Where Jesus exhorts the sternest self-control to enter heaven albeit maimed (Mark 9:42-47), this view tells you to "relax, sit back" (J. Vernon McGee) and rely on the atonement alone.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488449"></a><a name="40199"></a>When these incongruities were finally faced, the most absurd solution of all was offered. Calvinism teaches that Jesus uses these warnings to sow fear and lack of assurance to fulfill God's supposed absolute assurance that God will never allow us to fall from His predestined will that we will be saved.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=488411" class="footnote"> 48</a> (This reasoning is compelled by Paul's doctrine of predestination.) However, this makes God deliver a two-faced message. For God would be using warnings that are premised upon attacking assurance to accomplish the very assurance of predestination that Calvinists insist (based upon Paul) is the real truth. If predestination were true, then a believer would have every right instead to believe he has total assurance based on predestination. He thus would be free to disregard the insecurity for his own salvation that Jesus taught. Unless God wants us to accept He can lie to us, Jesus cannot utter threats which negate the very assurance that God supposedly wants us to know we have in the doctrine of predestination. In other words, if Jesus threatens an assurance of a believer, but it is false that any believer has any grounds to doubt his assurance (based on Paul), wouldn't Jesus have to be a liar in uttering the threat in the first place? Of course, He would. The correct solution is to reject any doctrine of Calvinists (and Paul) that would make Jesus into a liar. One of these doctrines is predestination. If you assume Paul is telling the truth, then Jesus is the liar. If Jesus is telling the real truth that our salvation is at risk for certain misbehavior, then Paul's teaching that no such risk exists is false doctrine. I prefer to accept Paul has the false doctrine than swallow the idea that Jesus was deceptive, misleading, or worse.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490593"></a>These Pauline rationalizations are just more proof that much of Christianity has come to despise Jesus' words in preference for another Master: Paul. For what else could explain why anyone would take Jesus' threats and promises which hinge salvation on obedience, in part, and which are clearly directed at us, and yet claim they are really all resolved by Jesus' atonement? Under this Pauline view, all Jesus' warnings were really pointless. All He had to do is tell us about atonement and faith, and leave out all these troublesome threats and promises. What is really afoot is many have decided that rather than let go of Paul and hold onto Jesus, they prefer letting go of Jesus and holding onto Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487642"></a>Bonhoeffer saw through these mental twists and turns. In his famous book entitled <em>The Cost of Discipleship</em> (1937), Bonhoeffer preached Jesus' words alone. He ignored Paul's doctrines. Bonhoeffer saw clearly that Jesus' doctrine of salvation turns on costly obedience to the Law, in particular the Ten Commandments in addition to faith. Bonhoeffer was blunt. He mocked the Modern Gospel as cheap grace. That Modern Gospel ignored Jesus' dominant theme of a personal costliness to receive eternal life. Bonhoeffer says the cheap grace gospel clearly is denying the words of Jesus. Bonhoeffer boldly calls this a "Christianity without Christ." (<em>Cost of Discipleship </em>(1937) at 39.)</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=487680"></a>Despising Jesus' Words Via Translation</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487192"></a>Thus, it is clear that much of modern Christianity has come to despise our True Master in preference for another Master. If this really is not what is going on, then why would many in the church consent to translators not properly reflecting "keep on believing" is the real language of John 3:16, preferring instead to make it appear a one-time faith ("believes") is at issue?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=481153" class="footnote"> 49</a> What else explains why translators would change "should have eternal life" improperly into "shall have eternal life" in John 3:16?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=481164" class="footnote"> 50</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487688"></a>If the Modern Gospel has not led to the disdain for Jesus' words, then why else would translators make it appear God's wrath remains on those who "disbelieve the Son" in John 3:36 rather than what the verse actually says -- God's wrath rests on those who "disobey the Son"?<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=481180" class="footnote"> 51</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=485147"></a>If Christians have not become lax in loyalty to their Lord, why else would there be no anger about the twisting of our Lord's words to Moses in Genesis 15:6? For the Lord told Moses that "he (Abram) reckoned it (the promise of 15:5) to Him (God) as righteousness." Premier evangelical scholars of Hebrew concur this is what the Hebrew means if we did not have Paul's words to deal with.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=485129" class="footnote"> 52</a> God was not reckoning anything to Abraham. It was the reverse: Abraham was reckoning God's promise of Genesis 15:5 as a righteous deed. This is because the he we see in most translations before reckoned is not actually present in the Hebrew. It is an interpolation. So without interpolating the addition of this he, its meaning is unmistakable in both English and Hebrew syntax: "He (Abram) believed the Lord and reckoned it to Him for righteousness." Hebrew's syntax here is identical to English. The correct meaning for the subject of reckoned was the he from the earlier clause: Abram. (Later his name was changed by God to Abraham.) Therefore, this verse never had anything to do with the idea of justification by faith, contrary to how Paul construed it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=485193"></a><a name="33768"></a>Consequently, but for a primary allegiance to Paul, why would anyone tolerate any more the modern translations of Genesis 15:6 which even as they translate word-for-word correctly, mislead us by (a) interpolating the second he without bracketing it [e.g., [he]) and (b) then capitalizing it. Watch how these two alterations trick your mind: "And he believed in the LORD; and He counted it to him for righteousness." (NASB YLT.)<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=488497" class="footnote"> 53</a> But in Hebrew, the meaning is the reverse: "[he] (i.e., Abram) counted it to Him for righteousness." Same words, but a totally opposite meaning!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=485225"></a>But for transferring part of our allegiance from our Lord to Paul, why would anyone tolerate Paul's translation of Habakkuk 2:4? It is no excuse that Paul relied upon the erroneous Greek translation of the Septuagint. Instead, to this very day, we know that Habakkuk 2:4 in Hebrew stands for the opposite of what Paul thought it said! Its true meaning in the original Hebrew is: "The just shall live by his faithfulness," which in Hebrew means obedient living.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=485269" class="footnote"> 54</a> The verse thus had actually the opposite meaning from what Paul deduced. The obedient (faithful) are just. One is not justified by faith that is alone! Paul was simply using a wrong translation -- a defect which was pointed out two millennia ago in the Dead Sea Scroll Habakkuk Pesher.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487694"></a>What did this ancient commentary on Habakkuk say? It said Habakkuk 2:4 did not imply faith (as used in the Greek Septuagint) made one just, but rather faithfulness which in the Hebrew meant obedient living did so and made one "saved."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=485327" class="footnote"> 55</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487698"></a>Thus, Habakkuk 2:4 has always stood for the exact opposite of how Paul understood the verse! However, due to Paul's competing understanding, evangelicals refuse to see that Habakkuk 2:4's view on obedience is the Gospel that the Lord Jesus repeats in the Great Commission, John 8:51, Matthew 10:22, His parables, and numerous other verses.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488513"></a>Yes, much of modern Christianity has come to accept a competing Master. As a result, it has despised the Lord's words. It has added to and diminished from the Lord's words in violation of Deuteronomy 4:2. The reason is that Paul's doctrines are treated on par with Jesus' words (whether Jesus expressed them in the New Testament or through the Prophets). This approach has made Paul a competing Master. This preference for Paul is what is used to rationalize skewing Jesus' words in John 3:16 and elsewhere to fit Paul's words. People criticize the cults (and rightly so) for translating passages to fit their doctrine. Before we evangelicals can take the speck out of their eye, however, we need to take the beam out of our own!</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=481672"></a>A Clear Example of Suppression of Jesus' Words</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481198"></a>People ask me for proof that they can more easily recognize that we have indeed killed off Jesus' words in preference for Paul. They do not know enough classical Greek to uncover the mysteries of John's Gospel. They do not know enough Hebrew to decipher the issues in Habakkuk 2:4 or Genesis 15:6.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=485376"></a>Thus, here is one of the clearest examples of the mental gymnastics used to suppress Jesus' words in preference for Paul's doctrines. It comes from Charles Stanley. No one needs training in classical Greek or in Hebrew to see this.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483114"></a>Charles Stanley is the head of the eighteen million member Baptist church. Stanley comments on Jesus' many parables that discuss "weeping and gnashing of teeth" which servants of His in the parables will suffer typically "outside in darkness." These servants' errors were:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=482220"></a>not having interest on their talents given by God. Matt. 25:14 ff.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=482224"></a>abusing fellow Christian servants. Luke 12:41 ff. Matt.24:48 ff.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=482225"></a>failing to have charity to the brothers. Matt. 25:31 ff.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=482226"></a>being once virgins who later let their oil burn out. Matt. 25:1 ff.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=482232"></a>being once a "friend" who accepts the "call" and is even seated at the great banquet but when the time for examination comes they lack a "proper robe." Matt. 22:2 ff.<a name="pgfId=482231"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482239"></a>Stanley confesses it is too obvious to deny that Jesus is warning Christians of this place of weeping and gnashing for misbehavior. So isn't Jesus warning Christians hell (weeping and gnashing outside in darkness) if they have the failings of the "unprofitable servant"? If they are an "abusive servant"? If they are "goats" who call Him Lord but do not provide food, clothing and water to the brethren? Etc.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=482236"></a>Stanley says no. Charles Stanley insists this "weeping and gnashing" which is "outside in darkness" is in heaven, not hell: "It certainly does not mean hell...It clearly refers to being thrown outside a building into the dark. There is no mention of pain, fire or worms."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=478518" class="footnote"> 56</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=478521"></a>In arriving at such conclusion, Stanley never discusses His true Master's words in Matthew 13:42. Jesus calls the place of "weeping and gnashing" in Matthew 13:42 the "fiery furnace" where the angels at the time of final judgment throw those who were "ensnared" in sin.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490478" class="footnote"> 57</a> If Stanley discussed that verse, Jesus would no longer fit Paul. Losing Paul is too horrible a consideration. Thus, Jesus and His meaning are sacrificed. As Bonhoeffer said of the modern cheap grace gospel: "Jesus is misunderstood anew, and again and again put to death." (Bonhoeffer, <em>Christ the Cente</em>r (1960) at 39.)</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=488044"></a>The Dilemma of Two Masters</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=478520"></a>How did such serious and prominent Christian leaders succumb to positions that hold tightly to Paul, while blatantly disregarding Jesus' words? It is simple. When you have two masters, you have a dilemma. These Christian leaders solved their dilemma by choosing Paul on certain issues. Jesus says when you so choose Paul, then you will love Paul on those issues. Jesus told us the consequence: you will despise your true Master (Jesus) when He speaks on the same issues. Jesus, however, said we cannot live like this. We must choose one over the other. Yet, it is not an acceptable choice to choose Paul over Jesus. Jesus told us to have an allegiance for Him greater than any family or personal ties. (Matt. 10:37.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488039"></a>Thus, if Jesus and Paul conflict, we must choose Jesus' clear meaning over giving the slightest weight to a contrary teaching from Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488068"></a>However, this approach has not been followed. Modern Christianity in large part has, instead, left Jesus' doctrine in shambles. As Bonhoeffer said of the cheap grace gospel, it is a Christianity without Christ. It denies the costliness of grace. The root cause of this desolation of Jesus' doctrine is the Paul-Jesus division. Jesus explained the eternal principle at work:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=487229"></a>Every kingdom divided against itself is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself shall not stand. Matt. 12:25.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487235"></a>Regrettably, mainstream Protestantism remains highly divided. The divide is typically drawn on lines that directly trace back to the Paul versus Jesus division. Lutherans who adhere to the mature Luther's Catechisms (like Bonhoeffer),<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=488163" class="footnote"> 58</a> Methodists and Pentecostals along with Messianics tend to stress Jesus' words on salvation and the Law. On the other side are the Baptists, Reformed (conservative) Presbyterians and Evangelicals who accept Luther's youthful emphasis on Paul's doctrines. This Pauline side has several main sub-splinters based upon whether one believes something Paul said deserves greater emphasis than what other churches emphasize. For example, Predestination is highly important in Presbyterianism but is either sometimes ignored or sometimes rejected by certain Baptist scholars and evangelicals. See Dillow's<em> Reign of the Servant Kings </em>(rejects Predestination, but accepts Eternal Security and Faith Alone). Within this pro-Paul splinter, there are sub-groups who preach Law mixed with Pauline salvation doctrines. For example, some Baptist groups teach restoration of the Sabbath day. What we find then is there are sub-divisions even among Pauline Christians which sometimes lay partial emphasis on something Jesus taught to the detriment of accepting competing doctrine from Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490025"></a>From these conflicts, however, a miracle recently emerged from the Paulinist side. This miracle shows Jesus is drawing the two sides closer together to accept one master both in faith and doctrine: Jesus Christ.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490494"></a>What was this miracle of God? It is John MacArthur's conversion to Jesus' Gospel. MacArthur first announced this in the 1990s. Since then, he has become progressively more centered upon Jesus' Gospel up through his latest work of 2003.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490045" class="footnote"> 59</a> MacArthur's writings hold clear earmarks of influence from Dietrich Bonhoeffer's <em>The Cost of Discipleship</em> (1937). MacArthur's 2003 work <em>Hard to Believe</em> even has a subtitle drawn from Bonhoeffer: <em>The High Cost and Infinite Value of Following Jesus</em>. MacArthur has thus bravely weathered the charge of heretic as he holds dearly to the true salvation doctrine of Jesus. Yet, simultaneously, he avows his belief in the Paulinist-Calvinist doctrine of the `sovereignty of God'<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490503" class="footnote"> 60</a> and the "faith alone doctrine."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490508"></a>How does MacArthur reconcile Paul's doctrine to Jesus' Gospel? MacArthur insists that we can simultaneously hold onto Paul's gospel and Jesus' true gospel if we just squeeze <em>repentance</em> and <em>obedience to the Law</em> under the meaning of <em>faith alone</em>.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490614" class="footnote"> 61</a> MacArthur constantly is trying to thread a needle. He wants to keep all Paul's jargon but re-interpret its meaning in the hope of preserving Jesus' Gospel.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=490638" class="footnote"> 62</a> It is a valiant effort by a sincere but utterly conflicted man.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490719"></a>Yet, MacArthur represents an extraordinary movement of the Spirit bringing the Calvinist and Lutheran sides closer together on doctrine. MacArthur is speaking from the Calvinist side tilting in favor of JWO on salvation. Bonhoeffer speaks likewise from the Lutheran side in favor of JWO.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=488858"></a>Thus, MacArthur and Bonhoeffer must reflect what is going on inside the hearts and minds of many believers. God is moving. God wants us to know there is<strong><em> no need any longer to live with such internal tension between two competing doctrines</em></strong>. Instead, there is one obvious solution. It will erase all this confusion and division. <em><strong>What if within Christianity, we all simultaneously agreed Jesus' words were the sole inspired source to formulate church doctrine?</strong></em> Jesus prayed that "they all may be one...." (John 17:21.) Jesus wanted this unity so His message would be unified and a better witness. What more sensible and better way to obey Jesus' intentions than to unite on the single-source of Jesus' words to formulate doctrine? It's the obvious solution to this nagging disunity. Unless we take this brave step, our witness for Christ is marred. And we will continue to defy our Lord's wishes of unity for us.<strong><a name="pgfId=486409"></a></strong></p>
<h3>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html-1.gif" /></div>
Final Thoughts</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=479409"></a>We can now finish the battle that the Reformers courageously began for Christ. However, we no longer can permit ourselves to turn a blind eye to the error in the Roman Catholic tradition that sees Paul too as an apostle of Jesus Christ. This was not the view of the earliest church when the question was squarely faced in 207 A.D. We can also now see Jesus gave us significant warnings of the "ravening wolf" from the tribe of Benjamin, not only through Moses and Ezekiel but also during His earthly ministry.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=483778"></a>We must no longer be distracted from following our Lord's teachings. We can now take the first step to a thorough-going reformation. This one will examine all doctrine in the exclusive light of Jesus' words. Even doctrines that solely rely upon Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487860"></a>When the Reformation started in 1517, there was a great advantage in using Paul to strike a blow at the Catholic doctrine of indulgences. Clearly, the Catholic church was selling a work of obedience as a means of salvation. An indulgence was a payment by a loved one to obtain a papal certificate for a deceased relative, whereupon the deceased was supposedly released from purgatory. They were now free to enter heaven. Certainly, such a doctrine violated Paul's teaching that works of obedience can never contribute toward salvation. (Eph. 2:8-9; Romans 4:3-5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487895"></a>However, Luther overlooked that an indulgence was a work not required by Jesus. It was a tradition. Moreover, unlike Jesus' doctrine of salvation, the indulgence doctrine taught salvation was achieved without any personal repentance of the person allegedly in purgatory. The indulgence doctrine negated Jesus' salvation Gospel. His Gospel emphasized the centrality of repentance from sin. (Mark 9:42-47.) The Catholic doctrine of indulgences also depended on belief in a place called purgatory. However, it nowhere appears in Jesus' words or any inspired Scripture. It too only had support in Catholic tradition based on the Apocrypha.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487785"></a>Thus, the young Luther overlooked a better strategy than relying upon Paul. Luther could have instead relied upon the Jesus' Words Only doctrine. With it, Luther would have easily blasted as unwarranted such traditions of the Roman Catholic church, including the notions of purgatory, indulgences, and countless other innovations. Luther did not realize he had a better weapon in hand than Paul. He had the weapon of the Exclusive Authority of Jesus over His church that neither popes, priests, nor ministers can claim to hold.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=487775"></a>Unfortunately, Luther's emphasis on Paul and failure to use Jesus' Words Only to attack indulgences has had a terrible consequence. It has led to a teaching even more horrible than the doctrine of indulgences. We have taken any of Jesus' doctrine which does not comport with Paul, and found ways to ignore it and suppress it. When that would not work, we altogether dismissed such conflicting doctrine from Jesus as belonging to a supposedly defunct dispensation.<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=486951" class="footnote"> 63</a> We have thereby drained Christianity of Christ's teachings. We have consequently arrived at a "Christianity without Christ" to borrow Bonhoeffer's expression.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490834"></a>However, I now look forward to the renovation which Bonhoeffer first let us glimpse. Not a word of Paul influenced him to depart from his loyalty to the words of Christ. Every word of <em>The Cost of Discipleship</em> (1937) is a testament to a man convicted by God of the verity of the Jesus' Words Only proposition. He did so bravely. Bonhoeffer died a hero as well as a martyr, suffering being murdered by the Nazis. Thus, let Christ be victorious for you as well, as He was in the end for Bonhoefffer. MacArthur likewise gives us hope that evangelicals and Calvinists will realize that Christ is the Way, the Truth and the Life, and "no man comes to the Father but through me." (John 14:6.) Soon I trust we will no longer teach the lost about a pathway to Christ other than what Christ Himself taught. All who come up by a different path than what Jesus taught are "thieves and robbers." (John 10:1.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490850"></a>This change in our pathway to God, based on what Jesus alone taught, can never possibly end up with a dangerous doctrine of salvation. This is because we are solely relying upon what Jesus said was required for salvation. We are still saved and justified solely by grace. But God's conditions for grace is not solely a one-time faith. Rather, as Bonhoeffer clearly explained, Jesus insisted upon a costly grace. Jesus rejected any notion of a cheap grace.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=490886"></a>But when will we know we have a tangible victory for Christ based on Jesus' Words only? When no Christian during devotions treats Paul as a director of doctrine, but relies instead upon Our Lord's words alone. Then this battle is won. When no Christian would think of buying a Bible any longer that contains the words of a false apostle and false prophet, we will have grasped a victory for our Lord. When Paul is treated just like the Apocrypha, which Christians pressured the King James Bible in 1825 to drop from canon, we will have seen a tangible result. When all Christians relinquish every doctrine not of Jesus Christ, we know the Church has finally given glory where the glory belongs.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481744"></a>Is making this change all that hard? Tony Coffey in <em>Once A Catholic</em> made an interesting statement. In appealing to Catholics to focus on Jesus, and jettison Catholic traditions, he said he had a "heart filled with the conviction that if we follow Jesus Christ, we will never be lost."<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.html#pgfId=481747" class="footnote"> 64</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=481748"></a>I wholeheartedly agree. If Protestants can tell a Catholic this is true for the Catholic about their traditions, then Protestants should agree it is true about their own traditions. A Protestant should agree there is nothing dangerous in following Jesus' words alone. There is, in fact, only danger in not doing so.</p>
<p> </p>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=483415"></a>For further discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010.#12593" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=484813"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#42229" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=489930"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#34087" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=483265"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014.#16049" class="XRef"></a>et seq</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=488579"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014.#22859" class="XRef"></a>et seq. This division in Paul's exclusive favor is dubious at best. At the Jerusalem Council in Acts 15, Peter stood up and spoke. Paul was at his feet. Peter declared He, not Paul, was the Apostle to the Gentiles by God's decree: "God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe." (Acts 15:7 ASV.) Also, in the post-council era with Paul alive the Apostle Thomas was preaching the gospel in India. This is supported by Ephraem Syrus, Ambrose, Paulinus, and Jerome. ("St. Thomas The Apostle,"<em> Catholic Encyclopedia</em>.) At Mylapore, not far from Madras, "tradition has it that it was here that St. Thomas laid down his life [in 72 A.D. which] is locally very strong." Id. If what Paul is saying were true, didn't Thomas transgress the Jewish-Gentile pact with Paul? But why would the twelve leave to one person (Paul) this important mission to reach the Gentiles? It begs all credulity to believe Paul.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=483335"></a>See JWO page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=jesus+words+only&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=1t9NTdSgEYKosAP1v5TeCg&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;output=reader">338</a> - Hippolytus quote.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=483303"></a>Matt. 7:15-23, viz., v. 22; 24:11, 24; Mark 13:22-23. See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204.#26555" class="XRef"></a>et seq. See also, Luke 21:8 (`time is at hand') discussed at <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014.#32862" class="XRef"></a>. See, Rev. 2: 20 (false claimant to prophecy teaches us to eat meat sacrificed to idols.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=483329"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=483873"></a>See Chapter Five.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=483323"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#14057" class="XRef"></a>et seq. Paul never even endorses a one-in-seven principle. Even so, God condemns keeping a mandated festival on a day different than God's appointed time. Jeroboam kept feast of tabernacles on a "day of his [own] choosing (invention)." (1 Kings 12:33.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=486204"></a>Jesus, by contrast, merely implied that if one ate unclean food, this did not make you a sinner. Jesus did not abrogate the distinction. Rather, it follows from Jesus' statement that the law of unclean food was a health rule, which we should have known anyway from the words clean and unclean. Thus, Jesus did not abrogate these rules. He just put them on a different level than other commands. See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014.#20154" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=483376"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=483889"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=486970"></a>Matt. 7:22 (miracles and prophecy); 24: 24 ("false prophets [have] signs and wonders." Jesus warns again of false prophets in Mark 13:22. He says they "shall show signs and wonders to seduce, if possible, even the elect." For further discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204.auto.#10856" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=484103"></a>For further discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010.#18659" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=484094"></a>For discussion of this and the other faults of the Pharisees which Jesus was identifying, see chapter on Pharisees.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=485068"></a>For a full discussion on how Paul applied this principle to Sabbath and eating meat sacrificed to idols, see index.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=484179"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=484234"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=484263"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=484247"></a>Prof. Robert Eisenman,<em> The New Testament Code: The Cup of the Lord, The Damascus Covenant, and the Blood of Christ</em> (London: Watkins Publishing, 2006) at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=eT4CFLWCB8wC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=eisenman%20new%20testament%20code&amp;pg=PA587#v=onepage&amp;q=outrageous%20allusions&amp;f=false"> 587</a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=489612"></a>As Wesley comments on John 14:26, Jesus' promise of a teaching ministry of the Holy Spirit applied to "the apostles, and their successors in the faith...."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=489545"></a>Jesus tells us how to receive the Holy Spirit. He does so in a story about the persistent widow. Jesus says we should follow her example, and persistently ask God to give us the Holy Spirit. Luke 11:10-13. Using the continuous present tense verb, Jesus says, "everyone who keeps on asking receives...." (Luke 11:10.) Then Jesus says "how much moreso shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?" (Luke 11:13.) Thus, it appears our "repentance" unto salvation and receipt of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38) is not necessarily a quick process. Yet, we are promised by Jesus if we are persistent, God will answer, forgive, and give us His Holy Spirit.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=488241"></a>This is the literal Greek, reflecting correctly each present participle as a continuous tense. For an explanation, see Appendix A.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">25.</span> <a name="pgfId=481468"></a><a name="37659"></a>This is a paraphrase of Isaiah 6:8. Notice the difference in the King James of John 13:16. It has the effect of obscuring needlessly Jesus' message is about apostles. The KJV reads: "The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him." However, `he that is sent' is wholly incorrect. It is a noun nominative singular masculine, apostolos. How can this be read "he that is sent"?</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">26.</span> <a name="pgfId=483510"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">27.</span> <a name="pgfId=489440"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">28.</span> <a name="pgfId=486760"></a>It is a unique attribution of words to Jesus: "it is better to give than receive." Acts 20:35. Other than this, no attribution of words from Jesus on doctrine are ever given by Paul.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">29.</span> <a name="pgfId=488265"></a>The Dispensationalists concede the Covenant of Moses did require obedience for imputed justification. (Deut. 6:25.) However, we are supposedly in a new dispensation. We are told by Paul we are justified by faith apart from any need to obey. (Eph. 2:8-9; Romans 4:3-5.) However, it is never explained why Deuteronomy 6:25 is abrogated when God declared repeatedly the Law given Moses was "eternal for all generations." See Ex. 27:21; 30:21; Lev. 6:18; 7:36; 10:9; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; 24:3; Num. 10:8; 15:15.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">30.</span> <a name="pgfId=489729"></a>It is true this statement was actually spoken to Peter alone upon his being the first to confess Jesus was Messiah. However, as this discussion progresses, we shall see in John 20:21-23, Jesus will give all the apostles the Holy Spirit, and extend this power to all of them.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">31.</span> <a name="pgfId=479949"></a><a name="27760"></a>Gill (a Protestant commentator) insists the Talmud shows "times without number" this means the ability to declare what is "lawful and unlawful..." and God would have to accept such decrees in heaven. However, Gill is speaking too broadly. There is an important distinction. It is a judge's function to declare in the particular what is lawful/unlawful, reasoning from a general law. Such a role of the judges of Israel was not an authority to make up new laws or principles. Jesus refuted continually they had an authority to do so. When religious authorities do so, Jesus said then the people end up worshipping God with their lips, but their worship is empty. (Matt. 15:9.) For a full discussion of that passage, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204.#12349" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">32.</span> <a name="pgfId=479493"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">33.</span> <a name="pgfId=481537"></a><em>The Catholic Encyclopedia</em> defines infallibility of the pope as: "it means exemption from the possibility of error." (http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.htm (accessed 1/17/07).) Yet, the Catholic church will insist this does not mean the pope is inspired. Rather, the Holy Spirit supposedly gives the pope an infallible decision on doctrine. The distinction is one without a difference.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">34.</span> <a name="pgfId=479916"></a>Clarke is a Protestant example of how to read Matthew 16:19. "The disciples of our Lord, from having the keys, i.e. the true knowledge of the doctrine of the kingdom of heaven, should be able at all times to... pronounce infallible judgment; and this binding and loosing... should be considered as proceeding immediately from heaven, and consequently as Divinely ratified."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">35.</span> <a name="pgfId=489734"></a>A judge's authority extends to remedies for transgression, even if sometimes third parties must fulfill the vow of another.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">36.</span> <a name="pgfId=483554"></a>Gill (a Protestant commentator) insists the Talmud shows "times without number" this means the ability to declare what is "lawful and unlawful..." and God would have to accept such decrees in heaven. However, Gill is speaking too broadly. There is an important distinction. It is a judge's function to declare in the particular what is lawful/unlawful, reasoning from a general law. Such a role of the judges of Israel was not an authority to make up new laws or principles. Jesus refuted continually they had an authority to do so. When religious authorities do so, Jesus said then the people end up worshipping God with their lips, but their worship is empty. (Matt. 15:9.) For a full discussion of that passage, see page 71 et seq. .</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">37.</span> <a name="pgfId=489907"></a>The decision in Acts 15 on whether Gentiles were to be circumcised was a decision over doctrine. No individual was on trial. Who decided this? Not the twelve. The twelve obviously did not regard their judicial authority was involved and only engaged in the discussion. In that case the twelve submitted to the superior authority of James, the Lord's brother and non-apostle, who made the final decision. James apparently had their consent, but there is no indication the twelve voted on the issue. Thus, the twelve must not have regarded their superior judicial authority extended into issues of doctrine. There, James as city-bishop, had authority to decide doctrine.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">38.</span> <a name="pgfId=486836"></a>New Living Translation.The King James renders "obey" in this verse as "kept guard." In Greek, the literal meaning is "to attend to carefully" or "guard." Metaphorically it means obey, observe, etc. Here, the NLT's obey is the more contextually accurate meaning.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">39.</span> <a name="pgfId=490071"></a>The word for obey and have are both active aorist subjunctives. The habit of the NIV and KJV is to translate any verse on salvation with shall rather than should to serve doctrine. This is because ordinarily the active verb which precedes is believe, e.g., John 11:26. Thus, due to this habit, they translate John 8:51 with shall, which no doubt they prefer not doing, since now Jesus links obedience to salvation. However, we cannot ignore the subjunctive. For why the verb obey and have should be translated as subjunctives, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#22791" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">40.</span> <a name="pgfId=490120"></a>This is exactly comparable to John 3:16 and 11:26 in proper translation. "All those who keep on believing should not perish but should have eternal life." (John 3:16.) Likewise, John 11:26 should read: "whoever keeps on living and keeps on believing in me should never ever perish." For discussion on how the subjunctive tense is often ignored to serve doctrinal biases, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#22791" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">41.</span> <a name="pgfId=490141"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208.#22680" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">42.</span> <a name="pgfId=490573"></a>On the should versus shall issue in both John 3:16 and 8:51, see index. The KJV preserves the correct tense of the subjunctive in John 3:16 although you have to interpolate it. "That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but [should] have eternal life." However, the NIV renders it "shall" have eternal life. For the rationalization of using Paul's faith-alone doctrine to do so, see page 381<a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018html.#16211" class="XRef">.</a> .</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">43.</span> <a name="pgfId=490253"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#33032" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">44.</span> <a name="pgfId=490430"></a>Jesus said if we "keep on listening and keep on following" Jesus "we should not perish" and "shall not be snatched from my hand." (John 10:27-28.) Notice the verbs are no longer about believing or obeying. They are now listening and following. Assurance has a different source than the specific principles of faith and obedience which should save. The terms Jesus focuses on are, instead, principles of endurance: listening and following. On the correct translation of this verse, see Appendix A: Greek Issues <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20A%20in%20correct%20format.#20909" class="XRef"></a>for discussion of John 10:27-28.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">45.</span> <a name="pgfId=487523"></a>The Dispensationalists give up on the attempt to square everything from Jesus with Paul. They admit most of these passages contradict Paul's Gospel. Their solution to the conflict is to toss all these verses from Jesus in the dust-bin of a supposedly defunct dispensation between God and Moses. For extended discussion, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#10615" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">46.</span> <a name="pgfId=487301"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">47.</span> <a name="pgfId=487545"></a>"The Prophets disparaged sacrifices that were offered without a regeneration of the heart, i.e., a determined turning from sin and returning to God by striving after righteousness." ("Korban," <em>Wikipedia Encyclopedia</em>.) Some of the many such verses are: Micah 6:6-8, Joel 2:13, Hosea 14:1-2; and Malachi 1:10, 3:3-4. Cf. Isaiah 27:9.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">48.</span> <a name="pgfId=488411"></a>In 1878, the famous Robert Dabney put forth the Calvinist argument "The certainty that he will not [apostasize] arises... from God's secret...purpose.... Among those appropriate motives [God uses in man] are these very warnings of danger and wholesale fears about apostasy....They are part of that plan by which God ensures that he shall not." (Robert L. Dabney,<em> Lectures in Systematic Theology</em> (Grand Rapids, Mi., Eerdmans, 1971 reprint) at 697.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">49.</span> <a name="pgfId=481153"></a> See also, Appendix A: Greek Issues.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">50.</span> <a name="pgfId=481164"></a><a name="16211"></a>The KJV preserves the correct tense of the subjunctive in John 3:16 although you have to interpolate it. "That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but [should] have eternal life." However, the NIV renders it "shall" have eternal life. For the rationalization of using Paul's faith-alone doctrine to do so, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#20049" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">51.</span> <a name="pgfId=481180"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#32893" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">52.</span> <a name="pgfId=485129"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#19165" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">53.</span> <a name="pgfId=488497"></a>The King James, NIV, and ASV correctly translate Genesis 15:6, including omitting any capitalization to the second-clause he. Yet, they do add the second-clause he without indicating it is an interpolation. Some publishers of the KJV do capitalize the second-clause he. Yet, the following versions officially capitalize the second-clause he (and fail to bracket it to indicate it is an interpolation): NASB and YLT. Some even blatantly change the he to the Lord: GWT.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">54.</span> <a name="pgfId=485269"></a>See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#33806" class="XRef"></a>et seq. Only a few translations are correct: "by his steadfastness liveth" (YLT); "faithfulness" (God's Word); "faithful to God" (GNB). The Hebrew word emunah here is derived from aman, "to be firm, last." When used as a personal attribute of man, it means fidelity in word and deed (Jer.7:28; Jer. 9:2; Psalm 37:3.) It is solely a Pauline re-interpretation to replace its sense here by the solitary concept of a mere belief in some truth about God/Jesus/the atonement, etc.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">55.</span> <a name="pgfId=485327"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">56.</span> <a name="pgfId=478518"></a>Charles Stanley, <em>Eternal Security: Can You Be Sure, supra</em>, at 125.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">57.</span> <a name="pgfId=490478"></a>Stanley's claim also disregards God's consistent message that in heaven there is "no more sorrow, nor crying." (Rev. 21:4; see also, Isaiah 25:8 "God will wipe away tears from all faces"; Rev. 7:17.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">58.</span> <a name="pgfId=488163"></a>Lutherans comprise 70 million of the approximately 350 million Protestant Christians. On how Luther's mature writings come close to Jesus' Words Only, see <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#19087" class="XRef"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">59.</span> <a name="pgfId=490045"></a>See, e.g., "One Big Surprise" on <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2014.#29703" class="XRef"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">60.</span> <a name="pgfId=490503"></a>The `sovereignty-of-God' doctrine is a euphemism for the doctrine that God directs and ordains evil thoughts and objectives yet supposedly remains untainted by such direction. See <a href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#26666" class="XRef"></a>. For MacArthur's defense of the `sovereignty-of-God' doctrine, see MacArthur, Hard to Believe (Nelson: 2003) at 34-35. He admits evangelicals call this doctrine `dreadful,' `blasphemy,' `God-dishonoring.' `incongruous,'and `the most twisted thing I have ever read.' Citing only Paul, MacArthur insists it is true. To deny it, MacArthur puts us in a box: it only can be denied if one is willing to deny Paul's validity. That's the step that MacArthur thought was unthinkable. However, it is that step which God's honor demands we consider. What John MacArthur supposed was unthinkable is the correct question rather than accepting a teaching so dreadful and God-dishonoring as what Calvinists euphemistically refer to as the `sovereignty-of-God doctrine.'</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">61.</span> <a name="pgfId=490614"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">62.</span> <a name="pgfId=490638"></a>To see MacArthur's conflicting reasonings in just one book, see John MacArthur, The Gospel According to the Apostles (Nelson: 2000). He condemns once saved always saved. (Id. at 158-159.) He then affirms perserverance of the saints. (Id.) MacArthur doctrine teaches salvation depends on repentance from sin and submission. (Id. at 7.) Yet, salvation is by grace through faith. (Id. at 8.) Jesus supposedly said little about justification. (Id. at 78.) While the Law can never justify, yet the true believer will persevere in obedience. (Id. at 9, 83.) But to what end is perserverance? Then MacArthur says that no-Lordship doctrine that prevails in evangelical churches is killing the church. It teaches salvation even if does not "continue believing" or turns into "hostile unbelief." (Id. at 33.) No-lordship wrongly teaches faith in "a message," not in Jesus per se. (Id. at 34.) True faith "necessarily impacts behavior." (Id. at 35.) MacArthur then tries to un-entwine faith and works so works is never a condition of salvation. (Id. at 36.) Yet, then he says that "faith that remains idle is no better than the faith that demons display." (Id. at 37.) One can see a valiant effort to hold onto Jesus' gospel despite the agonizing pressure to conform to Paul's gospel. It is a brave but ultimately unavailing effort.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">63.</span> <a name="pgfId=486951"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">64.</span> <a name="pgfId=481747"></a>Tony Coffey, <em>Once A Catholic: What You Need to Know About Roman Catholicism</em> (Eugene, Oregon: Harvest House, 1984) at 15.</p>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Eight: Does Jesus Share Salvation Doctrine with Paul?</h2>
<h3><strong>Introduction</strong></h3>
<div>
<p><a name="pgfId=464095"></a>Did Jesus and Paul have any doctrine in common on salvation? Some cite Luke 7:47 and others John 3:16. The Lucan passage is infrequently cited as compared to John 3:16. Luke's passage is viewed as potentially being consistent with Paul while John's passage is widely thought to be the same as Paul's gospel message. However, on close scrutiny, even these two passages of Jesus are indeed in conflict with Paul's salvation theology. Let's see why.<strong><a name="pgfId=464097"></a></strong></p>
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<a name="23865"></a>Luke 7:47</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464099"></a><a name="27597"></a>Jesus encountered a woman who loved Him much, washing His feet with her tears. Jesus declares her sins forgiven. He tells us why in ways that when Paulinists look closely at the passage, they cringe. Can <a name="marker=464100"></a>Jesus forgive someone because they love much, and not on faith alone? Nevertheless, we read in <a name="marker=464101"></a>Luke 7:47:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464102"></a>Wherefore I say unto thee, Her sins, which are many, are forgiven; <em><strong>for she loved much</strong></em>: but to whom little is forgiven, the same loveth little. (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464103"></a>The word-for-word translation of the literal Greek of the key phrase is: "released are her many sins <a name="marker=464104"></a><strong><em>because</em></strong> she loved much."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464107"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464108"></a>Commentators on the Greek who accept Paul's view of salvation are fraught with dismay. Adam <a name="marker=464109"></a>Clarke states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464110"></a>In the common translation her <strong><em>forgiveness is represented</em></strong> to be the<strong><em> consequence of her loving much</em></strong>, which is causing the tree to produce the root, and not the root the tree [i.e., it would contradict Paul's views]. I have considered <em>ioe</em> here as having the sense of <strong><em>aeioe</em></strong>, therefore;... <strong><em>we must suppose</em></strong> her love was the effect of her being pardoned,<em> not the cause</em> of it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464111"></a>However, to arrive at Adam Clarke's solution, you have to suppose a completely different Greek word is used to erase the causation between her love and Jesus' forgiveness of sins. Clarke confesses this by suggesting a different Greek word would convey the meaning that fits Pauline doctrine.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464112"></a>Moreover, on close examination, the Greek is clear. The Greek conjunction underlying "for she loved much" is<em> hoti.</em> Strong's #3754 says it means "<em><strong>causatively because</strong></em>" or can mean that. In this context, all the translations into English realize it has a causative sense. They render it for. Its more concrete synonym in English is because. The word hoti means because here, especially due to its clear placement in the sentence. To repeat, the literal Greek is: "released are her many sins<strong><em> because she loved much</em></strong>." Only the meaning because makes sense. The alternative meaning that would render the second part unintelligible.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464113"></a>Other commentators are so fraught with dismay they simply assert <a name="marker=464114"></a>Jesus cannot mean what He says in <a name="marker=464115"></a>Luke 7:47. Based on the <a name="marker=464116"></a>presupposition of Paul's validity, they assert her great love was the "<strong><em>proof</em></strong>, <strong><em>not the reason</em></strong> for her forgiveness." (Robertson's <em>Word Pictures</em>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464117"></a>Somewhere along the way, commentators learned the power of repetition. They realized that if you repeat often enough an alleged truth of Christianity from Paul that is actually contrary to what Jesus says, you can create a social pressure to affix Paul's teaching upon Christ's teaching. This works because the listener recognizes Paul's teaching. The Christian is<em><strong> trained to ignore, however, that there is a mis-match between the words of Paul and Jesus</strong></em>. The repetition of Paul's doctrine serves to thwart Jesus' teachings every time. This wears down the Christian's critical sense to understand the clear meaning of words. The Christian who is barraged by the drum-beat of salvation by faith alone no longer senses the contradiction by Paul of Jesus. Any person free from this barrage can easily read Jesus' words and see the<strong><em> linguistic impossibility that both Paul and Jesus are saying the same thing.</em></strong> Thus, this galvanizing thumping on Paul's salvation themes has glued in place an adherence to Pauline teachings that actually contradict Jesus. Any slight questioning of the paradigm leads to firm and loud accusation that one is returning to Rome. <em><strong>The poor soul who holds up Jesus' words against Paul's is to be branded a heretic</strong></em>. Thus, repetition and social pressure has nullified our sense of a loyalty to Christ that should trump our loyalty to Paul. For these Paulinists, questioning Paul's validity has become non-sense. They assume the scholars and theologians have worked out what they themselves take no time to study. Social conditioning thereby has made Paul's doctrine, not Jesus' teachings, something that must be protected at all costs! It is like brainwashing. You can hear it over and over, like a mantra.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464118"></a>The commentators' approach to solving the dilemma of Luke 7:47 is just one more example of this mantra. The Pauline commentators vigorously utter the textually-unsupportable notion that Jesus does not mean the love she had was the "cause of her remission" of sins. This would be works in addition to faith, they admit. It just cannot be viewed that way, they insist. Yet, the very reason they must insist this is what Jesus means is because what Jesus says plainly is that her great love was part of the causative reasons her sins were forgiven. <strong><em>Jesus contradicts Paul</em></strong>. The only way to save Paul is to repetitiously insist Jesus' words do not mean what they literally mean.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464119"></a>As a result of this torture of Jesus' words, the Pauline interpretation of this passage is that Jesus meant she was forgiven for no particular reason other than faith. Of course, Jesus gave faith a role too in her salvation. "Thy faith has saved you." (Luke 7:50.) However, seeing faith as the sole reason for her forgiveness is wilful self-delusion. One is squeezing out of the passage only the one part that sounds like Paul. You are ignoring the causative statement glaring back at you that contradicts Pauline doctrine: "Released are her many sins because (hoti) she loved much." (Luke 7:47.)</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464120"></a>The Uniqueness of Luke 7:50 in the Synoptics</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464121"></a>What is most interesting is that in all of the Synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark and Luke), this is the only passage where Jesus goes on to say someone is saved by <a name="marker=464122"></a>faith. Jesus next says to the woman (<a name="marker=464123"></a>Luke 7:50):</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464124"></a>And he said unto the woman, "Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464125"></a>Yet, to repeat, the Greek is unmistakable that her love mixed with faith were the causative elements in "forgiveness" and "salvation." Jesus says she was forgiven and saved because "she loved much" and had "faith." <a name="marker=464126"></a>Faith alone did not save this young woman!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>We have more to say below on the strange fact that this is the only time in the Synoptic Gospels that faith is mentioned as having any positive role in salvation. As you can see, however, in this one example, it is faith and love in mixture that Jesus says leads to her forgiveness and being saved.<strong><a name="pgfId=464129"></a></strong></p>
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<a name="20396"></a>What About Faith in the Synoptics?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a>Faith is barely mentioned in Matthew, Mark and Luke. They are also known as the Synoptic Gospels. The special purpose of John's Gospel and why believing is so often mentioned awaits discussion below.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>One Paulinist confesses the <a name="marker=464131"></a>Synoptics are anti-Paul, but then provides an odd explanation:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464133"></a>Ever notice that the first three gospels (the synoptic gospels)<strong><em> never explicitly speak of salvation through faith in Christ</em></strong> (except for [the non-canonical]<a name="marker=464134"></a>Mark 16:16).<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464140"><sup><strong> 2</strong></sup></a> In fact in those gospels when Jesus is asked the question, `What must I do to have eternal life?' he responds with the Law-<em><strong>-a performance based concept of righteousness</strong></em>. [It is not] the gospel of grace which is a faith based righteousness, which is...found in Paul's writings [such] as in Romans. Why the difference?</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464141"></a>I infer that the synoptic gospels were primarily to prepare people to hear the gospel of grace, <em><strong>rather than actually presenting the gospel message explicitly</strong></em>. <a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464144"><sup><strong>3</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464145"></a>There is a much more likely reason the Synoptics are antagonistic to Paul's doctrines than the reason this Paulinist suggests. It is so self-evident that it is startling it is never considered: the <a name="marker=464146"></a><em><strong>Synoptics were written specifically to counter the message of Paul</strong></em>!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464147"></a>The fact nothing in them confirms Paul's gospel of grace is startling in its historical context. Paul's many letters certainly were in circulation for at least 10-20 years continuously prior to Matthew, Mark and Luke having been written. Standard dating of Mark is as early as 65 A.D. The Hebrew Matthew could be in the same vicinity. Luke was written between 64 and 85 A.D.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464150"> <sup><strong>4</strong></sup></a> By comparison, Paul's letters date from the 40s through the 60s. Paul's writings were clearly in circulation for as much as twenty years when the Synoptics were written.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a>Yet, how strange that Matthew and Mark provide absolutely no confirmation of Paul's salvation-by-faith message! There is not a single passage in Matthew or Mark that links faith to salvation in a causal sense. This is true too of Luke, Paul's own companion.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464154"> <sup><strong>5</strong></sup></a> The only half-exception is in Luke where the woman who bathes Jesus' feet in tears. Jesus says her "faith has saved her." However, as already noted, even there Luke's research led him to a passage that Jesus<strong><em> links both</em></strong> her "great love" and "faith" to salvation and forgiveness, not faith alone. (See <a name="marker=464166"></a>Luke 17:47-50.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464170"></a>Thus, as surprising as this may sound, if you look only at the <a name="marker=464171"></a>Synoptic Gospels <em>(i.e</em>., Matthew, Mark &amp; Luke), Jesus actually never says that you obtain eternal life by faith alone. The only time faith is given a causal role, the young woman is forgiven and saved "for she loved much" and had "faith." (<a name="marker=464172"></a>Luke 7:47-50.) <strong><em>Faith and love are mixed</em></strong>. They were the causative elements in her forgiveness and salvation, according to Jesus. Thus, rarely, if ever, does anyone look at the Synoptics for support of Paul's doctrine of salvation by faith, let alone his ideas of salvation by faith alone.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464173"></a><a name="20011"></a>The Synoptics' Doctrine on Works Proves Its Agenda on Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464175"></a>What demonstrates beyond doubt that the <a name="marker=464174"></a>Synoptics were designed to prove Paul as a false apostle is their strong emphasis on salvation by works beyond mere faith. As one author puts it, in the Synoptics, the "main path to salvation that [<a name="marker=464176"></a>Jesus] described is based on good works and attitudes."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464179"> <sup><strong>6</strong></sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464180"></a>In fact, in the Synoptics, the point is that mere faith without works is useless. There is no countervailing Pauline concept that if you once believed this somehow excuses or satisfies the requirement of repentance from sin, <a name="marker=464181"></a>good works, and obedience to the Ten Commandments to enter "eternal life." For example:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted">Matthew 25:31-46 (the sheep who do charity go to heaven; those goats who refuse go to hell).</li>
<li class="Bulleted">Matt. 19:17 and <a name="marker=464185"></a>Luke 10:25-27 (Jesus' answer how to have eternal life starts with keeping the Law, quoting <a name="marker=464187"></a>Deuteronomy 6:5 and <a name="marker=464188"></a>Leviticus 19:18).</li>
<li class="Bulleted">Matt. 5:20 (your righteousness must exceed the Pharisees to enter the kingdom of heaven which Jesus then defines as not cursing, lusting, etc.).</li>
<li class="Bulleted">Matt. 16:2 (Son of Man will come and "reward each according to his works").</li>
<li class="Bulleted">Mark 9:42-48 (better to cut off a body part causing you to sin and enter heaven maimed than to not repent of sin and go to<a name="marker=464195"></a>hell whole).</li>
<li class="Bulleted">Matt. 25:14-30 (servants who produce fruit are saved; the servant who produced no fruit is "unprofitable" and thrown outside where there is weeping and gnashing of teeth; cf. Matt. 13:42 the ensnared are thrown into the "fiery furnace" where there is weeping and gnashing).</li>
<li class="Bulleted">Matt. 13:3-23 &amp; Luke 8:5-15 (those who "believe for a while" but in time of temptation fall away or who are choked and bring no fruit to completion are lost, but the one who in a good and noble heart brings forth fruit to completion in patient endurance is saved).</li>
</ul>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464198"></a>What About John's Gospel?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464200"></a>If we look at the context of <a name="marker=464199"></a>John's very different recollections than those in the Synoptics, we will see the Apostle John had the same secondary objective as the Synoptics: to address the question of Paul.<strong><a name="pgfId=464202"></a></strong></p>
</div>
</div>
<h3>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html-1.gif" /></div>
<a name="29504"></a>What About Faith in John's Gospel?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464203"></a>Luther once said that the "science of theology is nothing else but Grammar exercised on the words of the Holy Spirit."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464206"> <sup><strong>7</strong></sup></a> Luther is correct that deciphering the Bible's meaning must start with the grammar of each particular verse. If you have the wrong grammatical construction, you do not have the intended meaning. Thus, for example, the correct meaning of <a name="marker=464207"></a>John 3:16 is dependent on having the correct grammatical understanding of the verse.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a>If you look at <a name="marker=464208"></a>John 3:16, when properly translated, it is not about salvation by faith. It is about endurance. It is about <a name="marker=464210"></a>Matthew 10:22: "He who<em><strong> endures to the end</strong></em> shall be saved." In fact, all of John's Gospel uses the Greek present active verb tense for <em>pisteuo</em>, meaning he who continues to believe/trust. [NOTE: In my later book <em>Jesus Words on Salvation</em>, it is demonstrated <em>pisteuo</em> also can mean <em>obey. </em>See JWOS: <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=4V8tMJ75bnwC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20on%20salvation&amp;pg=PA422#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">422</a>. I will make bracketed changes hereafter to reflect the difference.] The theme of John is that trust must <a name="marker=464211"></a>endure for salvation to be realized, not that a one-time faith saves.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464213"></a>One can easily see this by reading <a name="marker=464212"></a>Young's Literal Translation of John's Gospel. Young renders each Greek present active participle of believe as "<em><strong>is believing</strong></em>." (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:35,40,47; 7:38; 11:25-26; 12:11, 37, 44, 46; 14:12; 17:20.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464216"> <sup><strong>8</strong></sup></a> The form <em>is believing</em> is known as the <a name="marker=464217"></a>English Present Continuous Tense of believe.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464218"></a>For an extensive explanation why Young's Literal reads this way, it is in Appendix A: Greek Issues. (A short synopsis will appear below.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a><a name="10296"></a>Thus, all these verses in John's Gospel have been mistranslated in the <a name="marker=464220"></a>KJV and <a name="marker=464221"></a>NIV to be talking about salvation caused by a<strong><em> one-time verbal </em></strong>or <em><strong>mental acknowledgment</strong></em> (believes) of Jesus as savior. This translation matched Paul's salvation formula in Romans 10:9. <a name="marker=464222"></a>Paul used the Greek aorist tense for believes in Romans 10:9, which corresponds to a one-time faith. However, John's literal words in the <em><strong>continuous tense</strong></em>--the Greek present active tense--have nothing to do with a one-time action--the Greek aorist tense. The meaning of John 3:16 is in the true translation of the verb tense: continues to believe or trust [or obey]. All who keep on trusting in [or obeying] Jesus "should" be saved, says John 3:16.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464516"><sup><em> 9</em></sup></a> It is about endurance in trust [or obedience], not salvation by faith.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464223"></a>In fact, one could interpret John's gospel as being intentionally anti-Pauline.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464224"></a>For consider that when you compare John to the Synoptics (<em>i.e</em>., Matthew, Mark &amp; Luke), Jesus never utters any statement in the Synoptics comparable to John about faith. Why was <a name="marker=464225"></a>John summoning this message about<em> pisteuo</em> from his memory with the inspiration of the Holy Spirit? Precisely because Paul had made such a big focus on faith. Paul's influence was growing although not as significant as we all assume.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464228"> <sup><strong>10</strong></sup></a> The Synoptics had not enough impact on the budding church to expose the stark difference between Paul and Jesus. Some Christians were still persuaded that Paul had the true gospel. Thus, John's gospel was the Holy Spirit's inspiration to John to fix this, by showing Jesus' true doctrines on faith and believing.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464230"></a>In other words, <a name="marker=464229"></a>John was remembering all the times Jesus used the word <em>pistis</em> or its relative <em>pisteuo</em> (the verb form, to believe or trust [or obey]) when linked somehow to eternal life. (Of course, Jesus spoke in Aramaic or Hebrew, but John was translating to Greek.) This way we could make a comparison between Jesus and how Paul uses the similar word in relation to salvation. No one has offered a more reasonable explanation why John reads so differently than the Synoptics. There was something pressuring John. It was the question of Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464231"></a>Thus, John must have asked the Holy Spirit to call to his mind every instance Jesus mentioned [<em>pisteuo</em>] as somehow causally related to salvation. This way we could examine Paul's teaching in this regard. This produced a Gospel with a very different set of recollections which were not as important to the original Gospel writers.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464232"></a>How John's Gospel Addresses the Issue of Faith &amp; Salvation</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464233"></a>So how does John answer the key question whether a one-time faith or a one-time confession saves as Paul teaches in <a name="marker=464234"></a>Romans 10:9? Does John back Paul up? Or does John expose Paul as a false teacher?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464235"></a>The answer is amazing. Everywhere that faith/trust/[obedience] is mentioned as causally connected to eternal life in the Gospel of John, it is in a <em><strong>verb form of the present active</strong></em> in Greek. (See <a name="marker=464236"></a>John 3:16, <a name="marker=464237"></a>5:24, <a name="marker=464238"></a>6:35, 37, 40, 47 etc.) Every time!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464239"></a>Thus, John's Gospel is repetitious on the issue of salvation. This is for emphasis by John. He could not recall it once said any other way. What does this imply?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464240"></a>A short synopsis follows which summarizes the discussion in Appendix A. Greek grammar makes John's point unmistakable.</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464242"></a><a name="36406"></a>Synopsis of Appendix A on the Greek Present Active</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a>First, unlike English, Greek has a specific verb tense for a one-time action. It is known as the <a name="marker=464244"></a>aorist tense. This can be rendered in English by use of the<a name="marker=464245"></a>English Simple Present Tense, <em>e.g.</em>, "believes." We can read "believes" in English to mean a one time expression of faith.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464249"> <sup><strong>11</strong></sup></a> English Simple Present Tense thus can correspond to the aorist participle in Greek.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a>Paul in <a name="marker=464251"></a><a name="marker=464252"></a>Romans 10:9 uses the aorist tense to signify salvation is by one time events: "if ever (<em>ean</em>) you confess (<em>aorist active subjunctive</em>) by your mouth that Jesus is Lord and [if] you [ever] believe (<em>aorist active subjunctive</em>) that God raised Him from the dead, you shall be saved." (This is my literal word-for-word translation.) Thus, Paul is using the Greek aorist verb tense. He means you are saved if you ever once confess and believe. No continuity is implied in verse nine.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>By contrast, in Greek, the exact opposite meaning from the aorist tense is conveyed by the Greek present indicative active or <a name="marker=464255"></a>present participle active. In Greek, these<a name="marker=464256"></a>two forms of the present active tense mean the action is continuing. It is best translated into English using "continues to" or "keeps on" in front of the English gerund.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464260"> <sup><strong>12</strong></sup></a> For example, "he who continues to believe" or "he who keeps on trusting" is the better translation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464261"></a><a name="29197"></a>This distinction is confessed by leading Calvinists who are staunch Paulinists. Dr. James <a name="marker=464262"></a>White is a well-respected Calvinist. He writes about the verb tense in John 6:35-45 in his book <em>Drawn by the Father: A Summary of John 6:35-45</em> (Reformation Press: 1999) at pages 10-11:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464263"></a>Throughout this passage an important truth is presented that again might be missed by many English translations. When Jesus describes the one who comes to him and who believes in him [3:16, 5:24, 6:35, 37, 40, 47, etc.], he uses the present tense to describe this coming, believing, or, in other passages, hearing or seeing. The present tense refers to<em><strong> a continuous, on-going action</strong></em>. The Greek contrasts this kind of action against the aorist tense, which is a point action, a single action in time that is not on-going.... The wonderful promises that are provided by Christ are not for those who do not truly and continuously believe. The faith that saves is a <strong><em>living faith</em></strong>, a faith that always looks to Christ as Lord and Savior.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a><a name="34663"></a>However, this is news to most Christians. The King James Version of the Bible (KJV) was primarily a production of Calvinist Puritans. The <a name="marker=464265"></a>KJV always rendered the Greek present active tense with the English Simple Present Tense (<em>i.e.</em>, "believes") rather than the <a name="marker=464266"></a>English Continuous Present (<em>i.e.</em>, "is believing" or "keeps on believing"). The KJV thus conveyed a completely opposite meaning than <a name="marker=464267"></a>John intended. The KJV English translation <em><strong>corresponds to the Greek aorist tense of Romans 10:9</strong></em>, not the Greek present active tense of Apostle John. The KJV corresponds to a teaching of a one-time faith should save rather than an ongoing trust [or obedience] doing so.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464268"></a>The KJV was either protecting Paul from the implication of John's gospel or committed a gross blunder. The <a name="marker=464269"></a>New International Version (NIV) fixed the KJV translation of the Greek present active in over seventeen instances by adding to the verb clause "keeps on" or "continues to" each time. The only principal time the NIV would not correct the translation of the Greek present active was when the Greek word for <em>believes</em> was involved.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464275"> <sup><strong>13</strong></sup></a> The <a name="marker=464276"></a>NIV left us still in the dark on the most important doctrine of all: salvation. There is no defense for this inconsistency.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464278"></a>The NIV thereby held back the true meaning of <a name="marker=464277"></a>John 3:16 is <em>keeps on</em> or <em>continues to</em> believe/trust/[obey]. The NIV was unwilling to inform us that John contradicts Paul. We are actually being misled by the NIV to believe John was agreeing with Paul that a one-time faith saves! If this were true, John in <a name="marker=464279"></a>John 3:16 would have used the aorist tense just as Paul does in Romans 10:9. It did not happen.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a>When the translation is repaired, other verses in John take on diametrically different meanings as well. For example, another Paulinist favorite is <a name="marker=464281"></a>John 5:24. Instead of a one-time faith causing you to have passed from death to life, it now depends on continuous trust [or obedience] on your part. <a name="marker=464282"></a>John 5:24 correctly translated reads:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a>I keep telling you (<em>present active indicative</em>) the one who keeps on listening (<em>present participle active</em>) to my teaching and keeps on believing/trusting/[obeying] (present participle active) <s>in</s> [to] the one who sent me (<em><strong>aorist</strong> active participle</em>) keeps on having (<em>present active indicative</em>) eternal life and does not come (<em>present middle deponent</em>) into condemnation but has departed (<em>perfect active indicative</em>) out of death into life.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a>You can verify the verb tenses by downloading the free Interlinear Scripture Analyzer.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464285"></a>Thus, while Paul says a one-time (aorist) belief in certain facts saves you (<a name="marker=464286"></a>Romans 10:9) and now there is no condemnation (<a name="marker=464287"></a>Romans 8:1), a contrary meaning arises from <a name="marker=464288"></a>John 5:24. There is no condemnation for those who keep on listening to Jesus and who keep on trusting/believing/[obeying] <s>in</s> [sic: "to"] the Father. In other words, John is remembering words of Jesus <strong><em>at total odds with Paul.</em></strong> Yet, our KJV and NIV lead us to believe there is agreement between Paul and Jesus by using in John 5:24 <em>hears</em> and<em> believes</em>. These are in the English Simple Present form. They are not in the English Continuous Present. Both the KJV and NIV translations use a tense that <em><strong>corresponds to Paul's aorist tense in Romans 10:9</strong></em>, not John's<strong><em> actual present active tense</em></strong>. It is completely obvious when you peak under the covers and look at the verb tenses. Now anyone can do this by using the Interlinear Scripture Analyzer free for download. The emperor has no clothes any more.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464289"></a>If you are tempted to throw out John's Gospel now that you know its intent is anti-Pauline, it is pointless to do so. You would also have to get rid of Luke. For the verb <em>pisteuo</em> was used in the same manner as John in <a name="marker=464290"></a>Luke's account of the Parable of the Sower. Jesus in this account uses <em>believing</em> in the identical manner as in John's Gospel. For in Luke, Jesus identifies a believing [or obeying] that continues for a time but then stops. Jesus indicates this person becomes withered, apostate and lost. Luke, like John, viewed a faith/trust that continues as essential to salvation. We discuss this next.<strong><a name="pgfId=464292"></a></strong></p>
</div>
<h3>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html-1.gif" /></div>
<a name="22680"></a>What The Parable of the Sower Confirms About Faith in John's Gospel</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464294"></a>The <a name="marker=464293"></a>Parable of the Sower is the only other passage in the Synoptics that talks about faith and salvation, but does so in a negative manner. The Parable of the Sower teaches that the failure to continue in faith or trust [or obedience] leads to becoming lost. It never says faith that later fails saves. In fact, the only person saved among the seeds is the one who produces fruit to completion. Thus, in this parable Jesus addresses faith and works in a way totally at odds with Paul. Now please note this is not a parable that Paulinists can avoid by claiming its meaning remains a mystery. Jesus explained its symbolic meaning in excruciating detail.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464295"></a>Let's analyze with care the Parable of the Sower.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464296"></a>The first seed never believes because Satan snatches the word from his heart before he can believe "and be saved." (<a name="marker=464297"></a>Luke 8:12.) Unlike the first seed, the second seed (<em>i.e.</em>, the seed on rocky soil) (<a name="marker=464298"></a>Luke 8:6) "sprouted." Jesus explains this means the second seed "received the word with joy" and "<strong><em>believes for a while</em></strong>." (<a name="marker=464299"></a>Luke 8:13.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a>In Luke 8:13, the Greek tense for "believes" is the present indicative active of <em>pisteuo</em>. Jesus is saying the seed on rocky ground "<strong><em>keeps on believing</em></strong>." Jesus then adds an adverb meaning "for a while." In this context, the present indicative is indistinguishable from the present participle active of pisteuo which is used uniformly in <a name="marker=464301"></a>John's Gospel.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464304"> 14</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a>Logically, if the first seed would have been "saved" had Satan not prevented faith from forming, this second seed must be "saved." Thus, Jesus is saying the second seed is "saved" for a while because it <em>believed</em> for a while yet the first seed is never saved because it never <em>believed</em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464307"></a><a name="marker=464306"></a>Jesus goes on to say the second seed then "withered away" (<em>i.e</em>., shriveled up). (<a name="marker=464308"></a>Luke 8:6). Jesus explains this means it fell into "temptation" (sinned) and "fell away." (<a name="marker=464309"></a>Luke 8:13, <em>aphistami</em>.) Why did it fall away? It shriveled up "because it lacked moisture." (<a name="marker=464310"></a>Luke 8:6.) The Greek of this verb was present active as well, meaning "it <strong><em>did not continue to have moisture</em></strong>." Jesus explains again why, saying the seed "did not have root." (<a name="marker=464311"></a>Luke 8:13.) The verb, however, is again present active in Greek (ecousin) and means "it did <strong><em>not keep holding</em></strong> on to the Root."</p>
<p> </p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464314"></a><span style="font-size: large;">Parable of the Sower: Second Seed</span></h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464318"></a><em>Second Seed Metaphor</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464320"></a><em>Jesus' Explanation</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464322"></a>sprouted</p>
</td>
<td>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464324"></a>received the word with joy</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464325"></a>continued to believe for a while</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464327"></a>did not continue to have moisture</p>
</td>
<td>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464329"></a>did not keep holding to the root</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464331"></a>withered away (shriveled up)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464333"></a>tempted, fell away</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p> </p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Thus, Jesus is saying that someone who received the word with Joy, "continued to believe for a while," and thus "sprouted," then fell into temptation. This person ends up withered away (dead). Dead means no life. No life means no eternal life. The reason is they "did not keep holding to the Root" and so they "fell away." This was a lesson about faith lacking endurance and being destroyed by sin (temptation). Thus, it is a negative message about faith. It is not an example of faith saving, but how faith can be brought to naught by sin.</p>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464337"></a>What was the warning Jesus intended in this <a name="marker=464336"></a>parable? Keep holding on to the Root. Jesus is the Root. Hold to Jesus' words and you will not fall into temptation (sin). Let go and you are opposite of the saints who "keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus." (Rev. 14:12.) By falling into temptation you fail to "keep...the commandments...and faith of Jesus" and become lost.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464338"></a>There is no missing this point if you see the precise parallel to <a name="marker=464339"></a>Revelation 2:4-5.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464340"></a>There Jesus tells the Ephesians they have "left your first love," and "art fallen," so "repent" and do your "first works."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464342"></a>Compare this then to the second seed in the <a name="marker=464341"></a>Parable of the Sower. The second seed had "joy" in the word at first, like the Ephesians had "love at first." The second seed "sprouted" and thus had "first works," just like the Ephesians. The second seed then sinned and "fell away," just as the Ephesians "art fallen." The solution, as always, is "repent," as Jesus told the Ephesians in Revelation 2:4-5 and do your "first works."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464344"></a><a name="12829"></a>Now who is the only saved person in the Parable of the Sower? It is the fourth seed, which is the only one who brings forth fruit or...dare I use the synonym...works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464345"></a>The fourth seed is the good and noble heart that is saved. To understand the fourth seed, we must see the contrast to the third seed. The KJV says the third seed "brings no fruit to perfection." (<a name="marker=464346"></a>Luke 8:14, KJV.) However, the translation is lacking. The third seed is choked by thorns (i.e., the worries of this world) and so does not telesphorousin. This Greek word combines teleos, which means end, with phore, which means to produce, bring forth. Together, the two words literally mean "to complete" or "bring to a finish." Telesphore is often used with regard to fruit, pregnant women or animals. (Robertson's Word Pictures.) <a name="marker=464347"></a>Telesphorousin is the present active form in Greek. So it means "did not keep on producing to the end" or "did not continue to the finish." The idea of "bringing fruit to perfection" is incorrect. The word "fruit" is also not actually in this verse. Completion, not perfection, is in view. They did not telephorousin, i.e., they did not keep on producing to completion. They were choked off. This is reminiscent of the Sardisians whom Jesus tells in <a name="marker=464348"></a>Revelation 3:3 that their <a name="marker=464349"></a>works are "not fulfilled," i.e., incomplete. (<em>Cfr.</em> KJV "works not perfect"). Failure to complete your works leads to a loss of salvation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464350"></a>Knowing the flaws of the third seed opens our understanding of the fourth <a name="marker=464351"></a>seed's reason for being saved. The fourth seed, by contrast, "fell into good ground, and grew, and brought forth fruit a hundredfold." (<a name="marker=464352"></a>Luke 8:8.) Listen to Jesus' explanation of why this person alone among the four is ultimately saved:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464353"></a>And that in the good ground, these are such as in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, hold it fast, and bring forth fruit with patience. (<a name="marker=464354"></a>Luke 8:15 ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464355"></a>The Greek verb for "hold it fast" is in the Greek present active again. It means "keep on holding down." It is not hold "fast," but hold "down." (Robertson's Word Pictures.) This is a significant point. As Jesus tells the parable, the devil swooped down and stole the word from the first sewn seed, depriving it of salvation. By continuing to hold down the word, the fourth seed is guarding itself. It is doing everything possible to keep Satan from snatching the word away. It is the same meaning behind <a name="marker=464356"></a>John 8:51. He who has "kept guard" over Jesus' word "should never [ever] taste death." (John 8:51, ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464357"></a>Finally, what does it mean that the only saved person in this parable "brings forth fruit with patience." (<a name="marker=464358"></a>Luke 8:15, ASV)? Salvation depends on completing <a name="marker=464359"></a>works to the end.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464360"></a>Luke 8:15 really means: "who keep carrying on producing fruit with endurance." The Greek verb this time is karpos (carrying) combined with phore (produce, bear) in the Greek present indicative. So it has a continuous meaning. This is followed by hupomeno in Greek. In most translations of this verse, hupomeno is rendered as patience. However, almost everywhere else hupomeno appears in the NT it is translated as endurance, which is the more likely intended meaning of Jesus. The combination of karpos and phore implies fruit-bearing by definition. This parallels <a name="marker=464361"></a>Luke 8:8 which mentions "fruit a hundredfold." Thus, literally, Jesus is saying the saved seed "keeps carrying on producing fruit with endurance." This is in sharp contrast with the third seed which was lost because it did not "continue to the finish" or "produce to completion." (<a name="marker=464362"></a>Luke 8:14.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464363"></a>So let's build a diagram of the saved person in the <a name="marker=464364"></a>Parable of the Sower.<a name="pgfId=464390"></a></p>
</div>
<p> </p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464367"></a><span style="font-size: large;">Parable of the Sower: Fourth Seed</span></h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464371"></a><em>Fourth Seed (The Saved)</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464373"></a><em>Jesus' Explanation</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464375"></a>good ground</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464377"></a>noble and good heart</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464379"></a>seed sewn</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464381"></a>heard the word</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464383"></a>grew</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464385"></a>kept holding the word down (protecting it)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464387"></a>keeps on producing fruit a hundredfold</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464389"></a>keeps on carrying on producing fruit with endurance. Cfr. third seed fails to produce to the finish</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p><a name="pgfId=464391"></a>Here is Jesus' salvation formula in a nutshell. Producing fruit is never optional. Fruitlessness and being choked are pictures of the lost, even including those who "<strong><em>kept on believing for a while</em></strong>" and who "received" the word with joy at first. In fact, Jesus' point is even more adamant than just that: Jesus is saying partial fruitfulness is not enough. Jesus portends gloom for the one who has growth and then is choked off by thorns. Your initial <strong><em>good works are forgotten if you do not finish and complete well</em></strong>. Instead, you must endure to the end to be saved. This is an echo of <a name="marker=464392"></a>Matthew 10:22 once more. It is reminiscent of Ezekiel 33:12. Salvation by faith alone is clearly refuted. Salvation by works alone is not approved either. However, salvation by endurance in good <a name="marker=464393"></a>works to the end is crucial besides faith. So says the Lord Jesus Christ.</p>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464394"></a>To hold onto Pauline `faith alone' doctrine, one has to do many twists and turns with this parable. Jesus explained it, so you cannot say it is a parable hard to understand. Jesus already explained it!</p>
</div>
<h3><strong>Luther Could Not Come Up With A Gloss To Solve the Parable of the Sower</strong></h3>
<p><a name="pgfId=464396"></a>In fact, no one has ever properly explained how Jesus' <a name="marker=464397"></a>Parable of the Sower can even remotely line up consistent with Paul. <a name="marker=464398"></a><a name="marker=464399"></a>Luther's effort is so untenable that it proves how absolutely impossible it is to reconcile the two. Luther must have realized Jesus contradicts Paul. Thus, he injects Paul's doctrine of faith, not works, into what saves the second seed. Luther then ignores how this mismatches the rest of what the parable means.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464400"></a>Luther begins his commentary properly. The first type who has their seed snatched are those who "hear the word" but do not understand it. (<em>Sermons of Martin Luther</em>, Vol. II, at 114.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html.html#pgfId=464403"> <sup><strong>15</strong></sup></a> These "never believe" and never become saved. (<em>Id.</em>, at 115.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464405"></a><a name="marker=464404"></a>Luther then says the second seed knows the correct doctrine of salvation,<em> i.e</em>., "they know the real truth" that they are saved by "faith without works" (Paul's Gospel). However, "they do not persevere." He adds: "when it comes to the test that they must suffer harm, disgrace and loss of life or property, then they fall and deny it....in times of persecution they deny or keep silence about the Word."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>Luther in essence is saying that they<a name="marker=464406"></a>lose their salvation because under pressure they deny this truth that salvation is by faith alone. This is a bizarre self-contradiction. If you can lose your salvation by losing faith in the principle of faith alone, <em><strong>then faith alone does not save you</strong></em>. You must <a name="marker=464408"></a>endure or persevere in the doctrine of faith alone or be lost. This is a<em><strong> self-contradiction</strong></em>, because then faith alone did not save you. Faith and perseverance in faith alone saves you. These two ideas are self-contradictory: if you must persist in faith to be saved, then persistence, not the faith alone, is necessary for salvation. Hence, Luther's solution is nonsensical. (Anyone who has read eternal security arguments know that they reject Luther's argument precisely because salvation then depends on more than a one-time faith. Luther is actually contradicting Paul to save Paul from the <a name="marker=464409"></a>Parable of the Sower.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464410"></a>Luther's comments on the third group are enlightening as well. This group of seeds "always possess the absolutely pure Word...." <em>(Id</em>., at 116.) Their fault is "they do not earnestly give themselves to the Word, but become indifferent and sink in the cares, riches and pleasures of this life...." (<em>Id</em>., at 117.) They are thus apparently initially saved. Luther says "these have all in the Word that is needed for their salvation, but they do not make any use of it, and they rot in this life in carnal pleasures." Luther seems to understand Jesus is saying their problem is sin, not lack of proper faith. Luther says that despite the proper knowledge of the Gospel, "they do not bring under subjection their flesh." (<em>Id.</em>)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464411"></a>This leads Luther to the correct conclusion why the fourth seed is saved. Luther says they "bring forth fruit with patience, those who hear the Word and steadfastly retain it, meditate upon it and act in harmony with it." This leads to as true a statement as you will ever hear by Luther:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px; " class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>Here we see why it is no wonder there are so few true Christians, for all the seed does not fall into good ground, but only the fourth and small part; and that they are not to be trusted who boast they are Christians and praise the teaching of the Gospel. <em>Id.</em> at 118.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464413"></a>Luther realizes that salvation depends in the Parable, as Jesus depicts it, on YOU! It depends on the earnestness of your response and productivity!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464414"></a>This is the end of Luther's substantive commentary. What did he do? He explained Jesus' parable correctly. Yet, he pretended it was consistent with Paul by injecting Paul's gospel as what saved the second and third seeds initially. Luther did so without acknowledging it was self-contradictory nonsense. How can a seed that is saved by faith alone have to persevere and not succumb to sin? How can it lose salvation by being overcome by the thorns (pleasures) of this life? Nor did Luther try to ever explain away why the saved fourth seed alone had completed works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464415"></a>Luther's response is a perfect example of how people <strong><em>retain Paul even when he contradicts Jesus</em></strong>. Luther is conceding certain unavoidable aspects of this parable are at direct odds with Paul. Yet by injecting Paul's wording in the middle, <a name="marker=464416"></a>Luther makes it appear that Jesus' words are compatible with Paul's words. In this manner, Luther has somehow rationalized away that a conflict exists.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464417"></a>It is as Isaiah prophesied: "the wisdom of their wise men shall perish, and the understanding of their prudent men shall be hid." (<a name="marker=464418"></a>Isaiah 29:14.)</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464420"></a><a name="36150"></a>Comparing the Parable of the Sower to John's Gospel</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464421"></a>Finally, now we can make a comparison between the <a name="marker=464422"></a>Parable of the Sower and John's Gospel.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464424"></a>John and <a name="marker=464423"></a>Luke use <em>pisteuo</em> in the present active verb form to make the same point about <s>faith</s> [<em>pistis<span style="font-style: normal;"> and </span>pisteuo</em>.] In Luke, saving <s>faith</s> [<em>pistis</em>] cannot be a seed that fails to "keep holding onto the Root." Thus, the Parable of the Sower and John have the<strong><em> identical concept of <s>faith</s> [pisteuo] that pertains to salvation</em></strong>: it must continue. It must endure. If the believer /[obedient servant] fails to keep enduring to the end, he or she will become lost. [<em>Pistis]</em> <s>Faith</s> in the gospels is thus frequently portrayed as tenuous: as something that is insufficient alone, can fail, is ruined by sin, and that exhortations are necessary to remind us to endure in bringing forth fruit to the end.<strong><a name="pgfId=464425"></a></strong></p>
</div>
<div>
<h3>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208html-1.gif" /></div>
Conclusion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464427"></a>The <a name="marker=464426"></a>Parable of the Sower is an amazing nugget of Jesus' doctrine. For here is the whole true gospel of salvation from Jesus' lips. It is all contained in a very unassuming Parable of the Sower. Jesus tells you how to be saved and what is necessary to complete your salvation. Jesus tells you also how to be lost even after you have faith and accepted His word with joy and experience initial growth ("sprouted").</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464429"></a>Accordingly, the <a name="marker=464428"></a>Parable of the Sower puts an <strong><em>end to the salvation by faith alone idea</em></strong>. It puts an end to the idea that producing fruit is not essential. It shows the folly of thinking you can get to heaven having believed [or obeyed] and withered, or having grown significantly and then having been choked, never bringing your works to completion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464430"></a>Thus Jesus in this parable shows the error of Paul's starkly different doctrine. If you read Paul, it is all over once the seed is successfully sown, no matter what happens next. Paul's main <a name="marker=464431"></a>salvation verses <strong><em>at odds </em></strong>with this Parable of the Sower are well-known:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464433"></a><a name="marker=464432"></a>Romans 3:28 ("man is justified by faith apart from observing the law").</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464435"></a><a name="marker=464434"></a>Romans 4:5 ("To the man who does not work, but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness").</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464437"></a><a name="marker=464436"></a>Gal. 5:4 ("You who are trying to be justified by law have been alienated from Christ; you have fallen away from grace").</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464439"></a><a name="marker=464438"></a>Romans 7:6 ("Now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law, so that we serve in a new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code").</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464441"></a><a name="marker=464440"></a>Gal. 2:16 ("A man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ, because by observing the law no one will be justified").</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464443"></a><a name="marker=464442"></a>Ephesians 2:8-9 ("For it is by grace that you have been saved, through faith, this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God, not by works, so that no one can boast.")</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464444"></a>Paul has a different voice than our Lord Jesus. Paul's themes are alien to Jesus's message of salvation. They undercut, if not destroy, the message of Jesus. The true sheep of Jesus recognize His voice, and will not follow another. (<a name="marker=464445"></a>John 10:27-29.) Who are you following?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464446"></a>Thus, how many times must Jesus make the same points about repentance from sin and productivity at odds with Paul's different message before we will listen? If we think the <a name="marker=464447"></a>Parable of the Sower is some distorted addition to Scripture, then think again. It appears in all three Synoptic gospels. (Matt. 13:3 et seq; Luke 8:5 et seq; Mark 4:3 et seq.) There is no lineage of any early manuscript that ever omitted it. You have to deal with Jesus' Words alone versus Paul's different message.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464448"></a>The fact we cannot find Paul's gospel in Jesus' words brings us back to the fundamental questions presented in this book:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464449"></a>When will we finally make a commitment to keeping Jesus' words only?</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464450"></a>What is our Biblical justification for adding Paul to Scripture?</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464451"></a>What fulfilled prophecy did Paul give?</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464452"></a>Even if Paul gave a valid prophecy, does Paul seek to seduce us from following the Law and thus is disqualified from being added to Scripture by virtue of the Law's strict disqualification rule in Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:1-5 and Isaiah 8:20?<a name="pgfId=464453"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458247"></a></p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464107"></a>A more literal translation would also render the introductory <em>charin</em> as "for this reason" rather than use the vague term <em>wherefore</em>: "For this reason I am saying to you released are her many sins because she loved [aorist tense] much; to whom few [sins] are being forgiven [present indicative] they love [present indicative] little."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464140"></a>For a discussion on the erroneous addition of Mark 16:16, see chapter two.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464144"></a><em>The Message:Attitudes of Faith</em> (Boston Christian Bible Study Resources: 2004) at http://www.bcbsr.com/topics/fj7.html (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464150"></a>For a defense of early dating and discussion of standard dates, see John A.T. Robinson, <em>Redating the New Testament</em> (SCM Press: 1976).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464154"></a>Faith plays almost no role to mention in the synoptics. The only time it is described causing something is when Jesus heals people. He says "your faith has made you whole." (<a name="marker=464155"></a>Matt. 9:22; <a name="marker=464156"></a>Mark 5:34, <a name="marker=464157"></a>10:52, <a name="marker=464158"></a>Luke 8:48, <a name="marker=464159"></a>17:19, <a name="marker=464160"></a>18:42.) We read what this means when Jesus says: "according to your faith let it be done unto you." (<a name="marker=464161"></a>Matt. 9:29.) Otherwise, faith is not linked causally to anything. See <a name="marker=464162"></a>Matt. 8:10, <a name="marker=464163"></a>Luke 7:9 ("I have not found so great faith"); <a name="marker=464164"></a>Matt. 8:26, <a name="marker=464165"></a>14:31, 16:8, 17:20, Luke 12:28 ("Oh ye of little faith"); Matt. 9:2, Mark 2:5, Luke 5:20, ("seeing their faith"); Matt. 15:28 ("great is thy faith"); Matt. 21:21, Luke 17:6 ("If you have faith and doubt not...." "if you had faith..."); Matt. 23:23 ("weightier matters... faith"); Mark 4:40, Luke 8:25 ("have you not faith?" "where is your faith?" (storm on the Galilee); Mark 11:22 ("have faith in God" in relation to prayer); Luke 17:5 ("increase our faith"); Luke 18:8 ("shall he find faith"); Luke 22:32 (prayed "your faith fail not").</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464179"></a><em>SALVATION: According to the synoptic gospels</em> reprinted at http://www.religioustolerance.org/chr_savj1.htm (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464206"></a>Johann Brecht<em> Bengel, Gnomon of the New Testament</em> (ed. A. Fausset) (trans. J. Bandinel, J. Bryce, W. Fletcher)(Edinburgh: T&amp;T Clark, 1866) at 1.44 (quoting Luther), as quoted in Alan J. Thompson, "The Pietist Critique of Inerrancy? J.A. Bengel's Gnomon as a Test Case,"<em> JETS</em> (March 2004) at 79.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464216"></a>To verify the Greek verb's grammatical usage, download the Interlinear Scripture Analyzer free on the Internet.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464516"></a>For the explanation why the KJV "should," and not the NIV "shall have eternal life" is correct, see page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA440#v=onepage&amp;q=should%20have%20eternal&amp;f=false">440</a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464228"></a>See Paul or James' Church: Who Was The Most Successful Evangelist? (Available exclusively online at www.jesuswordsonly.com.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464249"></a>For this reason, Charles <a name="marker=464248"></a>Stanley, the head of the Baptists, says "believes" in John 3:16 (which is the KJV and NIV translation) means a one-time faith. Stanley explains "believes"--the English simple present tense of to believe--can mean a one-time event that does not have to continue. From this, Stanley deduces a one-time faith saves. (Charles <a name="marker=464250"></a>Stanley, <em>Eternal Security of the Believer</em> (Nelson: 1990) at 95.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464260"></a>See Appendix A: Greek Issues for a full discussion. <a name="marker=464259"></a>Young's Literal Translation always renders the Greek present indicative active or the present participle active with "is...ing" (the gerund form of the verb). This is the English present continuous tense. It is a satisfactory rendering. However, to catch the nuance of the Greek, the NIV was correct to use "keeps on" or "continues to..." as it did so often. However, only Young's Literal translation has had the courage so far to fix John 3:16 to read more accurately.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464275"></a>See Appendix A: Greek Issues.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464304"></a>The Greek word for believes in Luke 8:13 is <em>pisteuosin</em>. This is one form of the present participle active when a masculine dative is involved. <em>Pisteuosin</em> is also a present indicative active if the subject is a third person plural. (Walcott-Hort online at Perseus.com.) The subject pronoun in 8:13 is <em>hoi</em>, a masculine plural noun. Thus, <em>believes</em> in Luke 8:13 is the present indicative active. By comparison, <em>believe</em> in John 3:16 is <em>pisteuon</em>, which is the present participle active because the subject is a masculine nominative. This difference in believes between Luke 8:13 and John 3:16 is not substantive. Both correspond to a continuous tense. See Appendix A: Greek Issues.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464403"></a>Martin Luther, "The Parable of the Sower," <em>The Precious and Sacred Writings of Martin Luther</em> (Minneapolis, MN: Lutherans in All Lands, 1906) Vol. 11 reprinted as <em>The Sermons of Martin Luthe</em>r (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House) (1983) Vol. II at 113 et seq.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Five: Did Paul Negate The Law's Further Applicability?</h2>
<h2><strong>Applying the Consistency Test</strong></h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">No one ever seriously claims Paul made any qualifying prophecy. Certainly nothing he predicted of a highly improbable nature has yet come true. Thus, the addition of Paul to canon immediately has a wobbly foundation. It appears to violate <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy+4%3A2&amp;version=NIV">Deuteronomy 4:2</a>.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Assuming for argument sake that Paul made some qualifying prediction, we next must apply the Bible's second level test. Even if they come with "signs and wonders" that come true, the Bible says they are still a false prophet if they simultaneously try to "seduce you from the way in which the Lord your God commanded you to walk." (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2013:5&amp;version=NIV">Deut. 13:5</a>.) If they "diminish the Law," they violate God's word and must be false. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%204:2&amp;version=NIV">Deut. 4:2</a>.) Jesus in the same vein warns of those with true "signs and wonders" but who are workers of <em>A-Nomia</em>, i.e., negators of <em>Nomos</em>--the word for Torah/the Law of Moses in Greek. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%207:15&amp;version=NIV">Matt. 7:15</a>, <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%2024:11,%2024&amp;version=NIV">24:11, 24.</a>)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464104"> 1</a> As a result, even though Paul insists his "signs and wonders" validated his message (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=romans%2015:19&amp;version=NIV">Romans 15:19</a>), we need to examine whether Paul' teachings are consistent with the Scripture that preceded Paul. We will thereby follow the example of the Bereans who used Scripture to test Paul's validity. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%2017:11&amp;version=NIV">Acts 17:11</a>.)</span></p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=464111"></a>
<div><img src="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html-1.gif" /></div>
Did Paul Abrogate the Law for Everyone?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Paul has many statements that appear to abrogate the Law in its entirety. Paul does not merely say that Jesus fulfilled the law of sacrifice, making actual sacrifices moot. (This is Barnabas' reasonable approach in Hebrews.) Paul does not merely say the sacrificial ceremonies within the Law are gone. Rather, it appears Paul says Jesus removed the Law in its entirety as a code.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Luther believed Paul unequivocally declared that all aspects of the Law were <a name="marker=464115"></a>abolished. Paul even abolished the moral components of the Law. Luther wrote:</span></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464117"></a>The scholastics think that the judicial and ceremonial laws of Moses were abolished by the coming of Christ, but not the moral law. They are blind. When Paul declares that we are delivered from the curse of the Law he means the whole Law, particularly the moral law which more than the other laws accuses, curses, and condemns the conscience. <em><strong>The Ten Commandments have no right to condemn that conscience in which Jesus dwells, for Jesus has taken from the Ten Commandments the right and power to curse us</strong></em>.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464120"> 2</a></span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">We can find handy one-line proofs in Ephesians 2:15 and Colossians 2:14. Paul declares the Law is abolished for Christians.</span></p>
<h2 class="Heading2">Ephesians 2:15</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Let us start with <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=ephesians%202:15&amp;version=NIV">Ephesians 2:15</a>. We will quote its wider context to be sure of its meaning.</span></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">(14) For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition [at the Temple of Jerusalem]; (15) Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, [even] the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; (16) And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby: (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=ephesians%202:14-16&amp;version=ASV">Ephesians 2:14-16</a>, ASV)(bracketed text added by ASV to make flow better)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Most reputable commentators agree that Paul says here that Jesus abrogated the entire Law of Moses. Gill clearly says it is the Law given at Mount Sinai. Gill says Sinai means "hatred" in Hebrew. Thus, Paul is engaging in word-play with its synonym in Greek--enmity. Gill then explains Paul means that from Sinai "descended `hatred' or `enmity' to the nations of the world: now this Christ abolished." Jamieson likewise says Paul means Jesus abrogated the entire Law of Moses. Jesus supposedly replaced it with the "law of Love." Henry hedges a bit. He says Paul means the "ceremonial law" was abrogated.</span></p>
<h2 class="Heading2">Colossians 2:14</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Second, Paul rewords <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=ephesians%202:14-16&amp;version=ASV">Ephesians 2:14-16</a> in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=colossians%202:14&amp;version=ASV">Colossians 2:14.</a> The abrogation of the Law is crystal clear in Colossians. All the Law including the commandment to rest on the <a name="marker=464131"></a>Sabbath is abolished:</span></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>(14) Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; (15) And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it. (16) Let <strong><em>no man therefore judge you</em></strong> in meat, or in drink, or <strong><em>in respect of an holyday</em></strong>, or of the new moon, or of the <strong><em>sabbath days</em></strong>: (17) Which are <strong><em>a shadow of things to come</em></strong>; but the body is of Christ. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=colossians%202:14-17&amp;version=ASV">Colossians 2:14-17</a>, ASV)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464134"></a>Here the commentators have no disagreement. Paul means by ordinances blotted away "primarily...the Mosaic Law." (<em>Vincent Word Studies</em>.) This is not merely the ceremonial law. Paul picks out one of the Ten Commandments--the <a name="marker=464135"></a>Sabbath command. Then Paul sweeps it away. As Martin Luther in a sermon entitled <em>How Christians Should Regard Moses</em> given August 27, 1525<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464138"> 3</a> says of this passage:</span></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464139"></a>Again one can prove it from the third commandment that Moses does not pertain to Gentiles and Christians. <em><strong>For Paul [Col. 2:16]...abolish[ed] the sabbath</strong></em>, to show us that the sabbath was given to the Jews alone, for whom it is a stern commandment. <a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464144">4</a></span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Paul will repeat this abolition of Sabbath in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=romans%2014:5-6&amp;version=ASV">Romans 14:5-6</a>. Paul writes: "One man considers one day more sacred than another; another man considers every day alike. Each one should be fully convinced in his own mind." Christian commentators explain this means regarding Sabbath: "Christians are permitted to make up their own minds about a special day."<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464154"> 5</a> You can take it or leave it. It is up to you.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Paul also wipes out all the clean/unclean principles of the <a name="marker=464155"></a>food laws as well as festival days. (See also, <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20tim.%204:4&amp;version=ASV">1 Tim. 4:4</a>, `all food is clean.') [Jesus taught the violation of the clean/unclean principles of the food law did not make you a sinner, implying those principles were for health. Jesus did not remove the clean/unclean principles in the food laws.]</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In these passages, Paul clearly is teaching against any obedience to the Law of Moses per se.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><img align="RIGHT" src="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html-2.gif" /><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In Colossians, we have a clearer idea of the "enmity" spoken about in Ephesians 2:15. All the ordinances of God in the Law of Moses are "against us." (Col. 2:14.) Vincent says Paul's meaning is that the Law of Moses had the "hostile character of a bond" or debt. In Christ, Paul clearly is saying we (Jew and Gentile) are free from this debt. The proof is in the pudding. Paul says in verse sixteen that no one can judge you any longer for not obeying the Sabbath. The command for a Seventh Day-Sabbath rest is clearly not a ceremonial law about sacrifice. It is one of the Ten Commandments.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">Furthermore, Paul makes it clear that there is no distinction between Jew or Gentile who are so liberated from the Law. In both Ephesians 2:15 and Col. 2:14-17, Paul emphasizes how "one new man" emerges (<a name="marker=464167"></a>Eph. 2:15). He explains this is so because the Temple wall that barred Gentiles from sacred parts of the Temple has been spiritually abolished. <em>Id.</em><strong><a name="pgfId=464865"></a></strong></span></p>
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The Abolished Law Was A Ministry Of Death</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a>Paul has a section of Second Corinthians that totally demeans the Ten Commandments. He then unequivocally says they have "passed away." Once more, Paul demonstrates certainly that he is teaching Jews and Gentiles to no longer follow the Law of Moses.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In this passage from Second Corinthians, Paul calls Moses' ministry one of "death" and "condemnation." Paul calls Christianity a ministry of Spirit and liberty. The Law of Moses kills. Christianity gives life. (Incidentally, Paul's reasoning is dubious at best.)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464174"> 6</a> The <a name="marker=464176"></a>Law of Moses is "done away with." Its "glory was to be done away with." It is "done away." Finally, it is "that which is abolished." All these quotes are found in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Corinthians%203:6-17&amp;version=ASV">2 Corinthians 3:6-17</a>:</span></p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">(6) Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for <em><strong>the letter killeth</strong></em>, but the spirit giveth life. (7) But if <em><strong>the ministration of death</strong></em>, written and<strong><em> engraven in stones</em></strong>, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory <strong><em>was to be done away</em></strong>: (8) How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious? (9) For if <em><strong>the ministration of condemnation</strong></em> be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory. (10) For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth. (11) For if that which is <strong><em>done away</em></strong> was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious. (12) Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: (13) And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: (14) But <strong><em>their minds were blinded</em></strong>: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the <strong><em>reading of the old testament</em></strong>; which vail is<em><strong> done away in Christ</strong></em>. (15) But even unto this day, <strong><em>when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart</em></strong>. (16) Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, <strong><em>the vail shall be taken away</em></strong>. (17) Now the Lord is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is<em><strong> liberty</strong></em>. (ASV)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464180"></a>There is nothing unclear in this passage. Paul says the Law of Moses is done away with. The glory that fell upon Moses' face has faded away. This fading away was a foreshadowing that the Ten Commandments would be done away with later. Paul says this time is now. We are entirely free of any and all of the Law's commands. We enjoy liberty from the Law given Moses.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464181"></a>Gill in his famous commentary is blunt. This passage of <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Cor.%203:11-17&amp;version=ASV">2 Cor. 3:11-17</a> means that the "law is the Old Testament, or covenant, which is vanished away."</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464182"></a>Barnes concurs. He says "the former [i.e., the Law] was to be done away...." Barnes comments on Paul's explanation that when we turn to the gospel, we simultaneously turn away from the Law. It was merely a veil blocking our view of God. Barnes concludes: "When that people should turn again to the Lord, it [i.e., the Law] should be taken away, 2 Cor. 3:16."</span></p>
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<a name="42168"></a>Romans Chapter Seven Says the Jews Are Released From the Law</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464187"></a><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="marker=464185"></a>Paul makes his views clear again in <a name="marker=464186"></a><a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%207:1&amp;version=ASV">Romans 7:1</a> et seq. Paul says he is addressing those who know the Law. Paul then teaches that the Jews under the Law are the same as if Israel were a wife of God. When Jesus died, the husband died. This then "releases" the bride (Jews) from the Law. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%207:2&amp;version=ASV">Rom. 7:2.</a>) The Jews are now free to remarry another. In this instance, they can now join with the resurrected Jesus who no longer offers the Law to follow. The Law instead, Paul says, is a bond to the dead husband-God, applying Paul's analogy.</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464188"></a>There is no doubt on Paul's meaning in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%207:2&amp;version=ASV">Romans 7:2</a>. The word translated as "releases" is from the Greek <em>katarge</em>. Paul uses the same Greek word in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%206:6&amp;version=ASV">Romans 6:6</a>. There he prays the body of sin "may be destroyed," and uses the word<em> katarge</em> to mean destroyed, abolished, etc. <em>Katarge</em> means in Greek bring to nothing or do away with. It is the same word Paul uses in Ephesians 2:15 to say the Law was "abolished." [See our 10/2010 <a href="/JWO/romans-7-a-major-incongruity.html">article</a> for further detail on the meaning of <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%207:1-7&amp;version=ASV">Romans 7:1-7</a>.]</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><a name="pgfId=464189"></a>Thus, Paul clearly taught in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans%207:2&amp;version=ASV">Romans 7:2</a> again that the Law was abolished. He made this truth specific to Jews too.</span></p>
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<a name="21217"></a>The New Morality In Its Place</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464192"></a>One of the proofs that Paul declared the Law abolished is how Paul explains a <a name="marker=464193"></a><a name="marker=464194"></a>new morality exists for Christians. If Paul intended us to view the Law of Moses as abolished, then we would expect Paul to utter a new standard to guide us in our ethical conduct. We find that <a name="Paul"></a>Paul does provide a replacement ethical system. Paul teaches a new morality based on what is "obvious" as wrong to a person led by the Spirit. (<a name="marker=464196"></a>Gal. 5:19.) The general test is: "All things are lawful but not all things are necessarily expedient." (<a name="marker=464197"></a>1 Cor. 6:12, ASV). "All things are lawful for me." (1 Cor. 10:23.) "Happy is he who does not condemn himself in that thing which he allows." (Rom. 14:22.) Issues of whether to observe <a name="Paul"></a>Sabbath at all are reduced to sentiment of what feels best to you: "Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind." (Rom. 14:5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464199"></a>This new morality is another proof that the Law is done away with. As one commentator notes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464200"></a>As we have said, one of the three aspects of our `liberty in Christ' is our freedom from the Law of Moses. So, when Paul says `all things are lawful for me' he is simply referring to the fact that we are free FROM the Law of Moses.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464203"> <sup>7</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464204"></a>Thus, if you are in Christ, Paul teaches anything is allowed that conscience permits. The Torah no longer applies. If your conscience allows you to think something is permissible, it is permissible. It is as Bob George--a modern Christian radio personality and author of numerous books--said one day in response to whether fornication was prohibited:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a>And as Paul said, "All things are permissible, but not all things are profitable." So is <strong><em>committing fornication permissible? Yes</em></strong>. Is it profitable? No, it is not.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464208"> <sup>8</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a>Accordingly, Paul's repeated axiom "all things are lawful for me" was not some pagan truth that Paul was mocking, as some prefer to think. It arose from Paul abolishing the strict letter of the Mosaic Law "which kills."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464210"></a>The proof that this is Paul's viewpoint is how Paul analyzed actual issues. He <strong><em>repeatedly used an expediency test to resolve what is right and wrong</em></strong>. For example, this expediency principle had its clearest application in Paul's reinterpretation of the command not to eat <a name="marker=464211"></a>meat sacrificed to idols. He says he is free from that command. Paul knows an idol is nothing. However, it is <strong><em>not necessarily expedient</em></strong> to eat such meat if someone else you are with thinks it is wrong. So when in the company of this "weaker" brother, Paul will not eat meat sacrificed to idols. The test depends upon who may be benefited or harmed by your behavior. In a word, the test is its expediency.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464214"> <sup>9</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464215"></a>Paul's expediency test is evident again in his lack of concern for the letter of the original Law of the <a name="marker=464216"></a>Sabbath. This was God's command to rest on the "seventh day" of the week--which we know as the day of Saturday. (Ex. 20:10.) On this point, Paul says in Romans 14:5: "One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind." It's all relative to how you feel about it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a>Paul thus clearly identifies a new moral law divorced from the written precepts of the Law. Paul made the new morality depend on the circumstances. It also depended on its expediency. There are no strict moral rules to follow.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464220"></a>Paul's doctrines are what traditionally we would call antinomianism. If your conscience "led by the Spirit" is your guide, and you reject the Law of Moses in its express moral precepts, then you are antinomian. You are using your own decisions "led by the Spirit" of when and how to comply, if at all, with any of the express commands in the Law of Moses.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464221"></a>This aspect of Paul is what makes him so attractive to the world. Paul gave flexible guidelines about what is sin. Paul also established a system where a believer is allowed to sin without risk of eternal damnation (Rom. 8:1) as long as you follow some simple steps. You are eternally secure if you confessed Jesus and believed in the resurrection. (Romans 10:9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464223"></a><a name="marker=464222"></a>Jesus' teachings are not so attractive as Paul's teachings in this regard. Jesus required you live a good life according to the commandments in the Law. Anyone who taught against the validity of the Law given Moses by God was least in the kingdom of heaven. Not one jot or tittle from the Mosaic <a name="marker=464224"></a>Law would pass away until heaven and earth pass away. (Matt. 5:18.) Jesus told the <a name="marker=464225"></a>rich young man that if you would "enter life,"<strong><em> obey the Ten Commandments</em></strong>. (<a name="marker=464226"></a>Matthew 19:16-26; <a name="marker=464227"></a>Mark 10:17-31; <a name="marker=464228"></a>Luke 18:18-26.)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464231"> <sup>10</sup></a> If you violate the commandments, <a name="marker=464232"></a>Jesus required severe repentance from such sin to avoid being sent to hell. (<a name="marker=464233"></a>Matthew 5:29, <a name="marker=464234"></a>Matthew 18:8, and <a name="marker=464235"></a>Mark 9:42-48.) Jesus described the repentance needed as `cutting off the body part ensnaring you to sin.'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464236"></a>Paul is much easier, and far more attractive. For Paul, by contrast, when you sin against the Law, the issue is whether your conscience can allow you to live with it. "Happy is he who does not condemn himself in that thing which he allows." (Rom. 14:22.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464237"></a>Most of those in the world coming to Christ opt to follow the <a name="marker=464238"></a>message of Paul. They can even boast of their lack of perfection and bask in the feeling of being forgiven. Based on <a name="marker=464239"></a>Paul, they are confident they are destined for heaven regardless of never truly repenting from their sin against the Law. They are sure they are heading for heaven despite blatant disobedience to the Law of God, <em>e.g.</em>, the duty to rest on the true Sabbath. Paul has become a magnet for the modern Christian. Jesus' message of righteousness in action, obedience to the Law, and severe repentance after failure has lost all its appeal.</p>
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<a name="19680"></a>Denigration of the Law as Given by the Angels</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a>The most troubling aspect of <a name="marker=464242"></a>Paul's writings on the Law is his attribution of the Law to angels. As we will discuss next in depth, Paul in Galatians says the Law was given by angels to Moses as a mediator. If we want to go back to following the Law, Paul says we are desiring to submit to those who "<strong><em>are no gods</em></strong>." We want to submit to the "weak and beggarly elements (angels)." (Gal. 3:19; 4:8-9.) Thus, Paul clearly says the Law was not given by God.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464244"></a>This is also evident in how Paul derides submitting to the Law, because given by angels. We contrast this with how Paul insists we must submit for conscience sake to government officials as "ministers of God." (Romans 13:1, 4.) Yet, we must not submit to the Law because given by angels. We come up with a troubling deduction. Paul must be understood to be saying that we do not have to submit to the Law because angels alone gave it. Unlike government officials, the angels must not have been ministers of God when giving the Law. This is why the angels are not even on par with government officials whose decrees (Paul says) must be followed as God's ministers.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464245"></a>These statements are extremely troubling because Paul contradicts the Bible on two points: (a) his claim the Law was given by angels; and (b) the Law given to Moses by angels was not worthy of submission, implying the angels acted without God's authority. To the contrary, the Bible is clear that the Law was given directly by God to Moses. Furthermore, even if given by angels, <a name="marker=464246"></a>Jesus says the angels of heaven are always obeying God.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464249"> <sup>11</sup></a> We would still obey a set of decrees if we only knew angels of heaven were its author.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464252"></a>Have you ever looked carefully at Paul's remarks? They require strict scrutiny in light of the obvious heresy behind them.</p>
<h2 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a><a name="23977"></a>Paul Says the Law Was Ordained through Angels</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464256"></a>Starting with <a name="marker=464255"></a>Galatians 3:19-29, we read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464257"></a>(19) What then is the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise hath been made; and <strong><em>it was ordained<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464260"> 12</a> through angels</em></strong> by the hand of a mediator. (20) Now a mediator is not a mediator of one; but God is one. (21) Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could make alive, verily righteousness would have been of the law. (22) But the scriptures shut up all things under sin, that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe. (23) But before faith came, we were kept in <strong><em>ward under the law</em></strong>, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. (24) So that the<strong><em> law is become our tutor</em></strong> to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. (25) But now faith that is come, <em><strong>we are no longer under a tutor</strong></em>. (26) For ye are all sons of God, through faith, in Christ Jesus. (27) For as many of you as were baptized into Christ did put on Christ. (28) There can be neither Jew nor Greek, there can be neither bond nor free, there can be no male and female; for ye all are one man in Christ Jesus. (29) And if ye are Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, heirs according to promise. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464261"></a>Above, Paul starts out his attack on obeying the Law by saying it was "<em><strong>ordained by angels through the hands of a mediator</strong></em>," <em>i.e</em>., Moses. (<a name="marker=464262"></a>Galatians 3:19.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464263"></a>This attack fits precisely into Paul's message. He says the Law is no longer binding on us. Paul is saying the same thing he said in <a name="marker=464264"></a>Ephesians 2:15 and<a name="marker=464265"></a>Colossians 2:14. He tells you the reason: the Law was "ordained by angels," not God the Father. (Gal. 3:19.) Paul will repeat this idea again twice--in Galatians 4:8 and 4:9. (We will discuss these verses next.) There is no mistaking Paul's point is to demean the Law so we will accept his teaching it has been abolished.</p>
<h2 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464267"></a><a name="11800"></a>Why Be Subject to Those Who Are Not Gods (i.e., Angels)?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464269"></a><a name="marker=464268"></a>Paul has more to say about the angels. In chapter 4 of Galatians, Paul will say that because the Law was given by angels, why do we want to be subject to those who are not gods? (Gal. 4:8.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464270"></a>In this portion of Galatians, Paul speaks of the Law as bondage. Rather than the Law being a positive thing, Paul recasts the nature of the entire Hebrew Scriptures to make this a very bad thing.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464271"></a>Paul does this by a fanciful re-telling of the Bible story of Abraham. Paul says t<a name="37652"></a>he bondage of the Law now belongs to the son Ishmael produced by Abraham and <a name="marker=464273"></a>Hagar. The Law thus carries a curse on Hagar's child Ishmael. Paul's ideas were a total invention, having no basis in the Scripture itself. Then Paul says Hagar's son Ishmael corresponds with Israel of Paul's day. This likewise was pure fiction. Paul then reasons those Jews under the Law at Mount Sinai are now "by an allegory" represented by Ishmael, the son of Hagar. Paul next says Israel, which now corresponds to Ishmael, is cursed to have to follow the Law of Moses. (This is what I call <a name="marker=464274"></a>The Great Inversion.) Mixed in with this, Paul brings up again that the Law was given by <a name="marker=464275"></a>angels to a mediator (Moses), not by God himself. So here Paul wonders why anyone wants to submit to those who are "not gods?" i.e., the angels.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464276"></a>As you read these statements from Galatians below, please focus on two things. First, does Paul truly invert Israel and Ishmael? Second, does Paul intend to denigrate the Law by mentioning it came from the angels? If you agree Paul makes either claim, then realize both claims are completely <a name="marker=464277"></a>contradictory of the Bible. Why? Because the Law was given to the Sons of Israel on Mount Sinai by God's own voice (not angels) through the mediator Moses. (Exodus 20:22.)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464280"> 13</a> The son of Abraham and Hagar is Ishmael. (Gen. 15:16). The son of Abraham and Sarah is Isaac. (Gen. 17:19.) It is with Isaac's "seed" that God will fulfill an "everlasting covenant." (Gen. 17:19.)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464284"> 14</a> Isaac's son with Rebekah was Jacob. (Gen. 25:26.) Israel was the new name God gave Jacob. (Gen. 32:28.) Ishmael was never given the Law. Instead, he and his mother were cast out by Abraham into the desert. (<a name="marker=464286"></a>Gen. 21:14.) The Law was given to the sons of Sarah (Israel), not the sons of Hagar. (Ex. 20.)</p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464290"></a><a name="marker=464289"></a><span style="font-size: medium;">The Great Inversion</span></h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464294"></a><em>Paul's "Allegory"</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464296"></a><em>Bible's View</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464298"></a>Hagar's son is "born after the flesh." (Gal. 4:23.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a>Hagar's son is Ishmael. (Gen. 15:16.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464302"></a>Hagar bore sons "unto bondage" (Gal. 4:24.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464304"></a>Hagar &amp; Ishmael were cast out into the desert. (Gen.21:14.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464306"></a>This son (Ishmael) has a "covenant" of bondage at Sinai. (Gal. 4:24.) "Jerusalem... is in bondage with her children." (Gal.4:25.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464308"></a>The covenant at Sinai was with the sons of Israel, not Ishmael. (Ex. 20:22.) The Law was given at Sinai to the sons of Israel. (Exodus 20.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464310"></a>Sarah's children are children of the "freewoman." (Gal. 4:22.) "Jerusalem that is above is free." (Gal. 4:26.) Christians are children of the freewoman. (Gal. 4:31.) Sarah's children are not bound to the Law; only the sons of Hagar are bound to the Law.</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464312"></a>Sarah's son was Isaac, whose son Jacob had his name changed by God to Israel. (Gen. 17:19, 32:28.) The Law was given to the Sons of Sarah, not Hagar. The children of Sarah were bound by God to the Law. (Exodus 20).</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>Paul thereby provides an "allegory" that is totally at odds with the Biblical record. It is a 100% inversion of Scripture. No one has liberty to break God's promise to Israel by redefining to whom the promise was given. Paul has redefined Israel to be Ishmael. He thereby claims that Christians can inherit the promise to Isaac (father to Israel) apart from the true seed of Isaac who Paul, in effect, puts under a curse. Paul therefore says we are free to ignore the Bible-story that Israel (son of Isaac) was later given the Law. Paul invites us to accept that instead the Law should now be seen as given to Ishmael as a curse. It never happened. This is rewriting the Bible with an agenda in hand. I can come to any outcome I want if I can rewrite the passages. That is not Bible exegisis. This is Bible-contradiction.</p>
<div>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464316"></a>Not even a Prophet of God is given the power to make up stories--calling them analogies--that contradict Scripture to spin the Bible to fit a desired outcome. As the Bible itself says:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464317"></a>[Compare teachers] [t]o the Law and the Testimony [and], if they speak not according to this Word, it is because there is no light in them. (<a name="marker=464318"></a>Isaiah 8:20).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464320"></a>Yet in <a name="marker=464319"></a>Galatians 4:1-11 and 20-31, we read Paul not speaking at all according to this Word:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464321"></a>(1) But I say that so long as the heir is a child, he differeth nothing from a<strong><em> bondservant</em></strong> though he is lord of all; (2) but is <strong><em>under guardians</em></strong> and stewards until the day appointed of the father. (3) So we also, when we were children, <em><strong>were held in bondage</strong></em> under the rudiments of the world: (4) but when the fulness of the time came, God sent forth his Son, born of a woman, born under the law, (5) that he might redeem them that <em><strong>were under the law</strong></em>, that we might receive the adoption of sons. (6) And because ye are sons, God sent forth the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, Abba, Father. (7) So that thou art no longer a bondservant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir through God. (8) Howbeit at that time, not knowing God,<strong><em> ye were in bondage to them that by nature are no gods</em></strong>: (9) but now that ye have come to know God, or rather to be known by God, how turn ye back again to<strong><em> the weak and beggarly elements,<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464325"> 15</a>whereunto ye desire to be in bondage over again</em></strong>? (10) Ye<strong><em> observe days, and months, and seasons, and years</em></strong>. (11) I am afraid of you, lest by any means I have bestowed labor upon you in vain. **** (20) but I could wish to be present with you now, and to change my tone; for I am perplexed about you. (21) Tell me, ye that <em><strong>desire to be under the law</strong></em>, do ye not hear the law? (22) For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, one by the handmaid [<em>i.e</em>., a bondservant], and one by the freewoman [i.e., Sarah]. (23) Howbeit the son by the handmaid is born after the flesh; but the son by the freewoman is born through promise. (24) <em><strong>Which things contain an allegory</strong></em>: for these women are two covenants; one from mount Sinai, bearing<strong><em> children unto bondage</em></strong>, <em><strong>which is Hagar</strong></em>. (25) Now this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia and answereth to the Jerusalem that now is: for<strong><em> she is in bondage with her children</em></strong>. (26) But the Jerusalem that is above is free, which is our mother. (27) For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; Break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: For more are the children of the desolate than of her that hath the husband. (28) Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, <strong><em>are children of promise</em></strong>. (29) But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was <strong><em>born after the Spirit</em></strong>, so also it is now. (30) Howbeit what saith the scripture?<strong><em> Cast out the handmaid and her son: for the son of the handmaid shall not inherit with the son of the freewoman</em></strong>. (31) Wherefore, brethren,<strong><em> we are not children of a handmaid, but of the freewoman</em></strong>. (ASV with change in verse 8 as noted in fn 15.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464327"></a><a name="marker=464326"></a>Paul clearly is referring to the angels in verse 8. He says `you' desire to be in bondage to them who are "not gods." This is because Paul mentions that returning to obey the Law is being in "bondage again." So when Paul says being in bondage again to the Law is the same as bondage to them who are "not gods," there is only one conceivable explanation. Paul is harkening back to Galatians 3:19. There he says the Law was ordained by angels. They are "no gods." Paul thus means the Galatians' desire to be in `bondage' to the Law is a desire to be in bondage to those who are "not gods."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464328"></a>Paulinists such as Fowler concur this is Paul's meaning in 4:8. However, they fail to note Paul is contradicting Scripture. Commentators agree Paul's point in <a name="marker=464329"></a>Galatians 4:8 is to emphasize once more that the Law of Moses is "secondary" because of its "indirect transmission" through angels rather than coming directly from God.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464332"> 16</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464333"></a>What makes the point unmistakable is that Paul repeats this idea in the very next verse. It is not readily apparent in our common English translations. Paul says in <a name="marker=464334"></a>Galatians 4:9 that the Galatians desire to be subject again to the "weak and beggarly elements of the world." What or who are <a name="marker=464335"></a>elements of the world? Paul equates this desire to submit to the Law as being in "bondage again" to these "elements." Previously, this was equated with submitting to angels because they ordained the Law. Here, Paul means by elements the same thing: angels. This is true in both Greek and Jewish thought.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464336"></a>One commentator points out that in Greek thought, the reference to "elements of the world...likely [means] celestial beings..."<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464339"> 17</a> Likewise, in Jewish thought, elements of the world means angels. In Vincent's <em>Word Studies</em> on this verse, we read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464340"></a>The <strong><em>elements of the world are the personal, elemental spirits</em></strong>. This seems to be the preferable explanation, both here and in Col 2:8. According to Jewish ideas, all things had their special angels. In the Book of Jubilees, chapter 2, appear, the angel of the presence (comp. Isa 63:9); the angel of adoration; the spirits of the wind, the clouds, darkness, hail, frost, thunder and lightning, winter and spring, cold and heat.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464343"></a>Thus, <a name="marker=464341"></a>Galatians 4:8 and 4:9 are both evoking <a name="marker=464342"></a>Galatians 3:19's message that the Law was ordained by <a name="marker=464344"></a>angels, not God himself. Paul is chiding them for wanting to be subject to a Law that did not come from God. Hence they want to be in "bondage over again" to the weak and beggarly "celestial beings."<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464347"> 18</a></p>
</div>
</div>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464351"></a>Who Are "no gods" and "elements" in Gal. 4:8, 9? Angels</h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464357"></a>Galatians' intended Lawkeeping is bondage to whom? (Gal. 4:8)</p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464359"></a>Galatians' intended keeping of Law given Moses is "bondage again" to "elements." (Gal. 4:9) Who are "elements"?</p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464361"></a>How do we know Paul intends No Gods &amp; Angelic Elements are the true source of the Law of Moses?</p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464363"></a>Those who are "no gods." (Gal. 4:8.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464365"></a>"Elements" are angels in Greek &amp; Hebrew thought.</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464367"></a>Because Paul says so in Galatians 3:19. He says the Law of Moses was "ordained" by angels through Moses as a Mediator. (Gal. 3:19.) Thus, continuing to obey the Law is bondage again to those who are "no gods" and "weak and beggarly elements."</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p><a name="pgfId=464368"></a>There is no misreading of Paul involved here. Luke, a companion of Paul, repeats this in the words of Stephen in <a name="marker=464369"></a>Acts 7:53. Stephen says: "You received the <strong><em>Law as ordained by angels</em></strong> and did not keep it." Barnabas, a companion of Paul, and author of Hebrews, refers likewise to the "word spoken <strong><em>through angels</em></strong>." (<a name="marker=464370"></a>Heb. 2:2.) Both Stephen and Barnabas are making a misapplication of Scripture. It is correct to say as Stephen does in Acts 7:35 "the angel... appeared to him (Moses) in the bush." (See Exodus 3:2.) But it is incorrect to say that Hebrew Scripture indicate the Law was given by angels. Such a view contradicts <a name="marker=464371"></a>Exodus chapter 20, and specifically<a name="marker=464372"></a>Ex. 25:16, 21-22. This passage says God Himself gave the Law.</p>
<div>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464375"></a>Paul's claim also directly <a name="marker=464373"></a>contradicts Jesus. <a name="marker=464374"></a>Our Lord said that "in the bush,... God spake unto him." (<a name="marker=464376"></a>Mark 12:26; <a name="marker=464377"></a>Luke 20:37.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464378"></a>In sum, Paul's unmistakable point is that because the Law was ordained through angels, it is secondary. It does not deserve our submission. Paul is asking the Galatians why do they want to be subject to those who are "not gods." They are "weak and beggarly elements."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464379"></a>However, we cannot ignore Paul's view on the angels contradicts the account in Exodus. There is no conceivable gap in Exodus chapter 20 that can ever justify Paul's claim, as some Paulinists suggest to avoid the dilemma. Exodus chapter 20 directly quotes God giving the Ten Commandments. Paul is flatly wrong.</p>
</div>
</div>
<h2>
<div><img src="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html-1.gif" /></div>
Does Paul Imply The Angels Lacked God's Authority in Issuing the Law?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464381"></a>When you examine other letters of Paul, it is clear Paul means in Galatians that the angels lacked God's authority in giving the Law. You can deduce this by looking at Paul's comments in <a name="marker=464382"></a>Romans 13:1 about our duty to submit to <a name="marker=464383"></a><a name="marker=464384"></a>Roman authorities. Paul says they are God's ministers. By contrast, in Galatians chapters 3 &amp; 4, we have no duty to submit to the Law "ordained by angels." In other words, Paul gives the Roman governors a higher spiritual authority than angels.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464386"></a>In <a name="marker=464385"></a>Romans 13:1, Paul says "Everyone must submit himself to the governing authorities...." Paul explains why. The Roman rulers are "the minister of God for your own good." (Rom. 13:4, repeated twice.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464387"></a>Next, look at Galatians 3:19, 4:8-9. Paul says you should not submit to the Law of Moses. It was merely ordained by angels. Paul says `do not submit to those who are not gods.' (Gal. 4:8.) However, when we look at Romans chapter 13, Paul says you should submit to the "governing" (Roman) authorities as the "minister(s) of God."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464389"></a>The implication arises that the <a name="marker=464388"></a>angels must not have been acting as God's ministers when they gave the Law. If they were, Paul would tell you to submit to the spiritual authority of these angels. They would be at least on par with the Roman rulers. Paul said such rulers were "the ministers of God." You owe them obedience for "conscience sake."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464391"></a>So why instead are <a name="marker=464390"></a>Roman rulers deserving of submission but angels are not? Why does Paul fault a desire to submit to the Law as seeking to submit to those who are "not gods"--the angels? It must be Paul thought the angels acted without God's authority in giving the Law. That's the only explanation why you must submit to Roman rulers who are "ministers of God" but not to the angels who supposedly gave the Law of Moses. Paul must be understood as saying the angels gave the Law without God' authorization. In saying this, Paul certainly contradicts the Bible.</p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=464392"></a>
<div><img src="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html-1.gif" /></div>
Jude Finds Paul's Ideas Heretical</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464395"></a><a name="marker=464393"></a><a name="marker=464394"></a>Paul calls angels "weak and beggarly elements" (Gal. 4:8). He is severely putting them down. Paul also implicitly slights the angels for acting without authorization in bringing the Law of Moses to us. (Gal. 3:19; 4:7-8.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464396"></a>Paul's statements bring to mind Jude's condemnation of those who make "grace a license for immorality." (Jude 4.) <a name="marker=464397"></a><a name="marker=464398"></a>Jude was also a brother of Jesus. He mentions modestly his heritage in Jude 1 by saying he was a brother of James.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464399"></a>In warning us of teachers of a dangerous grace, Jude gives us a clue to identify such teachers. Jude says these same grace-teachers are also those who "rail at <em><strong>dignities</strong></em>." (Jude 8.) The word <em>dignities</em> is literally <em>glories </em>in Greek. (JFB). Commentators concur Jude's meaning is <em>angels</em>. (Gill.) Thus, some translations say these "grace" teachers "slander <strong><em>celestial beings</em></strong>." (WEB). By Paul telling us that angels issued the Law, not God, and that they are "weak and beggarly," Paul is "railing at the glories." He is railing at the angels. Jude's letter appears directed at Paul on this point. This is especially evident when Jude describes the message of dangerous grace.</p>
<h2 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464400"></a>Jude's Criticism of A Dangerous Pauline Grace Teaching</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464401"></a>Jude warned of wolves in sheep clothing who "have secretly slipped in among you." (Jude 4.) They are putting down the angels--slandering them. (Jude 8.) These false teachers are the same who teach "grace is a license to immorality." (Jude 4.) Jude then defines this as a teaching that once you are a Christian we do not risk "eternal fire" (Jude 7) if we engage in "immorality" (Jude 4, 7).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464402"></a>We can further deduce what this teaching was by studying the warnings Jude gave. Jude warns us from the example of Israel whom God "saved" initially from Egypt, but when they were afraid to enter the promised land, all but two "not having believed" became lost (Jude 5).<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464405"> 19</a> Jude warns us again from the example of the angels who "did not keep their appropriate habitation" in heaven, but fell away by disobedience. (Jude 6.) The examples which Jude gives us are meant to identify an initial salvation, even presence with God in heaven, that is brought to nothing by sin/having lost faith. Thus, being initially saved and even being in heaven itself is not a guarantee one will be finally saved and not enter "eternal fire." Those who teach to the contrary, and guarantee salvation no matter what sin you commit after initially being saved, Jude says are false teachers who are "twice dead"--meaning they were dead in sin, then born again, and died once more by virtue of their apostasy. (Jude 12.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464406"></a>As a solution, Jude urges the reader to "keep yourselves..." (Jude 21). This reminds us of Jesus' words that those who "keep on listening" and "keep on following" cannot be snatched from Jesus' hand. (John 10:27-29.) Your security initially depends upon your faithfulness to God. cf. 1 Peter 1:5 ("kept by the power of God through faith/trust.")</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>Jude explains your keeping yourself is to be an active effort at "contending earnestly"--a form of the word agonize--for the "faith" delivered "one time for all time." (Jude 3.) By contrast, these false teachers "disown our only master, God, and Lord, Jesus Christ." (Jude 4.) The Greek meaning is disown (Greek ameomai). (Weymouth New Testament.) It means they were rejecting the authority of God's word, delivered "one time for all time." It was not that they denied the existence of God or Jesus, as some translations suggest. This is underscored in Jude 8 where it says they "despise authority." Instead, in disrespect of God's authority, these false teachers "speak proud things" about themselves (Jude 16) and disown the authority of God and the Lord Jesus Christ. (Jude 4.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464408"></a>In summary, Jude says we must not stray from the words of God and our Lord Jesus by listening to these false teachers who rail at dignities (angels), deny God's authority (in giving the Law) and contradict Jesus' teachings, boast of their own accomplishments, and who give us an assurance that God's grace will protect us from any sin we commit after our initial salvation. (See website www.jesuswordsonly. com for further discussion "Of Whom Did Jude Speak?")</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464410"></a>Unless Stanley's position in <a name="marker=464409"></a><em>Eternal Security: Can You Be Sure?</em> (1990) is wrong, Paul taught precisely what Jude condemns. Stanley insists Paul teaches that once you confess Jesus and believe He resurrected, you are saved (Romans 10:9), and now there is "no condemnation" ever possible again of such a Christian (Romans 8:1), no matter what sin you commit. No sin that you commit can ever separate you from God again. Your inheritance in heaven is guaranteed. See 2 Cor. 5:19; Eph. 1:13-14; 4:29-32; Col. 2:13-14; Phil. 1:6; 2 Tim. 1:12; 1 Thess. 5:24; Rom. 5:1,9-10; 6:1, 8-11, 23; 8:28-30, 39.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464411"></a>Paul otherwise fits the characteristics of which Jude speaks. We have already seen elsewhere that Paul denies God's authority in giving the Law (ascribing it to weak and beggarly angels), that Paul boasts unabashedly of his own accomplishments and that Paul routinely contradicts the message of Jesus on salvation (<em>e.g.</em>, the need to repent from sin). Jude appears to be certainly talking about Paul and his followers.</p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>
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Jesus Himself Condemns Paul's Undermining of Moses' Inspiration</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464413"></a>If you accept Paul's views, then you have undermined the very authority necessary to trust in <a name="marker=464414"></a>Christ. If one discredited the source of <a name="marker=464415"></a>Moses' writings as delivered by "weak and beggarly" angels who are "no gods," Jesus said it is impossible to truly trust in Him. <em><strong>"If they hear not Moses</strong></em>...neither will they be persuaded if one rises from the dead." (<a name="marker=464416"></a>Luke 16:31.) Trust in Moses' words is the way to truly know Jesus was Messiah. Jesus says this. Jesus says again "<strong><em>if you believed Moses</em></strong>, you would believe me, for he wrote of me." (<a name="marker=464417"></a>John 5:46.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464418"></a>If Paul were correct about the angels and the Law, then how do Jesus' words make sense that trust in Moses' writings as inspired from God is essential to faith in Jesus? Jesus' words make no sense if Paul is correct. Paul takes away the key that Jesus says is necessary to truly know and trust in Jesus. Something is seriously wrong in our tradition that includes Paul.</p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=464419"></a>
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Paul Contradicts Jesus Too</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464420"></a>Jesus also emphasized the validity of the Law up through the passing away of Heaven and Earth, thus confirming its inspiration and ongoing validity. In Matthew 5:17-19 we read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464422"></a>(17) Think not that I came to destroy<em><strong> the Law [of Moses] </strong></em>or the prophets: I came not to destroy, but to fulfil. (18) For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in <strong><em>no wise pass away from the Law</em></strong>, till all things be accomplished [<em>i.e.</em>, all things predicted appear on the stage of history].<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464425"> 20</a> (19) Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and<em> <strong>shall teach men so</strong></em><strong>,</strong> shall be called<strong><em> least</em></strong> in the kingdom of heaven: but <strong><em>whosoever shall do and teach them, he shall be called great </em></strong>in the kingdom of heaven. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464426"></a>Thus, Jesus can never be accused of seducing any Christian from following the Law. Jesus cannot be a false prophet under <a name="marker=464427"></a>Deuteronomy 13:5. Jesus said it remained valid until the Heavens and Earth pass away. This passing of heaven and earth occurs at the end of the Millennium. This is 1000 years after Christ's Second Coming, according to the Book of Revelation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464428"></a>Some Paulinists respond by saying Jesus fulfilled all of the Law's demands at Calvary. They insist all the Law was dead letter thereafter. There are several fundamental impossibilities with this claim.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467591"></a>First, there are two "untils" in the same sentence: the Law shall not pass away "until the heaven and earth pass away...until all things be accomplished." One cannot ignore the first <em>until</em>, preferring to think instead the second<em> until </em>means the Law ends in just two more years at the cross.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464430"></a>Second, this Pauline spin ignores the Law contains a <a name="marker=464429"></a>Messianic prophecy in <a name="marker=464431"></a>Genesis 3:15 which will only be fulfilled at the point that the heavens and earth will pass away. This predicts a death blow to Satan's head by Messiah. However, this remains unfulfilled until the end of the Millennium which point happens to also coincide with the passing of the heavens and the earth. (<a name="marker=464433"></a>Rev. 20:7-10.) Thus, this Messianic prophecy of Genesis 3:15 remains unfulfilled until the heavens and earth pass away. Thus, the Law remains in effect until all things prophesied, including Satan's final death blow, come to pass which is far off in our future.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467599"></a>This then proves the two until clauses were intended to identify the identical point. There is no less time signified by Jesus' adding the second <em>until</em> ("until all things be accomplished") as the Paulinist tries to spin the passage.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464438"></a>Third, Jesus clearly intended the commands in the Law to remain valid in toto until a point after Calvary. He combined His promise that not one jot or tittle will pass with His insistence that whoever teaches against following the least of the commandments in the Law would be least in the kingdom of heaven (<a name="marker=464439"></a>Matt. 5:19)--the Christian epoch.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464441"></a>Thus, <a name="marker=464440"></a>Jesus did not envision the Law expired a couple of years later at Calvary. Rather Jesus saw it continuing until the passing of the heavens and the earth. And doing His will on earth as in heaven meant keeping the Law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">[My view of the Law for Gentiles is it comprises only the commands specifically directed at Foreigners/Sojourners -- a distinction in the Law itself. This is what James followed when in Acts 15 he excuses Gentiles from circumcision, but affirms to Paul in Acts 21 that Jews must still be circumcised. See my discussion in depth below.]</p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=464442"></a>
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Martin Luther Defends Paul's Attribution of the Law to Angels &amp; Its Abolished Nature</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464443"></a>If you believe I have stretched things, I am in good company in concluding Paul taught: (1) the Law originated with the angels; (2) God did not intend to bless Jews with the Law; and (3) we are free to treat the Law as simply from Moses and disregard it entirely. Martin Luther goes so far as to say these are valid reasons why Christians do not have to obey the Law. I thus enjoy the very best of company in understanding Paul's words. The only problem is my companion so thoroughly rejects Moses that he does not see how what he is saying makes himself an apostate, tripped up by Paul's teachings.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">(Thankfully, Luther later repented. See below.) <span class="XRef"></span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464444"></a>In a sermon entitled <em>How Christians Should Regard Moses</em> given August 27, 1525,<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464447"> 21</a> Martin Luther simply assumes Paul's words are authoritative on who truly spoke at Sinai. While Moses said it was God, and Scripture calls this person God, Luther says it really meant angels because Paul says this is who truly gave the Law. Listen how a man caught in a contradiction reasons this out. Luther says:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464448"></a>Now the words which are here written [in the Law of Moses] were <em><strong>spoken through an angel</strong></em>. This is not to say that only one angel was there, for there was a great multitude there serving God and preaching to the people of Israel at Mount Sinai. The angel, however, who spoke here and did the talking, <strong><em>spoke just as if God himself were speaking</em></strong> and saying, "I am your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt," etc. [Exod. 20:1], <strong><em>as if Peter or Paul were speaking in God's stead and saying, "I am your God,</em></strong>" etc. In his letter to the Galatians [3:19],<strong><em> Paul says that the law was ordained by angels</em></strong>. That is, angels were assigned, in God's behalf, to give the law of God; and Moses, as an intermediary, received it from the angels. I say this so that you might know who gave the law. He did this to them, however, <strong><em>because he wanted thereby to compel, burden, and press the Jews</em></strong>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464449"></a>Luther is distancing God from the Law of Moses, just as Paul had done. It was delivered by angels, not God personally. Luther is ignoring that Jesus Himself said that God was the direct deliverer of the Law from the burning bush.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464452"> 22</a> Having planted a false seed to distance God from the Law, Luther next begins talking as if God did not give the Law. Because Jesus is God, Luther's next remark has all the earmarks of someone who has not thought through the implications of his statement:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464453"></a>We would rather not preach again for the rest of our life than to let Moses return and to let Christ be torn out of our hearts. We will not have Moses as ruler or lawgiver any longer.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464454"></a>But it is not Moses who gave the Law. Nor did angels. It was Jesus who is the "I AM" who gave the Law. (Ex. 3:14, "tell them I AM sent you"; John 8:58, "before Abraham was, I AM.") Rewrite this and you can see how incongruous Luther's statement now appears:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464455"></a>We would rather not preach again for the rest of our life than to let [Jesus's words to Moses] return and to let Christ [preached by Paul] be torn out of our hearts. We will not have [I AM who is Jesus who gave the Law] as ruler or lawgiver any longer.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464456"></a>Martin Luther then announces proudly his total rejection of the Law.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464457"></a>So, then, we will neither observe nor accept Moses. Moses is dead. His rule ended when Christ came. He is of no further service....[E]ven the Ten Commandments do not pertain to us.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464458"></a>If this is true, then why did Jesus teach to the contrary that whoever taught the smallest commandment of the Law should no longer be followed would be least in the kingdom of heaven? (Matt. 5:19.)</p>
<h2 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=465135"></a><a name="20427"></a>Luther Was Sometimes On the Right Track In This Sermon</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464459"></a>In fairness to Luther, at other times in the same sermon, Luther's answer on whether the Law applies to us is to examine whether the passage is addressed to Jews alone. This is the only correct limitation. For example, if a command is solely to Jews, such as the law of circumcision (Gen. 17:11; Lev. 12:3, Josh. 5:2),<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=465355"> 23</a> then it obviously does not apply to Gentiles. In the Jerusalem council in Acts chapter 15, James ruled this command does not apply to Gentiles. (Acts 15:19.) James said this not because the Law was abrogated in its entirety,<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=465057"> 24</a> but rather because the circumcision command was limited to Jews whom James later told Paul must still, as converts to Christ, follow the circumcision command. (Acts 21:21, 25.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464910"></a>That James was following this principle is evident again when he imposed on Gentiles prohibitions on eating certain animals with their blood still in it (Acts 15:20).The Law of Moses said this food-rule applied not only to Israelites but also to `strangers' in the land. (Leviticus 17:10,12 (food with blood).) James likewise adds that Gentiles must refrain from fornication. James no doubt had the Hebrew meaning of that word in mind, which meant adultery.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464927"> 25</a> Once again, we find this command against adultery was stated in Leviticus to apply not only to Jews, but also to "strangers that sojourn in Israel." (Lev. 20:2, 10.)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=465337"> 26</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465091"></a>Was James following Scripture in making this distinction? Yes, indeed. The Law of Moses had an example that a command for a son of Israel not to eat meat of an animal that died naturally did not apply to non-Israelite sojourners who were permitted to each such meat. (Deut. 14:21.) Thus, this proves that commands to Israelites do not automatically apply to the non-Israelite. James simply applied this principle to interpret the scope of other commands in the Law of Moses.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464996"></a><a name="40388"></a>If you apply the Israel-sojourner distinction which James employed, then of the Law of Moses which applies to non-Jews it would primarily be the open-ended Ten Commandments<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=465429"> 27</a> as well as sojourner-specific provisions in Leviticus chapters 19 &amp; 20 &amp; 24:13-24, and Exodus 12:19 (prohibition on leaven during feast of unleavened bread)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=466837"> 28</a> which Jesus alludes to many times. These are commands that do not introduce themselves as commands to only Israelites. If James' approach is valid, then all the fuss about the Law as some terrible burden is a non-starter. The burden on Gentiles is quite insignificant if we follow the distinction in the Law of Moses itself between "sons of Israel" and "sojourners" as James was obviously doing. The alleged burdensome nature of the Law on Gentiles was a red herring all along.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465097"></a>James thus did not add to the Law. Instead, he refused to apply Israel-only principles to Gentiles. He kept to the strict letter of the Law. James says the reason to maintain this distinction of Jew versus Gentile in the New Covenant is so that "we trouble not them that from among the Gentiles turn to God." (Acts 15:19.) His ruling also complied with Deuteronomy 4:2.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464460"></a>So if James is right, when Jesus says "Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven" (Matt. 5:19), Jesus meant us to understand as to Gentiles, that no obedience would be required as to Israel-only commands (unless Jesus extended them). And if James is right, when Jesus says whoever teaches you to obey the least command in the Law would be the greatest in the kingdom, Jesus meant as to Gentiles that if you taught them to obey open-ended commands and commands directed at sojourners in the Law then you would be the greatest in the kingdom. (Matt. 5:19.) But if you go beyond this, and add Israel-only commands on Gentiles which God (including Jesus) never imposed on them, you are unduly burdening their entry into the kingdom of God. You are violating Deuteronomy 4:2 by adding burdens nowhere in the Law itself (unless a prophet, such as Jesus, added the command, pursuant to Deut. 18:15).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465083"></a><a name="22718"></a>Did Jesus ever speak this way Himself? Yes, this is one of the obvious applications of the principle behind the lessons about the old and new cloth and the old and new wineskin. (Matt. 9:16-17.) Combining the two items in each case makes things worse, and fails to preserve the old side-by-side with the new. The new cloth put on old clothing causes a "worse rent." New wine in an old wineskin causes the wine to be "spilled and the skins perish."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465117"></a>James similarly speaks that putting the Israel-only commands upon Gentiles is "trouble" for those "turning to God." You cause more problems that you solve by doing so. The new cloth is not of the same inherent material as the old cloth, and lacks the same elasticity. It cannot be stretched as far as the old. The Jew can be pushed further in commands than a Gentile. It is inherent in their culture, as God molded the Jews. The new wine in an old wineskin will swell up from pressure trying to stay within the bounds of the old wineskin. The new wine will spill out (i.e., become lost) if you try to make the new fit the stiffness and boundaries of the old wineskin. Gentiles cannot be pressed to follow the Israel-only provisions; the pressure will force them out of the wineskin.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=466211"> 29</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465737"></a>Unfortunately, Luther in this sermon did not consistently maintain this valid Israel-Sojourner distinction. Luther ends the sermon by throwing off of the Gentiles all the Old Law, even the sojourner commands. He put the New beyond any testing for its validity against the Law given Moses. Luther says:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464463"></a>The sectarian spirits want to saddle us with Moses and all the commandments. We will just skip that. We will regard Moses as a teacher, but we will not regard him as our lawgiver -- unless he agrees with both the New Testament and the natural law.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464466"> 30</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464468"></a>Here you see how one falls into <a name="marker=464467"></a>apostasy. No longer do you accept the Law given to Moses to define what is a false prophet. Thus, you have accepted a set of new teachings that are beyond the reach of God's prior revelation to test its validity. Luther thereby became in 1525 totally <a name="marker=464469"></a>antinomian--making the validity of principles in the Mosaic Law turn on the superior validity of what Luther regarded as New Testament writings but only if also confirmed by natural law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=466655"></a><a name="21019"></a>Please note, however, that later from 1532 to 1537 Luther reversed his position on the Law. He denounced antinomianism in the<em> Antinomian Theses</em> (1537).<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=466596"> 31</a> He said a Christian can spiritually die and become like a non-Christian. To revive, they must examine themselves by the Ten Commandments, and repent from sin. Luther's Catechisms of late 1531-1532 (which the Lutheran church uses to this day) state Jesus' doctrine on salvation and the Law while ignoring Paul's doctrines (except on how to treat government officials, wives, etc.) <a name="marker=464471"></a>For this reason, evangelicals condemn Luther's Catechisms. Miles Stanford said the "Lutheran Church" turned into "legalism" by adopting an "unscriptural application of `the law as the rule of life' for the believer."<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=466553"> 32</a> Likewise, Pastor Dwight Oswald regards Luther's Catechism as making Luther so at odds with Paul's doctrines that even Luther must be deemed lost and responsible for having led countless numbers to perish in hell.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=466556"> 33</a> Similarly, Calvinists at Calvin College skewer Luther's 1531 edition of his catechism for departing from the faith he previously taught so boldly.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=466559"> 34</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464472"></a>However, prior to this radical switch, Luther was willing to endorse everything Paul said. Luther inspired by Paul said the angels gave the Law; the Law was a curse on Jews; Jesus never intended the Law applies to non-Jews who follow Him; and the Law is dead and we only follow those aspects that coincide with reason (`natural law') if re-affirmed in the New Testament. Accordingly, unless Luther in 1525 misread Paul, Paul must be understood to have thrown off the entire Law by denigrating its origin and purpose. I therefore enjoy the very best of company in my reading Paul the same way.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=466586"></a>But we can take heart from the fact that Luther later made a radical separation from his own earlier antinomianism. Luther must have finally seen the error of the doctrine Luther deduced from Galatians. In fact, it appears no coincidence that Luther's switch quickly followed his lecture on Galatians. For in that epistle, we have Paul's most virulent anti-Law writings, with Paul's rationale clearly exposed in Galatians 4:22 ff. With such new conviction, Luther had the courage to reform himself. That's the best explanation for why we find Jesus' Words Only emerging in Luther's Catechisms. Luther made one more radical revolution, once more willing to face the charge of being a heretic. This time, however, it was for basing his core doctrine on Jesus' words only.</p>
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<h2><a name="pgfId=466748"></a>
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What About <a name="marker=464473"></a>Pro-Law Comments by Paul?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464475"></a>Messianic Christians hallow the Law today. They regard the Law of sacrifice completed in Yeshua (Jesus). They have a variety of verses they like to cite from Paul to prove he did not abrogate the entire Law. Their view on the Law's ongoing validity is certainly a minority view. Messianics are regarded in this respect as borderline-heretical by many other Christians. However, Messianics are not deemed un-Christian. The Messianics are thus tolerated by mainstream Christianity. I suspect when Paulinist Christians realize they are about to lose Paul's validity, they might cite these Pauline pro-Law verses (which Messianics cite) as a last gasp to save Paul. So let us examine these verses which the Messianics cherish.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464476"></a>First, Paul said that by faith we "establish the Law." (<a name="marker=464477"></a>Rom. 3:31.) Elsewhere, Paul says "Wherefore the Law is holy, and the Commandment is holy, and just and good." (Rom.7:12.) The Messianics even cite the <a name="marker=464478"></a>self-contradictory verse: "Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the Commandments of God [is what matters]." (<a name="marker=464479"></a>1 Cor. 7:19).<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464484"> 35</a> Lastly, Paul is also quoted by Luke as saying: "I worship the God of my ancestors, retaining my belief in all points of the Law...." (<a name="marker=464489"></a>Acts 24:14).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464490"></a>However, to lift these snippets from Paul's writings, and say this explains all of Paul's thought, is to mislead the listener. It allows self-deception too. It would be like taking Paul's statement in Romans 3:23 that "all have sinned" and say that Paul means Jesus sinned too. Paul clearly regarded Jesus as sinless. To take out-of-context Romans 3:23, and apply it to Jesus, would be perverse. Likewise, to use these snippets to say Paul endorsed the Law's ongoing validity is just as perverse a lie as saying Romans 3:23 proves Jesus was a sinner. If you cannot take Paul out-of-context in Romans 3:23, you cannot take him out of context in Romans 3:31 or Romans 7:21.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464491"></a>Also, Paul's compliments about the Law's good nature in Romans 3:31 do not mean much. We can all speak kindly of the dead. It is only by agreeing that those principles are more than dead letter would Paul's words have any bearing. Such words are absent in Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464494"></a>Furthermore, in <a name="marker=464492"></a>1 Corinthians 7:19, Paul is clearly <a name="marker=464493"></a>self-contradictory. He says being circumcised is nothing. Paul then says keeping God's commands is everything. Since being circumcised is a command of God for Jews, these are two logically incoherent statements. But this self-contradiction is purposeful. What Paul is doing is using the word <strong><em>commands </em></strong>as a <a name="marker=464495"></a>neologism (i.e., a word that the speaker privately holds an opposite understanding than what his listener would suppose) to lead the pro-Law listener to think he is on their side. It still works on the Messianics to this day.</p>
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<h2><a name="pgfId=468289"></a>
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How Acts 24:14 Unravels Paul's Authority</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464500"></a>Finally, to prove Paul upheld the Law, Messianics cite to Luke's quoting Paul in a tribunal (<a name="marker=464501"></a>Acts 24:14). Paul tells <a name="marker=464502"></a>Felix that he "retains all my belief in all points of the Law." If Paul truly made this statement, it has no weight. It cannot overcome Paul's view on the Law's nullification. Those anti-Law views are absolutely clear-cut, repeated in numerous letters with long picturesque explanations.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464503"></a>Rather, the quote of Paul in Acts 24:14 brings up the question of Paul's honesty, not his consistency with the Law. If Luke is telling the truth, then Paul perjured himself before Felix. To prevent the casual Christian from seeing this, <a name="marker=464504"></a>Acts 24:14 is usually translated as vaguely as possible.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464505"></a>However, pro-Paul Greek commentaries know Paul's meaning. They try to defend Paul's apparent lack of ethics. They insist Paul was not out to trick Governor Felix. For example, Robertson in Word Pictures makes it clear that Paul deflects the charge that he heretically seeks to subvert the Law by asserting he believes in all of it:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464506"></a>Paul has not stretched the truth at all....He reasserts his faith in all the Law....A curious heretic surely!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464507"></a>Robertson realizes that Paul disproves to Felix any heresy of seeking to turn people from further obedience to the Law by affirming "his faith in all the Law....," as Robertson rephrases it. Yet, Paul's statement (if Luke is recording accurately) was a preposterous falsehood. He did not believe in "all" points of the Law at all. Robertson pretends this is not stretching the truth "at all." The reality is there is absolutely no truth in Paul's statement. Paul did not retain his "belief in all points of the Law," as he claimed to Felix.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464508"></a>This account of Luke represents Paul making such an outrageous falsehood that a growing segment of Paulinists (such as John Knox) believe Luke was out to embarrass Paul in Acts.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464513"> 36</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464518"></a>If we must believe Luke is a malicious liar in order to dismiss that Acts 24:14 proves Paul is guilty of perjury, then this also undercuts the reliability of all of the Book of Acts. If so, then where does Paul's authority come from any more? Luke alone in Acts preserves the accounts of Paul's vision of Jesus. That is the sole source for what most agree is Paul's only authority to be a teacher within the church. The vision-experience nowhere appears in Paul's letters. If Luke is a liar in <a name="marker=464519"></a>Acts 24:14, why should we trust him in any of the three vision accounts which alone provide some authority for Paul to be a `witness' of Jesus?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464520"></a>As a result, the Paulinists are caught in a dilemma. If Paul actually said this in Acts 24:14, he is a liar. If Paul did not say this, then Luke is a liar. But then Paul's sole source of confirmation is destroyed. Either way, Paul loses any validity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464521"></a>Escapes from this dilemma have been offered, but when analyzed they are unavailing. If Paul made this statement, he clearly was lying to Felix.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464524"> 37</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464525"></a>Thus, Acts 24:14 cannot be cited to prove the truth of what Paul asserted. Instead, it raises an unsolvable dilemma. Either Luke is lying or Paul is lying. This means Acts 24:14 proves the impossibility of accepting Paul's legitimacy whichever way you answer the dilemma. If Luke is lying here, it undermines all of Acts, upon which Paul's authority as a witness rests. If Paul is lying (and Luke is telling the story truthfully), then Paul is disqualified ipso facto because he is committing perjury. Acts 24:14 proves to be a passage that unravels Paul's authority any way you try to resolve it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464526"></a>Bless the Messianics. They cited Acts 24:14 to insist Paul was <a name="marker=464527"></a>upholding Torah. What they did is bring to everyone's attention a verse whose very existence destroys viewing Paul as a legitimate teacher.</p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=467082"></a>
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Did God Ever Respond To Paul's Teachings on the Law's Abrogation?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467083"></a>We already saw, Paul says that "Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing...." (1 Cor. 7:19.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467750"></a>Then consider thee following command in Ezekiel: if one "uncircumcised in flesh [is caused] to be in my sanctuary, to profane it," then it is an "abomination." (Ezekiel 44:9.) If uncircumcision became nothing after the Cross, then a Gentile was free to ignore this command and enter the Temple.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467135"></a>Did a Gentile friend of Paul ever trust this principle to the point of violating the middle wall of the Temple, which kept the Gentiles outside the Temple? We will see that this is precisely what took place in 58 A.D. We will also see how God responded, proving God's legal principles on what abominates had not evaporated at the Cross in 33 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467907"></a>What happened is that in 58 A.D., Trophimus, an uncircumcised Gentile from Ephesus, entered the prohibited area of the Temple. (Acts 21:28-29.) Neither Luke nor Paul ever deny Trophimus profaned the Temple. Instead, both Luke and Paul merely try to deny there was proof that Paul had brought Trophimus into the prohibited area. (Acts 21:29, 24:6, 13, 18; 25:7-8.) Luke says the Jews supposed Paul had done so because they earlier saw Paul together with Trophimus in Jerusalem. (Acts 21:28-29.) Trophimus was indeed a close companion of Paul. (Acts 20:4; 2 Tim.4:20.) Yet, Paul said his accusers merely found him (Paul) purifying himself in the temple. (Acts 24:18.)<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=467910"> 38</a> This was the only inadequacy Paul cited to the charge that he (Paul) was responsible for Trophimus' profaning the Temple. Paul did not make any stronger refutation such as that Trophimus had not breached the middle wall of the Temple, evidently because Paul knew that charge was true.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467928"></a>Why did Trophimus breach the middle wall that had warning signs declaring that no uncircumcised Gentile could pass into the Temple without facing a death penalty? Trophimus must have been convinced of a new principle that was superior to the principle God gave the prophet Ezekiel. Where did Trophimus learn such new principle that could give him such liberty?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467940"></a>There is little doubt that Trophimus, a travelling companion of Paul, must have relied upon Paul's doctrine. First, Paul said that "circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing." (1 Cor. 7:19.) Lastly and most important, Trophimus, an Ephesian, must have been convinced he could pass this middle barrier because of Paul's letter to the Ephesians. In it, Paul taught God "has broken down the middle wall of partition" at the Temple, "having abolished in his flesh... the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances...." (Eph. 2:14-15.) The true "habitation of God" is now the church, built upon the "apostles and prophets." (Eph.2:20-22.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467955"></a>Yet, was this middle wall abolished in God's eyes? Or were the Prophetic words of Ezekiel still in place after the Cross of 33 A.D.? In other words, would an uncircumcised Gentile inside the temple still be an abomination standing in the Holy Place? The answer is yes. First, Jesus said that He did not come to do away with the "Law or the Prophets" (Matt. 5:17). Also, Jesus said not until "heavens and earth pass away will one little jot or tittle of the Law pass away...." (Matt. 5:18.) In the Law, we read God promises that if we "walk contrary to Me," then "I will bring your sanctuaries unto desolation." (Lev. 26:27,31.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467981"></a>Thus, if the Law and Prophets were still in effect after the Cross, then one would expect God would respond by desolating His own Temple for Trophimus' act. God's word appears to require He desolate it in response to such a crime.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467268"></a>Indeed, history proves this took place. God did desolate His temple in 70 A.D. Every stone of the Temple was torn down. Thus, the Law did not expire at the Cross. Instead, thirty-seven years later it was vigorously enforced.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=467187"></a>If Paul's teachings misled Trophimus, look then at the horrible consequences of trusting Paul's views. Let's learn from Trophimus' mistake and only trust Jesus' view on the Law's continuing validity until heaven and earth pass away. (Matt. 5:18.)</p>
<h2><a name="pgfId=467249"></a>
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Conclusion</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464543"></a><a name="marker=464542"></a>Paul is blunt in Ephesians 2:15, Colossians 2:14, 2 Cor. 3:11-17, Romans 7:13 et seq, and Galatians 3:19 et seq. The Law is abolished, done away with, nailed to a tree, has faded away, and was only ordained by angels who are no gods. If we were to cite Paul's condemnations of the Law in one string, the point is self-evident that Paul abrogated the Law for everyone. See 2 Cor. 2:14 ("old covenant"); Gal. 5:1 ("yoke of bondage"); Rom. 10:4 ("Christ is end of the law"); 2 Cor. 3:7 ("law of death"); Gal. 5:1 ("entangles"); Col. 2:14-17 ("a shadow"); Rom. 3:27 ("law of works"); Rom. 4:15 ("works wrath"); 2 Cor. 3:9 (ministration of condemnation); Gal. 2:16 ("cannot justify"); Gal. 3:21 (cannot give life); Col. 2:14 ("wiped out" exaleipsas); Gal. 3:19, 4:8-9 ("given by angels...who are no gods [and are] weak and beggarly celestial beings/elements").</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464544"></a>To save Paul from being a heretic, some claim Paul is talking against false interpretations of the Law.<a class="footnote" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205html.html#pgfId=464547"> 39</a> But this ignores that Paul tears away at the heart and soul of the Torah. He disputes it was given by God. He claims instead it was given by angels. Paul says no one can judge you any longer for not keeping the Sabbath. This is one of the Ten Commandments. Paul, as Luther said, clearly abolished the Sabbath. All efforts to save Paul that do not grapple with these difficult passages are simply attempts at self-delusion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464567"></a>Rather, <a name="marker=464566"></a>Calvin was correct when he said "this Gospel [of Paul] does not impose any commands, but rather reveals God's goodness, His mercy and His benefits."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464568"></a>To Paul, faith was everything and a permanent guarantee of salvation. There was no code to break. There was supposedly no consequence of doing so for Abraham. We are Abraham's sons. We enjoy this same liberty, so Paul teaches.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464569"></a>Then how do we understand the Bible's promise that the time of the New Covenant would involve putting the "Torah" on our hearts? (<a name="marker=464570"></a>Jeremiah 31:31 et seq.) How do we understand God's promise that when His Servant (Messiah) comes, God "will magnify the Law (Torah), and make it honorable"? (Isaiah 42:21 ASV/KJV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464571"></a>You have no answer if you follow Paul. He says you no longer have to observe all God's Law given Moses. You just choose to do what is expedient. You do not worry about the letter of the Law. You can, instead, follow your own conscience. Whatever it can bear is permissible.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464572"></a>How are the contrary verses about the Law in the New Covenant Age then explained? It is seriously asserted by commentators that when Christ returns, the Law of Moses will be re-established. Thus, prior to Paul, there was Law. After Paul but before Christ comes again, there is no Law. When Christ returns, the Law of Moses is restored. (See <a class="XRef" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#13362"></a>.) So it is: Law--No Law--Law. God is schizophrenic! It is amazing what people can believe!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464579"></a>Consequently, one cannot escape a simple fact: Paul's validity as a teacher is 100% dependent on accepting his antinomian principles. Then what of<a name="marker=464580"></a>Deuteronomy 13:5 which says someone with true signs and wonders must be ignored if he would seduce us from following the Law?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464581"></a>Paul even anticipated how to defend from this verse. Paul has shielded himself from this verse by ripping away all of the Law. He would not even acknowledge that we can measure him by <a name="marker=464582"></a>Deuteronomy 13:5. This is part of the Law of Moses. Paul claims it was given by <a name="marker=464583"></a>angels (<a name="marker=464584"></a>Gal. 3:19). Paul says you are not to believe even an angel from heaven if it should contradict "my gospel" (<a name="marker=464585"></a>Gal. 1:8). Hence, Paul would reject the test from Deuteronomy 13:5.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464587"></a>Yet, Paul has not escaped thereby. For Jesus in <a name="marker=464586"></a>Matthew 7:23 reiterated <a name="marker=464588"></a>Deuteronomy 13:1-5. In doing so, Jesus specifically warned of <a name="marker=464589"></a>false <a name="marker=464590"></a>prophets to follow Him that would teach <a name="marker=464591"></a>anomia. They would come with true signs and wonders. However, they are false because they taught <a name="marker=464592"></a>anomia. As discussed earlier, they would be workers of negation of the Law. This is a legitimate dictionary definition of the word anomia in the world's best Greek lexicon--the<a name="marker=464593"></a><a name="marker=464594"></a>Liddell-Scott Lexicon. For a full discussion, see <a class="XRef" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204.#28303">See Why Anomia Means Negator of Mosaic Law</a> et seq.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464598"></a>Now Christians must ask themselves this question: do you really believe Jesus made all those warnings about false prophets who come with true signs and wonders yet who are workers of anomia (negation of Law) (<a name="marker=464599"></a>Matt. 7:23) so we would disregard the protective principle of Deuteronomy 13:5? So we would disregard even Jesus' words in Matthew 7:23?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464600"></a>You can only believe this if you are willing to disregard Jesus. You can only believe this if you then disregard the Law of Moses was given by God Himself. The Bible clearly says God delivered it personally in Exodus chapters 19-20, 25. Jesus likewise says it was God in the bush speaking to Moses. (<a name="marker=464601"></a>Mark 12:26; <a name="marker=464602"></a>Luke 20:37.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464604"></a>Or will you allow<a name="marker=464603"></a>Paul to convince you that the Law was given by angels (<a name="marker=464605"></a>Gal. 3:19) and thus Paul's words are higher than of angels (Gal. 1:8)? Will you be seduced to believe you are thus free to disregard Deuteronomy 13:5? And have you also somehow rationalized away Matthew 7:23, and its warnings of false prophets who bring anomia?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464607"></a>Your eternal destiny may depend on how you analyze these simple questions<a name="marker=464627"></a>.</p>
<p> </p>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464104"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///E:/Jwo%20#1/anomia.#13006"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464120"></a>Martin Luther, <em>Epistle on Galatians</em> 4:25 (1535), reprint at http://www.biblehelpsonline.com/martinluther/galatians/galatians4.htm (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464138"></a>Martin Luther, "How Christians Should Regard Moses," <em>Luther's Works: Word and Sacrament</em> I (Philadelphia: Muhlenberg Press, 1960) Vol. 35 at 161-174.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464144"></a>In the ellipsis of this quote, Luther claims the following passages also abolish the sabbath: Matt. 12:1-12; John 5:16; 7:22-23; 9:14-16. Luther does not realize this, but if <a name="marker=464145"></a>Jesus abolished the Sabbath, Jesus would be an apostate and false prophet under Deuteronomy 13:5. So <a name="marker=464146"></a>Luther had better be correct. In fact, these passages do not stand for this proposition. Rather, in Matthew 12:1-12, Jesus says it was taught the priests are permitted to work in the temple on the Sabbath and "are guiltless." If this were true for priests, Jesus says this is true for Himself for one greater than the Temple is before them. The remaining three passages likewise do not support Luther's claim:<a name="marker=464147"></a><a name="marker=464148"></a>John 7:22-23 (if the Jews keep the command to circumcise a certain number of days after birth even if it takes place on the Sabbath, then they should permit Jesus to heal on Sabbath); <a name="marker=464149"></a>John 9:14-16 (Jesus healing on sabbath); John 5:16 (Jesus told a man to pick up his mat, interpreted by Jewish leaders to be a work, but Jesus disapproves this understanding, saying there is no command against doing good on the Sabbath). Cfr. Jer. 17:21-24 ("be careful to not carry a load on Sabbath.") See also, "Sabbath" in Anchor Bible Dictionary (ed. David N. Freedman) Vol. 5 at 855-56 (Jesus misunderstood as disaffirming Sabbath, but rather reaffirmed it universally for all men in Mark 2:27. Jesus' criticisms were against the man-made teachings that violated the true spirit of the Sabbath command); cf. Matt. 12:12 (lawful to do good).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464154"></a>Dan Corner, <em>Six Facts For Saturday Sabbatarians To Ponder</em> at http://www.evangelicaloutreach.org/sabbath.htm (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464174"></a><a name="11441"></a>In saying the earlier covenant is death and the second life, Paul demonstrates a lack of understanding of what Jesus' <a name="marker=464175"></a>atonement represents. Jesus is the atonement satisfying once for all the atonement-requirements in the Law, as Paul should admit. If so, then Jesus' sacrifice provides the same grace that was provided by the sacrificial system in the Law of Moses. The only difference is Jesus' payment is one-time rather than repetitive. Thus, the Levitical atonement-system cannot minister death while Jesus' death ministers life. The outcome of both is identical: forgiveness by God's mercy through atonement. Grace was in both systems. In both, the penitent does not suffer the blood-atonement which pays the price for sin.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464203"></a>"Liberty, 1 Corinthians 10, and Idolatry," Christian Bible Studies, at http://www.geocities.com/biblestudying/liberty14.html (accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464208"></a>Bob George, <em>People to People</em> (Radio Talk Show) November 16, 1993.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464214"></a>For a full discussion on this, see "Paul Permits Eating Meat Sacrificed to Idols" on page 118 et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464231"></a>Some think it is significant that the Sabbath command is not repeated in this same context. Christians have developed an odd hermeneutic that if a recap of applicable law in the NT omits a single command, it is abolished. Why? Jesus said all the Law, to the least command, remains. (Matt. 5:13.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464249"></a>The Lord's Prayer asks that God's will be done on earth "as it is done in heaven." This implies the angels of heaven are in perfect obedience. The angels of which Jesus speaks are depicted as in heaven. See, <a name="marker=464250"></a>Matt. 18:10 (the guardian angels of children "do always behold the face of my Father who is in heaven"); <a name="marker=464251"></a>Luke 15:10 (joy among angels for one sinner saved).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464260"></a>The Greek word Paul uses for the angels' activity is diageteis. It means arrange, set in order, often instruct or command. It refers back to ho Nomos, the Law. The Nomos was commanded dia (through) aggelos--the angels.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464280"></a>"And Jehovah said unto Moses, Thus thou shalt say unto the children of Israel, Ye yourselves have seen that I have talked with you from heaven." (<a name="marker=464281"></a>Exodus 20:22, ASV.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464284"></a>"I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant for his seed after him." (<a name="marker=464285"></a>Gen. 17:19, ASV.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464325"></a>The word is elements, but the ASV changes this to rudiments, as if a principle were involved. The correct translation is elements. (See Lat. Vulgate "elementa"; KJV, YLT, Webster "elements".)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464332"></a>James Fowler, The Precedence of God's Promises (1999) reprinted at http://www.christinyou.net/pages/galpgp.html (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=464339"></a>Comment on Gal. 4:9, from New American Bible (Confraternity of Christian Doctrine), reprinted at http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/galatians/galatians4.htm</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=464347"></a>The most troublesome of all solutions to save Paul from contradicting Scripture is by <a name="marker=464348"></a>Gill. He says the Law was given by "the angel of the divine presence, the second person of the trinity." (Comment on Acts 7:38.) Gill means Jesus. However, if you follow Paul's logic that the Law is inferior by having come from angels, and submitting to it means you are subjecting yourself to those "who are no gods" (Gal. 4:8), then if Gill is right, you have Paul affirming Jesus was not God. If you accept Gill's effort to save Paul, you have Paul clearly being an apostate.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=464405"></a>The Greek is active aorist participle of pisteuo. In context, it means "having not trusted/believed." See http://abacus.bates.edu/~hwalker/Syntax/PartAor.html (accessed 2005)(the aorist active participle for have means "having released.")</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=464425"></a>The Greek word is ginomai. Strong's 1096 defines it as "to become" <em>i.e.</em>, "come to pass"; "to arise"<em> i.e.</em>, "appear in history"; "to be made, finish." Some prefer to understand Jesus "finished" (which they read as `completed') "all things" required by the Law. What Jesus means is until all things prophesied in the Law and prophets appear in history, i.e., they come to pass, the Law remains in effect. This is evident from verse 17 where Jesus says He came to "fulfill" the "law and the prophets." The word there is pieroo. It means "to make complete in every particular," "fulfil" or "carry through to the end." (Thayer's.) Thus, in context, Jesus first says He came to fulfill the prophesies (verse 17) and the Law and Prophecies remain in effect until "all things" prophesied "come to pass" or "appear in history." For more explanation, see the discussion in the text.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=464447"></a>Martin Luther, "How Christians Should Regard Moses," <em>Luther's Works: Word and Sacrament I</em> (Philadelphia: Muhlenberg Press, 1960) Vol. 35 at 161-174.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=464452"></a>Mark 12:26; Luke 20:37.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=465355"></a>However, if a Gentile chose to enter the Temple proper of Jerusalem, Ezekiel says even "strangers" must be circumcised. (Ez. 44:9.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=465057"></a>The KJV atypically accepts one late textual corruption. This is in James' mouth in Acts 15:24. This makes it appear James said the Law does not apply at all to Gentiles. The KJV has it that James says some have tried "subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment." (Act 15:24.) However, the ASV &amp; NIV correctly omits "ye must be circumcised and keep the law," saying instead some tried "subverting your souls; to whom we gave no commandment." Why did the KJV add the above bolded words? The UBS' Greek New Testament (4th Ed) says this entire phrase first appears in the miniscule 1175 (pg. 476), which dates from the Tenth Century A.D. (pg. 17). The phrase "keep the Law" first appears in quotations of Acts 15:24 in the Apostolic Constitutions and in the writings of Amphilochius (pg. 467). Amphilochius died "after 394," and this copy of the Apostolic Constitutions is dated to "about 380" (pg. 31.) All the earlier texts omit both changes to Acts 15:24.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">25.</span> <a name="pgfId=464927"></a>See page 138 of JWO <a class="XRef" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%207.#30203"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">26.</span> <a name="pgfId=465337"></a>On why the idol-food command that James also gives was a deduction as applicable to both Jew and Gentile, see <a class="XRef" href="file://tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%206.#13349"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">27.</span> <a name="pgfId=465429"></a>Some argue that the Ten Commandments (Decalogue) are not open-ended, implied from Exodus 20:2 which says "I...brought you out of the Land of Egypt." This is largely irrelevant. You can find specific mention of most of the Ten Commandments imposed on sojourners: blasphemy -- using God's name in vain (Lev. 24:16; Num 15:30); murder (Lev. 24:17); Sabbath-breaking (Deut. 5:12-15; Lev. 25:6; Exo 23:12); adultery (Lev. 20:2, 10), etc. Even if the Decalogue as a whole does not apply, Bonhoeffer says Jesus extended the Decalogue to all in the New Covenant when He spoke to the young rich man. (Matthew 19:16-26; Mark 10:17-31; Luke 18:18-26.) See Bonhoeffer, <em>Cost of Discipleship</em> (1937) at 72-84.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">28.</span> <a name="pgfId=466837"></a>Passover dinner, which precedes the feast of unleavened bread, is optional for the Sojourner. However, if he "will keep it," then the Sojourner has to be circumcised. (Exo 12:48; Nu 9:14.) Thus, Passover was an honor for a non-Jew sojourner to celebrate. If he chose to do so, he must be circumcised. As discussed in Appendix C, Jesus contemplated His Jewish apostles would keep Passover, and amended the Passover remembrances to include His anticipated work on the Cross. If Gentile Christians observe Passover, it is an honor. When we do so, we were to do the remembrances that Jesus outlined in the last passover. This explains why the early apostolic church was anxious to and did keep Passover; and this is why Passover is a feast world-wide in all forms of Christianity (Protestant, Catholic, and Orthodox) except in English-speaking nations where it is known as Easter. Why the different nomenclature? Because Catholicism could not root out the English/Germanic preference to call that season by the name of the goddess Eastre. As a result, English-speaking Christians have lost memory of what festival they are attempting to celebrate while Christians of all denominations and faiths in non-English speaking countries keep Passover under its proper name. For more discussion, see Appendix C: The Easter Error.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">29.</span> <a name="pgfId=466211"></a>Yet, bear in mind, Jesus as Prophet can add a command to the Law of Moses.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">30.</span> <a name="pgfId=464466"></a>Luther repeats this statement later in his 1525 sermon: "In the first place I dismiss the commandments given to the people of Israel. They neither urge nor compel me. They are dead and gone, except insofar as I gladly and willingly accept something from Moses, as if I said, `This is how Moses ruled, and it seems fine to me, so I will follow him in this or that particular.'"</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">31.</span> <a name="pgfId=466596"></a>Martin Luther, <em>Don't Tell Me That! From Martin Luther's Antinomian Theses</em> (Lutheran Press: 2004).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">32.</span> <a name="pgfId=466553"></a>Quoted in Bob Nyberg's<em> Covenant Theology Versus Dispensationalism A Matter of Law Versus Grace</em>, reprinted online at http://4himnet.com/bnyberg/dispensationalism01.html.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">33.</span> <a name="pgfId=466556"></a>See Pastor Dwight Oswald, "Martin Luther's Sacramental Gospel,"<em> Earnestly Contending For The Faith</em> (Nov-Dec. 1997). See also, Lutheran Heresy at http://www.jesus-is-savior.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">34.</span> <a name="pgfId=466559"></a>Calvinists thereby find the 1531 Catechism defective spiritually. See Calvin College at http://www.ccel.org/s/schaff/hcc7/htm/ii.v.xiv.htm.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">35.</span> <a name="pgfId=464484"></a><a name="41060"></a>It is <a name="marker=464483"></a>self-contradictory because circumcising Jewish children was a command of God. (<a name="marker=464485"></a>Lev. 12:3.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">36.</span> <a name="pgfId=464513"></a>John <a name="marker=464511"></a>Knox recently suggested <a name="marker=464512"></a>Luke-Acts was written to bring Paul down and thereby counteract Marcion. (Knox, <em>Marcion, supra</em>, at 114-39.) If so, then it was Paul's own friend Luke who saw problems with Paul and presented them in a fair neutral manner. On their friendship, see <a name="marker=464516"></a>2 Cor. 8:18; Col. 4:14; <a name="marker=464517"></a>2 Tim. 4:11.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">37.</span> <a name="pgfId=464524"></a>The literal Greek means: "I worship the God of our Fathers, continuing to believe [present participle active] in all things which are according [kata] to the Law and in the prophets." The ASV follows this translation. Some Paulinists emphasize the word according in the verse. They argue Paul means to reject anything that is no longer in agreement with the Law. Thus, Paul is read to mean that he only affirms agreement with the part of the Law with which he can still agree. (Given O. Blakely, <em>A Commentary on Paul's Defense Before Felix</em> at http://wotruth.com/pauldef.htm.) This argument fails because Paul believes in nothing from the Law except that it was pregnant with its own abolition. Paul was still being deceptive. Paul was in effect saying, he believes still in everything in the Law that is valid today, but since this is nothing, the statement is empty patronizing. Blakely commends Paul for his shrewd way of saying this. Paul made it appear he was affirming all the Law was valid when instead Paul meant to affirm its entirely fulfilled nature, and hence its defunct nature. Whether a shrewd way of expressing this or not, the literal words are still a falsehood in how Felix would understand the statement in a court of Law.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">38.</span> <a name="pgfId=467910"></a>Incidentally, this was the charge that Paul appealed to Caesar, which caused his being taken to Rome. (Acts 25:8-11.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">39.</span> <a name="pgfId=464547"></a>Martin Abegg, "Paul, `Works of the Law,' and MMT," <em>Biblical Archaeological Review</em> (November/December 1994) at 52-53.<a name="pgfId=464313"></a></p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Chapter Four Did Jesus Warn of False Prophets Who Would Negate the Law?</h2>
<h3>Introduction</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">[Paul in 2 Cor. 12:12 said what proved his validity: "The things that mark an apostle—<strong><em>signs, wonders</em></strong> and miracles—were done among you with great perseverance." Paul in Romans 15:19 likewise said: "Through mighty<strong><em> signs and wonders</em></strong>, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ." The Greek roots were "semeion" and "teraton"]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Jesus was concerned about the "<em><strong>signs and wonders</strong></em>" prophets misleading Christians. (<a name="marker=464096"></a> Matt. 7:15-23, viz., v. 22; 24:11, 24.) Jesus warns of the false prophets in <a name="marker=464097"></a> Mark <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark%2013:22&amp;version=KJV">13:22</a>. They "shall show <a name="marker=464098"></a> signs and wonders to <a name="marker=464099"></a> seduce, if possible, even the elect." [The Greek roots were "semeion" and "teraton"] They will be "ravening wolves" in "sheep's clothing" (Matt.<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%207:15&amp;version=KJV"> 7:15</a>.) - that is "false prophets" pretending to be Christians. Jacob in warned in Genesis of the "ravening wolf" from the tribe of Benjamin to come in the latter days. Gen.<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis%2049:27&amp;version=KJV"> 49:27</a>.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464103"></a> In Deuteronomy, these signs-and-wonders prophets are false not because their prophecies are untrue. Rather, their signs and wonders are extraordinary. Indeed, their prophecy comes true. (<a name="marker=464104"></a> Deut. 13:2, "the <em><strong>sign or the wonder</strong></em> come to pass, whereof he spake unto thee.") Rather, the proof they are false is in the content of their message as subversive of the Torah (<em>i.e</em>., the Five Books of Moses). These prophets try to "<em><strong>draw thee aside out of the way which Jehovah thy God commanded thee to walk in</strong></em>." (<a name="marker=464105"></a> Deut. 13:5. Cf. Deut. 4:2.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464106"></a> When Deuteronomy was written, all there was of Scripture was Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy. Thus, even a prophet with true prophecy must be rejected if he seduces you to "draw aside" from the commandments in them. The supposed prophet's validity turns on whether, contrary to Deuteronomy 4:2, he diminishes the Law God has already given. <a name="marker=464107"></a> Balaam is an example from the Bible of someone who was once a true prophet who later was found false based solely on these principles. Thus, even though <em><strong>Balaam believed in Christ and truly prophesied of Him </strong></em> with the Holy Spirit (so says Moses), <em><strong>Balaam later became a false prophet</strong></em>. This fall was merely because he diminished the Law by teaching certain violations of it were permissible. (Numbers 24:1 <em>et seq</em>; Rev. 2:14.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464109"></a> Jesus in <a name="marker=464108"></a> Matthew 7:15-24 is clearly alluding to these same "signs and wonders" prophets. Jesus says they are lost. He will deny He ever knew them even though on Judgment Day they are able to say they did "marvelous works in Your name," and many "prophecies in Your name." (<a name="marker=464110"></a> Matt. 7:22.) Jesus tells us He will reject them. It is not because they lacked true prophecy or marvelous wonders. Rather, the sole reason to reject them is they are workers of "<a name="marker=464111"></a> <em>anomia</em>." (<a name="marker=464112"></a> Matt. 7:23.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464114"></a> This <a name="marker=464113"></a> Greek word <em>anomia</em> here means "<em><strong>negators of the Law (of Moses)</strong></em>." This is one of its two lexicon definitions. In choosing this definition over <em> lawless</em>, we do so primarily because Jesus' warning was obviously paralleling Deuteronomy 13:1-5. See discussion in the next section.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464118"></a> If you agree on choosing this dictionary definition, then we can easily anticipate that<em><strong> Paul is not going to fare well.</strong></em> Paul's doctrine that the Law of Moses was abolished by Jesus' coming is well known. See chapter five.</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="28303"></a>Why Anomia Means Negator of Mosaic Law</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464121"></a> Jesus tells us we can identify the false prophets because they are workers of "<a name="marker=464122"></a> <em>anomia</em>." (<a name="marker=464123"></a> Matt. 7:23.) What does this Greek word <em>anomia</em> mean?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464125"></a> <a name="marker=464124"></a> In Greek, <em>anomia</em> is a feminine noun, related to the adjective <em>a-nomos</em>. <em>Nomos</em> is the Greek word to identify the Law or Torah, <em>i.e</em>., the Five Books of Moses. (Strong's #3551.) The prefix <em>a</em> is a negative particle in Greek. Putting the parts together, it should mean <em>negation of the Law (Torah)</em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464126"></a> Do the lexicons agree? What does <em>anomia </em>precisely mean in Matthew 7:23? The best lexicon of ancient Greek (which is free online) is Henry George <a name="marker=464127"></a> Liddell's and Robert Scott's <em>A Greek-English Lexicon</em>.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464130" class="footnote"> 1</a> It defines<em> anomia</em><a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464133" class="footnote"> 2</a> as one of two meanings:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464134"></a> "the negation of the law"</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464135"></a> "lawlessness, lawless conduct."</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464137"></a> The common rendering of <a name="marker=464136"></a> Matthew 7:23 opts for the second meaning. (See ALT, KJV, and ASV translations.) These texts ignore entirely the first option. These translations do not reveal these workers practiced the "<strong>negation of the Law</strong>." Yet, this is the meaning Jesus' intended in this context.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464138"></a> Jesus is talking about workers of the negation of the Law because He is paraphrasing <a name="marker=464139"></a> Deuteronomy 13:1-5. Let's see how by comparing the concepts in <a name="marker=464140"></a> Matthew 7:15-23 with Deuteronomy 13:1-5. When put side by side, we find <a name="marker=464141"></a><em> lawlessness</em> is an incongruent break from the paraphrase by Jesus of Deuteronomy. However, "negation of the Law" would be in line if Jesus' intended a <a name="marker=464142"></a> paraphrase of Deuteronomy.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464170"></a></p>
<table>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464145"></a> <em> Deuteronomy 13:1-5</em></p>
</th> <th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464147"></a> <em> Matthew 7:15-23</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a> "prophet...give thee a sign or wonder" (v. 1)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a> "Beware of false prophets.... (v. 15)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a> "and the <em><strong>sign or wonder</strong></em> come to pass, whereof he spake unto thee" (v.2)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464155"></a> "Many will say to me in that day, `Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy by thy name? and by thy name cast out demons? and by thy name do <em><strong>mighty works</strong></em>?" (v. 22) cf. Mark 13:21 ("false prophets will arise and will make signs and wonders in order to seduce, if possible, the elect.")</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a> "that prophet...has spoken....to <em><strong>seduce you from the way which Jehovah thy God commanded thee to walk in</strong></em>" (v. 5)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464159"></a> "And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work ANOMIA." (v. 23)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a> "thou shall not hearken unto the words of the prophet...." (v. 3)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a> "I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work ANOMIA." (v. 23)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a><strong> Match</strong></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464166"></a> "<em><strong>seducing you from the way which Jehovah thy God commanded thee to walk in</strong></em>...." (Deut. 13:5.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a><strong> Match</strong></p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a> Anomia def#2 = <em><strong>negation of the Law</strong></em> (Torah). It matches a parallel to Deuteronomy 13:5, and is thus the correct meaning between two definitions of anomia.</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464171"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464172"></a> Thus, if you read Matthew 7:23 as workers of the negation of the Law (of Moses), then it <a name="marker=464173"></a> parallels Deuteronomy 13:1-5. Both involve true prophets with<em><strong> true signs and wonders</strong></em>. Yet, they are still false. Why? Because their preaching seduces you from following the Law (of Moses). (<a name="marker=464174"></a> Deut. 13:1-5.) Their preaching works negation of the Law (of Moses). (<a name="marker=464175"></a> Matt. 7:23.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a> Furthermore, the alternative reading makes the test so broad that Jesus' words are potentially meaningless. In fact, the translation as <em>lawless</em> or <em>iniquity</em> would make any human prophet a false prophet by definition. How so?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464177"></a> If the test is whether these people are workers of<a name="marker=464178"></a> <a name="marker=464179"></a> <em>iniquity</em> or <em>lawlessness</em>, then since all of us sin, there would never be a true prophet you could trust as long as he is human. Thus, if you accept Paul's truism that "all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God..." (Rom. 3:23), then Paul and all prophets are workers of iniquity merely by being human.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464196"></a> Thus, everyone is a worker of iniquity at some point. If we apply iniquity as the meaning of <em>anomia</em> in <a name="marker=464197"></a> Matthew 7:15-23, as it commonly is translated, it ends up making Jesus give a meaningless warning. That is, the verse becomes pointless because we all work iniquity. There could never be true prophecy we trust if a true human prophet is rendered false merely because he is like us who sins from time-to-time. <em>Iniquity</em> never was the proper translation of anomia. Only <em>workers of negation of the Law (of Moses)</em> fits Jesus' intended meaning.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3>What If Anomia Did Mean Iniquity? Was Paul a Worker of Iniquity?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464199"></a> However, if one insists the traditional translation of <em>anomia</em> as iniquity is correct, Paul is encompassed by the verse anyway.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464200"></a> Paul's letters reveal very egregious behavior. He even flaunts this in front of Christian congregations. Paul did not leave his sins for private evaluation. Paul shamelessly put them on public display.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464203"></a> For example, <a name="marker=464201"></a> Luther admits that <a name="marker=464202"></a> Paul's letter to the Galatians includes <em><strong>curses</strong></em> on others (Gal. 1:9).<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464207" class="footnote"> <sup>3</sup></a> Furthermore, Paul also tells us he "<em><strong>condemned</strong></em>" Apostle Peter in front of a big crowd of people. (<a name="marker=464208"></a> Gal. 2:11.) Paul also called the "brethren" of Galatia "<em><strong>foolish</strong></em>" ones. (Gal. 3:1.) Another time Paul listed off a series of accomplishments, confessing repeatedly he was "<em><strong>boasting</strong></em>." (<a name="marker=464209"></a> 2 Cor. 11:16-18.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464210"></a> Yet, Jesus and the Bible prohibit such curses, condemnations of others without private personal confrontation first, labelling brothers as fools, and boasting. (See the Table below for Bible references.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464212"></a> Therefore, if one insists Jesus' words in <a name="marker=464211"></a> Matthew 7:23 require proof someone was a worker of iniquity, Paul is caught again. The list in the table below is not only long, but also appears in teaching letters to a spiritual community! As <a name="marker=464213"></a> James 3:1 says, teachers will receive a "heavier judgment" for their errors.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">[We are not condemning Paul for his sins - God knows we have enough beams in our own eyes. Rather, we are testing Paul's validity as an inspired voice. And if the test is indeed whether Paul was a worker of iniquity, as some claim, then these facts must be elucidated to see whether JESUS, not ourselves, warned us about Paul as one with "signs and wonders" to seduce "if possible, the elect," as a wonder-work of <em>anomia</em>.]</p>
<table>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464216"></a> <em> Paul's</em></p>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464217"></a> <em> Letters</em></p>
</th> <th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a> <em> Violation of God's Commands?</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464223"></a> <a name="marker=464221"></a> <em><strong>Cursing Others</strong></em>. <a name="marker=464222"></a> Galatians 1:8, 9: "Anathema" (cursed) is anyone or angel if preaches "a different gospel" than Paul preaches. See also, <a name="marker=464224"></a> 1 Cor. 16:22: "anathema" (cursed) is "anyone who does not love the Lord Jesus."</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464227"></a> <a name="marker=464226"></a> James 3:10: "Out of the same mouth comes forth praise and cursing; my brothers [and sisters], these [things] ought not to be happening in this way" -- emphatic "It's wrong!"</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464228"></a> Prov. 10:7 "[Evil man's] mouth is full of cursing..." Cf. Nu 23:8</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464237"></a> <em><strong>Calling Others Fools</strong></em>. Gal. 3:1: "O foolish Galatians...." Paul calls them "brethren." (Gal. 1:11; 3:15.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464240"></a> <a name="marker=464239"></a> Matthew 5:22 "whosoever shall say to his brother, Thou fool, shall be in danger of the hell of fire."</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a> <a name="marker=464242"></a> <em><strong>Boasting</strong></em>. 2 Cor. 11: "(16) let no man think me foolish; but if ye do, yet as foolish receive me, that I also may boast a little. (17) That which I speak, I speak not after the Lord, but as in foolishness, in this confidence of boasting.(18) Seeing that many boast after the flesh, I will boast also." (ALT). [Greek kauchaomai = boasting.]<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464246" class="footnote"> 4</a></p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464250"></a> <a name="marker=464249"></a> James 4:16: "But now you boast in your pretentious pride; all such boasting is evil." (ALT) [Greek kauchaomai = boasting.]; 1 John <a name="marker=464251"></a> James 2:16: "the boasting (alazoneia)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464255" class="footnote"> 5</a> of life is not of the Father but of the world."</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464257"></a> <a name="marker=464256"></a> Prov. 29:23 "pride/arrogance" (gauth) shall bring a man low."</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464258"></a> Prov.27:2 "Let another man praise you, and not your own mouth; A stranger and not your own lips."</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464262"></a> <a name="marker=464260"></a> <em><strong>Condemning Others</strong></em>. <a name="marker=464261"></a> Galatians 2:11: "But when Peter came to Antioch, I opposed him to [his] face, because he had been condemned [by me]." v. 12 (text of the outspoken condemnation of Peter in front of audience). (kataginosko = condemned).</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464265"></a> <a name="marker=464264"></a> Matthew 7:1 "Stop judging [<em>i.e.</em>, condemning], so that you shall not be judged...." (krino = condemn or judge)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464269" class="footnote"> 6</a> Matthew 18:15: "if they brother sin against thee, go, show him his fault between thee and him alone."</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464272"></a></p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464273"></a><a name="32807"></a>Paul Admits He Is Anomos</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464274"></a> There is a more significant reason why Jesus' words against wonder workers of <em>anomia</em> are not translated correctly in <a name="marker=464275"></a> Matthew 7:23. It is because <a name="marker=464276"></a> Paul admits he practiced <em>anomos</em> in <a name="marker=464277"></a> 1 Cor. 9:20-21. Thus, if Jesus' word <em>anomia</em> were correctly translated in Matthew 7:23, it would lead to an instantaneous proof of Paul's invalidity by Paul's own admission.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464279"></a> What does <a name="marker=464278"></a> <em>anomos</em> mean in 1 Cor. 9:20-21?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a> <em>Anomos</em> is the adjective form of the noun <em>anomia</em>. (The word <em>anomia</em> is the word at issue in Matthew 7:23.) <em>Nomos</em> is the word one would use to indicate the Torah of Moses. (Strong's #3551.) The particle <em>a</em> in Greek is the negation of whatever follows. <em>A-Nomos</em> should mean negation of Torah/Law/law. Without looking at a lexicon, one can anticipate <em>anomos</em> might have some meaning bearing on the Torah. Strong's Lexicon says <em> anomos</em> has two meanings: either a violator of the Law/law or "one destitute of the (Mosaic) Law." <a name="marker=464281"></a> Liddell Scott likewise say <em>anomos</em> means either "lawless, impious" or "without the (Mosaic) Law." It specifically cites the latter meaning as what Paul means in <a name="marker=464282"></a> 1 Cor. 9:21.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a> Indeed, when you read Paul's remarks, it is clear he means he practices to be "<em><strong>without the Mosaic Law</strong></em>." Paul says the following in 1 Cor. 9:20-21:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a> (20) And to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain Jews; to them that are under the law [<em>i.e</em>., <em><strong>Nomos</strong></em>], as under the law, not being myself under the law [<em>i.e</em>. <strong><em>Nomos</em></strong>], that I might gain them that are under the law; (21) to them that are without law, [I became] as without law [Greek <em><strong>anomos</strong></em>], not being without law to God, but under law to Christ, that I might gain them that are without law. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464285"></a> In verse 20, Paul is clearly using <em>Nomos</em> to mean Torah, <em>i.e</em>., the books of Moses. He equates becoming as a Jew as practicing being under <em>Nomos</em>. His usage of <em>Nomos</em> thus starts out clearly meaning Torah (the Mosaic Law). He practiced being Torah submissive as an evangelical tool.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464286"></a> Then, still in verse 20, Paul says he behaves as if under the Mosaic law even though he is "not...myself under the [Mosaic] Law..." His expression in Greek is expressly "not being under the Law"-- <em>me on autos hupo numon</em>. The word <em>me</em> in Greek means <em>not</em>. It serves an equivalent function as the prefix <em>a</em> in front of Nomos. Paul is plainly saying therefore he is not under the Law that applies to Jews. Paul accordingly is announcing he is Not under <em>Nomos</em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464287"></a> Paul then emphasizes this by saying in verse 21 that to those who are not under the <em>Nomos</em>--here he uses the word <em>anomos</em>, Paul "becomes"<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%204html.html#pgfId=464290" class="footnote"> 7</a> as one "not under <em>Nomos</em>"--again using the word <strong><em>anomos</em></strong>. Paul thus not only says in verse 20 he is not under <em>Nomos</em>, but also says he works to appear this way, <em>i.e</em>., <em>Anomos</em>, as a tool of evangelism.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464304"></a></p>
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<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464293"></a> <em> Matthew 7:23</em></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 60px;" class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464295"></a> <em> 1 Cor. 9:21</em></p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464297"></a> <em>ergozomai anomia</em></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 150px;" class="CellBody"><em> ginomai anomos</em></p>
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<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464301"></a> workers of negating the Law</p>
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<p style="padding-left: 150px;" class="CellBody">[I,<a name="pgfId=464303"></a>Paul] work to become without (Mosaic) Law</p>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464306"></a> What about verse 21 where Paul does assert that he is under the <a name="marker=464307"></a> Law of Christ? It is clear Paul does not mean he is under the Law of Moses. In verse 20 he just said he is not under <em>Nomos</em> (<em>i.e</em>., the Torah). We will explore in the next chapter precisely what Paul means by the Law of Christ. Briefly, he means he is under a new moral system. It is not based on Torah. It is based on other principles that Paul explains are guided by conscience. See the discussion in the next chapter.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464311"></a> Yet,<em><strong> what Paul is admitting in 1 Cor. 9:20-21 is what Jesus is warning about in Matthew 7:23</strong></em>. Jesus is warning about those who will come in His name, and come with true signs and wonders. Yet they are workers of <em>A-nomia</em>. This is the noun form of the related word <em>A-Nomo</em>s, an adjective, that appears in 1 Cor. 9:20-21. Jesus is warning of someone who will uproot the Torah. This someone will replace the Torah with what is in essence merely the commandments of men. See, <a name="marker=464312"></a> Matt. 15:6 ("thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.")</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3>How Jesus' View of Mosaic Law Aids Translation of Matthew 7:23</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464314"></a> Jesus by Paul's own admission is on a different page than Paul. Jesus made it clear that His use of the term <em>anomia</em> in <a name="marker=464315"></a> Matthew 7:23 is to identify those who will negate the Law (of Moses). In Matthew 5:18-29, Jesus expels any idea that He intends to introduce any new morality that would supplant the Torah (Law of Moses). In <a name="marker=464316"></a> <a name="marker=464317"></a> Matthew 5:18-19, Jesus explains that anyone who "shall teach" others not to follow the least command of the Law of Moses will be least in the kingdom of heaven:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464318"></a> (18) For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass away from the Law [i.e., Nomos], till all things be accomplished. (19) Whosoever therefore shall <em><strong>break one of these least commandments</strong></em>, and shall <em><strong>teach men so</strong></em>, shall be called <em><strong>least in the kingdom of heaven</strong></em>: but whosoever <em><strong>shall do and teach them</strong></em>, he shall be called <em><strong>great in the kingdom of heaven</strong></em>. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464319"></a> One would be hard pressed to find a more direct way of saying a Christian must teach and keep the Law of Moses. We should clearly see Jesus had every intention that the Law continued in the New Testament community. This passage is not isolated.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464320"></a> Jesus emphasized repeatedly keeping the letter of the Law, while not exaggerating it. Law-keeping was a constant theme of His teachings. Besides Matthew 5:18-19, Jesus taught that traditions of men should not be accepted which supplant the Law. (Matt. 15:3-6.) He emphasized keeping the Ten Commandments as part of His gospel of salvation. (Matt. 19:17.) In Revelation 2:14, Jesus is upset with those teaching contrary to Exodus that you are permitted to eat meat sacrificed to idols. If you read with care Jesus' correction of the Pharisees, it is always about their exaggerated or misguided interpretations of the Law. Jesus never faults their desire to obey the Law. They set aside the "weightier" matters of the Law to follow the less "weighty" matters of the Law. Jesus wanted them to follow both aspects of the Law. (Matt. 23:23.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464321"></a> Those who glibly have tried to make Jesus out to attack keeping the Law have failed to weigh the consequences of their argument. <em><strong>While they shield Paul, they end up making Jesus a false messiah</strong></em>. For any prophet who would seduce Israel from keeping the Law would be, even if he had miracles and signs, a false prophet. (Deut. 4:2,13:5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464322"></a> These Law-keeping passages should impel a Christian to come to grips with the question of where Jesus would have stood in the debate over the Law in the early church. Jesus was insistent on conformity with the Law which many Paulinists have ignored. Such a conclusion, if recognized, would have revolutionary implications on modern Christian doctrine. When we think about the hue and cry if we should quote Jesus to answer the question, we must remember Jesus' pro-Law keeping view is a truth staring back at us from the pages of Scripture. We cannot lightly dismiss it. The revolutionary implication is that Jesus' warning of the false prophet to come who would negate the Law means <em><strong>He was warning us about Paul.</strong></em></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464323"></a> Now one can see why the translators of Matthew 7:23 who assume Paul's validity elected to use a nonsensical translation of<em> anomia </em>as<em> lawlessness</em> or<em> iniquity</em>. If <em>lawless</em> or <em>lawlessness</em> were the test of a prophet who comes with signs and wonders to deceive Christians, everyone is suspect. Jesus' warning would then be <em><strong>so broad that it is rendered meaningless</strong></em>. This makes it nonthreatening to Paul's validity. However <a name="marker=464324"></a> <em>anomia</em>'s other meaning, according to Liddell-Scott, is <em><strong>negation of the law (of Moses)</strong></em>. That meaning <a name="marker=464325"></a> parallels Deuteronomy 4:2 &amp; 13:1-5. Those with true signs and wonders but whose purpose is to seduce us from following the Torah are false prophets. (<a name="marker=464326"></a> Deut. 13:1-5.) Paul is instantly in the hot seat. He even admits in <a name="marker=464327"></a> 1 Cor. 9:20-21 of practicing to be <em>anomos</em>, <em>i.e.</em>, one who negates the Law (of Moses) by dismissing it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464328"></a> Given Jesus' repeated emphasis on keeping the Law, Jesus must have intended us to understand those who would undermine His emphasis on keeping the Law of Moses were going to be the mark of the false prophet to come. Jesus intended <em>anomia</em> in Matthew 7:23 to mean <em><strong>negator of the Law of Moses.</strong></em></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464329"></a> However, let's keep an open mind. Did Paul actually ever teach that the `least commandment' in the Law of Moses was abrogated for a follower of Jesus? If so, then Jesus tells us Paul is a false prophet by Jesus' very blunt words in Matthew 7:15-23. <em><strong>To follow Paul would mean we are disobeying Christ</strong></em>. To follow Paul in such a circumstance would also mean we are violating God's command in Deuteronomy 4:2 against diminishing from God's word. To follow Paul would also mean we are violating Deuteronomy 13:1-5 wherein God tells you to not fear or listen to the prophet who tries to seduce you from following God's commands in the Law. God specifically commands us to not add such a prophet to inspired canon. Or is there even the slightest chance Paul did not negate the Law of Moses?</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464372"></a> A Passage to Meditate Upon: What Causes Empty Worship?</h3>
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<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464425"></a> <em> Jesus on Negation of The Law by Traditional Religious Doctrine. Says Leads to Vain Worship.</em></p>
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<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464429"></a> (1) Then there come to Jesus from Jerusalem Pharisees and scribes, saying, (2) Why do thy disciples transgress [<em>i.e.</em>, parabaino, go contrary to] the <em><strong>tradition of the elders</strong></em>? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread. (3) And he answered and said unto them, Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God because of your tradition? (4) For God said, Honor thy father and thy mother: and, He that speaketh evil of father or mother, let him die the death. (5) But ye say, whosoever shall say to his father or his mother, That wherewith thou mightest have been profited by me is given to God [<em>i.e</em>., the korban payment to the Temple created by the religious leaders as a substitution for directly supporting destitute parents]; (6) he shall not honor his father. And ye have <em><strong>made void</strong></em> [<em>i.e.</em>, akuroo, invalidate, make of none effect] t<em><strong>he word of God because of your tradition</strong></em>. (7) Ye hypocrites, well did Isaiah prophesy of you, saying, (8) This people honoreth me with their lips; But their heart is far from me. (9) But in vain do they worship me, <em><strong>Teaching as their doctrines the precepts of men</strong></em>. (Matt 15:1-9, ASV)</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464427"></a></p>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464521"></a> Jesus in this passage says that the Pharisees were teaching "for doctrines [about God] the commandments of men." (Matt. 15:9, KJV.) The Greek version of Matthew is a paraphrase of Isaiah 29:13, which Jesus is in substance quoting. In Isaiah, what Jesus describes as men's doctrines is called in Hebrew <em>mitzvat anashim melumada</em>. According to Hebrew scholar Nehemiah Gordon, it means "a learned commandment of men." (N. Gordon, <em>Hebrew Yeshua v. Greek Jesus</em> (2006) at 23-24.) Gordon further explains this means a commandment of men that is recognized as law by performing it over and over again. This is reflected in the RSV and JPS versions that translate Isaiah as saying, "commandment of men learned by rote." What is Jesus' point?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464596"></a> This passage in Isaiah was commented upon by later Karaite Jews in the ninth century. Their application of Isaiah appears to be identical to Jesus' point.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464530"></a> First, who were the Karaites? Nehemiah Gordon is a modern Karaite Jew. This is a Jew who rejects man-made accretions to the Law of Moses. Karaites represent a movement founded in the ninth century within Judaism. When Nehemiah Gordon read Jesus' words in Matthew 15, he was both "impressed and surprised." For Gordon explains Isaiah 29:13 became the "battle cry of the Karaites against Rabbinic innovations and this phrase appears countless times in medieval Karaite writings." (N. Gordon, <em>Hebrew Yeshua v. Greek Jesus</em> (2006) at 24.) Thus, Jesus brought this message first!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464534"></a> Finally, Nehemiah Gordon quotes the ninth century Karaite commentary on Isaiah 29:13. It sounds familiar.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464535"></a> Abandon the learned commandments of men that are not from the Torah; do not accept anything from anyone except that which is written in the Torah of the Lord alone. (Daniel al-Kumisi, <em>Epistle to the Dispersion</em>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464548"></a> Jesus had the same explanation of Isaiah. Jesus took it one step further. He explained when you teach the learned commandments of men so as to diminish from the Law given to Moses, you have "empty worship." Thus, by violating Deuteronomy 4:2, which prohibits diminishing the Law, Jesus said you violate the Second Commandment -- you are now taking the "Lord's name in vain." Your worship is now in vain. Thus, Jesus said that when the Pharisees taught God's personal command to honor your mother and father could be substituted with a special payment to the temple (Matt. 15:5 <em>supra</em>), they were negating the Fourth Commandment. They caused the worshipper who used God's name to now be worshipping in vain, thus violating the Second Commandment. The consequence? Jesus later explained in Matthew 23:23 that the Pharisees' teachings which diminished the "weightier matters of the Law" thereby made their pupils become "twice the sons of hell" as their teachers. (Matt. 23:15.)</p>
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<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464130"></a> Logos Software describes LSJ (its acronym) as "the world's most comprehensive and authoritative dictionary of ancient Greek...." http://www.logos.com/products/details/1772 (visited 2005). It explains the 1940 edition is the core of the 1996 edition. As to the 1940 edition, Logos explains LSJ is the "central reference work for all scholars of ancient Greek authors and texts discovered up to 1940...." <em>Id.</em></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464133"></a> The least expensive way to verify this is online. To do so, go to Tuft University's online version of the Westcott-Hort Greek New Testament at <a href="http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0155%3Abook%3DMatthew%3Achapter%3D7%3Averse%3D23">http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0155%3Abook%3DMatthew%3Achapter%3D7%3Averse%3D23</a> Then find in Matthew 7:23 where the last word is <em>anomian</em>. Click anomian and then select the<em><strong> LSJ </strong></em>link for this lexicon.</p>
<p class="Footnote">Or you can purchase this lexicon in book and computer form from Logos at www.logos.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464207"></a> Luther admits Paul's cursing in Luther's lecture on Galatians in 1531. In commenting on Galatians 1:9, Luther says: "Paul repeats the curse, directing it now upon other persons. Before, he cursed himself, his brethren, and an angel from heaven."</p>
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<div class="footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464246"></a> Paul goes on and makes boasts of his background and achievements: <a name="marker=464247"></a> 1 Cor. 11: "(22) Are they Hebrews? so am I. Are they Israelites? so am I. Are they the seed of Abraham? so am I. (23) Are they ministers of Christ?... I more; in labors more abundantly, in prisons more abundantly, in stripes above measure, in deaths oft."<ol> </ol></div>
<div class="footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464255"></a> The <a name="marker=464254"></a> Greek word <em>alazoneia</em> is often incorrectly translated as <em>pride</em>. (ASV, ALT, KJV, GSB.) However, the meaning of the Greek is boasting or a synonym, not <em>pride</em>. The definition <em>pride</em> is not even listed by Liddell Scott. The Liddell Scott Lexicon defines it solely as "boastfulness" "false pretension" or "imposture." <ol> </ol></div>
<div class="footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464269"></a> Jesus orders us to evaluate whether someone is a false prophet (<a name="marker=464268"></a> Matthew 7:11-23). <a name="marker=464270"></a> Jesus commends the Ephesians for finding someone to be a "liar" who said he was an apostle but was not. (Rev. 2:2.) Thus unless Paul was accusing Peter of being a false prophet/apostle, Paul is violating Jesus' prohibition against condemning others publicly without first having a private confrontation. (Matt. 18:15.) Such findings (False Prophet/False Apostle) are not, in fact, `condemnations' per se. They are necessary findings to fulfill our duty to "not harken unto the words of that [false] prophet" (<a name="marker=464271"></a> Deut. 13:3). The findings are not intended to condemn such a person without a private confrontation, but rather to distinguish true Scripture from false. <ol> </ol></div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464290"></a> The Greek is <em>ginomai</em>. It also means make. Paul made himself as one not under the Law, i.e., anomos. This entire expression parallels "workers of negation of the Law" in Matthew 7:23 which is <em>ergozomai anomia</em>, <em>i.e.</em>, work<em> anomia</em>.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Nine: Is Jesus's Salvation Doctrine In Revelation A Rebuttal To Paul?</h2>
<h3><strong>Revelation Is A Post-Pauline Writing of an Apostle</strong></h3>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Key features of the Book of Revelation are that:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464096"></a>It is written long after Paul's writings.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464097"></a>It was written by one of the twelve apostles.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464098"></a>It was written in a region where Paul's writings were available to Apostle John.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464099"></a>The churches addressed are in Gentile lands, thus potentially under the influence of Paul.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464100"></a>Only one church of the seven churches mentioned was one that Paul visited (according to the Bible): the church at Ephesus.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464101"></a>Jesus is the actual speaker in much of Revelation.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464103"></a>Thus, Jesus could address the key issue about Paul's ministry: is Paul correct that salvation is by grace through faith alone without works (Eph. 2:8-9; Rom. 4:4)?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464104"></a>Jesus in the Book of Revelation is speaking after Paul's ministry. Jesus has every opportunity to confirm or disaffirm Paul. Jesus has every opportunity to skewer Paul on doctrine or confirm Paul. Jesus has the opportunity to identify Paul as a thirteenth apostle or restate the number of apostles as only twelve. What does Jesus do?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464120"></a><img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html-2.gif" />First, <a name="marker=464118"></a>grace is <a name="marker=464119"></a>mentioned only twice in Revelation. The word is used as part of greetings and farewells. (<a name="marker=464121"></a>Rev. 1:4; 22<a name="marker=464122"></a>:21.) Grace is never mentioned as part of salvation statements. Nor are faith and believing ever mentioned as saving doctrines anywhere in the Book of Revelation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a>Yet, salvation themes from James, the <a name="marker=464124"></a>Parable of the Sower, and the <a name="marker=464125"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins are evoked repeatedly: repentance, the spirit flickering out, faith becoming dead due to incomplete works, casting out those with lukewarm works, and giving the crown of life to those who resist apostasizing. Jesus is backing up James' salvation theology to the hilt!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464126"></a>Also, Jesus never mentions a thirteenth apostle. Instead, Jesus portrays there are only twelve apostles for eternity. The New Jerusalem is built on the twelve foundation stones which the twelve apostles represent. Paul is left out completely.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>This emphasis on works and ignoring grace doctrine appears to be no accident from even a superficial examination of Revelation. Despite Paul's supposed popularity and alleged approval by Jesus and the twelve, there is not the slightest approving mention of Paul in Revelation even though it post-dates Paul's ministry and death. Instead, the doctrinal contradiction between Jesus and Paul is repeatedly exposed in the Book of Revelation.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464129"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html-1.gif" /></div>
<a name="42255"></a>Paulinists Admit Revelation is Anti-Pauline</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a>Paulinists are completely aware of the anti-Pauline nature of the Book of Revelation. Most of the time, they avoid mentioning it. <a name="marker=464131"></a>Luther was willing to say he could not see the `Holy Spirit' in the book. He insisted the Book of Revelation must be non-canonical. (See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#21699"></a>.) <a name="marker=464132"></a>Calvin did a commentary on every book in the New Testament other than the Book of Revelation. The Calvinist<em> Westminster Confession</em> of 1647 initially excluded the Book of Revelation from inspired canon.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464135"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464136"></a>Other Paulinists openly recognize the problem and boldly decry the Book of Revelation. These Paulinists do so apparently unaware that Revelation can truly be linked to Apostle John based on the witness of his friend <a name="marker=464137"></a>Papias. Thinking they can prove it is non-apostolic, they let down their guard on the Book of Revelation. They boldly proclaim the <a name="marker=464138"></a>Jesus presented in the book of Revelation is heretical because this Jesus contradicts Paul on salvation issues.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464140"></a><a name="16060"></a>In an article entitled Why the Book of <a name="marker=464139"></a>Revelation is Heresy, Dr. Weakly--a Methodist Minister with a Masters in Theology--unwittingly lays out a case against Paul while he thinks he is debunking the Book of Revelation as<a name="marker=464141"></a>heresy. We read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464142"></a>Would Jesus vomit you and me out of the Kingdom of heaven for being only luke warm?</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464143"></a>Would Jesus change salvation by faith back to salvation by works?</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464144"></a>****</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464146"></a>Pergamum (<a name="marker=464145"></a>2: 12) is in Satan's territory. It held fast and did not deny Jesus during persecutions. But [John of] Patmos' Jesus rebukes them for eating food sacrificed to idols (<a name="marker=464147"></a>2: 14). Here Patmos' Jesus contrasts with Paul who said this is permitted (1 Cor. 8).</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464148"></a>Sardis (3: 1) is judged by Patmos' Jesus as being dead for lacking works. If their works do not improve, Patmos' Jesus will come undetected and save only those in Sardis who have good works. Contradicting [Paul's] Gospel, Jesus, Patmos' salvation is by works and not by faith.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a>Philadelphia (3: 7) has done everything right according to Patmos' Jesus. They have endured patiently. If they will just keep on enduring, they will receive their reward. Reward here is based on enduring rather than believing. It is these who endure that Patmos' Jesus will save. Those who cannot handle persecutions are outside the blessings. [Patmos'] Jesus is entirely different [from Pauline doctrine].****</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a>Laodice (3: 14) is neither hot nor cold so Patmos Jesus will vomit the lukewarm Christians out of his mouth expel them from the body of Christ (3: 15,16)....Patmos' Jesus qualifies who he will bless by their works, their endurance being the measure by which they are judged worthy to be saved and remain saved.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a>Works are the basis salvation for Patmos' Jesus. That doctrine is specifically stated in Revelation's twentieth chapter (20: 12,13).</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a>****</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464154"></a>John Patmos' Jesus <a name="marker=464153"></a>salvation by works takes away this `blessed assurance.' The result of Revelation's doctrines is that no one can know their status with God until they are raised from the dead and judged (20: 12,13).</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464155"></a>John Patmos' Jesus is that of the Old Testament God, holding grudges, ruling with an `iron rod,' judging our works, and viciously punishing. His is not the loving Abba Heavenly Father of Apostle John's Jesus.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a>`Revelation' continues the ancient argument about `works' (James' Letter) versus `faith' alone (Paul) that is explained in Paul's letters, (Romans 10, esp. 10:4).<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464159"> 2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464160"></a>These are excellent points. Dr. Weakley agrees Paul permits eating meat sacrificed to idols. However, he also agrees Jesus in Revelation prohibits it. Paul says salvation is by faith (alone), without works, but Dr. Weakley say Jesus in Revelation repeatedly contradicts this.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a>Thus,<em><strong> we have a flat contradiction of Paul by Jesus after Paul's writings were published</strong></em> and well-known. These passages in Revelation contradict Paul's salvation formula that excludes works. The message of Revelation is that instead of us being judged by faith, we are judged and justified by works. As one commentator writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464162"></a>Jesus says in the book of Revelation also that we are justified by our works.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a>It reads: `Behold, I come quickly, and my reward is with me, to give every man according to his WORK shall be.' <a name="marker=464164"></a>Revelation 22: 12.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a>`And death and hell delivered up the dead that were in them, and they were judge every man according to their WORKS.' Revelation 20: 12.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464166"></a>So now we have Jesus and his disciple...John are different than Paul's teaching.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a>To justify and to judge a sinner or a believer, God shall analyze them by their works according to the law.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464170"> 3</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464171"></a>There is never any assurance given in Revelation that without works you are seen as perfect based upon a one-time belief in Jesus. There is never any suggestion in Revelation that works are not your personal responsibility and now you can lean back and relax and expect God to perform in you or attribute to you based on faith. Let's review what Jesus tells us about salvation and test whether Paul lines up with Jesus' words.<a name="marker=464172"></a></p>
</div>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464173"></a>
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Faith and Works in Revelation</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464175"></a>Jesus in <a name="marker=464174"></a>Revelation aims a dagger right at Paul's teaching on faith and works. Jesus is going to strike hard again and again. In Revelation, salvation is under constant threat for members of seven churches. Jesus gives several warnings on how to overcome, and how not to be blotted out from the book of life. In the salvation message in Revelation dating to 90 A.D., <a name="marker=464176"></a>grace is never mentioned although it was Paul's banner slogan from 45-62 A.D. Faith in the sense of a mental assent is likewise ignored. Jesus does so despite faith being the lynch-pin of the salvation doctrine from Paul 25-45 years earlier. (Eph. 2:8-9; Rom. 10:9; Rom. 4:4.) Rather, in Jesus' Book of Revelation, faithfulness is promised the crown of life: "Be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of life." (Rev. 2:10.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464179"> 4</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464180"></a>Rather than salvation by grace without works (Eph. 2:8-9), Jesus tells us in Revelation those whose works are "not complete" are "dead." They must repent because otherwise something living in them is about to die. (Rev. 3:1-3.) James 2:14-21 is ringing in our ears.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464197"></a><img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html-3.gif" />In a threatening context (not a promise of happy rewards), Jesus likewise says He judges by works. "And I will kill her children with death; and all the churches shall know that I am he which searcheth the reins and hearts: and I will give unto every one of you according to your works." (<a name="marker=464198"></a>Rev. 2:23.) Jesus promises again later that on Judgment day "every man" is "judged...according to their works." (Rev.20:13.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464201"> 5</a> Cf. Matt. 12:36-37 ("every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment. For by thy words thou shalt be justified, and by thy words thou shalt be condemned.")</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a>Then Jesus emphasizes to members of particular churches that holding fast is the way to avoid being blotted out of the book of life. Contrary to the Paulinist spin of these passages, Jesus is addressing individuals on their personal salvation within a church. Jesus is not measuring the value of the corporate body's activity. For a church can neither be written in nor blotted out as a body from the book of life.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464203"></a>(3) Remember therefore how thou hast received and heard, and hold fast, and repent. If therefore thou shalt not watch, I will come on thee as a thief...(5) He that overcometh, the same shall be clothed in white raiment; and I will not blot out his name out of the book of life, but I will confess his name before my Father, and before his angels. (<a name="marker=464204"></a>Rev. 3:3-5, KJV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a>To those who will not hold fast the word and do not repent, Jesus has a warning. To the Christians at Laodicea, Jesus writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464206"></a>(15) I know thy works, that thou art neither cold nor hot: I would thou wert cold or hot. (16) So then because thou art lukewarm, and neither cold nor hot, I will spue thee out of my mouth. (<a name="marker=464207"></a>Rev. 3:15-16, KJV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464208"></a>Jesus is declaring clearly that those who have not zealously pursued works of some sort will be rejected. The lukewarm in that regard will be spewed out.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464745"></a>Thus, Jesus in Revelation issued a <a name="marker=464211"></a>salvation theology identical to that of <a name="marker=464212"></a>James in James chapter two. It was the same message Jesus gave in His own earthly ministry. Jesus thereby let it be known in a thinly veiled manner that Paul was a false apostle. Paul's view of salvation is diametrically different, as everyone knows. (Eph. 2:8-9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464749"></a>In fact, Jesus' monologue in Revelation is filled with allusions to the <a name="marker=464242"></a>Parable of the Sower and the <a name="marker=464243"></a>Ten Virgins. In Revelation 3:1-3, Jesus will be talking of the spirit that is flickering out as equal to works that are incomplete and makes these Christians "dead." Jesus will talk of works that are neither hot nor cold. Jesus will spew out of His mouth Christians who are guilty of such incomplete works. Jesus' solution is a call to <a name="marker=464244"></a>repent and obey and do the works they did at first. Otherwise, they will be blotted out of the book of life. What message further from Paul, and more confirming of <a name="marker=464245"></a>James 2:14-21 can you find? He who has ears to hear, let him hear.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a>Yet, Paul hinged everything on his doctrine of salvation on faith alone without works. (<a name="marker=464247"></a>Ephesians 2:8-9; Rom. 4:4.) This was his entire gospel. Every word quoted from Revelation's different message is cringed at by Paulinists because they know if they lose this battle then they lose everything. Their domination over Jesus Christ with Paul as their most revered apostle will be exposed. They have banked everything on Paul's doctrine. Now it is time for Jesus to speak!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464249"></a>To do this, we must start with the <a name="marker=464248"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins, for Jesus definitely alludes to it in Revelation as the means to rebuff Paul. Thus, to understand Revelation fully, we need to go back to Jesus' earthly preaching.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464251"></a>
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Parable of the Ten Virgins &amp; <a name="marker=464250"></a>Revelation 3:1-3</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a>In <a name="marker=464252"></a>Matthew 25:1 <em>et seq</em>., there were ten virgins waiting for the bridegroom to come. Five still had oil for their lamps when the groom came. The other five were running out, and their lamps were beginning to go out just before the groom came. Thus, the second five were not prepared as the crucial time approached. They had the oil for a time, but then they ran out ("their lamps were going out"). So these five determined just before the groom came that they would try to get more oil. To their shock and dismay, the groom came when their oil was barren and they were hoping to get more. The door is then shut and they are excluded from the wedding feast.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>The moral of the story is it was then too late. Their good intentions were not enough. They postponed getting the extra oil too long. The door was shut. When the second five heard the groom arriving, they turned back from their shopping trip. These five tried knocking on the door for entry. However, they found they were excluded from the banquet. They suffer weeping and gnashing of teeth outside. Jesus then says this should teach us "you will not know the day nor hour." So the lesson is we must always be ready for our Lord's return. We cannot rest on our good intentions to someday get the oil we need. Instead, God will absolutely require sufficient oil burning when that time comes.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464255"></a>To whom is this parable directed? A Christian or a non-Christian?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464256"></a><em>Oil</em> in Scripture typically represents the Holy Spirit.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464258"></a>A <em><a name="marker=464257"></a>virgin</em> in Scripture usually symbolizes a blameless person. A saved person. The term <em>virgin</em> is never used elsewhere to describe the lost. It also makes no sense to refer to a lost person as a<em> virgin</em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>Jesus closes this parable saying we must be ready and watch for when He returns because you know not the day nor hour of His return. (<a name="marker=464260"></a>Matt. 25:13.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464261"></a>Could Jesus' parable be a warning to a non-Christian to be watching and ready for when Jesus returns? That makes no sense. First, a non-Christian having oil makes no sense. Second, the label virgin for a non-Christian makes no sense. Lastly, the warning to be ready makes more sense for a Christian than a non-Christian. Everything points to them being a Christian.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464263"></a>However, there is an exception--the <a name="marker=464262"></a>NIV says the five foolish ones did not bring "any" oil. That translation implies they did not even have oil in their lamps. Thus, these virgins lacked any oil, according to the NIV. Hence, they are non-Christians who do not have the Holy Spirit, if you trust the NIV.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a>Therefore, the NIV asks us to believe Jesus would incongruously call someone a virgin who entirely lacks the Holy Spirit. Something does not make sense in the NIV version.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464265"></a>It turns out the NIV is a mistranslation. The original Greek does not say they did not bring any oil, nor they brought no oil with them. The original Greek simply says the five foolish virgins did "not bring oil." By contrast, the wise virgins brought "extra oil in jars." Yet, the Greek also clearly reflects the unwise virgins had oil for a time burning in their lamps. Even the Calvinist The Expositor's Bible Commentary points out the Greek says their "lamps were going out," implying a flickering out process as the oil burned away. It notes the Greek is the "<a name="marker=464266"></a>present tense" of the verb "are going out," and not as the KJV has it: `are gone out.'<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464269"> 6</a> Something in their lamps is burning, but is going out. They had oil in their lamps, but they did not carry extra oil with them like the wise had done.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464270"></a>Thus, most commentators acknowledge the foolish virgins must have initially had oil in their lamps, but unlike the wise, they did not bring extra oil in separate jars. Otherwise, there is no way of explaining how the five foolish virgins had lamps that were burning for a while. They complain later that their "lamps are being quenched," implying they were burning but going out. The Amplified Bible realizes this and translates the passage to say the five foolish ones did not bring "extra oil in jars."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464271"></a>So there are several clear indicators that the five foolish virgins were Christians.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464273"></a>What is happening with them? While they are <a name="marker=464272"></a>pure virgins, they also have very little oil in their lamps and the light is about to flicker out in them. When the oil is exhausted, they will suffer weeping and gnashing of teeth in darkness outside the kingdom of God. They foolishly did not pack extra oil prior to the Lord's arrival. What does the <a name="marker=464274"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins mean?</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464275"></a>
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Paulinists Preempt The Parable's Application by Denying Any Parabolic Meaning</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464277"></a><a name="marker=464276"></a>Paulinists attempt to deflect this parable before it can influence doctrine. What they do is astonishing. They can see what is coming if the obvious parabolic meaning is used. Keeping one's oil burning focuses on some work. The line between foolish and wise is drawn between two kinds of initially justified and innocent persons (i.e., virgins). If a Christian can be foolish and later become lost, then some kind of personal irresponsibility becomes relevant to salvation. Paul's contrary message would be exposed if any kind of spiritual interpretation is applied to a Christian from this parable.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464278"></a>Thus, the Paulinist simply denies the Parable of the Ten Virgins has any parabolic meaning. This approach is clearly set forth in the Calvinist <em>The Expositor's Bible Commentary</em> (1989):</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464279"></a>There is no point in seeing hidden meanings in the oil...</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a>The oil cannot easily apply to...the Holy Spirit. It is merely an element in the narrative showing that the foolish virgins were unprepared for the delay...</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464281"></a>The point is not these girls' virginity, but simply that ten...maidens [were] invited to the wedding. (Vol. VIII at 512, 513).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a>So the <a name="marker=464282"></a>Paulinist cannot permit any secondary meaning to the word oil or the word virgin. They try to recast the virgins as simply maidens. The reason is that <em>The Expositor's Bible Commentary</em> states it is aware that otherwise a <a name="marker=464284"></a>condition exists upon the virgin being accepted in the kingdom: "there must be behavior acceptable to the master, the discharge of allotted responsibilities." <em>Id</em>., Vol. VIII at 512.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464285"></a>If we accepted the obvious that the virgin represents a Christian, and the oil represents the Holy Spirit, we would have a dilemma. The Paulinist would have to accept that Jesus expressly taught that a Christian will not go to Heaven absent "behavior acceptable to the master, the discharge of allotted responsibilities." Jesus would contradict Paul. Rather than ever question their paradigm thinking that assumes Paul is an inspired writer, these <a name="marker=464286"></a>Paulinists would prefer taking the outrageous step of saying Jesus had no parabolic intent in a parable. This, of course, leaves the parable utterly meaningless. This is frankly shocking.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464287"></a>In fact, it is deplorable that a Bible commentary would insist that there is no "need" to see "hidden meaning" to the significant objects of this parable such as the oil and the virgins. A parable precisely calls an aware Christian to meditate on a symbolic meaning. We could respect the commentary if it suggested other symbolic meanings. However, to suggest that we should not try to imagine there is any symbolic meaning is shocking. Yet, it helps us see the lengths to which reputable <a name="marker=464288"></a>Paulinists must go to resist letting their paradigm viewpoint be challenged by the words of Jesus. The Paulinist is forever jumping into foxholes to dodge Jesus' challenges to his system of thinking.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464289"></a>The solution in this parable is easy: oil is the Holy Spirit and the word virgins means cleansed and washed Christians.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464290"></a>Now let's explore the meaning behind the fact five had their lamps going out.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464292"></a>
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<a name="24437"></a>How Revelation 3:1-3 and James 2 Relate to the <a name="marker=464293"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464296"></a>What does the <a name="marker=464294"></a>fact <a name="marker=464295"></a>five have their lamps going out mean? Do they face spiritual death despite having been a virgin? Yes, especially when you compare this to <a name="marker=464297"></a>Revelation 3:1-3.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464298"></a><a name="18127"></a>Somehow commentators have missed a precise parallel between the <a name="marker=464299"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins and what is contained in <a name="marker=464300"></a>Revelation 3:1-3. Jesus tells the church at Sardis:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464301"></a>(1) I know your <strong><em>deeds</em></strong>; you have a reputation for being alive, but you are <strong><em>dead</em></strong>. Wake up! Strengthen what remains and is about to die, (2) for I have <strong><em>not</em></strong> found your deeds <strong><em>complete</em></strong> in the sight of God. (3) Remember, therefore, what you have received and heard; obey it and repent. But if you do not wake up, I will come like a thief, and you will not know at what time I will come. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464302"></a>These three verses exactly parallel the Parable of the Ten Virgins:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464303"></a>The lamps of five virgins are about to flicker out and die due to lack of oil. The Sardisians likewise have something in them "about to die."</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a>The foolish virgins failed to watch and be ready. The lesson Jesus draws is that "Watch, for you will not know the day nor hour" (<a name="marker=464306"></a>Matt. 25:13). This is likewise the precise lesson to the Sardisians. "I will come like a thief, and you will not know at what time I will come." (<a name="marker=464307"></a>Rev. 3:3.)<a name="pgfId=464308"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464309"></a>It is obvious in both situations that the Spirit is present, but in both cases the Spirit is going out. In the Book of <a name="marker=464310"></a>Revelation, this is explained. What is bringing about the Sardisians' spiritual death is their works were not complete in God's sight. In fact, Jesus says they have a reputation for being alive, but they are "dead."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464312"></a><a name="32371"></a>The picture of the Sardisians is very interesting:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464313"></a>They are dead.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464314"></a>Something still flickering in them is about to be quenched.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464315"></a>Their works are not complete.<a name="pgfId=464316"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464317"></a>Let's make a reasonable inference on what these points mean. The first point means their faith is dead. The second point means the Holy Spirit is about to be quenched and depart. The third point means they have no completed works or mature fruit to show.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464318"></a>The threat is implicit that damnation will follow unless they "repent" and "obey." We know this explicitly from the parallel <a name="marker=464319"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins. It tells us that when the spirit departs--their lamps were finally quenched--that damnation results. They suffer weeping and gnashing, left outside. Jesus elsewhere explains this is hell itself. See Matt. 13:42 ("and shall cast them into the furnace of fire: there shall be the weeping and the gnashing of teeth").</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464321"></a>So <a name="marker=464320"></a>Revelation 3:1-3 sounds a lot like a dead faith without completed works does not save. Where have we ever read that before?</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464322"></a>Jesus' Confirmation of James' Doctrines &amp; Rejection of Paul's</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464323"></a>Where else does the Bible say a Christian without <a name="marker=464324"></a>deeds has a <a name="marker=464325"></a>faith that is dead and such faith cannot save? Yes, the often resisted <a name="marker=464326"></a>James 2:14-25 passage. <a name="marker=464327"></a>James 2:17 reads: "Even so <a name="marker=464328"></a>faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone." James asks rhetorically "can such faith save?" which calls for a negative answer. Thus, faith without works, James says, cannot save.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464331"> 7</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464332"></a>In Revelation 3:1-3, what must those with a faith that has become dead and who lack completed works do to awaken spiritually?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464333"></a>Revelation 3:3 says they must "remember what you have received and heard; obey it and repent." A non-Christian does not have anything to remember. They never have been a Christian. Nor does a non-Christian receive a spark which then is later dying out in them. Non-Christians are not judged for incomplete works, but sin. Only a Christian can be in view in Jesus' words in Revelation 3:3.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464335"></a>Thus, because the <a name="marker=464334"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins parallels the warning of Revelation 3:3, we know the foolish virgins are Christians like those warned in Revelation 3:1-3.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464337"></a>Accordingly, Jesus is teaching in the <a name="marker=464336"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins that faith without <a name="marker=464338"></a>works is dead. You are spiritually dying and about to have the Spirit quenched. How do we know this? Because Jesus gives a precisely parallel message in <a name="marker=464339"></a>Revelation 3:1-3 that duplicates the Ten Virgins Parable in declarative statements. While in the parable we are not sure what it means to have the spirit flickering out, Revelation 3:3 tells us precisely: the Sardisians are lacking completed works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464340"></a>Incidentally, the Sardisians' spiritual condition identically matches the third seed in the <a name="marker=464341"></a>Parable of the Sower. This seed has thorns choke them. Jesus says they did not <a name="marker=464342"></a>telesphourin. (<a name="marker=464343"></a>Luke 8:14.) This means the <a name="marker=464344"></a>third seed fails to produce <a name="marker=464345"></a>to the end, or fails to bring its fruit to completion. (For more discussion, see <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%208.#22680"></a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464349"></a>Finally, those statements in Revelation 3:1-3 about not completing your works contain one more piece of crucial information. It says that despite their reputation for being alive they are dead. They have incomplete works. Something is flickering out in them. These additional facts let us see a precise overlap to<a name="marker=464350"></a>James 2:17. The Epistle of <a name="marker=464351"></a>James says such faith without completed works is dead. Therefore, we realize the Parable of the Ten Virgins is the same as Revelation 3:1-3 which is the same as James 2:17.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464352"></a>So what do these three passages mean? They boil down to James' message that faith alone...cannot save. If you do not add works of charity which<a name="marker=464353"></a>James mentions, your faith is dead. The Spirit is about to leave you. Quicken what little remains. If not, you will suffer spiritual death and be sent to a place of weeping and gnashing, being left outside. Jesus tells us this is the fiery furnace--hell itself. (Matt. 13:42.) Jesus' warning is to repent and obey, and bring the works assigned to you to "completion."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464354"></a>Why? Because Jesus can come as a thief anytime, and you will find yourself, once a pure virgin with the oil of the Holy Spirit burning, so dead and the spirit so lacking (flickering out) that it will be too late when Jesus returns. You will find yourself left outside weeping and gnashing your teeth. This is precisely the meaning of the warning of the <a name="marker=464355"></a>Parable of the Ten Virgins. Jesus makes works absolutely vital to add to faith so we are ready when He returns.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464356"></a>What kind of works? They might primarily or exclusively be works of charity if James' illustration is a definitive application of Revelation 3:1-3. We shall later see that Jesus confirms it at least means works of charity in his <a name="marker=464357"></a>Parable of the Sheep and the Goats. We will discuss that parable in the next section.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464359"></a>So we see that Jesus is approving James' <a name="marker=464358"></a>position. <a name="marker=464360"></a>Revelation <a name="marker=464361"></a>3:1-3 mentions "incomplete works" and "dead." <a name="marker=464362"></a>Jesus is stepping into the debate between<a name="marker=464363"></a>James and Paul. Jesus is coming down on the side of James. Jesus did this elsewhere in Revelation 2:14 on the issue of meat sacrificed to idols. Jesus does it again here. This time Jesus is resolving the <a name="marker=464364"></a>faith-alone versus faith-plus-works debate.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464365"></a>No one wants to see this. Almost everyone prefers thinking that "incomplete works" (Rev. 3:2) has something to do with corporate worship practices. The mention of salvation and being blotted out of the book of life rule out such corporate interpretations. The parallel between Revelation and James chapter 2 and Jesus' Parable of the Ten Virgins likewise proves Revelation speaks to individuals in churches. The Book of Revelation is not simply addressing churches who happen to have individuals.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464366"></a>To understand the works that Jesus is referring to in <a name="marker=464367"></a>Revelation 3:1-3 that one must complete, we need to look at one more parable of Jesus. It is a parable often overlooked and ignored but focuses on works of charity. As you read this, ask yourself are such works optional for salvation as Jesus tells the<a name="marker=464368"></a>Parable of the Sheep and the Goats.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464370"></a>
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<a name="31665"></a>The Parable of the Sheep and The Goats Proves Faith Alone Does Not Save</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464371"></a>Jesus tells a parable known as the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats. (<a name="marker=464372"></a>Matthew 25:30-46.) Jesus says that one group who calls Him Lord serves Jesus' brothers in need with food and clothing. This group goes to heaven. Another group who calls Him Lord but who fails to do likewise are sent to hell.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464373"></a>Jesus is commanding charity to his brothers on threat of going to hell if you do not do it. Jesus is promising eternal life to those who do it. <a name="marker=464374"></a>Faith that is alone does not save.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464375"></a>As we shall see below, Jesus' statement that charity is crucial for salvation is exactly repeated by his brother James. We read in <a name="marker=464376"></a>James' Epistle chapter two a discussion of precisely these same works that a dead faith fails to do--if you see a brother in need, and you do not feed him or clothe him. James asks of such a person, "Can such a faith save him?" (<a name="marker=464377"></a>James 2:14 NIV.) The rhetorical form of the question calls for a negative answer. <a name="marker=464378"></a>Jesus gives a big <a name="marker=464379"></a>negative to the same question in this parable.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464380"></a>Let's break this parable down to better understand what it promises and threatens. Does faith alone save?</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464381"></a>There are two types in view: the sheep v. the goats.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464382"></a>The sheep are called the "righteous." (25:37.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464383"></a>The sheep receive as an "inheritance...the kingdom." (25:34.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464384"></a>The goats are called "cursed" and are sent "into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels." (25:41.)</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Why the different ends? Is it because one believed and the other did not? Or rather is it because among those who knew the Lord some served Him by clothing, feeding and visiting the "brothers" of the King while others did not?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464387"></a>Or another way of asking this is to inquire why do the sheep inherit the kingdom. Is it because they are believers who are saved despite failing to do works of charity? Was their faith alone enough? No.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464388"></a>Jesus says:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464389"></a>(35) For I was hungry and you gave me something to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me something to drink, I was a stranger and you invited me in, (36) I needed clothes and you clothed me, I was sick and you looked after me, I was in prison and you came to visit me.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464390"></a>The sheep confess they do not remember doing it for the Lord himself. The King explains: `I tell you the truth, whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers of mine, you did for me.'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464391"></a>Why are the goats sent to "eternal fire"? Did they lack ever having faith? No, rather Jesus says:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464392"></a>(42) For I was hungry and you gave me nothing to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me nothing to drink, (43) I was a stranger and you did not invite me in, I needed clothes and you did not clothe me, I was sick and in prison and you did not look after me.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464393"></a>The goats confess the same error, not ever having seen the Lord in need. And the King replies:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464394"></a>I tell you the truth, whatever you did not do for one of the least of these, you did not do for me. (Mat. 25:45.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464395"></a>The answer is that one group serves the brothers of the King and the others do not, by works of charity. One has works of charity and one doesn't. That is the dividing line in being finally saved, as told in this parable. Both the sheep and goats call him Lord, so both had faith. One was dead and one was alive.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464398"> 8</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464402"></a>If, instead, you reject this interpretation, and believe only the sheep had faith, then you have the incongruous lesson that Jesus is warning people already lost (the goats) that they better do works of charity for His brothers or face hell. The incongruity is further aggravated by the fact Jesus would be letting the saved know they are saved by doing those works alone. Jesus clearly says this is the dividing line between the two groups. Jesus would be making salvation depend only on works (of charity). Thus, it follows that Jesus wants us to understand the goats were already Christians (i.e., had accepted him as Lord and Savior) but they failed to serve Him by works of charity to his followers. The formula is <a name="marker=464403"></a>faith and works (of charity). This charitable service then becomes the dividing line in terms of who is and who is not ultimately saved among people who have faith in Jesus.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464405"></a>
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<a name="14306"></a>Comparison of the <a name="marker=464404"></a>Parable of the Sheep &amp; Goats to James Chapter 2</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>The fact that <a name="marker=464406"></a>Matthew 25:30-46 appears similar to James chapter two is not in one's imagination. They are virtually verbatim copies of each other. Again, I have not seen a single commentator noticing this.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464408"></a>James writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464409"></a>(14) What doth it profit, my brethren, if a man say he hath faith, but have not works? can that faith save him? (15) If a brother or sister be <strong><em>naked and in lack of daily food</em></strong>, (16) and one of you say unto them, Go in peace, be ye warmed and filled; and yet ye give them not the things needful to the body; what doth it profit? (17) Even so faith, if it have not works [ergon], is dead in itself [i.e., if alone]. (<a name="marker=464410"></a>James 2:14-17, ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>Now <a name="marker=464411"></a>compare this faith that is not completed because it lacks works of charity and thus cannot save in James with Jesus' words in the <a name="marker=464413"></a>Parable of the Sheep and the Goats. In that parable, Jesus threatens damnation for lacking charity. The parallels are striking:</p>
<div>
<h4 class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464440"></a>Parallelism of James 2:14-17 &amp; Parable of the Sheep &amp; the Goats</h4>
</div>
</div>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"></h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464420"></a><em>James</em></p>
</th><th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464422"></a><em>Jesus</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464424"></a>"brother or sister without clothes..." (James 2:15.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464426"></a>"I needed clothes and you did not clothe me."(<a name="marker=464427"></a>Matt. 25:36.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464429"></a>"brother or sister without... daily food..." (James 2:15.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464431"></a>"For I was hungry and you gave me nothing to eat." (Matt. 25:42.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464433"></a>"faith without works...." (James 2:14.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464435"></a>"Lord...when did we see you hungering...or naked....?" (Matt. 25:44.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464437"></a>"is dead [and] can[not] save." (James 2:14.)</p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464439"></a>"Be going...into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels." (Matt. 25: 41.)</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p> </p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=465296"></a>
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Why Is <a name="marker=465295"></a>Charity So Central in God's Word?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464464"></a>Why would <a name="marker=464463"></a>charity toward others be so crucial to salvation, as Jesus says? We could do an entire Bible study on this. It appears that charity toward others is the most significant way you mark departure from your old life of sin. Daniel can tell the king "break off (discontinue) your sins...by showing mercy to the poor." (<a name="marker=464465"></a>Dan. 4:27.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464467"></a><a name="marker=464466"></a>Charity in the Hebrew Scriptures was frankly one of the most elevated commands to obey. One might even say it is central to Torah. It reflects obedience to God's command to love thy neighbor in a concrete way. Thus, the Law of Moses said if a brother of God's people is in your midst who is "needy" then "thou shalt surely open thy hand unto him, and shalt surely lend him sufficient for his need in that which he wanteth." (<a name="marker=464468"></a>Deut. 15:7-8.) Thirty-six times the Bible then commands the same charity must be shown to the "stranger" in your midst for "you were once strangers in the Land of Egypt." (E.g., <a name="marker=464469"></a>Deut. 10:19.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464470"></a>The charity-principle is one of the most characteristic ways of doing justice in God's eyes. God desires it more than any blood sacrifice. (<a name="marker=464471"></a>Prov. 21:3;<a name="marker=464472"></a>Mark 12:33.) In <a name="marker=464473"></a>Isaiah 58:7 et seq. (NLT), God promises "salvation shall come like the dawn" if you bring the poor into your home, give him clothes, etc. If you are charitable, God promises if you call on Him, then "the Lord will answer." (<a name="marker=464474"></a>Isaiah 58:9.) Thus, even the issue of whether God will speed an answer to prayer depends on how charitable you are being to the poor.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464475"></a>Furthermore, if you are charitable, God will guide you "continually" and make you like a watered garden. (Isaiah 58:11.) God promises special blessings to those who give charity to the poor.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464476"></a>Thus, there is no end of verses that elevate charity above almost every other command except to Love the Lord thy God with your whole mind, heart and soul.</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464477"></a>Jesus Says Charity Is An Essential Break From Your Life of Sin</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464478"></a>As already noted, charity in Daniel was also linked to the end of sinning in your life. (<a name="marker=464479"></a>Dan. 4:27.) As Jesus tells it, charity has this function. After repentance from sin, then you need to be charitable to enter into eternal life. At least this is what <a name="marker=464480"></a>Jesus told the young rich man is how to "<a name="marker=464481"></a>enter eternal life." (<a name="marker=464482"></a>Matthew 19:16-26; <a name="marker=464483"></a>Mark 10:17-31; <a name="marker=464484"></a>Luke 18:18-26.) While it may not match Pauline doctrine, Jesus was consistent about this. When <a name="marker=464485"></a>Zaccheus repented of his sin and gave his wealth to the poor, Jesus assured him that "salvation has come to this house." (<a name="marker=464486"></a>Luke 19:9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464487"></a>One might say charity is a work worthy of repentance. As Jesus explains it, it is not optional. It completes your faith. Hence, faith plus works of <a name="marker=464488"></a>charity are essential in Jesus' doctrine.</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464490"></a>
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<a name="30894"></a>Paulinist Interpretation of the Parable of the Sheep &amp; Goats</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464491"></a>Most of the time, Paulinist congregations ignore this parable. One Christian expresses my own experience, and perhaps your own:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464492"></a>In my Baptist upbringing, and even after becoming a Christian, Matthew 25[:31 et seq.] was NEVER touched on, mentioned, taught, etc. And you'd be surprised how easy it is to gloss over it in your own studies when your own denomination, pastor, teachers, and friends don't give it any notice, either.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464495"> 10</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464497"></a>Whenever the <a name="marker=464496"></a>Parable of the Sheep and the Goats is actually examined, because it is James <a name="marker=464498"></a>2:14-17 stated as a parable, Paulinists lose all semblance of reasonable interpretation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464501"></a><a name="marker=464499"></a>Dillow endorses <a name="marker=464500"></a>the view that the sheep are Christians who ministered with food and clothing and visited in prison Jews, Jesus' "brothers." However, they are not just simply any Jew of every generation, but only Jews living in the great tribulation period. (Dillow, Reign of the Servant Kings, supra, at 73.) Dillow explains that if we do not choose this interpretation which imposes `faith plus works saves' as true for a very small future historical group, then the present standard `gospel' is ruined for the rest of us. Dillow says that but for this explanation, <a name="marker=464502"></a>Matthew 25:34 means "that inheriting the kingdom is conditioned on obedience and service to the King, a condition far removed from the New Testament [i.e., Pauline] teaching of justification by faith alone for entrance into heaven." (Id.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464503"></a>Thus, this spin of the parable defers Jesus' teaching on salvation by works to only those trapped in the tribulation who were never Christians pre-tribulation. Dillow believes Paul's "faith alone" doctrine remains the valid salvation formula for us pre-tribulation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464504"></a>However, James said "faith alone" does not save. In fact, the words "faith alone" only appear in the entire Bible in one passage: James 2:17. And he says "faith alone" does not justify you.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464505"></a>Furthermore, consider how absurd it is to interpret a parable as having a distinct salvation message for only the tribulation period. Why would it change just for those in this seven year period?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464507"></a>So the <a name="marker=464506"></a>Pauline spin of this passage ends up teaching there is a separate salvation message for a small historical group that does require works of charity plus faith. Therefore, we today are comforted that we do not have to change Paul's gospel message until the tribulation is upon us. In this view, reconciling Paul to Jesus is not necessary because Jesus' teaching applies when Christians `are gone anyway.'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464508"></a>In this manner, this parable is neatly swept under the rug to be dusted off when the time is right for non-Christians to find it. (Please note this recognizes that faith-plus-works will one day be a non-heretical doctrine; it just does not fit our time, according to Paulinists.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464509"></a>This tribulation-only solution can be dismissed with just one Bible verse. Christ's `brethren' does not mean ethnic Jews, let alone only Jews of a seven year future period. Jesus asked once "who are my brothers?" Jesus answered that His brothers and sisters should be those "doing the will of God." (<a name="marker=464510"></a>Matthew 12:48-50.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464512"></a>If one must escape this <a name="marker=464511"></a>parable with such a nonsensical notion that Jesus' brothers are non-Christian Jews of the tribulation period, Paulinism is not being held even loosely based on Jesus' words. The Paulinist view of salvation is being held in spite of whatever Jesus teaches.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464513"></a>Another example of this is Calvin's even weaker explanation of this Parable of the Sheep and the Goats. <a name="marker=464514"></a>Calvin claimed that when Jesus says to one group who performed charity that they will "inherit"<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464517"> 11</a> the kingdom, the word inherit means they did not receive it by works, but by a gift.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464520"> 12</a> This is a non-sequitur. It does not follow. Jesus says the crucial difference in salvation was that some did works of charity while others did not do so. Thus, an essential factor in salvation, as told by Jesus, is charitable works. The concept of inheritance cannot erase this fact.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464521"></a>Furthermore, Calvin mistakenly spun this to suggest the word inherit implies somehow salvation is contingent on God's donative intent--His intent to make a gift. However, an inheritance in the Law does not rely upon donative intent. Rather, one inherits based on family relationship, without any donative intent at all. (Numbers 27:7-11.) The only relevance of intent is that a parent could always disinherit a son for disobedience. God declares He can do so in Numbers 14:12 toward us. God says to the disobedient "I will disinherit them." A son under the Law who had proven disobedient despite chastening was obviously disinherited by denying you ever knew him. This was the only way to spare the son of the Law's only other option of a death penalty. Deut. 21:18-21. The First Century legal fiction was you would say the son's disobedience meant he "denied" his parent, allowing the parent to "deny" he ever knew the son.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=465121"> 13</a> Thus, a parent's intent only had relevance to prove the grounds to deny inheritance. An inheritance was otherwise required by Law with no intent to make a gift being involved.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465112"></a>Thus, the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats was an example of a disinheritance warning. Do charitable works, and you will safely inherit eternal life. Fail to do them, and be forewarned--God will disinherit you. Thus, the dividing line in the Parable is clearly works. There is nothing in the word inheritance that suggests even remotely that salvation is a no-strings attached gift, and that Jesus is somehow suggesting salvation never turns at all on works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464522"></a>How did Calvin reach the wrong conclusion? Calvin was confusing the law of wills and trusts (which does depend upon donative intent) with the law of inheritance. Calvin erred when he construed the word inherit to necessarily imply God was giving salvation as a gift to the sheep. Then with this error in hand, Calvin then somehow viewed the word inherit as overpowering Jesus' meaning that charity was crucial to salvation. For Calvin, making Jesus sound like Paul was the only priority that mattered. Letting Jesus correct Paul's doctrine was an inconceivable option for Calvin.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464524"></a>Furthermore, while the Greek word <a name="marker=464523"></a><em>kleronomeo</em> in Matthew 25:34 ("inherit the kingdom prepared for you") can mean one receives property by the right of inheritance, it has other meanings. These other meanings are legitimate and arguably preferable translations. The word <em>kleronomeo</em> in Matthew 25:34 means also simply receive, share or obtain. (Strongs # 2816 "getting by apportionment"; "receive as one's own or as a possession; to become partaker of, to obtain.") These are completely satisfactory alternative renderings. Thus, Jesus says you shall share in, receive, or obtain eternal life if you do these charitable works. If you fail to do so, you are sent to hell's fire. Even if Calvin's argument about inheritance were possible, it is not necessarily an accurate translation. Either way you look at this, Calvin's point is irrelevant.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464525"></a>In sum, anyone can see inherit does not imply a gift. In fact, an inheritance is obtained by right of sonship and lost by disobedience. No donative intent is implied. God can make your sonship and right of inheritance depend on your behavior and attitudes. See. Ps. 39:9-11 &amp; Matt. 5:5 ("the meek shall inherit the earth"); Matt. 19:29 ("every one that hath left houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or children, or lands, for my name's sake, shall....inherit eternal life"); Rev. 21:7-8 ("he that overcometh shall inherit all things, and I will be His God and he shall be my son, but the fearful and unbelieving...and all liars shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire.") Cf. Ps. 149:4 ("he will beautify the meek with salvation").</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464526"></a>Thus, Calvin's spin was clearly erroneous. Nothing in the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats suggests the saved sheep receive salvation based solely on grace without works.<a name="marker=464527"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464528"></a>Finally, others like Bob Wilkin who cannot reconcile the parable to Paul insist we are forced to do so regardless of the language.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464529"></a>[I]t follows from the discussion above that the basis of `inheriting the kingdom' ([Matt.] 25:34) is good works. Since Scripture cannot contradict itself, we know from a host of other passages that cannot mean that these people will gain entrance to the kingdom because they were faithful.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464532"> 14</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464533"></a>Thus, the final foxhole is the ad hoc denial that Jesus can mean what He says because we know what Paul teaches must remain true.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464534"></a>
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The Meaning of the Parable of the Sheep &amp; The Goats</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464537"></a>We see in the<a name="marker=464535"></a>Parable of the <a name="marker=464536"></a>Sheep and the Goats, Jesus clearly teaches here the message of <a name="marker=464538"></a>James chapter 2. You must do works of charity (feed and clothe) to Jesus' brothers--those who do the will of God. However, if you fail to do works of charity for those who needed food and clothing when you had the means--you will be sent to hell. Like James says, if you do not feed and clothe your spiritual brothers when you can, such <a name="marker=464539"></a>faith is dead. Such faith cannot save you. There are perhaps no <a name="marker=464540"></a>two more alike passages in all of Scriptures, outside of Synoptic parallels.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464541"></a>Because James chapter 2 is a thorn by itself to the "faith alone" view, none of the major commentators has ever drawn the parallel to <a name="marker=464542"></a>Matthew 25:30-46. The latter makes it that much harder to explain away James chapter 2.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464544"></a>Daniel <a name="marker=464543"></a>Fuller encourages us to assess this Parable of the Sheep and the Goats without any preconceived ideas. He exhorts us to allow Jesus to challenge our core Pauline doctrines:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464545"></a>To the objection that...Matthew 25 and Colossians 3:23-24<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464867"> 15</a> lead us right back to Rome and salvation by works, my answer is twofold. First, we must determine, regardless of consequences, what the intended meaning of each of the biblical writers is. We must let each one speak for himself and avoid construing him by recourse to what another writer said. Otherwise there is no escape from subjectivism in biblical interpretation. (Fuller, supra, "Biblical Theology" fn. 22.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464546"></a>Thus, reading Jesus through the overlay of Paul is wrong. You cannot press Jesus' words down so they fit Paul. Such conduct is reprehensible. In fact, the duty to construe Jesus free from other writers is an imperative. The very <a name="marker=464547"></a>validity of other authors, such as Paul, turns on whether they transgress Jesus' teaching. <a name="marker=464548"></a>As 2 John 1:9 teaches us, "Whoever goes beyond and doesn't remain in Christ's teaching, doesn't have God. He who remains in the teachings [of Jesus Christ], the same has both the Father and the Son." <a name="marker=464549"></a>Jesus is the standard whether Paul is valid. If you refuse to read Jesus' meaning apart from Paul, and you are unwilling to see the differences, you are rejecting your duty to test Paul as 2 John 1:9 requires.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464550"></a>
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The Salvation Message of Revelation Is Straight From the Parable of the Sower</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464552"></a>Next, Jesus in <a name="marker=464551"></a>Revelation once more states His core salvation theology. Jesus does this by reproving or commending each church by the criteria that Jesus used in the <a name="marker=464553"></a>Parable of the Sower. This is done ever so subtly. Thus, many commentators miss this.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464555"></a>There are some who left their first love. (<a name="marker=464554"></a>Rev. 2:4). They correspond to the second seed that starts with joy. This seed "believes for a while" but in time of temptation falls away. (<a name="marker=464556"></a>Luke 8:13.) In Revelation, these do not "produce to completion" because of incomplete works. (<a name="marker=464557"></a>Rev. 3:2.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464558"></a>Then there are believers at another church who are neither hot nor cold but lukewarm. Jesus explains why: "Because thou sayest, I am rich, and have gotten riches, and have need of nothing." (<a name="marker=464559"></a>Rev. 3:17.) These correspond to the third seed which was choked not only by the cares of this world, but also by "riches and pleasures" of this life. Thus, they did not produce to the end. (<a name="marker=464560"></a>Luke 8:14.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464561"></a>Yet, there is one church and one seed<img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html-4.gif" /> that is viewed as on the right path. This is the church of <a name="marker=464571"></a>Philadelphia which compares to the fourth seed in the Parable of the Sower. The church at Philadelphia is told "I know thy works," and as a result a door is in front of them that no one can shut. (<a name="marker=464572"></a>Rev. 3:8.) This church has very little "power" left, but "did keep my word, and did not deny my name." (<a name="marker=464573"></a>Rev. 3:8.) This corresponds to the fourth seed which "in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, hold it fast, and bring forth fruit with patience." (<a name="marker=464574"></a>Luke 8:15.) There is an unmistakable parallelism between "keep my word" (<a name="marker=464575"></a>Rev. 3:8) and "hold it fast" (Luke 8:15) as well as "thy works" (Rev. 3:8) and "bring forth fruit...." (Luke 8:15).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464576"></a>Thus, Jesus has made re-appear in the Book of Revelation all the criteria for assessing the saved seed versus these lost seeds from his<a name="marker=464577"></a>Parable of the Sower. Why?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464578"></a>Precisely because there is no more difficult passage for a Paulinist to explain in the Synoptic Gospels on salvation than the Parable of the Sower. Jesus in the Book of Revelation invokes the Sower Parable obviously to rebuff <a name="marker=464579"></a>Paul's message that faith alone saves, and works matter not at all. In the Sower Parable, those whose faith died, who fell in times of temptation, or whose works were incomplete were lost. Only the one who produces fruit to the end with endurance was saved in the Parable of the Sower. <a name="marker=464580"></a>Ephesians 2:8-9 is thus dead on arrival when you let Jesus teach you in the <a name="marker=464581"></a>Parable of the Sower. As a result, when this completely anti-Pauline message in the <a name="marker=464582"></a>Parable of the Sower appears again in the Book of Revelation, Jesus' purpose is evident.</p>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464583"></a>What About Grace?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464584"></a>This is doubly-evident because Jesus at the same time in Revelation ignores the word <a name="marker=464585"></a>grace. Because Paul previously made this his most often used term to explain salvation (Rom. 3:24; 4:4, 16, 5:2, 15, 17, 20, 21; 6:1, 14, 15; 11:5-6; 12:3, 6; Gal. 1:16; 2:21; 5:4; Eph. 2:5, 8; Titus 2:11, 3:7), Jesus' later prophecy of Revelation has a not-so-subtle message. If Paul's doctrine were true, why does Jesus implicitly teach in Revelation that Paul's version of grace-teaching deserves no attention? Jesus' focus is to remind us of the criteria for salvation from the <a name="marker=464586"></a>Parable of the Sower. His most often used exhortation to the churches in Revelation is repent, do the same works you did at first, obey, etc. In Revelation, grace is only mentioned in simple greetings by Apostle John. (Rev. 1:4; 22:21.) By its use, John merely means mercy.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464587"></a>This does not cast in doubt the canonicity of Revelation. For Jesus in His earthly ministry never once taught Paul's doctrine of grace. The word grace never once is uttered by Jesus in any of the four gospels! Nor did Jesus use in a theological sense the word grace in Revelation even though Paul enthroned that word with such great importance. Thus, it can be truly said that grace theology, as Paul explained it, had no place in Jesus' teachings. In Jesus' teachings on salvation, we find forgiveness and justification were always based upon repentance from sin, turning to God in faith, and staying on the path of obedience, e.g., you had to thereafter forgive others. (<a name="marker=464588"></a>Parable of the Publican and Pharisee; <a name="marker=464589"></a>Parable of the Unmerciful Servant; <a name="marker=464590"></a>Parable of the Prodigal Son. See also, Mark 9:42-47.)</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464702"></a>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html-1.gif" /></div>
Conclusion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464591"></a>Thus, it is evident in Revelation, Jesus wants us to forget about Paul's overly simplistic teaching of God's grace. He wants us to get back to Jesus' own repentance-oriented and faith-plus-works message of grace. Paul starkly stands for the opposite message. We know this stark difference all too well. Paul's doctrine has been drumb-beated into our subconscious from a thousand sermons. We must stop this brainwashing and wake up to reality: Paul abandoned Jesus' teaching of the keys to the kingdom: repentance-from-sin, obedience, and appropriation of His atonement by submitting to Him as Lord. Paul's words insisted that the obvious messages from Jesus' parables and blunt lessons, if taken seriously, were heretical. Rather than insult Jesus with the label heretic, Paulinists declare all of Jesus' parables are too hard to interpret. If any parable or teaching is too plain, they either ignore it or twist it unreasonably so it fits their Pauline doctrine. If that will not work, they do like Luther did with Revelation -- he declared all the words of Jesus in Revelation are non-canonical. Calvin followed a similar approach -- he ignored the Book of Revelation, never once providing a commentary upon it. This approach is no longer tenable.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464592"></a>We must break free from this constant thumping on Paul's doctrine in our churches. It is time to return to what Jesus taught not only in His parables but also in the Book of Revelation.</p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464135"></a>See "Reformation Doubts About the Canonicity of Revelation" on page 9 of my article The Authenticity of the Book of Revelation available online at http://www.jesuswordsonly.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464159"></a>Clare G. Weakley, Jr.,<em> Why the Book of Revelation is Heresy</em> reprinted at http://www.christian-community.org/library/revelheresy.html (last visited 2005.) Dr. Weakley is a licensed Methodist minister with a Masters in Theology.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464170"></a><em>Judgment According to Our Works </em>(2003) available at http://www.captelco.qc.ca/churchofjesus/_disc1/00000154.htm (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464179"></a>Paulinists are loathe to admit this is synonymous with eternal life. The only other reference to the "crown of life" in the New Testament is in James. "Blessed is the man that endureth temptation; for when he hath been approved, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord promised to them that love him." (James 1:12.) This verse stands in contrast to Luke 8:13 where the seed "believes for a while" but in "time of temptation" falls away and is lost. This seed does not endure in obedience. Thus, James is holding up the fate of the fourth seed against the second seed. The crown of life must be eternal life. Gill and Henry claim James means eternal happiness, not life, while Jamieson admits James means eternal life by the term crown of life.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464201"></a>In Rev. 20:11-15, the final criterion for salvation is works. All are judged by works, without distinction. It is not merely wicked people who are judged by works. Rather, Jesus says the distinction at the judgment between the finaly saved and unsaved is based on works.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464269"></a><em>The Expositor's Bible Commentary</em> (1989), supra, Vol. VIII at 513.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464331"></a>Greek scholars admit that James' meaning is that faith without completed works cannot save, i.e., works are not merely a forensic proof of your already saved condition. James means works (besides faith) are indispensable for you to be saved. See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#31994"></a>et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464398"></a>On the significance that both groups call Jesus Lord, Paulinists deny it any significance. In doing so, they merely engage in ad hoc <a name="marker=464399"></a>denial that the lost were at one time Christians. They cite no adequate proof for this reading. The <em>Expositor's Bible Commentary</em>--an evangelical text--states: "There is no significance in the fact that the goats address him as Lord... for at this point there is no exception whatever to confessing Jesus as Lord." (Vol. 8, at 522.) What does this mean? The argument appears to be that this event occurs on judgment day when according to their interpretation of Paul everyone must confess Jesus as Lord. However, Paul never said this. It is a pure myth he did so, by amalgamating two disparate verses together. The first is <a name="marker=464400"></a>Philippians 2:11. Paul says God exalted Jesus so that "every tongue should confess Jesus is the Lord." Nothing is said about this actually occurring universally at the judgment seat. The second is <a name="marker=464401"></a>Romans 14:11-12 where Paul says God will examine each person at the judgment seat. There "every knee shall bow and every tongue shall confess to God. So that every one of us shall give account of himself to God." There confession of sins, not of Jesus, is in view. Some amalgamate the two verses to mean "every tongue shall confess Jesus is Lord" when "every tongue shall confess" at the judgment seat. Yet, the two verses cannot be combined without violence to the original context of each verse. Thus, the Expositor's is relying upon a commonly heard amalgamation of two distinct verses. This common axiom says every tongue must confess Jesus as Lord at the judgment seat. However, in relying upon this, the Expositor's is relying on a myth. There is no basis to suppose non-Christians are going to confess Jesus on judgment day. The truth is Jesus in the parable wants us to know not only that the sheep and the goats are both believers but also that mere belief does not seal your salvation.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464456"></a></p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464495"></a>http://onefortruth.blogspot.com/2005/09/sheep-and-goats-parable-or-prophecy.html (Ninjanun comment to 9-29-05 blog).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464517"></a>This is not necessarily a correct translation. The Greek word also means receive or share.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464520"></a>Calvin, <em>Institutes</em>, 20, 822 (III, xviii, 2) Calvin wrote: "even in these very passages [Matt 25:34-46 and Col. 3:23-24] where the Holy Spirit promises everlasting glory as a reward for works, [yet] by expressly terming it an `inheritance' he is showing that it comes to us from another source [than works]."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=465121"></a>Jesus spoke of those who did many miracles and prophecies in His name but worked anomia that He will tell them "I never knew you." (Matt. 7:23.) Paul refers to how this works: "if we endure, we shall also reign with him: if we shall deny him, he also will deny us." 2Ti 2:12 ASV. Obviously, in both Paul's and Jesus' statements, the people who are denied were one-time believers. They are true sons. Otherwise, how could they have done miracles and prophecies in Jesus' name? Paul likewise refers to a collective we which includes himself. How do these passages help explain the legal practice of that era to disinherit a son? In the earlier time of the Code of Hammurabi, a son who was disobedient was said to have "denied his father." <em>The Code of Hammurabi</em> (2500 BC) (Translated by L. W. King)(With commentary from Charles F. Horne, Ph.D. (1915), reprinted at http://www.ancienttexts.org/library/mesopotamian/hammurabi.html. It does not take much deduction to realize that parents under the Law given Moses who were compelled by Deut. 21:18-21 to put their son to death for wilful disobedience would rather accept the legal fiction of denying they ever knew their son rather than see their son killed. This declaration would spare his earthly life, but cut off his inheritance. Thus, both Paul and Jesus are referring to giving warnings of disinheritance of eternal life based on disobedience/anomia. (Incidentally, Paul in 2 Tim. 2:13 then undermines his own warning, which Charles Stanley has accepted as more true.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464532"></a>Bob Wilkin, <em>Has This Passage Ever Bothered You? Matthew 25:31-46 - Works Salvation?</em> http://www.faithalone.org/news/y1988/88march1.html (last accessed 11/05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464867"></a>What is it about Colossians 3:23-24 which many believe implies salvation by faith plus works? Paul writes: "And whatsoever ye do, do it heartily, as to the Lord, and not unto men; Knowing that of the Lord ye shall receive the reward of the inheritance: for ye serve the Lord Christ. But he that doeth wrong shall receive for the wrong which he hath done: and there is no respect of persons." (Col 3:23-25) Unless parsed narrowly, this tells someone who is serving Christ that any wrong they do "shall receive for the wrong which he had done"and emphasizes you are not given any different escape than non-Christians. God has "no respect of persons." Matthew Henry sees this meaning: "There is a righteous God, who, if servants wrong their masters, will reckon with them for it, though they may conceal it from their master's notice. And he will be sure to punish the unjust as well as reward the faithful servant." The "no respect of persons" is also explained by Matthew Henry who states: "The righteous Judge of the earth will be impartial, and carry it with an equal hand...not swayed by any regard to men's outward circumstances and condition of life. The one and the other will stand upon a [single] level at his tribunal."</p>
</div>
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<div>
<div>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464443"></a>Thus, we see <a name="marker=464441"></a>Matthew 25:30-46--the <a name="marker=464442"></a>Parable of the Sheep and the Goats--is identical in message and content to <a name="marker=464444"></a>James 2:14-17. It resolves any doubt that James' mention of works was to merely prove you have faith. The parable prevents any attempt to say we are seen as righteous by God by faith alone without having to do any of the crucial deeds of <a name="marker=464445"></a>Matthew 25:30-46. Good intentions to one day have such works is not enough. (This was also the point of the Parable of the Ten Virgins.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464446"></a>In response to such clarity, Paulinists attempt to marginalize Jesus and James. Their goal is simply to save Paul. They say James is merely a forensic test of works to show an inward completely-sufficient reality. Paulinists claim James really means that works only prove we are already saved. However, James makes it just as clear as Jesus'<a name="marker=464447"></a>parable that faith alone without these identical deeds of charity does not save. Works are part of the salvation formula, not a forensic proof of an earlier salvation that was permanently sufficient without adding charitable works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464762"></a>Thus, face the fact even as Luther did: James contradicts Paul. (   ) And thus so does <a name="marker=464448"></a>Jesus contradict Paul in the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464449"></a>What makes the contradiction by James of Paul intentional and self-evident is James goes on to say faith plus deeds justifies. And yes, James uses the same Greek word Paul uses for justifies. James also uses the very same figure, <a name="marker=464450"></a>Abraham, as Paul does, to give this lesson.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%209html.html#pgfId=464456"> 9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465288"></a>Thus, it is false to teach that we "prove" we are saved through faith by works of charity, but we could still be saved by faith and be derelict in works of charity. Rather, we are saved by (among other things) doing <a name="marker=465289"></a>works of charity to complete our <a name="marker=465290"></a>faith. That is how <a name="marker=465291"></a>Jesus and James wanted us to see the risk and the requirement. Works of charity are not optional, nor mere proof of faith. Faith alone does not save. James says it is "faith... working with [our] works" (synergei tois ergois) that saves us. (See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#21353"></a>.) Those works are dependent on our prayer relationship to Jesus (John 15:1-6), but they are not thereby no longer our personal responsibility.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Seven: Why Does Jesus Mention Balaam in Rev. 2:14?</h2>
<p><strong><strong>How Jesus' Reference to Balaam Applies to Paul</strong></strong></p>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464095"></a>If we dig a little deeper into the eating of idol-meat issue, we find Jesus mentions<span> </span><a name="marker=464096"></a>Balaam in<span> </span><a name="marker=464097"></a>Revelation 2:14.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464100"><span> </span>1</a><span> </span>Jesus says the source of this heretical idol meat doctrine is a "teaching of Balaam." Jesus says Balaam taught one can eat meat sacrificed to idols, among other things. Why is Jesus mentioning Balaam, a figure from the era of Moses? Evidently because Balaam is a figure who resembles the one who in the New Testament era teaches eating meat sacrificed to idols is permissible.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464101"></a>What do we know about Balaam that would help us identify who was the Balaam-type figure in the New Testament church?</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464102"></a>The Biblical story of Balaam in the book of Numbers does not reveal the precise nature of the teachings of Balaam. Jesus alone tells us that<span> </span><a name="marker=464103"></a>Balaam taught the Israelites they could eat meat sacrificed to idols and commit fornication. (Rev. 2:14.) Thus, with these additional facts, let's make a synopsis of the story of Balaam. Then we can see whether anyone appears similar in the New Testament era.</p>
<ul>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464104"></a>Balaam was a Prophet in the Hebrew Scriptures who was changed from an enemy to a friend by an angelic vision on a Road.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464105"></a>Balaam, after properly serving the Lord for a time, changed back into being an enemy.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464106"></a>This inspired prophet is deemed to be an enemy of God because he taught it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols and to commit fornication. This part of the story was omitted in Moses' account. Jesus alone reveals this.</li>
</ul>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464107"></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464108"></a>Who else is a prophet of God who was changed from an enemy to a friend by an angelic-type vision on a Road, but then later taught it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols? Who likewise taught an act of fornication condemned by Jesus (<em>i.e.,</em> remarriage after divorce if certain circumstances were lacking) was perfectly permissible? (See<span> page 138.)<br /></span></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><span></span> Who likewise is interpreted by most Paulinists as saying fornication is no longer strictly prohibited and no longer leads to spiritual death but instead the propriety of fornication is examined solely based on its expediency? On those key points, we shall see in this chapter that Balaam identically matches Paul.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464109"></a>Jesus is putting a thin veil over the fact He is talking about Paul. Jesus reveals His purpose by referring to Balaam in Revelation 2:14.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464110"></a>By citing the example of Balaam, Jesus reminds us that a true<span> </span><a name="marker=464111"></a>prophet who is turned from evil to good then could turn back and completely apostasize. Jesus' citation to Balaam in this context destroys our assumptions that Paul could never apostasize. By referencing Balaam, Jesus is telling us, at the very least, that Paul could turn and apostasize after his Road to Damascus experience. Paul could be just like Balaam who did so after his Road to Moab experience.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong>Is Revelation 2:14 A Type of Parable?</strong></p>
</div>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464113"></a>Did Jesus mention the "teaching of Balaam" as a parable to identify Paul?</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464115"></a>It appears<span> </span><a name="marker=464114"></a>Revelation 2:14 is a type of parable. Jesus identifies the false teaching as the "teaching of Balaam." Yet Balaam is dead. Someone in the apostolic era is like Balaam. To know whom Jesus meant, one has to find someone who matches Balaam's historically-known qualities.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464116"></a>Furthermore, we have a second reason to believe a parable is intended in Revelation 2:14. At the end of Revelation chapter 2, Jesus says: "He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith to the churches." (<a name="marker=464117"></a>Rev. 2:29.) This is Jesus' standard catch-phrase when He wanted you to know there are symbolic meanings in His words.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464118"></a>Let's next try to identify who was the Balaam-like figure in the New Testament apostolic era by studying the life of the original Balaam.</p>
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<h1 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading1"><a name="34682"></a>Balaam Was Changed to A True Prophet By A Vision on A Road</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464122"></a>In the book of Numbers (written by Moses),<span> </span><a name="marker=464121"></a>Balaam begins as a soothsayer intent on accepting money from Moab's King Balak. He was offered payment to travel to Moab to curse Israel. As such, he begins as an enemy of the true God.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a>God then appeared to Balaam and told him not to curse Israel. (<a name="marker=464124"></a>Numbers 22:5-12.) King Balak then called on Balaam again to come to Moab. However, God appeared to Balaam and allowed him to go on condition Balaam did only what the Lord told him to do. (Numbers 22:20.) Apparently after starting on his trip, Balaam decided to still curse Israel. On route to Moab, Balaam (on a donkey) and his two companions are stopped on a road by an unseen angel of the Lord. (Some commentators think Numbers 22:35 proves this was actually Jesus, the "eternal" angel of His presence--Gill.) Then the famous incident takes place where Balaam's donkey talks back to him. The donkey complains that Balaam is goading him by smiting him with his staff: "What have I done unto thee, that thou hast smitten me these three times?" (<a name="marker=464125"></a>Numbers 22:28.) At first Balaam cannot see the angel which is blocking the donkey. (<a name="marker=464126"></a>Numbers 22:25-27.) Balaam is in a sense blinded. However, then God "opened the eyes of Balaam" and he could see the angel. (Numbers 22:31-33.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>Balaam then confesses to the angel that he sinned. (<a name="marker=464128"></a>Numbers 22:34.) He offers to go home. The angel tells Balaam to continue onto Moab, but repeats the command that Balaam must only bless the Israelites. (Numbers 22:35.) Then Balaam proceeded to Moab. (Numbers 22:36.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464129"></a>Next when Balaam arrived in Moab, he warned King Balak that he could only do what the Lord allowed him to say. (<a name="marker=464130"></a>Numbers 22:36-38.) Balaam's famous oracles of blessings over Israel then followed. (Numbers 23:1-29.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464131"></a>While giving the blessing, God through Moses says<span> </span><a name="marker=464132"></a>Balaam was directly led by the Holy Spirit. Balaam simultaneously turned away from his prior practice of using omens.<span> </span><a name="marker=464133"></a>Moses writes in Numbers 24:1-2:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464134"></a>(1) And when Balaam saw that it pleased Jehovah to bless Israel, he went not, as at the other times, to meet with enchantments, but he set his face toward the wilderness. (2) And Balaam lifted up his eyes, and he saw Israel dwelling according to their tribes; and the Spirit of God came upon him. [Then Balaam blesses Israel.]</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464136"></a>Thus<span> </span><a name="marker=464135"></a>Balaam had become a true prophet whom Moses reveals was having true communications from Yahweh God. Balaam is indwelt by the Holy Spirit and repeats precisely what God wants him to say. God wants us to know through Moses that Balaam begins as a truly inspired prophet of God Almighty. The last we see of Balaam in action, he is acting as a good prophet. His words of blessings end up as part of standard synagogue services to this very day, known as the Mah Tovu.</p>
<div>
<h2 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464138"></a><a name="28272"></a>How Balaam Fell: His Idol Meat &amp; Fornication Teaching</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464139"></a>Then something negative happens that Moses only cryptically revealed. In<span> </span><a name="marker=464140"></a>Numbers 31:16, Moses writes: "Behold, these caused the children of Israel, through the counsel of Balaam, to commit trespass against Jehovah in the matter of Peor, and so the plague was among the congregation of Jehovah."<span> </span><a name="marker=464141"></a>Balaam had counseled the Israelites that they could sin in some unspecified manner. This cryptic statement is the only explanation why later in Numbers 31:8 that the Israelites, during their slaying of the Midianites, also kill Balaam.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464142"></a>Rabbinic tradition tries to fill in the missing information. It attributed to Balaam the lapse of Israel into the immorality we find in Numbers 25:1-9.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464145"><span> </span>2</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464146"></a>Jesus, however, gives us an inspired message on what was missing in the Biblical account. Jesus says<span> </span><a name="marker=464147"></a>Balaam misled the Israelites by teaching them they can eat meat sacrificed to idols and they can commit fornication. Jesus is the only inspired source of this information. Jesus says:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464148"></a>But I have a few things against thee, because thou hast there some that hold the teaching of Balaam, who taught Balak to cast a stumblingblock before the children of Israel, to eat things sacrificed to idols, and to commit fornication. (Rev. 2:14, ASV.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a>The Rabbinic tradition in Judaism supports what Jesus said, but only in general terms.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong>So Who is Balaam in the New Testament Era?</strong></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a>The prophet Balaam was a person whose life mirrors apostle Paul's life to an extraordinary degree. Absent Jesus telling us that Balaam taught it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols, we would never have known how virtually identical are the two lives. Yet when Jesus filled in the<span> </span><a name="marker=464152"></a>missing detail, it made the parallel between Balaam and Paul become extraordinarily uncanny.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a>In particular, Balaam's Road to Moab experience has many striking<span> </span><a name="marker=464154"></a>parallels to Paul's Road to Damascus experience. In fact, how it affects both Paul and Balaam is identical.<span> </span><a name="marker=464155"></a>Balaam is on his road with the wrong intent to curse God's people. This is true for Paul too, aiming to imprison God's people. (Acts 22:5.) Balaam is on the road with two companions. Paul likewise has companions with him. (Acts 22:9.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a>Next, Balaam is given a message by the angel that converts his way to the true God. Gill even says this `angel' is the "eternal angel" (non-created) of the Lord's presence--Jesus--because of the unique wording of Numbers 22:35. Likewise, Paul gets a message from Jesus that converts his way to the true God. (Acts 22:8.) Both Balaam and Paul follow God for a time. Both apostasize when they teach it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a>There is another odd parallel between Balaam and Paul. After Balaam strikes his donkey to make him move, Balaam's<span> </span><a name="marker=464158"></a>donkey asks: "What have I done unto thee, that thou hast smitten me these three times?" (Numbers 22:28.) The donkey in effect asks Why are you persecuting me? Balaam then learns that an angel of God was itself stopping the donkey from moving. Balaam learns it is hard for the donkey to keep on kicking (moving ahead) against the goads of God's angel. It is hard to keep on kicking against divine goads.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464159"></a>Now compare this to Paul and his vision. Paul is likewise confronted by Jesus with a similar question: "Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me?" (Acts 22:7.) And most telling, Jesus adds in the "Hebrew" tongue: "it is hard for thee to kick against the goad." (Acts 26:14.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464160"></a>When Jesus spoke to Paul on the road in the Book of Acts, He was speaking in a manner that would allow us to invoke the memory of the story of Balaam. In Acts, Jesus laid the seeds for us to later identify Paul as the apostolic era Balaam. To repeat, first Jesus asks Paul why Paul is persecuting Jesus. The donkey asked Balaam the same question. He asked why was Balaam persecuting him. Second, Jesus said to Paul that it is hard for Paul to keep moving forward against God's goads. Likewise, Balaam's donkey was up against the goads of God's angel. Jesus' words in the vision experience with Paul were well chosen to invoke a precise<a name="marker=464161"></a>parallel to the story of Balaam. Thus, we could never miss the point in Revelation 2:14. We thereby could identify the NT Balaam.</p>
<div>
<h2 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464162"></a>What Does It all Mean?</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a>Paulinists apparently sense a problem if Balaam's story were ever told in detail. They always identify Balaam as merely a false teacher or someone who prophesied for money. But this misses Jesus' point.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a>Balaam is precisely the example, unique in Hebrew Scriptures, of an enemy converted by a vision on a road, turned into a true spokesperson of God, but who later apostasizes by saying it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. Balaam precisely matches Paul in an uncanny way despite millennia separating them.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a>Thus, in Paul's vision experience, God laid the groundwork for a comparison to events two millennia earlier. What an amazing God we have! Jesus specifically made sure the encounter with Paul would have all the<span> </span><a name="marker=464166"></a>earmarks of the Balaam encounter:<strong><a name="pgfId=464387"></a></strong></p>
<div>
<ul>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a>It would be on a road.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a>There would be a divine vision.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a>Jesus would ask why is Paul persecuting Him.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464170"></a>Jesus would let Paul know it is hard to go up against the goads of God.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464171"></a>The experience would turn Paul around to be a true spokesperson of God for a time.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464172"></a>Finally, Paul would fall like Balaam did by teaching it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols.</li>
</ul>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464173"></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464174"></a>Of course, to understand this, you have to have ears to hear. (<a name="marker=464175"></a>Rev. 2:29.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a>In other words, God set in motion what happened on the Road to Moab, just as He did on the Road to Damascus. Paul apparently indeed had the experience he claims. That's why Jesus could cite the teaching of Balaam as repeating itself in the apostolic era. Yet, to cement the similarity, Jesus had to give us a crucial new<span> </span><a name="marker=464177"></a>similarity between Balaam and Paul. By disclosing Balaam's idol meat teaching, Jesus in Revelation 2:14 suddenly made appear an extraordinary parallel between Paul and Balaam that otherwise remained hidden.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464178"></a>Just as Jesus said Elijah was John the Baptist, "if you are willing to receive it" (Matt. 11:14), Jesus is saying the teaching of Balaam that deceives Christians is the teaching of Paul, "if you are willing to receive it."</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong><a name="10036"></a>What About Permission to Commit Fornication?</strong></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
</div>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464182"></a>Jesus in<span> </span><a name="marker=464180"></a>Revelation 2:14 says the<span> </span><a name="marker=464181"></a>Balaam of the apostolic era also taught Christians that it is permissible "to commit fornication."</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464184"></a><a name="marker=464183"></a>In the Hebrew Scripture, the word fornication meant primarily adultery. In English, it has evolved into almost exclusively the meaning of unwed sexual intercourse. The reason for this change in meaning is because Paul used the synonym for this word in 1 Corinthians 7:2 apparently to mean unwed sexual intercourse.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464408"><span> </span>3</a><span> </span>However, in the Hebrew, fornication's meaning differs from our own usage.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464543"></a>Brown-Driver-Brigg's <em>Hebrew Dictionary</em> defines the contexts for fornication (Hebrew zanah) as:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464187"></a>1a1) to be a harlot, act as a harlot.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464188"></a>1a2) to commit adultery</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464189"></a>1a3) to be a cult prostitute</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464190"></a>1a4) to be unfaithful (to God)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464191"></a>Thus, fornication in Hebrew is synonymous with adultery. (Out of this arises metaphorical meanings such as 1a1, 1a3 and 1a4 above.) In turn, adultery was sex with another man's wife. (Lev. 20:10.) There is no concept within zanah of `to have sex among unwed partners.' One can also see in context of Matthew 5:32 that the Greek word for fornication, as Jesus intended it, had to have the underlying Hebrew meaning of only adultery. Jesus says you can only put your wife away if she committed zanah, translated in Greek as fornication but which must mean she committed adultery. Thus, because the word fornication in Hebrew here did not mean sexual relations among unwed people which meaning mismatches the context, we know Jesus' original spoken language only meant adultery. This then was innocently translated as fornication but is too broad in meaning.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464192"></a>So if we rely upon the primary Hebrew meaning of the word fornication--adultery, let's ask whether Paul ever permitted an act of adultery which Jesus specifically prohibited? The answer is yes. It is a most disturbing contradiction.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464194"></a>This involves<span> </span><a name="marker=464193"></a>Paul's statement on remarriage. Paul says a wife whose "unbelieving [husband] leaves (chorizo)"<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464473"><span> </span>4</a><span> </span>her is "not under bondage." (<a name="marker=464195"></a>1 Cor. 7:15.) No divorce certificate was issued, yet she is not under bondage to her departing husband. Almost every commentator agrees the context means she is free to remarry without committing adultery. (Calvin, Clarke, Gill, etc.) Yet, as Paul describes the situation, the Christian woman was not abandoned because she committed adultery. Nor had she received a certificate of divorce.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464196"></a>However, Jesus said in the Greek version of Matthew 5:32 the husband who unjustifiably leaves the wife "causes her to commit adultery" if she remarries. In the Hebrew version of the same verse, Jesus says instead that a husband who leaves a wife without giving a certificate of divorce causes the wife, if she remarries, to commit adultery.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464423"><span> </span>5</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a>Whether you accept the Greek or Hebrew version of Matthew, Paul says the Christian woman who both was unjustifiably abandoned and abandoned without a divorce certificate does not commit adultery by remarrying. However, Jesus says she<span> </span><a name="marker=464203"></a>absolutely does commit adultery under either of those circumstances. Since adultery is synonymous with fornication in Jesus' original vernacular, Paul permits the very act of fornication which Jesus prohibits.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464204"></a>Incidentally, if the Greek text were correct, Jesus would be resolving a dispute under the divorce Law on what unseemly thing was necessary to justify a bill of divorce.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464452"><span> </span>6</a><span> </span>Yet, if the Hebrew version of Matthew 5:32 were correct, Jesus was re-invigorating the requirement of using a bill of divorce, which apparently had fallen into disuse. Men apparently were abandoning their wives and simply remarrying with impunity. Whether the Greek or Hebrew text is correct, Jesus was reinvigorating the Law of Moses, and as Campenhausen explains, Jesus "reaffirmed" it.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464210"><span> </span>7</a><span> </span>(For more on the fact that Matthew was originally written in Hebrew and then translated into Greek, see<span> </span>of Appendix B.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464492"></a>Regardless, what remains the problem is that under either text tradition, Paul permits the very act of fornication/adultery that Jesus prohibits.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong>What About Paul's Anti-Fornication Statements?</strong></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
</div>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464212"></a>If we ignore the prior example, could Paul ever possibly be faulted for permitting fornication? Didn't Paul oppose fornication, as he says in<span> </span><a name="marker=464213"></a>Galatians 5:19 that those who "practice fornication" shall not "inherit the kingdom of God"?<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464216"><span> </span>8</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464223"></a>Yes, Revelation 2:14 still could apply to Paul. First, most Paulinist commentators dispute Paul means to threaten Christians in Galatians 5:19. (Clarke, Barnes, Gill.) Because of Paul's other teachings of eternal security, these commentators claim Galatians 5:19 means only unsaved persons who engage in fornication are threatened with exclusion. Thus, they contend Galatians 5:19 is not a message to Christians. Hence this verse does not prove what Paul taught Christians about the consequences of fornication.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464224"></a>However, this view is unsatisfactory because clearly Paul's warning in Galatians 5:19 is intended for Christians. The Book of Galatians is addressed to genuine believers (Gal 1:8-9). In Galatians 5:13, Paul refers to those addressed in Galatians 5:13-26 as brethren. Furthermore, in Galatians 6:1, Paul again refers to those being warned as brethren.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464225"></a>This has led other Paulinists to admit that Paul is warning Christians in<span> </span><a name="marker=464226"></a>Galatians 5:19-21. However, they still have a response that permits a Christian to commit fornication without losing their inheritance in heaven. They claim Paul means that fornicating Christians (a) only are at risk if they practice fornication and (b) if so, they only risk losing a reward (i.e., sharing ruling authority in heaven.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464227"></a>They point to Paul's use of the term "practice" in Gal. 5:21. They insist<span> </span><a name="marker=464228"></a>Paul means that occasional fornication by a Christian is permissible.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464232"><span> </span>9</a><span> </span>Paul's words are "they who practice such things [<em>e.g.</em>, fornication] shall not inherit the kingdom of God."<span> </span><a name="marker=464233"></a>Paul's threat does not intend to warn a Christian who engages in occasional fornication that they should fear the loss of salvation.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464236"><span> </span>10</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464238"></a><a name="marker=464237"></a><a name="35911"></a>John MacArthur is a major voice of modern evangelical Christianity. His position reflects this.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464240"></a><a name="35599"></a>Some people wonder if that verse means a Christian can lose his salvation if he has ever done any of those things. Although the Authorized Version says `they who do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God,' the Greek word for do is prasso, which means `to practice.' It is a verb that speaks of habitual practice rather than occasional doing. Thus, the verse refers to those who habitually practice such things as an expression of their characters. The word of God bases its evaluation of a person's character not on his infrequent actions, but on his habitual actions, for they demonstrate his true character. The people who habitually perform the works of the flesh will not inherit the Kingdom because they are not God's people.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464241"></a>Some Christians may do some of those things infrequently, but that doesn't mean they will forfeit the full salvation of the Kingdom of God. Rather they will receive divine discipline now and forfeit some of their heavenly rewards.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464244"><span> </span>11</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464245"></a>MacArthur thus concedes Paul's threat in Galatians 5:19 is only for a person who practices fornication. MacArthur says a true Christian will never practice this, and thus is never threatened actually with loss of salvation. A true Christian at most will occasionally commit fornication. The Christian who does so has an eternal destiny as safe and secure as the Christian who resists all acts of fornication.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a>In the quote above, MacArthur then adds to Paul's words to make Paul appear to say fornication is not entirely permissible for a Christian. Paul does not ever say anything anywhere about Christian fornicators receiving divine disciple. That is John MacArthur's hopeful addition.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464247"></a>Putting this unfounded addition to one side, what is still clear is MacArthur admits Paul does not intend to alarm Christians who "infrequently" commit fornication that they have anything serious to concern themselves about. Paul's warning in<span> </span><a name="marker=464248"></a>Galatians 5:19 does not apply to warn a Christian who occasionally fornicates. Thus, MacArthur can reassure such Christians that heaven awaits them despite committing unrepentant occasional fornication. MacArthur says God would never condemn you for occasional fornication, citing Paul's words in Galatians 5:21.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464249"></a>Furthermore, Dillow insists that even if a Christian practices fornication, Paul does not mean to threaten anything more than loss of rewards. Dillow argues that Galatians 5:19 and the comparable 1 Corinthians 6:9 mean by threatening the loss of an inheritance of the kingdom to threaten only a loss of rewards. The argument is a forced-one, stretching over chapters 3-5 of Dillow, <em>Reign of the Servant Kings</em>. Yet, if this is how Paulinists construe Paul to keep him squared with his faith-alone doctrine, then I can rely upon Dillow to conclude Paul never puts a serious threat over the Christian who practices fornication. And when I combine MacArthur's distinction with Dillow's views, I can say Paul never threatens at all a Christian who occasionally commits fornication.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong>Paul Is Boldly Claimed To Teach Fornication Is Permissible</strong></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
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<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464251"></a>Now that we see how Paulinists dismiss the threats in Galatians 5:19-21, it should come as no surprise that mainstream Christians declare Paul says a Christian can commit fornication, not repent, and expect to be saved. Galatians 5:19-21 never enters their analysis.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464252"></a>They argue strenuously that Paul permits fornication, apparently to make their point more blatant about Paul's doctrine of grace. To prove Paul permits fornication, they rely upon three independent proofs.</p>
<div>
<h2 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a>1. Paul's Says Fornication is Permissible But It Might Be Unprofitable</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>First, Paulinists say Paul declared the Law abolished, and that in its place the new criteria is: "all things are lawful but not all things are expedient" (<a name="marker=464255"></a>1 Cor. 6:12).<span> </span><a name="marker=464256"></a>Paul thereby implied it was permissible you could commit fornication. The test is expediency; it is no longer whether it is absolutely prohibited.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464258"></a>This reasoning is bluntly stated by<span> </span><a name="marker=464257"></a>Bob George. Mr. George is an author of numerous mainstream theological books on eternal security. Over the past several years, he has been a national radio talk host whose daily topic is often eternal security. You have been able to hear him on the radio in Los Angeles every week day. He bluntly said in a 1993 broadcast that Paul says it is permissible to commit fornication:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>And as Paul said, `All things are permissible, but not all things are profitable.' So is committing fornication permissible? YES. Is it profitable? No, it isn't.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464262"><span> </span>12</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a>George is not alone.<span> </span><a name="marker=464263"></a>John MacArthur, a giant of modern evangelical Christianity, says the same thing. In addressing whether fornication is permissible in the article quoted on page 43<span></span>, MacArthur never once cites any absolute prohibition on acts of fornication from the Hebrew Scriptures. Instead, he quotes Paul's axiom "all things are lawful...." Then MacArthur tries to prove fornication is not expedient. Fornication harms you, it enslaves you, etc. He tries to squeeze out a negative answer using<span> </span><a name="marker=464265"></a>Paul's principle, "All things are permissible, but not all things are profitable."<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464268"><span> </span>13</a><span> </span>Thus, the starting point is that fornication is not wrong per se. You have to look at its expediency, i.e., its costs versus its benefits. Then if the costs outweigh the benefits, it is wrong.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464270"></a>Thus, George and MacArthur reflect<span> </span><a name="marker=464269"></a>Paul's paradigm shift. The Law is gone. In its place a new analysis is applied. Under it, fornication is permissible but not necessarily profitable. A strong case can be made about its unhealthy results, etc. Therefore George and MacArthur say `don't do it.' This is an<a name="marker=464271"></a>antinomian (anti-Law) shift away from simply knowing that the Law says it is wrong. In its place, we now have a cost-benefit analysis whether fornication works for you.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464272"></a>Under Paul's balancing test, we can see the result just as easily could be that fornication is more beneficial for me. As long as the guilt from violating the Law is erased, then I do no wrong if I think "fornication" works for me. As long as I applied a cost-benefit analysis of what is more expedient, and I reasonably justify it, it is no sin. For example, if I love someone and commit "fornication" with her, and it suits our mutual needs to ignore the legalities of the situation, then in a very cogent way, I have justified fornication in a manner that passes the cost-benefit analysis Paul offers. "All things are lawful" and in this scenario it is more "expedient" to not be hyper-technical about our behavior.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464273"></a>This example raises the dilemma the church faces today: it desperately wants to give a cost-benefit analysis for this scenario to steer people away from such fornication because Paul removed the ability to cite the Law itself as reason enough. Consequently, the modern Pauline-Christian analysis of right-and-wrong starts from "all things are permissible," including fornication. Then by applying the costs versus the benefits test, their analysis tries to steer people to an outcome parallel to the Law.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464685"></a>Thus, clearly Paul's saying all things are permissible includes fornication. It is only to be abandoned if the costs outweigh the benefits. However, there are going to be times where the benefits of fornication will outweigh the costs. That is why Paul is still the leading candidate to be the Balaam figure of the New Testament era mentioned in Revelation 2:14.</p>
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<div>
<h2 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464275"></a>2. Paul's Doctrine of Grace Means Fornication is Permissible</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464277"></a>Other Paulinists defend that Paul teaches<span> </span><a name="marker=464276"></a>fornication is permissible with no significant penalty for a Christian on another ground. This is Paul's doctrine of grace. All your future acts of fornication are already forgiven when you became a Christian, they insist. Such a sin might cause the loss of rewards, but there is no loss of something you cannot afford to lose.<span> </span><a name="marker=464278"></a>Luther defends this idea:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464279"></a>[N]o sin will separate us from the Lamb, even though we commit fornication and murder a thousand times a day.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464282"><span> </span>14</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464289"></a>Zane Hodges, a leading evangelical writer, similarly says:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464290"></a>Paul does not say...his readers should question their salvation if they become involved in sexual impurity.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464293"><span> </span><sup>15</sup></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464294"></a>Unless these mainstream writers are wrong, Paul is teaching a grace that permits<span> </span><a name="marker=464295"></a>sexual immorality with no serious loss. At least there is no penalty.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464296"></a>What about loss of rewards? Paul never says expressly you lose a reward for fornication. But assuming he did say this, if anyone loses a reward that does not affect salvation, it is certainly not a penalty. It is not even a set back. You simply do not move ahead. In fact, you will have eternity to overcome the loss of initial rewards. It is no problem at all. How many would not trade a few lost rewards you can live without to take today the delectable pleasures of fornication?</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464297"></a>In sum, Paul's grace doctrines are read to permit fornication with no serious consequence or penalties. This second proof reconfirms that<span> </span><a name="marker=464298"></a>Revelation 2:14 is Jesus' direct identification of Paul as the one bringing the "teaching of Balaam."</p>
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<h2 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464299"></a>3. The Sexually Immoral Man in 1 Cor. 5 Was Never Lost</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a>As the third and final proof that Paul says fornication is permissible, Paulinists actually cite 1 Corinthians 5:5. They insist this passage proves that a sexually immoral Christian is never at risk of<span> </span><a name="marker=464301"></a>losing salvation.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464302"></a>In that passage, Paul deals with a sexually immoral member of the Corinthian church who lives with his father's wife, his step-mother. If the father is alive, this is incest. Paul decrees: "deliver such a one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus." (<a name="marker=464303"></a>1 Cor. 5:5.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464306"></a><a name="marker=464304"></a><a name="marker=464305"></a>Dillow contends Paul ordered the man was to be expelled and then killed. Paul's wording therefore proves that if the man were killed in his unrepentant state that Paul meant this carnal Christian was still saved. Dillow, whose book is now treated as required reading at many evangelical seminaries, explains:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464307"></a>An extreme example of the `consistently carnal Christian' seems to be found in 1 Cor. 5:5....Paul hands this carnal Christian over to physical death, but he notes that he will be saved at the day of the Lord Jesus.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464310"><span> </span><sup>16</sup></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464311"></a>Thus, Dillow means that Paul wants the man killed immediately. (Paul's conduct shows disregard for the civil rights protected in the Law of the accused.)<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464314"><span> </span><sup>17</sup></a><span> </span>Dillow understands Paul's other words as assuring us that the man's death in this situation means the man will enjoy salvation despite his unrepentant and consistent sin. Thus, this verse proves eternal security, Dillow claims.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464317"></a>Dillow is not an aberrant view of this passage. The mainstream idea of once saved always saved boldly proclaims this passage teaches a Christian is free to commit repetitive unrepentant fornication without the slightest threat to their salvation.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464318"></a>The man who had `his father's wife'--a terrible sin--didn't lose his salvation thereby. (Dave Hunt.)<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464321"><span> </span><sup>18</sup></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464322"></a>Some have regarded 1 Corinthians 5:5 as the strongest verse in the Bible for once saved, always saved and I would not disagree. (R.T. Kendall, <em>Once Saved Always Saved</em> (Chicago: Moody Press, 1985) at 156.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464323"></a>In spite of the sin of fornication, Paul still regarded the person as a saved man. (Gromacki, <em>Salvation is Forever</em> (Chicago: Moody Press, 1976) at 138.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464324"></a>If Dillow and these writers are correct (and they are accepted as correct by mainstream evangelical Christianity which Moody Press typifies), then Paul taught a carnal sexually immoral and unrepentant fornicating Christian has nothing significant to lose. Paul is supposedly saying a Christian can commit even incest with his step-mother and be<span> </span><a name="marker=464325"></a>saved all the while. Thus, of course, the same must be true of "consistently unrepentant fornicating Christians."</p>
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<div>
<h2 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464326"></a>Recap: How Mainstream Christianity Proves Paul Teaches A Christian May Fornicate</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464327"></a>Accordingly, mainstream Christianity offers several proofs that Paul teaches it is<a name="marker=464328"></a>permissible for a Christian to commit fornication although it may not be expedient:</p>
<ul>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464329"></a>The Law is abrogated.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464330"></a>If one said fornic ation were strictly impermissible, that is not only Legalism, but also it implies a works-salvation.</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464331"></a>Paul only warns loss of rewards in Galatians 5:19 if a Christian practices fornication. (Dillow.) Thus, no rewards nor salvation are lost for occasional fornication; and</li>
<li style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464332"></a>Paul's language in 1 Corinthians 5:5 implies consistent acts of unrepentant incest do not even threaten loss of salvation, so practicing unrepentant fornication cannot possibly pose such a threat.</li>
</ul>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h1 style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Heading1">Why Paul Must Be The Figure Who Permitted Fornication</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464335"></a>Consequently, Paul permitted an act of adultery that Jesus prohibited. Paul permitted a Christian woman who was unjustly abandoned without a divorce certificate to remarry. However, Jesus said absent there being grounds she committed adultery and/or a certificate, if she remarried, she committed adultery. Paul thus permitted fornication in the sense that Jesus was condemning fornication in Revelation 2:14. Paul's doctrine on remarriage and fornication evoked Jesus' harsh response in Revelation 2:14.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464336"></a>Furthermore, if we look to verses where Paul uses the term fornication (where he usually means unwed sex), mainstream Christianity today teaches Paul's other lessons mean either (1) fornication is clearly occasionally permissible for a Christian with not even loss of rewards or (2) if the fornication is repetitive and unrepentant, it poses no threat to a Christian's salvation, citing 1 Corinthians 5:5. In either case, fornication is subject only to the expediency test. This has opened the doors to all kinds of immorality condemned in the Law of Moses. In fact, if we cite the Law and we insist salvation must be threatened if you commit sexual sins because of Jesus' words in Mark 9:42-47 (better heaven maimed than hell whole), we are labelled a heretic. We are seen as undermining Paul's doctrine of salvation by faith without works.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464337"></a>Thus, the Paulinist spin on Galatians 5:19 as threatening loss of rewards, not salvation, for practicing fornication (Dillow) is the only rational view that squares Paul with Paul. If you disagree, and you claim Paul means to threaten a Christian with losing salvation (and thus he teaches what Jesus teaches in Mark 9:42-47), Stanley accuses you of being a dangerous heretic attacking the core of Christianity:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464338"></a>The very gospel [i.e., of Paul] itself comes under attack when the eternal security of the believer is questioned.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464341"><span> </span><sup>19</sup></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464342"></a>Consequently, if Paulinists have won the day that Galatians 5:19 does not teach any loss of salvation for an occasionally or repetitiously fornicating Christian, no one can cite Galatians 5:19 to prove Paul `prohibited' fornication either for such a Christian. If Paulinists also construe it as permitting occasional fornication by a Christian with no threat (as most do), I then can cite this verse to prove Paul at minimum permits occasional fornication by a Christian with no negative consequences whatsoever, not even loss of rewards! Such a limited loss of rewards is only reserved for those who practice fornication!</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464344"></a>This brings us right back to our conclusion that<span> </span><a name="marker=464343"></a>Revelation 2:14 is talking about Paul. He injected a moral ambiguity into Christianity by abrogation of the Law. He changed Biblical morality into the principle "all things are permissible, but not all things are expedient." Paul implied in 1 Corinthians 5:5 that the member who engaged in a persistent and unrepentant incest relationship was still saved. This led others such as Luther to conclude Paul taught a Christian was permitted to commit fornication. While it might not be always expedient, fornication was permissible. This formula was identical to Paul's teaching that it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols, even though it was not always expedient to do so. Only if by eating such meat you would harm the conscience of another should you refrain. With that same principle,<span> </span><a name="marker=464345"></a>Paul is understood in the Modern Gospel to permit Christians to fornicate occasionally without any fear and even commit repetitious unrepentant fornication while remaining saved all the while.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong><span style="font-size: large;">Recapitulation of The Meaning of Revelation 2:14</span></strong></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
</div>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464348"></a>To repeat,<span> </span><a name="marker=464347"></a>Revelation 2:14 states:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464349"></a>But I have a few things against thee, because thou hast there some that hold the teaching of Balaam, who taught Balak to cast a stumblingblock before the children of Israel, to eat things sacrificed to idols, and to commit fornication.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464350"></a>The Christians at Pergamum were being criticized by Jesus for some members holding to the "teaching of<span> </span><a name="marker=464351"></a>Balaam." Who was Balaam? He was a figure who precisely prefigures Paul.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464352"></a>The only missing pieces were first whether Paul taught it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. We saw in the prior chapter that Paul taught it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. (See<span> </span>.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464356"></a>The second missing piece was whether Paul also taught it was permissible to commit fornication. We saw first that in Jesus' day, adultery and fornication were synonymous in the underlying vernacular in which Jesus spoke. We also saw that Paul permitted an act of adultery that Jesus squarely prohibited, i.e., remarriage by a wife whose husband had no grounds for divorce or where a certificate of divorce had not been used at all.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464357"></a>Or, if we instead look at merely passages where Paul talks about fornication (which for Paul usually means unwed sex), Paul fares no better. While Paul has one, perhaps three verses, that disparage fornication, there is no verse clear-cut saying fornication is impermissible. Indeed, Paul's teachings lead Paulinists to insist Paul says fornication is permissible. All things are permissible, they quote Paul. Yet, not all things are expedient. So they insist, fornication may not be expedient, but it is not per se wrong. The Law is abrogated. To claim it is wrong per se is heretical legalism. Even if one performs fornication a thousand times a day, the young Luther says Paul's grace teaching means we remain saved. Luther's youthful view is corroborated by every other mainstream interpreter of Paul's gospel. They appear to be correct because if you can lose your salvation for fornication then you keep it by obeying God, which would be a works-contingent salvation. Paul calls that heresy, plain and certain.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464358"></a>When you add up all the facts that parallel Paul to<span> </span><a name="marker=464359"></a>Revelation 2:14, the conclusion is overwhelming. Paul is certainly the intended author of the "teaching of<span> </span><a name="marker=464360"></a>Balaam" that Jesus identified in Revelation 2:14. He matches Balaam's life almost identically. He teaches it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. Finally, he also teaches it is permissible to commit fornication (i.e., adultery in remarriage). Paul is also understood by leading commentators to have taught fornication as he used the term (i.e., unwed sex) was (a) occasionally permissible, although it was not necessarily expedient to fornicate, with utterly no negative consequence; and (b) able to be committed repetitiously and without repentance with no repurcussion on salvation. There is therefore no ground to distinguish Paul from the teacher of Balaam's doctrine in Revelation 2:14. Thus, Jesus was identifying Paul in Revelation 2:14 by referring to Balaam.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><strong><span style="font-size: large;">Conclusion</span></strong></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
</div>
<div>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464362"></a>When the early church leader Irenaeus in 180 A.D. defended Paul's authenticity from opponents of Paul within the church, Irenaeus argued that if you accept Luke's Gospel, then you must accept Luke's account in Acts that Jesus revealed himself to Paul. For Irenaeus, this vision experience sealed the case<span> </span><a name="marker=464363"></a>in favor of Paul. Thus for Irenaeus, once Paul has a vision of Jesus on a road, the case in favor of Paul is settled.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464366"><span> </span>20</a><span> </span>However, not once did the story of Balaam's experience on the road and temporary conversion into a true prophet cause Irenaeus to see the error in this argument. Here is Irenaeus' argument from circa 180 A.D. in defense of Paul:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 6pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464367"></a>But again, we allege the same against those who do not recognize Paul as an apostle: that they should either reject the other words of the Gospel which we have come to know through Luke alone, and not make use of them; or else, if they do receive all these, they must necessarily admit also that testimony concerning Paul, when he (Luke) tells us that the Lord spoke at first to him from heaven: `Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou Me? I am Jesus Christ, whom thou persecutest.' [Acts 26:15]. (Irenaeus, Against Heresies Book III: 257.)<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464777"><span> </span>21</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464369"></a>However,<span> </span><a name="marker=464368"></a>Irenaeus missed the point. Paul could be a Balaam. He could be converted on a road for a time, but later apostasize. Irenaeus' argument simply overlooks that clear example from Scripture. Thus, I accept Luke's Gospel and I accept Paul's account in Acts 22 of having a direct encounter with Jesus. However, it does not resolve the issue. Paul could still have been a Balaam later.<span> </span><a name="marker=464370"></a>Revelation 2:14 is Jesus telling me that Paul indeed was the modern Balaam of the New Testament church.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458247"></a></p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464100"></a>Revelation 2:14: "But I have a few things against thee, because thou hast there some that hold the teaching of Balaam, who taught Balak to cast a stumblingblock before the children of Israel, to eat things sacrificed to idols, and to commit fornication." (ASV)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464145"></a>Morris Jastrow Jr., "Balaam," <em>Encyclopedia of Judaism </em>(online at http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=161&amp;letter=B&amp;search=balaam.) If we look at Numbers 25:2, we will see the Israelites were invited to the sacrifices to idols, and ate the idol meat. (Numbers 25:2, "for they called the people unto the sacrifices of their gods; and the people did eat, and bowed down to their gods.")</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464408"></a>The debate has raged whether the New Testament word porneia had the primary meaning of unwed sexual intercourse, or the more limited meaning of sexual intercourse with a cultic or commercial prostitute. It seems clear that Paul's usage was intended to mean unwed sexual intercourse. Jesus' usage in Matthew 5:32 can only mean adultery. The word has many broad meanings in Greek, but the corresponding word in Hebrew (zanah) meant adultery and metaphorically prostitution.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464473"></a>This was not the word used for divorce in the NT: apoluo. Chorizo means to place room between, depart, or separate. (Strong's # 5563.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464423"></a>There is an apparent corruption of the Greek version of Matthew in this verse. In the Hebrew version, what Jesus is saying is when a man leaves a wife without a bill of divorcement, and the woman remarries, she commits adultery as does the one who marries her. In The Hebrew Gospel of Matthew by Howard, Matthew 5:32 reads in part: "And I say to you that everyone who leaves his wife is to give her a bill of divorce." Then it goes on to treat the violation of this principle as the cause of adultery, both by the man leaving and the wife who remarries another. The Hebrew appears more correct because Deuteronomy 24:2 allows a woman who receives a certificate of divorce to remarry. However, even if the Greek version of 5:32 were correct, Jesus is merely saying that if the certificate were improperly delivered to the wife, without her being guilty of an unseemly thing as required by Deut. 24:1, the divorce was invalid and the right of remarriage under Deut. 24:2 does not exist. This makes sense even if Jesus never said it.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464452"></a><a name="10160"></a>The Bible required "some unseemly thing" for divorce. (Deut. 24:1.) Hillel thought any trivial reason qualified, while Shammai believed adultery alone justified divorce. ("Adultery," <em>International Standard Bible Encyclopedia</em>.) In the Greek version of Matthew 5:32, Jesus would be siding with Shammai's view.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464210"></a>Hans van Campenhausen, <em>The Formation of the Christian Bible</em> (J. A. Baker, trans.) (Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1972) at 13.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464216"></a>This is Paul's strongest anti-fornication statement. His other negative statements are weaker. For example, Paul in<span> </span><a name="marker=464217"></a>1 Cor. 6:18 says "Flee<span> </span><a name="marker=464218"></a>fornication...he that commits fornication sins against his own body." This is not very strong because Paul did not say you sin against God; you sin against yourself. This means it affects only yourself, giving you room to permit it. Again Paul in<span> </span><a name="marker=464219"></a>1 Cor. 7:1 says it is "good for a man not to touch a woman." In context, the concern is it can lead to fornication. Yet, again, Paul is not strong. He does not make the prohibition direct or threaten a serious loss. Again in<span> </span><a name="marker=464220"></a>1 Thess. 4:3 (ASV), Paul says "the will of God" is that "you abstain from fornication." Paul goes on to say that if you "reject this" (<em>i.e.</em>, `annul this'), you "reject God who gives His Holy Spirit to you." (<a name="marker=464221"></a>1 Thess. 4:8.) This appears strong--to threaten loss of salvation for fornication by a Christian. However, the Pauline commentators explain the context does not justify this is talking about fornication in its broad sense. The New American Standard (Protestant-Lockman Foundation) commentary in the footnotes says that the word translated "fornication" or "immorality" here really only means "unlawful marriage." It explains "many [incorrectly] think that this passage deals with a variety of moral regulations (fornication, adultery...)." It then explains this passage deals in this context instead with "a specific problem, namely marriage within degrees of consanguinity...." (See reprint of this commentary at http://www.usccb.org/ nab/ bible/ 1thessalonians/ 1thessalonians 4.htm.) Furthermore, most Paulinists find Paul's doctrine of<span> </span><a name="marker=464222"></a>eternal security trumps this verse. Because this verse threatens God will deny you for the sin of "fornication" (as translated), this must be directed at a non-believer. It does not say the person has received the Holy Spirit yet. Otherwise, Paul would be contradicting himself that salvation does not depend on what you do. (Romans 4:4.) Thus, this is read to be a warning to a non-believer, not a believer. As a result, while 1 Thess. 4:3, 8 at first appears strongly against fornication, Paulinists interpret it so it does not apply to anything but to a very specific consanguinity issue or not to a Christian at all.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464232"></a>James, by contrast, says a single act breaks all the law. (<a name="marker=464231"></a>James 2:13.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464236"></a>Paul's occasional-practice distinction is at variance to the Hebrew Scriptures. The Law says it only takes one act of adultery or murder to be deemed worthy of death. (Lev. 20:10, Numbers 35:16; Ezek. 33:18.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464244"></a>John MacArthur, <em>Liberty in Christ</em>, reprinted at http://www.biblebb.com/files/MAC/sg1669.htm.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464262"></a>Bob George, People to People (Radio Talk Show), 11/16/93.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464268"></a>John MacArthur, <em>Back to Basics: The Presentation of My Life: Sacrifice</em> at http://www.biblebb.com/files/MAC/1390.htm (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464282"></a>Martin Luther, <em>Luther Works</em>, I Letters (American Ed.) Vol. 48 at 282.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464293"></a>Zane Hodges, <em>Absolutely Free</em>! (Dallas, TX: Redencion Viva, 1989) at 94.</p>
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<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464310"></a>Dillow, <em>Reign of the Servant Kings</em> (1993) at 321.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464314"></a>Many commentators try to avoid what Dillow so gladly affirms. They argue Paul did not mean the person should be killed. However, the early church fathers correctly understood Paul's command was to kill the man.<span> </span><a name="marker=464315"></a>Tertullian said Paul was invoking the Hebrew Scripture's familiar "judicial process" whereby a "wicked person being put out of their midst" was done by the "destruction of the flesh." (Tertullian, <em>Against Marcion</em>, Book 5, ch. VII.) This is evident in Paul's language about purging. It was taken directly from the death penalty laws in the Mosaic Law, e.g., Deut. 17:7, 21:21, 22:21. Furthermore,<span> </span><a name="marker=464316"></a>Paul uses the language of a judicial officer rendering a verdict in 1 Cor.5:3, which a death sentence would require. This incident reveals a flaw in Paul's ideas that all the Law was abrogated, even its civil rights to protect the accused. Under the Law, a hearing was necessary where two eye witnesses tell the judge the persons were caught in the very sexual act prohibited in the Law. No inference was permitted in capital cases. (Deut. 17:7; cf. John 8:4.) Second, the witnesses in an incest case with a step-mother had to confirm the father was alive at the time of the act. Otherwise, as some Rabbis pointed out, the act was not precisely prohibited by the Law. Then, in strict compliance with the Law, Paul should have required the two witnesses to be the first to throw stones. (Deut. 17:7; John 8:4 et seq.) Paul instead presumptuously declares the death penalty over an accused without hearing testimony and questioning the circumstances. Paul's abrogation of the Law thus cut out barriers against precipitous actions by those in authority. Paul took full-advantage of a freedom he gave himself from the Law of Moses to ignore civil rights protected in the Law.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464321"></a>Dave Hunt, <em>CIB Bulletin </em>(Camarillo, CA: Christian Information Bureau) (June 1989) at 1.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464341"></a>Charles Stanley, E<em>ternal Security: </em>Can You Be Sure? (Thomas Nelson Publishers: 1990) at 192.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464366"></a>Please note that Paul's position in the New Testament church was still being disputed into 180 A.D. This was a dissent from good Christians whom Irenaeus presupposed accepted Luke's gospel, and would thereby be persuaded to accept Luke's account in Acts.</p>
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<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span><span> </span><a name="pgfId=464777"></a>Irenaeus in this quote also made an incorrect supposition that Jesus in the three vision accounts in Acts 9, 22, and 26 appointed Paul an apostle. Jesus never does so. Instead, Jesus says Paul is to be a martus, a witness. For further discussion on that, see<span> </span> page 215 et seq. Even had Jesus appointed Paul an apostle, Irenaeus would also have been overlooking the case of Judas. The fact Judas was an apostle did not prevent his fall later. Thus, whether a true prophet or apostle, God gives us abundant examples that one can fall from such status.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Six: Paul Contradicts Jesus Over Idol Meat</h2>
<h2>Introduction</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead">Jesus in Revelation 2:6, 14 takes on those persons teaching the Ephesians that it was acceptable to eat meat sacrificed to idols. Among them Jesus says were the Nicolaitans. The Nicolaitans were an actual historical group. They taught Paul's doctrine of grace permitted them to eat meat sacrificed to idols. Jesus commends the Ephesians for refusing to listen to the Nicolaitans on the issue of eating meat sacrificed to idols.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead">Yet the Nicolaitans were not merely deducing it was permissible to eat such meat from Paul's doctrine of grace. Paul, in fact, clearly teaches three times that there is nothing wrong per se in eating meat sacrificed to idols. (Romans 14:21;1 Corinthians 8:4-13, and 1 Corinthians 10:19-29.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464119"></a>However, Jesus, as we will see, three times in Revelation says it is flatly wrong. The Bible says when God commands something, we are not free to "diminish" it by articulating our own exceptions. "What thing soever I command you, that shall ye observe to do: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it." (<a name="marker=464120"></a>Deut. 12:32, ASV.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464121"></a>Let's explore thoroughly the origin of this command against eating meat sacrificed to idols. Let's see also the starkness of the contradiction between Paul and Jesus.</p>
<h2><em>Jerusalem Council Ruling on Meat Sacrificed to Idols</em></h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead">Acts chapter 15 recounts James' ruling at the Jerusalem Council. The issue presented was whether circumcision was necessary for salvation. The outcome was a decision involving what behaviors Gentiles had to follow as Christians. The first decision was to prohibit Gentiles who wanted to become Christians from committing fornication. The second decision was to prohibit eating meat sacrificed to idols. This principle is drawn from Exodus 34:13-16.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464128"> 1</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead">Paulinists claim that this prohibition on eating meat sacrificed to idols (which was sold in meat markets) was not an absolute command. It was flexible enough to fit Paul's approach. Paul taught idol meat was perfectly acceptable unless someone else thought it was wrong. Paulinists argue that the Jerusalem Council only meant to prohibit eating such meat if it would undermine a weaker brother who thought it was wrong, as Paul teaches.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464131"></a>However, there is no basis to believe the prohibition in Acts chapter 15 is merely a prohibition on undermining someone else, causing him to violate his conscience. It is clear that eating meat sacrificed to idols is simply wrong in itself. It is also no less absolute a prohibition than the prohibition on fornication. Had the Jerusalem Council ruling intended the eating-idol-meat rule to be only a command to follow during social intercourse, then the council used the wrong words to convey such an interpretation.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>In fact, the prohibition on eating meat sacrificed to idols was stated three times in Acts. It was never once stated with an exception or qualification. There is no hint that eating such meat was permissible in your private meals. In fact, when we later look at Jesus' words in Revelation absolutely condemning such practice, Jesus is talking after Paul's words are written down. Had Jesus intended to affirm Paul's view that eating such meat is permissible, Jesus' absolute directives against ever eating such meat were the wrong way to communicate this. Jesus left no room to find hairsplitting exceptions.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464134"></a>This absolute prescription first appears at the <a name="marker=464133"></a>Jerusalem Council in Acts 15:20. Initially, James decided that "we write unto them, that they abstain from the pollutions of idols...." (<a name="marker=464135"></a>Acts 15:20.) Second, Luke then quotes <a name="marker=464136"></a>James' letter to the Gentiles as saying one of the "necessary things" is "you abstain from things sacrificed to idols." (<a name="marker=464137"></a>Acts 15:29.) James reiterates this for a third and final time in Acts chapter 21. James is reminding Paul what the ruling was at the Jerusalem Council. He tells Paul that previously "we wrote giving judgment that they [i.e., the Gentiles] should keep themselves from things sacrificed to idols...." (<a name="marker=464138"></a>Acts 21:25.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464139"></a>James restates the principle unequivocally. It is a flat prohibition like any food law or the prohibition on fornication. As James states the rule, it has nothing to do with rules only at social gatherings. It has no limited application. There is no exception to permit eating idol meat at home.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"> </p>
<h2><em>Jesus' Confirmation of Jerusalem Council Ruling</em></h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead">Jesus in<a name="marker=464142"></a>Revelation 2:14 faults the churches at Pergamum for tolerating those who teach it is acceptable to eat meat sacrificed to idols and commit fornication. Jesus says "some... hold the teaching of Balaam, who taught Balak to cast a stumblingblock (skandalon) before the children of Israel, to <a name="marker=464144"></a>eat things sacrificed to idols, and to commit fornication." Jesus does not say the error was eating meat sacrificed to idols only if you believed an idol was real. Nor did Jesus say it was wrong only if the person involved thought eating such meat was wrong. Jesus simply laid down a prohibition. Nothing more. Nothing less.<a name="marker=464145"></a>Deuteronomy 4:2 prohibits "diminishing" from God's true inspired words by making up exceptions.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464147"></a>In this <a name="marker=464146"></a>Revelation 2:14 passage, the use of the word skandalon is important. In <a name="marker=464148"></a>Matthew 13:41-43, Jesus warned that on judgement day all those<a name="marker=464149"></a>ensnared (skandalizo-ed) will be gathered by the angels and sent to the "fiery furnace." Hence, Jesus was telling us in Revelation 2:14 that eating meat sacrificed to idols was a serious sin. He called it a skandalon--a trap. It was a salvation-ending trap.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a>Jesus reiterates the prohibition on eating meat sacrificed to idols in <a name="marker=464151"></a>Revelation 2:20. Jesus faults the church at Thyatira for listening to a false Jezebel who "teaches my servants to commit fornication, and to eat things sacrificed to idols."</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a><img align="RIGHT" src="/chapter 6html-2.gif" />The church at Ephesus, by contrast, is commended by Jesus on this issue. The Ephesians were the ones who tried those who claimed to be an "apostle and are not, but [are] a liar" (<a name="marker=464168"></a>Rev. 2:2.)<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464171"> 2</a> The Ephesians were also commended for rejecting the <a name="marker=464175"></a>Nicolaitans' teaching on idol meat. (Rev. 2:6.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a>The Nicolaitans, Jesus notes, taught that a Christian could "eat things sacrificed to idols...." (<a name="marker=464177"></a>Rev. 2:14-15.) Jesus thus has commended the church at Ephesus for not only having identified the person who falsely claimed to be an apostle, but also for its having rejected the teaching that it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. It is no coincidence. The Ephesians' rejection of someone who said he was an apostle but could not be in Rev. 2:2, if this were Paul (see Chapter Ten), would have to go hand-in-hand with the Ephesian's rejection of Paul's doctrine that idol meats were permissible.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464178"></a>Furthermore, the Nicolaitans' true historical background reveal whose underlying teaching that Jesus is truly criticizing. Robertson (a Paulinist) in Word Pictures confesses the <a name="marker=464179"></a>Nicolaitans defended eating such meat based on Paul's gospel:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464180"></a>These early Gnostics practiced licentiousness since they were not under law, but under grace. (Robertson's Word Pictures on Rev. 2:14.)<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464184"> 3</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464192"></a>Therefore, we see Jesus extols those who hate the Nicolaitan's grace teaching which says Christians can eat meat sacrificed to idols. Jesus then condemns twice those who teach a Christian may eat meat sacrificed to idols. Jesus is just as absolute and unwavering on this prohibition as James is in Acts. When Jesus says it, we are not free to "diminish" it by making up exceptions. (<a name="marker=464193"></a>Deut. 12:32.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464194"></a>Notice too how three times James in Acts repeats the point. Then three times Jesus repeats the point in the Book of Revelation. (Rev. 2:6, 14 (Ephesus); <a name="marker=464195"></a>Rev. 2:14-15 (Pergamum); <a name="marker=464196"></a>Revelation 2:20 (Thyatira).) In the New Testament, there is no command emphasized more frequently than the command against eating meat sacrificed to idols.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464197"></a>This three-times principle, incidentally, is not without its own significance. For Paul says three times that it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols, as discussed next. God wanted us to know for a fact He is responding to Paul.</p>
<h2><a name="32195"></a>Paul Permits Eating Meat Sacrificed To Idols</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464217"></a><a name="marker=464216"></a>Paul clearly teaches three times that there is nothing wrong in itself eating meat sacrificed to idols. (<a name="marker=464218"></a>Romans 14:21;<a name="marker=464219"></a>1 Corinthians 8:4-13, and 1 Corinthians 10:19-29.) The first time Paul addresses the question of "eating meat sacrificed to idols," Paul answers: "But food will not commend us to God; neither if we eat not...." (<a name="marker=464220"></a>1 Cor. 8:8.) Paul then explained it is only necessary to abstain from eating such meat if you are around a "weaker" brother who thinks an idol is something. (1 Cor. 8:7, 8:10, 9:22.) Then, and only then, must you abstain. The reason is that then a brother might be emboldened to do something he thinks is sinful. The brother is weak for believing eating meat sacrificed to an idol is wrong. This is thus a sin for him to eat, even though you know it is not sinful to eat meat sacrificed to idols. Thus, even though you know better than your weaker brother that it is no sin to do so, it is better to abstain in his presence than cause him to sin against his weak conscience and be "destroyed." (1 Cor. 8:11.) <a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464223">4</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464226"></a>Paul is essentially laying down a principle on how to be considerate of others who think it is wrong to eat meat sacrificed to idols. At the same time, Paul insists as a matter of principle, there is nothing wrong eating such meat. If you were instead the weaker brother, and read Paul's epistles on this topic, you certainly would walk away knowing Paul teaches it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. You would even think your weak-mindedness on this issue should be abandoned. You should no longer burden your conscience on your brother who refrains due to your overly sensitive conscience. With Paul's instructions in hand, you would certainly know that it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. You can now get over your undue and ill-founded concern about eating such meat.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464227"></a>In teaching this, Paul is clearly contradicting James and Jesus. He thereby is "diminishing" Jesus' words by contradicting Him. Paul is prohibiting eating such meat only if someone else is foolish enough to think eating such meat is wrong. Paul has turned Jesus' words on their head. Paul developed a relativistic approach that swallowed the rule. He made the prohibition of none effect. Paul's words clearly violate <a name="marker=464228"></a>Deuteronomy 4:2 and <a name="marker=464229"></a>12:32. James and Jesus both say eating meat sacrificed to idols is flatly prohibited and wrong. There are no excuses, hairsplitting qualifications, situational-ethics, or easy outs in deciding whether to obey God. It is wrong and prohibited.</p>
<h2>Paul Clearly Teaches It is Permissible to Eat Idol Meat</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464232"></a>Yet, <a name="marker=464231"></a>Paul teaches it is permissible to eat idol meat. This is transparent enough that Pauline Christians admit Paul is saying meat sacrificed to idols is clean and permissible. They make these admissions apparently unaware that <a name="marker=464233"></a>Jesus in Revelation reconfirmed the prohibition on meat sacrificed to idols.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464236"> 5</a> A Presbyterian pastor unwittingly admits:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464237"></a>Paul says to his readers that even though there is no ontological or theological basis for refusing to eat meat that has been sacrificed to an idol, nevertheless out of consideration for brothers and sisters in Christ for whom it was a great problem and in an effort to be sensitive to their struggles, a Christian should be willing to abstain [from idol meat].<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464240"> 6</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464241"></a>This pastor unwittingly destroys Paul's validity for a person who wants to obey Jesus Christ.</p>
<h2>Paul's Antinomianism on Idol Meat Issue versus Jesus</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a>What do we do then with such absolute commands as Jesus gave against eating meat sacrificed to idols? Jesus clearly threatens spewing out of His mouth those committing such deeds.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464244"></a>Modern Paulinists find no problem. First, they apparently share the young Luther's view that the Book of Revelation is noncanonical. Thus, they do not regard Jesus' prohibition on eating meat sacrificed to idols as a hurdle for Paul to overcome. Then what of Exodus' commands (Ex. 34:13-16) designed to prevent eating idol meat? Paulinists defend Paul's position that eating idol meat is permissible by saying the Law was abolished. They then insist this means that any legalistic notion to not eat meat sacrificed to idols was abolished. In fact, these same Paulinists ridicule any first century Christian who would have tried to enforce the command against eating such meats. The Law has been utterly abolished, they explain.<a name="marker=464245"></a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a>Dan Hill, Pastor of Southwood Bible Church in Tulsa, Oklahoma, shows you that if you came to the conclusion in the first century that you should not eat idol meat, you were in serious error. You were violating <a name="marker=464247"></a>Paul's antinomian morality based on<a name="marker=464248"></a>expediency. Pastor Hill describes the error of such a first century crusader against eating such meat:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464249"></a>So you start a crusade, you get a banner, get others to march, you picket the temple and the shambles, you chant, you sing, you light candles, you campaign against the sin of eating the idol's meat.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464250"></a>And remember, you have some pretty good verses to use on this matter. You can pull them out and get very dogmatic about what God thinks (or what you think He thinks).</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464251"></a>Then you go to Bible Class one day and there the Pastor is reading Paul's first epistle to the Corinthians. And you find out that... you... have liberty [because Paul teaches]:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464252"></a>`All things are lawful for me, but not all things are expedient [i.e., Paul's axiom].'</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a>You were wrong, especially in trying to force your decision upon others.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>But you would have even been more wrong in thinking that you had to figure out what God thinks... that is part of the fatal assumption of the Law.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464257"> 7</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>Thus, Pastor Hill affirms <a name="marker=464258"></a>antinomianism as why Paul said it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. There is no law. There are no absolute principles. Your first mistake was to think there are any laws. There is just a question of what is expedient. Eating idol meat is only wrong if it is inexpedient to do so. Eating such meat might set you back in evangelism or offend another Christian. It might become inexpedient temporarily. Otherwise, there are no absolute rules against eating such meat.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464262"> 8</a></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a>What Pastor Hill is saying is that had he been alive in the first century, he would admonish the `trouble-maker' Christian. `Stop trying to make people avoid eating meat sacrificed to idols!' Pastor Hill would not admonish the one eating the meat. They are OK. He would scold you if you said it was wrong to eat such meat.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464265"></a>Unwittingly, Pastor Hill helps us prove how to interpret Jesus' response. Jesus is looking at Paul's entire outlook on the Law. Paul's broader message is because there is no Law any longer, it is permissible to eat such meat. Paul, in fact, says James' command in Acts 15:20 against eating such meat is not binding. The Laws of Exodus are not directed to God's people. You apply an expediency test whether to follow it or not. Jesus was the end of the Law, as Paul says. (<a name="marker=464266"></a>Rom. 10:4.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464267"></a>Jesus' remarks prove Pastor Hill's notion cannot possibly be true. Jesus is angry to the hilt in <a name="marker=464268"></a>Revelation 2:6, 14. He is upset that Christians are being told they can commit fornication. He is furious they are told they can <a name="marker=464269"></a>eat meat sacrificed to idols. If there is no more strict Law for Christians, and just expediency is the test, then Jesus' words are pointless. We are covered. There is no <a name="marker=464270"></a>condemnation for those in Christ Jesus. (Romans 8:1.) Jesus apparently had not read that passage. He didn't `learn' its truth. Instead, Jesus is full of condemnation for Christians who violate laws!</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464271"></a>In truth, Jesus in Revelation chapter 2 is clearly attacking antinomianism. He is laying down absolutes on fornication and eating meat sacrificed to idols. Jesus is highlighting the error of the <a name="marker=464272"></a>Nicolaitans. They were known from Irenaeus' writings to be antinomians. Irenaeus said they believed they could eat any foods. The Nicolaitans taught the Law was abrogated and they lived under grace instead.<a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="footnote" href="#pgfId=464278"> 9</a></p>
<p><span style="font-size: small;"><span style="white-space: pre;"> </span>Jesus' attack on antinomianism is also obvious from Jesus' condemnation of the permissiveness on the issue of fornication. Jesus is not only prohibiting fornication at idol worship ceremonies, as a few Paulinists contend. To save Paul's validity, some seriously contend Jesus meant to prohibit fornication only at idolatrous ceremonies. However, no such limitation can be found in the text. The fornication prohibition is stated just as absolutely as the prohibition on eating meat sacrificed to idols. There are no exceptions. There are no plausible hairsplitting arguments that can construe Jesus as only prohibiting fornicating at a pagan ceremony. (If true, it would imply Jesus permitted fornication otherwise.) This spin to save Paul leads to absurdities.</span></p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a>Thus, one cannot read into Jesus' words any expediency-test on eating meat sacrificed to idols any more than you could read such a test into Jesus' words condemning fornication.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464281"></a>Apostle John, who is the human hand of Revelation, took Jesus' attack on <a name="marker=464282"></a>antinomianism to heart. He later wrote likewise that those who say they know Jesus but disobey His commands are liars. John's attack on antinomianism appears in 1 John:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a>2:4 He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.***3:10...whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God.... (ASV)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a>John and Jesus are encouraging strictly following Jesus' commands. This includes His command to not eat meat sacrificed to idols. Apostle John has a harsh message for those who claim to know Jesus but who refute His commands. You are a <a name="marker=464285"></a>liar when you say you know Jesus. Who else is called a liar by John's pen? The one who told the Ephesians falsely he was an apostle of Jesus. (Rev. 2:2.) We shall see that it is no accident <a name="marker=464286"></a>1 John 2:4 would affix the label liar to Paul for his contradiction of Jesus' command on idol meat. <a name="marker=464287"></a>Revelation 2:2 affixes the same label of liar to someone the Ephesians put on trial for claiming to be an apostle and found he was not one. (See the chapter entitled Did Jesus Applaud the Ephesians for Exposing Paul as a False Apostle?)</p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464292"></a>In light of the foregoing blatant contradiction by Paul of Jesus, who seriously can hold onto Paul any longer as an inspired person? Who can really believe he is a true apostle?</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464293"></a>Jesus is pointing his arrow at Paul who is long gone when the book of Revelation is written. Unquestionably, Paul had been teaching others to violate Jesus' commands and the commands of the twelve apostles. It is blatant. Jesus takes Paul's teaching to task.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464296"></a>This brings to mind Jesus' `<a name="marker=464294"></a>fruit' test for a <a name="marker=464295"></a>false prophet. In <a name="marker=464297"></a>Matthew 7:15-20, Jesus says:</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464298"></a>(15) Beware of false prophets, who come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly are ravening wolves. (16) By their fruits ye shall know them. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles? (17) Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but the corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit.</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464299"></a>Thus, when Paul teaches someone to violate Jesus' commands to not eat meat sacrificed to idols, is this good fruit or evil fruit? Obviously evil fruit. Jesus says "beware those who come in sheep's clothing." (<a name="marker=464300"></a>Matt. 7:15.) What is a sheep in that verse? A Christian. Beware those who come claiming to be a Christian but who have evil fruit. Paul fits both criteria. Jesus then continues, saying even if they come with signs and wonders, He will tell those who work anomia (negation of Mosaic Law) that He never knew them. (<a name="marker=464301"></a>Matt. 7:23.)</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464302"></a>How many ways must Jesus say it before we recognize He is talking about Paul?</p>
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458247"></a></p>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464128"></a><a name="13349"></a>Exodus 34:13 says Jews were to tear down the altars of the Gentiles rather than make a covenant (i.e., a peace treaty). In Exo 34:15-16, God says if you prefer making a covenant and allow their pagan altars, you risk "one call thee [to eat with him] and thou eat of his sacrifice." The command to destroy the pagan altars was so that Jews would avoid <a name="marker=464129"></a>eating meat sacrificed to idols even inadvertently at a meal at a Gentile home. This altar-destruction command also had the indirect affect of preventing a Gentile from eating idol meat. For this apparent reason, James in Acts 15:20, 25 and 21:25 prohibits Gentiles from eating idol meat. (On how James construed when the Law applies to Gentiles, see <a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="XRef" href="/chapter 5.#20427">See Luther Was Sometimes On the Right Track In This Sermon</a> .) It is ludicrous to argue, as some do, that God was concerned only that one knowingly ate such meat. If true, the Bible could have just prohibited such food as it did with other foods. However, idol meat cannot be identified by appearance. Thus, merely prohibiting eating such meat would not be enough if God was displeased by you eating it unknowingly. Hence, to prevent unknowing eating of such meat, God commands the destruction of pagan altars. Thus, Paul's allowance of eating such meat by not asking questions is precisely what the Bible does not countenance. Rather, if a Jew lived in a society where pagan altars operated and idol meat was sold in the market, the Law intended the Jew not to eat meat whose origin he/she could not be sure about.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464171"></a>Later, we will examine whether Jesus was identifying Paul in Rev.2:2 as a false apostle. See et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464184"></a><a name="11746"></a>Irenaeus around 180 A.D. wrote that Nicolas, their founder "departed from sound doctrine, and was in the habit of inculcating indifference of both life and food." (Refutation of All Heresies, 7.24.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464223"></a>Paul is thought to teach you should not take communion if one was eating idol meat at a pagan service. <a name="marker=464224"></a>In <a name="marker=464225"></a>1 Cor. 10:20-21, Paul says you cannot be partaker of the Lord's table and the "table of devils." This was thus not a flat prohibition on eating idol meat. Most commentators reconcile Paul to Paul by saying Paul means you cannot go to a pagan sacrifice and eat the meat during a pagan service and still partake of communion. There is still thus nothing inherently wrong in eating such meat. In the context in which Paul says this, Paul also repeats his famous axiom, "all things are lawful, but not all things are expedient." (1 Cor. 10:23.) Then Paul says when you buy food or eat a stranger's home, "ask no question for sake of your conscience." (1 Cor. 10:25,27.) Thus, Paul says it is best you not know what you are eating. Don't let your conscience dictate questions about what you are eating. In a sense, Paul believes it is better you not know the meat's origin rather than try to scrupulously avoid eating such meat.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464236"></a>Kenneth Loy, Jr. in My Body His Temple: The Prophet Daniel's Guide to Nutrition (Aroh Publishing: 2001) at 69 writes: "Idol Meat Is Clean (Romans 14 and 1 Corinthians 8): God had forbidden idol meat originally because it caused the children of Israel to go `whoring after' the gods of other nations. (Exodus 34:15-16.) Since the Gentiles were now equal in the sight of God, this restriction was no longer necessary. Jewish Christians even preferred idol meat since it was usually less expensive in the market place....Paul stipulates another reason why idol meat is permitted: `As concerning therefore the eating of those things that are offered in sacrifice unto idols, we know that an idol is nothing in the world, and that there is none other God but one....' (1 Corinthians 8:4-6)."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464240"></a>Dr. Peter Barnes (Senior Pastor, First Presbyterian Church, Boulder, Colorado), The Question About Christian Freedom (1 Corinthians 8:1-13) (2002) reprinted at http://www.fpcboulder.org/Sermons/Sermon1-27-02.htm</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464257"></a>Pastor Dan Hill, Romans 6:14 (Grace Notes) (reprinted at http://www.realtime.net/~wdoud/romans/rom26.html)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464262"></a>If you live by Paul's principles, it is totally acceptable to outwardly behave in a manner that does not offend others, while inwardly you do not have to live and believe those principles. What did Jesus repeatedly say to the Pharisees who reasoned to the same conclusion as Paul? Jesus' response is in <a name="marker=464263"></a>Mat 23:28: "Even so you also outwardly appear righteous to men, but inwardly you are full of hypocrisy and iniquity." (WEB)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';" class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464278"></a>See text and footnote on <a style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;" class="XRef" href="/chapter 6html.#11746">See Irenaeus around 180 A.D. wrote that Nicolas, their founder "departed from sound doctrine, and was in the habit of inculcating indifference of both life and food." (Refutation of All Heresies, 7.24.)</a> .</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Ten: Did Jesus Applaud the Ephesians for Exposing Paul as a False Apostle?</h2>
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<h3>Is There A Thirteenth Apostle?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464095"></a>It is hard to imagine that Paul's thirteen letters never came to the attention of any of the twelve apostles. One would expect to find some testing by the apostles of Paul's claims to be an apostle.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464097"></a>Jesus in <a name="marker=464096"></a>Revelation 2:2 mentions a trial at Ephesus of persons who told the Ephesians they were apostles. The verdict found they were not true apostles. Jesus told the Ephesians:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464098"></a>I have known thy works, and thy labour, and thy endurance, and that thou art not able to bear evil ones, and that thou hast tried those <em><strong>saying themselves to be apostles</strong></em> and are not, and hast found them liars. (R<a name="marker=464099"></a>ev. 2:2. YLT)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464100"></a>In Revelation, Jesus did not say the same thing to any of the other six churches whom He addressed. Jesus made this remark to the only church among the seven whom we know Paul visited: the church at Ephesus. And among the seven churches, it was only the church at Ephesus whom we know Paul told that he was an apostle. (Eph. 1:1.) Paul wrote this church:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464101"></a>From Paul, chosen by God to be an<strong><em> apostle of Christ Jesus</em></strong>. To God's people who live in Ephesus and are faithful followers of Christ Jesus. (<a name="marker=464102"></a><a name="marker=464103"></a>Ephesians 1:1 ASV.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464106"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464108"></a>If Paul were the object of Jesus' remarks in Rev. 2:2, it then makes sense that only the church at Ephesus would be commended for trying someone who told the Ephesians that he was an apostle. To the Ephesians, and to them alone, Jesus commends them for testing the ones who "said" they were apostles and are not, but are "liars." Now it was to the Ephesians that we likewise know Paul `said he was an apostle....'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464109"></a>Was Paul not an apostle, thus bringing Revelation 2:2 directly to bear on Paul?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464110"></a>Indeed, there is no evidence for Paul being an apostle, except from Paul's own mouth. As Segal mentions, in Acts "Luke makes no reference [to the twelve accepting Paul's apostalate]."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464113"> 2</a> Of course, the four gospel accounts have no mention of Paul, and thus offer no basis to confirm Paul as an apostle.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464114"></a>It is also clear from Acts that the Apostles themselves understood their number was set at twelve, but that this did not include Paul. Long before Revelation 2:2 was written, we know from Acts 1:21-26 that the twelfth apostle--<a name="marker=464115"></a>Matthias--was chosen to replace <a name="marker=464116"></a>Judas. The apostles' criteria for the replacement was that it had to be someone who was with the others from the beginning of Jesus' ministry. Luke reveals therefore that the eleven had a criteria that would likewise exclude adding Paul as an apostle.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464117"></a><a name="36117"></a>Then Jesus in the Book of Revelation reveals twelve is the number of apostles for all time. <a name="marker=464118"></a><a name="marker=464119"></a><a name="marker=464120"></a>The verse of Revelation 21:14 follows the mention of the twelve gates of the New Jerusalem. Each gate has a name of the twelve tribes of Israel on it. Revelation 21:14 then says:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464121"></a>The city was built on twelve foundation stones. On each of the stones was written the name of one of the Lamb's twelve apostles. (Rev. 21:14 CEV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a><a name="39428"></a>There is a clear correspondence of one apostle for each of the twelve tribes, gates, and foundation stones. The number each time is only twelve. It implies there are not supposed to be more than <a name="marker=464124"></a>twelve apostles. You cannot have thirteen or fourteen apostles judging the twelve tribes. Jesus made this clear during His earthly ministry as well. Jesus said the role of the twelve apostles was to "sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel." (<a name="marker=464125"></a>Matt. 19:28.)<a name="marker=464126"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>The apostles understood it the same way. When Judas fell away and was lost, they added Matthias to bring their number back to twelve. (<a name="marker=464128"></a>Acts 1:22-26.) When apostles were martyred later, such as Apostle James (the brother of John), mentioned in <a name="marker=464129"></a>Acts 12:2, the apostles did not replace him. Had they done so, this would bring their number to thirteen in the resurrection ruling over the New Jerusalem. The apostles must have seen the mis-match which a thirteenth apostle would represent in fulfilling their role as twelve judges over the twelve tribes into eternity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a>Alan Johnson in the <em>Calvinist Expositor's Bible Commentator</em> agrees the early church treated the <a name="marker=464131"></a>offices of the twelve apostles as <a name="marker=464132"></a>dying with them. They were not to be replaced. Their number of twelve was unique.</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464133"></a>As to whether the authoritative function of apostles continued after the first century, the apostolic fathers are instructive. In no case do the many references to apostles in the writings of Clement of Rome, Ignatius, Barnabas, and the Shepherd of Hermas relate to any recognized apostles other than those associated with the NT. The Fathers apparently understood the special apostolic function [on earth] to have ceased with the end of the apostolic era.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464136"> 3</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464137"></a>Luke in Acts made it evident there were only twelve apostles for all time, and this excluded Paul. Never does Paul claim in Acts to be an apostle of Jesus. Never do the apostles describe Paul as an apostle. This has been recognized by all Pauline scholars. For example, John <a name="marker=464138"></a>Crossan and Jonathan Reed, in their latest work of 2004:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464139"></a>[I]n all his letters, Paul sees himself as an apostle sent from God through Christ.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464142"> 4</a> The very vocation for which Paul lives is denied him by Luke. He is, to be sure, an important missionary....But he is not an apostle equal to the Twelve.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464147"> 5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464148"></a>Furthermore, Crossan &amp; Reed make the point that Luke's story of how <a name="marker=464149"></a>Matthias replaced Judas excludes the possibility of a <a name="marker=464150"></a>thirteenth <a name="marker=464151"></a>apostle such as Paul. They write:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a>Luke insists in Acts 1 that, after Jesus' resurrection, there were still, always, and only `the twelve apostles.'...For Luke, Paul is simply not an apostle.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464155"> 6</a> Without Matthias' explicit selection, one might have imagined that Luke's Paul was at least implicitly Judas' replacement as the twelfth apostle. With it, <strong><em>Luke implies that Paul was not an apostle and could never be one</em></strong>....[H]e could never be the one thing Paul always insisted that he was, namely, an apostle sent by God through a revelation of the risen Lord. (Id., at 29.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464160"></a>Thus, the only person to say Paul is an apostle of Jesus Christ in the entire New Testament is Paul himself. Yet, we know that Jesus said if He alone bore witness to Himself, then His witness would be untrue. (John 5:31, "If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.") Jesus was extending the Law's principle, so that two witnesses were necessary to establish not only a wrong, but also anything as important as God sending someone for a special role.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464163"> 7</a> In fact, Jesus in Revelation 2:2 clearly agrees a self-serving claim to be His apostle is insufficient.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=465314"> 8</a> Thus, Paul's claim to being an apostle thus suffers from being self-serving. By a Biblical standard from Jesus Himself, Paul's self-witness "is not true."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a>Thus, the identity of the person who said he was an apostle to the Ephesians in <a name="marker=464165"></a>Revelation 2:2 but who could not be an apostle is proven from the Bible itself. Honest Pauline scholars have conceded this underlying problem to Paul's validity. His claim to apostleship is uncorroborated and thus Jesus says Paul's claim "is not true." (John 5:31.) As a result, it is obvious the person spoken of in <a name="marker=464166"></a>Revelation 2:2 is Paul because the New Testament gives us a record of:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a>Only one person told the Ephesians he was an apostle who was in fact not one of the twelve apostles (i.e., Paul).</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a>A complete record of the twelve apostles in Acts excludes Paul.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a>In Acts, Paul was never recognized as an apostle by the twelve; and</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464170"></a>In Acts, Paul never claims to be an apostle of Jesus Christ and thus no record exists of an authoritative acceptance by the twelve of Paul as such an apostle.</li>
</ul>
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<div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464172"></a>
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<a name="31053"></a>Paul &amp; Luke Mention A Heresy Trial of Paul at Ephesus</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464174"></a><a name="marker=464173"></a>Is there any evidence in the Bible that the Ephesians determined Paul was not an apostle?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464175"></a>Yes. Paul and Luke both mention that Paul was subject to a heresy trial at Ephesus, a city of Asia (Western Turkey). Paul likewise mentions that all the churches of Asia (Western Turkey) thereafter came to reject Paul. We are puzzled by these verses and we pass over them. However, in light of Revelation 2:2, God has given us this evidence so we can apply Revelation 2:2.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a>Some background on Ephesus is necessary to understand the Bible passages at issue.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464178"></a><a name="marker=464177"></a>Ephesus was in the province of Asia. This was not near China. Rather it was a Roman province along the west coast of modern Turkey, near Greece. To differentiate this Asia from the Far East, it is sometimes called Proconsular Asia. Ephesus was Proconsular Asia's leading city. <a name="marker=464179"></a>Ephesus had a population of 250,000.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464182"> 9</a></p>
<p> </p>
<h3 class="Figure">
<p><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><a name="pgfId=464189"></a></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;">In Second Timothy, Paul talks of a trial he endured in a Christian congregation. Paul says he put up "his first defense" among them. However, Paul says "all forsook me." (2 Tim. 4:14-17.) In an exact parallel, Paul identifies in the same epistle that this trial took place in Asia--where Ephesus is the capital. Paul writes that all the </span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;"><a name="marker=464190"></a></span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;">Christians of </span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;"><a name="marker=464191"></a></span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;">Asia defected from him. What else other than a heresy trial at Asia's leading church of Ephesus can explain this action? In </span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;"><a name="marker=464192"></a></span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;"><a name="marker=464193"></a></span></span><span style="color: #000000; font-weight: normal;"><span style="font-size: small;">2 Timothy 1:15, Paul writes:</span></span></p>
</h3>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><span style="font-size: small;"><a name="pgfId=464194"></a></span>This thou knowest, that all that are in Asia turned away from me; of whom are Phygelus and Hermogenes. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464195"></a>Paulinists have no explanation of this verse except to deny Paul's words. Adam <a name="marker=464196"></a>Clarke says Paul must be referring to Asiatic Christians at Rome. "He cannot be speaking of any general defection of the Asiatic Church...." However, Asia is primarily two major cities: Ephesus and Smyrna. It is not that hard to believe such a defection took place. We are not talking of a large area covering many major churches. Furthermore, Clarke has no explanation for denying Paul means what he says. It is self-evident Clarke is appealing to our respect for Paul. We cannot imagine Paul sinking so low. Thus, even Paul's own words that "all... in Asia turned away from me..." cannot convince those devoted to Paul that what Paul says is true.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464197"></a>However, contrary to Clarke's spin, Luke in Acts chapter 19 records the event leading to what Paul mentioned in <a name="marker=464198"></a>2 Timothy 1:15 and 4:14-17. Luke records that the budding church of <a name="marker=464199"></a>Ephesus decided at one point to have nothing further to do with Paul. In fact, Luke appears to be implying a <a name="marker=464200"></a>heresy trial of Paul took place at Ephesus in Asia. Here is what Luke records in<a name="marker=464201"></a>Acts 19:1, 8-9 (ASV):</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a>(1)...Paul...came to Ephesus....(8) And he entered into the synagogue [at Ephesus], and spake boldly for the space of three months, reasoning and persuading as to the things concerning the kingdom of God. (9) But when some were hardened and disobedient, speaking evil of the Way before the multitude, he departed from them [i.e., the Ephesians].</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464203"></a>Thus, in Luke's account, Paul no longer went to the budding church at Ephesus where he had been "persuading" them for three months. While it appears the leadership favored Paul, he encountered opposition eventually from some influential members.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464206"> 10</a> Clearly, this event would be a muted way that a friend like Luke would record a heresy trial. Yet, this parallels what Jesus spoke about twenty years later in Revelation 2:2. There was a trial at Ephesus of a person who said he was an apostle but who was not (and could not be) an apostle.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464208"></a>Paul in Second Corinthians again recalls this <a name="marker=464207"></a>defection among Christians of Asia. He says it felt like he was under the "sentence of death." In <a name="marker=464209"></a>2 Cor. 1:8-9, Paul writes:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464210"></a>(8) For we would not have you ignorant, brethren, concerning our affliction which befell us in Asia, that we were weighed down exceedingly, beyond our power, insomuch that we despaired even of life: (9) yea, we ourselves have had the sentence of death within ourselves, that we should not trust in ourselves, but in God who raiseth the dead: (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464211"></a>Hence, Paul alludes to an affliction in Proconsular Asia--in which Ephesus was the leading city--which felt like an experience of a death-sentence. The fact Paul was not killed is proof he is speaking figuratively. A church heresy verdict in Asia would perfectly fit Paul's meaning. If Paul were the one Jesus has in mind in<a name="marker=464212"></a>Revelation 2:2 (i.e., someone tried as a false claimant to being an apostle), such a verdict would be like a sentence of death. It would be a crushing blow to Paul's evangelism.</p>
<p> </p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464213"></a>
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<a name="39927"></a>Evidence of the Actual Verdict At Ephesus in The Writings of Tertullian in 207 A.D.</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464215"></a>It appears in 207 A.D. that <a name="marker=464214"></a>Tertullian in a work entitled <em>Against Marcion</em> memorializes the actual verdict at Ephesus against Paul. Tertullian is a leading member of the church of Carthage, and a prolific writer on Christian themes. He is one of the most respected of all the Christian writers who predate the Roman Catholic era which began in 325 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464216"></a>To understand Tertullian's words about Paul, we need to lay some background on church doctrine of that era and on <a name="marker=464217"></a>Marcion.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464232"></a><img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html-4.gif" />The early church commentators in the 125-325 A.D.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464235"> 11</a> period universally rejected almost all uniquely Pauline doctrines. Instead, in that period, almost all doctrine belonged to James' teachings.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464245"> 12</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464256"></a>This is never disputed by Paulinists. The first `orthodox' post-apostolic thinker who Paulinists ever cite as holding Pauline doctrines is Augustine from the late 300s A.D. He was the first and only early Christian voice to espouse predestination as taught by Paul. He also spoke of the gift of perseverance. <a name="marker=464257"></a>Augustine was a leading Roman Catholic figure whose writings date to the Fourth Century.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464258"></a>However, there was someone prior to Augustine who held Pauline doctrines on grace and salvation: it was <a name="marker=464259"></a>Marcion. He arose around 144 A.D. (See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed at <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#16930"></a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464260"></a>Despite Marcion's core doctrines agreeing with Paul, the early church in that period pursued Marcion and his followers as heretics. The Marcionites clearly held Paul's doctrines of salvation by faith alone (i.e. without obedience) as the true gospel. (See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203.#20618"></a>.) Marcion insisted the twelve apostles (and their gospel narratives) were wrong on the doctrine of grace. Marcion claimed their gospel narratives were for the era of Law. Marcion opted for a narrative of Jesus' life that reads a lot like Luke's gospel. However, it is missing the first three chapters of Luke and a few other passages. Based on Paul's letter to the Galatians, Marcion claimed the Law of Moses was abrogated. We do not have to obey the God of the `Old Testament' but only the God of the New.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464262"></a>To counter this movement, the issue of <a name="marker=464261"></a>Paul's validity had to be resolved. It is in this context that the well-respected Christian leader, <a name="marker=464263"></a>Tertullian, stood up in 207 A.D. and wrote <a name="marker=464264"></a>Against Marcion.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464265"></a>
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Tertullian's Points About Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464266"></a>What Tertullian wrote about Paul's validity has all the earmarks of what one would expect would be a judicial decision at Ephesus involving Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464268"></a><a name="marker=464267"></a>Tertullian makes the following sobering points about Paul:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464269"></a>Jesus never made Paul an apostle from the records that we can read.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464270"></a>Paul's claim to apostleship solely relies upon Paul's veracity.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464271"></a>If Paul were a true apostle, he is still an inferior apostle because Paul in Acts 15 submitted his doctrine to the twelve.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464272"></a>If Paul later varied from the twelve, we must regard the twelve as more authoritative than Paul because he came later.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464273"></a>Paul's claim of being selected as an apostle later by Jesus seems implausible. That story asks us to believe Jesus had not planned things adequately with the twelve.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464274"></a>Lastly, Jesus warned us of false prophets who would come doing miracles in His name and signs and wonders, and Paul perfectly matches that prophesied type of prophet.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464276"></a><a name="marker=464275"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464277"></a>This passage from Tertullian is quoted verbatim later in this book at this<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA395"> link</a>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464282"></a><a name="marker=464281"></a>Tertullian's words are an echo of precisely what one would expect to hear in a sensible verdict about Paul at Ephesus. Tertullian is apparently revealing to us the findings in the Revelation 2:2 hearing. Paul is not to be regarded as an apostle on par with the twelve, if at all. Whatever Paul truly represents in God's eyes, in our finite eyes we must realize Paul is subject to the authority and superior teaching of the twelve. Finally, Tertullian said Paul possibly is a liar and a false prophet because he came in the name of Christ with signs and wonders and only had himself as a witness of his apostolic status. Tertullian said this meant Paul potentially fits Jesus' express warning about false prophets. (See Matt. 7:21 et seq.) Thus, Tertullian concluded we must quote from Paul cautiously. In other words, only if Paul's words solidly line up with Jesus' words should we follow Paul's words.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a>Tertullian's teachings not only reflect apparently the ruling at Ephesus, but they also explain why we see the early church never following most of Paul's core teachings. This pattern continued for almost two millennia until <a name="marker=464284"></a>Luther revived Paulinism. In earliest Christianity, Paul must have been deemed inferior by the church at large, particularly on issues of salvation, or else the following facts make no sense:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464286"></a>The early church leaders from 125-325 A.D. universally reject almost all of Paul's unique doctrines, e.g., salvation by faith alone, total depravity, predestination, man lacks free-will, docetism, etc.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464292"> 13</a></li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464297"></a>The  Orthodox Church (now totalling 250 million members) can trace back its origins to that same early church. It existed in territories outside the Roman Empire and was free therefore to reject most of the errors later arising in Roman Catholicism (e.g., extreme Mariology, etc).<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464301"> 14</a> Yet, its doctrines are identical to the early church of 125-325 A.D. To this day the Orthodox reject all of Paul's uniquely Pauline doctrines. Furthermore, in direct contravention of Paul's directive in Galatians, the Orthodox also keep the Mosaic law's command to rest on <a name="marker=464303"></a>the Saturday-Sabbath. The Orthodox claim it was never abrogated. (They have always also worshipped on Sunday.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464306"> 15</a></li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464308"></a><a name="marker=464307"></a>Roman Catholicism, in the form we know it today, arose after 325 A.D.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464312"> 16</a> Despite all its flaws, it still retained some of the core teaching of James and Jesus on salvation, claiming sin causes loss of salvation. Thus, Catholicism has always rejected Paul's faith alone and eternal security teaching. <a name="marker=464319"></a>Augustine, however, misled Catholicism to adopt a Sacramental system where the church dispensed regeneration by baptism even to infants without faith. The Catholic church also did accept two doctrines espoused uniquely by Paul: original sin and the abrogation of the Mosaic law (e.g., abrogating Saturday<a name="marker=464320"></a>Sabbath for Christians). Thus, Catholicism in 363 A.D. broke the prior nearly universal tradition among Christians of keeping Saturday Sabbath. By contrast, the <a name="marker=464321"></a>Orthodox--who long ago severed ties with Roman Catholicism--reject the doctrine of original sin and Mariology while they have kept the<a name="marker=464322"></a>Saturday Sabbath for 2,000 years.</li>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464326"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464327"></a>This history demonstrates that the main church, other than heretics, all rejected Paul's unique core teachings for almost two millennia. Tertullian's words show a judicious approach to Paul, as if rendered by a court. Paul can be listened to insofar as he does not contradict Jesus. But we do not treat Paul as inspired, ever. We make no effort to bend Jesus' words to fit Paul's words. That appears to be the actual verdict at Ephesus. This explains why Paul's writings were allowed to be connected physically to the Lord's gospel. With a proper introduction, it was believed Paul's letters could be read for whatever worth they held. Otherwise, on any teaching at odds with Jesus, Paul had to be and was ignored.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464328"></a>Tertullian's comments on Paul's validity, therefore, if affixed as an introduction to Paul's letters, would allow us to sift the good from the bad. <a name="marker=464329"></a>Tertullian's thoughts on Paul were forgotten or ignored by Luther and Calvin. Their emphasis on Paul's words broke every caution that Tertullian put up in 207 A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464330"></a>Thus, the Reformation was launched in the 1520s based on Paul's writings without remembering how the church had kept Paul subordinate to the twelve. Paul was subordinate in particular to the four gospel accounts of the teachings of Jesus. This subordination apparently had been cemented in the verdict in Revelation 2:2. Paul's place in the church was decreed at Ephesus. Jesus commended the verdict in Revelation 2:2. It stood solid until the 1520s when Luther began proclaiming once again, like Marcion, the gospel of Paul.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464331"></a>Why Is Paul Then In the Post-Apostolic Canon Lists?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465634"></a>As noted above, Tertullian's view of Paul in 207 A.D. was that he was inferior to the true apostles. If this was well-known and accepted, then why was Paul added within the ensuing century to the New Testament canon? The answer primarily depends on recognition that canon back then did not mean what we mean by canon today. If we had the same concept of canon today as back then, we would be willing to include popular writers in our New Testament along with the inspired writers. We might attach the writings of C.S.Lewis or Billy Graham. We would know the difference. We would acknowledge both are inferior to the twelve apostles and Jesus. But we could still read them both for edification. This was Jerome's express understanding of canon in 411 A.D. That year Jerome personally affixed the Apocrypha to his complete translation of the Bible. This Bible was known as the Latin Vulgate. Jerome clearly said he added the Apocrypha solely because it was edifying. Its connection did not signify the Apocrypha could be used as the basis of doctrine. In other words, it was not inspired.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=465889"> 17</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465681"></a>This was also clearly the same point Tertullian made about Paul's writings in <em>Against Marcion</em> (207 A.D.). Tertullian demonstrated a judicious approach. He affirms Paul is not a true apostle and even is possibly a false prophet. Tertullian goes on to say Paul is "my apostle." He finds edifying doctrines of Paul that are consistent with Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465801"></a>Tertullian was not ignoring Paul had contrary doctrine to Jesus on salvation and eternal security. Tertullian goes to great lengths to refute Paul's contrary doctrines without mentioning Paul's name.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=465824"> 18</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465707"></a>Why did Tertullian make any effort to retain Paul for edification purposes while making otherwise highly critical observations about him and his doctrines? The reason appears obvious. Tertullian is battling the Marcionites. They claim Paul alone has the true gospel. It is a gospel where obedience does not matter any more. God saves the believer and no longer judges one for disobedience.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=465877"> 19</a> The Marcionites insist the twelve apostles were legalistic. The twelve presented a Jesus who made salvation turn on obedience. The Jesus of the twelve did not present the gospel of Paul. The twelve's gospel belonged to the God of the Old Testament. Paul's gospel belonged to the God of the New Testament.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=465883"> 20</a> Tertullian was obviously struggling to find a solution to this excessive marginalization of Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465944"></a>What solution did Tertullian choose? It was simple. He chose good politics. We can hold onto Paul, read him for edification purposes, but we must realize he is not inspired. He is not on par with the twelve. This is what explains Paul's presence in later canon lists.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465896"></a>Thus, early canon lists which add Paul can only be understood in light of Marcionism. Marcionite Paul-onlyism was bravely fought off by the church. The price of peace was that Jesus' true apostles had pre-eminence, but Paul's writings could be read for edification.</p>
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<a name="42739"></a>Luke Even Tells Us What Were The Charges of Heresy Against Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464351"></a>Returning to the specifics of the trial at Ephesus, Luke gives us another important tid-bit. From this morsel, we can deduce what was the charge against Paul at the Ephesus church. In Acts chapter 21, Luke tells us that Jews from Asia at Jerusalem were saying Paul spoke against the continuing validity of the Law and against the Jewish people's position within the New Covenant. In <a name="marker=464352"></a>Acts 21:28, "Jews from Asia" appeal to James for help, complaining: "This is the man that teacheth all men everywhere against the people and the Law...." These Jews were likely followers of Jesus. This is apparently why they appealed to James for help. They were saying Paul was teaching against the continuing role of national Israel as covenant-partner with God and against the Law of Moses. James then takes their side in conversations with Paul, which bolsters again the fact these were Christian Jews.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464354"></a><a name="18659"></a>The Biblical Basis to these Charges Against Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464369"></a><img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html-5.gif" />Of course, if Paul taught these things alleged in Acts 21:28, he would be contradicting God's promise of a New Covenant in <a name="marker=464370"></a>Jeremiah 31:31. This promise specifically insisted it was not to replace the Mosaic Law. Nor was the New Covenant intended to forsake national Israel as God's covenant-partner. Rather, in the book of Jeremiah, God made a point of promising a <a name="marker=464371"></a>"New Covenant with the House of Israel and Judah" based on intensifying internal knowledge of the Law of Moses. God would accompany this by revealing Himself more personally and offering forgiveness and mercy.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464374"> 21</a> Thus, the Covenant of Mercy (which this New Covenant represents) was marked by making the knowledge of the terms of the Law more readily known and practiced.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464377"> 22</a> As God similarly said in Isaiah, when His Servant (Messiah) comes, God "will magnify the Law (Torah), and make it honorable." (Isaiah 42:21 KJV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464378"></a>This Jeremiah prophecy also specifically said God did not mean by a new covenant to imply he was exchanging an old partner for a new one. Immediately after the promise of the "<a name="marker=464379"></a>New Covenant with the House of Israel and Judah," God declares how impossible it would be for Him to forsake the "seed of Israel...." Jeremiah chapter 31 reads:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464380"></a>(35) Thus saith Jehovah, who giveth the sun for a light by day, and the ordinances of the moon and of the stars for a light by night, who stirreth up the sea, so that the waves thereof roar; Jehovah of hosts is his name: (36) If these ordinances depart from before me, saith Jehovah, then the seed of Israel also shall cease from being a nation before me for ever. (37) Thus saith Jehovah: If heaven above can be measured, and the foundations of the earth searched out beneath, then will I also cast off all the seed of Israel for all that they have done, saith Jehovah. Jeremiah 31:35-37 (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464381"></a>Dr. Renald Showers, in a prominent feature article on John Ankerberg's website, says this is too clear to ignore. "[I]t is evident that God intended to establish the <a name="marker=464382"></a>New Covenant with the literal people of Israel."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464385"> 23</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464386"></a>Thus, because Paul indeed taught that God cut off Israel, abandoning her like Abraham did <a name="marker=464387"></a>Hagar and Ishmael in the desert (Gal. 4:25-26) and now salvation was through another lineage (i.e., Israel's father, Isaac) (Gal. 4:28), then Paul was guilty of the charge brought by the Asian Jews in Acts 21:28. The fact we know Paul taught both things charged by the "Asian Jews" heightens the probability he was convicted at Ephesus of such charges. Let's review the case.</p>
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<h3><a name="pgfId=464392"></a>Could A <a name="marker=464391"></a>Law Eternal for All Generations Be Abrogated in 33 A.D.?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464393"></a>To prove the likelihood that Paul could be found guilty at Ephesus, let's recreate the prosecutor's probable case.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464394"></a>This promise of a New Covenant toward the seed of Israel in Jeremiah 31:35-37 is itself based upon the promise of God that "these ordinances" of the Law shall be "everlasting for all <a name="marker=464395"></a>generations." (<a name="marker=464396"></a>Ex. 27:21; 30:21; Lev. 6:18; 7:36; 10:9; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; 24:3; Num. 10:8; 15:15.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464397"></a>Thus, for at least as long as humans have offspring, i.e., generations, the Law remains valid. We know this period will be at least until heaven and earth pass away. This is because on the Last Day when all are resurrected (<a name="marker=464398"></a>Rev. 20:13-15) appears "a new heaven and a new earth." (<a name="marker=464399"></a>Rev. 21:1.) Then simultaneously the righteous are resurrected. They become like angels. They no longer get married or have offspring. (<a name="marker=464400"></a>Matt. 22:30.) Thus, human generations cease on the Last Day. Thus, at least until <a name="marker=464401"></a>humans no longer have generations and instead when they become like angels, the Law remains valid. It is as Jesus says:</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464402"></a>For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass away from the law, till all things be accomplished. (Matt. 5:18.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464403"></a>Will the Law survive the passing of heavens and earth? We cannot know for sure. The only thing for sure we know that survives the passing of the heavens and earth are Jesus' words.</p>
<p class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464404"></a>Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. (Matt. 24:35.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464406"></a>Thus, because <a name="marker=464405"></a>Paul taught that a Jewish person was "<a name="marker=464407"></a>released" from the Law in 33 A.D. by accepting their Messiah (Rom. 7:2), Paul was contradicting God's promise that the Law was "eternal for all generations." This may change after all the heavens and earth pass away (i.e., when human generations cease), but that had not yet happened in 33 A.D. Thus, if the charges against Paul proved he said the Jewish people were released in 33 A.D. from their covenant obligation to keep the Law, Paul's Jewish-Christian opponents would have had a valid case against him.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464408"></a>In fact, we know Paul taught Jews were released from the Law in 33 A.D. Paul even insisted it was only because of stubbornness they continue to follow the Law. (Romans 7:1 et seq.; Rom. 10:21. See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%205.#42168"></a>et seq.; Luther, <em>Commentary on Galatians</em> 2:4-5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464412"></a>If Paul's letters did not prove these charges at Ephesus, we might doubt he was convicted there. However, because his actual writings prove the charges as true, there is a heightened probability that Paul was indeed convicted at Ephesus.</p>
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Conclusion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464414"></a>After Paul's death, Jesus reveals to John in Revelation some important lessons. One truth is that Jesus says there are twelve apostles. They are twelve pillars in the new heavens and earth. The number twelve is a number that is never increased in Jesus' mind, even after Paul's ministry is over. There is no thirteenth apostle. There is not a shred of evidence other than Paul's own testimony that he was an apostle. There is never any mention in Acts or by Paul himself that the twelve apostles accepted Paul as an apostle of Jesus Christ per se. None in Acts. None in John's letters. Never in Paul's letters. None certainly in Revelation. Not in any apostles' letter. Nor even in the pseudograph Second Peter.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2010html.html#pgfId=464417"> 24</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464421"></a>Revelation 2:2 must therefore be talking about Paul. Jesus commends the Ephesians for finding someone lied when he said he was an apostle and was not. Paul was someone whom the Bible reveals told the Ephesians that he was an apostle, was not, and thus must be untruthful in this respect. Insert these facts about Paul into Revelation 2:2. One clear answer emerges: Revelation 2:2 identifies Paul. This means Jesus called Paul a liar. It also means Jesus commends the church for making this kind of evaluation. It proves we cannot shirk our duty to test the uncorroborated claims of Paul.</p>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465055"></a>Dietrich Bonhoeffer, a Lutheran Pastor, wrote a book in 1937 entitled Cost of Discipleship. Bonhoeffer writes an entire book on salvation-principles that ignores Paul's doctrines. Bonhoeffer then expounds Jesus' principles on salvation and the Law. By doing so, Bonhoeffer subtly outlines what Jesus' Words Only means in terms of renovation of our doctrine: Preach and teach from Jesus' words alone.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465131"></a>First, Bonhoeffer concludes that Jesus has every intention that the Law (the Ten Commandments) survive in the New Testament. Bonhoeffer comments on Matthew 19:16-24. There Jesus answers on how to have eternal life by telling the young man "if you would enter life, obey the commandments." Bonhoeffer says Jesus, by quoting the Ten Commandments, has made a call "to a simple obedience to the will of God as it has been revealed." (Cost, id., at 72.) Jesus reaffirms the Ten Commandments "as the commandments of God." (Id., at 73.) Jesus is saying we must "get on with the task of obedience" and it is "high time the young man began to hear the commandment and obey it." (Id.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465092"></a>Bonhoeffer then excoriates Christians who use Paul's attack on legalism to undermine Jesus' message:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=465090"></a>We are excusing ourselves from single-minded obedience to the words of Jesus [to the young rich man] on the pretext [that this endorses] legalism and a supposed preference for the obedience `in faith.' (Id., at 80.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465056"></a>As to faith-and-works, Bonhoeffer ignores the dialectic of Paul. Instead, Bonhoeffer pits cheap grace against costly grace. Bonhoeffer says contemporary Christian churches which teach free grace engage in a "deliberate rejection" of Christ's teachings of the personal costliness of salvation. (Id. at 36.) Jesus' message of a costly grace has been overlaid with "the superstructure of... doctrinal elements" in modern preaching that destroys the cost-element Jesus demanded. (Id.) Bonhoeffer discusses several parables to prove obedience to the Law and repentance from sin are key.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465156"></a>As a result, Bonhoeffer envisioned an entire renovation of the Christian church. He believed that cheap grace had infected all our doctrine. We were a "Christianity without Christ." (<em>Cost of Discipleship, supra</em>, at 39.) Bonhoeffer had some even tougher words. He says of the cheap grace gospel that "Christ is misunderstood anew, and again and again put to death." (Bonhoefffer, <em>Christ the Center</em> (1960) at 35.)</p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464106"></a>Some of the oldest surviving manuscripts omit explicit mention of Ephesus in verse 1. <a name="marker=464107"></a>Metzger argues this was due to an earlier effort to universalize the letter. Metzger concludes it probably did originally mention Ephesus. (Bruce M. Metzger, <em>The Canon of the New Testament: Its Origin, Development, and Significance</em> (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1987) at 265.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464113"></a>Alan F. Segal,<em> Paul the Convert</em> (New Haven: Yale University Press, 1990) at 189.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464136"></a>Alan Johnson, "Revelation," <em>Hebrews-Revelation in The Expositor's Bible Commentary</em> (Ed. F.E. Gaebelein)(Zondervan: 1981) Vol. 12 at 434.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464142"></a>See, e.g.,1 Cor. 1:1; 2 Cor. 1:1; Galatians 1:1; 1 Ti. 1:1. See, viz., "For I am the least of the apostles, that am not meet to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God." (<a name="marker=464143"></a>1 Cor. 15:9, ASV) and "For I reckon that I am not a whit behind the very chiefest apostles." (<a name="marker=464144"></a>2 Cor. 11:5, ASV).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464147"></a>John Crossan &amp; Jonathan Reed,<em> In Search of Paul: How Jesus' Apostle Opposed Rome's Empire with God's Kingdom</em> (San Francisco: Harper San Francisco, 2004) at 29.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464155"></a>Luke does describe Paul and Barnabas as messengers from the church at Antioch. In <a name="marker=464156"></a><a name="marker=464157"></a>Acts 14:4 and 14, the Greek word for messenger is used for them,<a name="marker=464158"></a>apostoli. However, as the Christian historian Ben <a name="marker=464159"></a>Witherington explains: "The use of the term apostoli in [Acts] 14:4 and 14 seems to indicate that Paul and Barnabas are being viewed as agents/apostles of the Antioch church (cf. 2 Cor. 8:23), not apostles with a capital A." (Witherington, <em>New Testament History</em> (Baker Academic: 2001) at 229.) In fact, the context clearly shows Paul was merely a messenger (apostolos) of the church of Antioch. Paul was not one of the apostoli of Jesus. Even if Luke had called Paul an apostle of Jesus, Luke does not attribute such title as coming from the twelve apostles, or from Jesus in any vision that Paul relates. Thus, it would have been Luke's remark alone. Luke never claims he himself is a prophet. Nor even if he was a prophet, we still lack the second witness. Nevertheless, Luke's meaning was apostoli with a small a. Paul was a messenger from Antioch.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464163"></a><a name="32698"></a>Jesus was corroborated by God's Holy Spirit in the appearance of a Dove as well as the Father's voice from heaven. (Matt. 3:16-17.) Paul lacks any corroboration on his claim. The theme of corroboration by two witnesses runs throughout the Bible. The Law said that no crime could be established by a single witness. (Deut. 19:15, "any crime or any wrong"). Jesus taught in event of a dispute over a wrong, obtain witnesses so by "the mouth of two witnesses or three every word may be established." (Mat 18:16.) Why must this principle apply to would-be apostles? Because without two witnesses with competent knowledge, one's claim is entirely self-serving. If two witnesses were needed to prove a crime, how much more so to prove something far more important eternally such as one being an apostle. In this case, the Ephesians must have realized proof that someone was an apostle required more than the person's say-so that he was an apostle. Just as Jesus' witnesses were the voice of Yahweh and the Holy Spirit in the form of a dove, Paul needed two witnesses. In this case, the only valid two witnesses would be Jesus on one side and/or the joint decision of the twelve apostles of Jesus Christ on the other. The binding authority of the apostles required a joint decision, and not the solitary decision of a single apostle. This is precisely how Matthias was added as the twelfth. (See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2018.#21020"></a>.) However, such proof from either Jesus or the twelve is entirely lacking in the New Testament. Paul's supposed apostleship is never stated by Jesus in any of the three vision accounts in Acts. Nor is such an assertion about Paul found in any apostolic speech in Acts or letter of an apostle of Jesus Christ. Not even the pseudograph of 2 Peter says Paul is an apostle. (On its pseudograph nature, see Appendix B.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=465314"></a>Revelation 2:2 specifically says the persons on trial "said" they were apostles. Yet, such a self-serving statement did not suffice. Jesus says the claimants were appropriately found to be liars. Thus, Jesus' own words in Revelation 2:2 agree that self-serving testimony cannot ever be the basis to treat someone as an apostle of Jesus Christ.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464182"></a>For background on Ephesus, see Ben Witherington, <em>New Testament History</em> (Baker Academic: 2001) at 280.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464206"></a>It is hard to imagine after three months of Paul's preaching ("reasoning and persuading concerning the kingdom of God") that this assembly lacked a significant support for Jesus as Messiah. Paul apparently always preached correctly the Messianic prophecies in the Law and Prophets. (Acts 28:23 et seq.) Thus, there could have been a significant number among the leadership who accepted Jesus as Messiah. However, then Luke says "some were hardened" at the end of this three month period. It does not appear this came at the leadership level. Apparently something Paul said at the end of three months turned off influential members completely to Paul's version of the Way. Thus, it appears the leadership of the assembly had previously turned to Christ, but now influential members objected to Paul's preaching there, forcing a trial to resolve the issue. Thus, this synagogue qualifies to be seen as the assembly mentioned in Revelation 2:2.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464235"></a>This is the period that antedates the rise of Roman Catholicism as we think of it today. While there was a bishop of Rome since apostolic times, there was no superiority of this bishop acknowledged by any others until after 325 A.D. Even after that point, this superiority was only recognized within the Roman Empire. Within its territory, the Roman government gave official sanction and exclusive legitimacy to the <a name="marker=464236"></a>Roman Catholic Church. See Roman Catholicism as we know it today was created after 325 A.D. After that date, the Roman Emperors authorized it to exert authority over all Christian churches in the Roman Empire. As a result, the papacy as we know it today arose sometime after 325 A.D. There is no denying that Peter around 47 A.D. founded a branch church at Rome. He did the same earlier at Antioch. That gave Rome a co-equal claim with the church at Antioch to apostolic origin. This gave Rome a superior claim in the West over churches outside Antioch's influence. (Sixty-six churches were under Antioch's authority.) The Roman church did become a leader among its close neighbors. (See Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 3:1:1 (A.D. 189); Eusebius, History of the Church, 6:14:1.) But was this a direct administrative control by infallible decree as we know today? No. Roman Catholic authorities try to prove the papacy existed in the pre-325 period from two examples. However, even by these official Catholic accounts, both times the bishop of Rome tried to exert influence outside Rome, it was not appreciated. It is resisted. The first example is from Tertullian. Tertullian ridicules the effort by the Roman bishop to be "bishop of bishops." This belies the authority was welcome or accepted. It certainly shows leaders at Carthage like Tertullian did not deem the Roman bishop's authority as infallible. The final example they cite is from Irenaeus, but it is more of the same. Rather than proving the papacy existed prior to 325 A.D., these two examples prove just the opposite. (See "The Pope," The Catholic Encyclopedia, http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/12260a.htm.) Another distinctive doctrine of the Roman Catholics is that Mary was sinless.This too materialized late. It was a doctrine rejected in the so-called patristic age (125-325 A.D.) As the Catholic Encyclopedia concedes, "in regard to the sinlessness of Mary, the older Fathers are very cautious: some of them even seem to be in error on the matter." ("Immaculate Conception," C. Enc., http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07674d.htm.) Thus, what makes Roman Catholicism distinctly Catholic arose after 325 A.D. There were many later accretions that we also think of as Catholic, but they did not pre-exist 325 A.D. These include the following familiar doctrines: purgatory as doctrine (593 A.D.); prayers to Mary and dead saints (600 A.D.); celibacy of priesthood (1079 A.D.); indulgences (1190 A.D.); purgatory as dogma (1439 A.D.) etc. Thus, Roman Catholicism as we know it today arose after 325 A.D. It cannot trace its distinctive papal office and unique doctrines back any farther in historical records.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464245"></a><a name="31515"></a><a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#34087"></a><a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#10879"></a><a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#27469"></a><a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#22325"></a>See also Paul or James' Church: Who Was The Most Successful Evangelist?, available online exclusively at www.jesuswordsonly.com.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464292"></a>See See "Patristic Era (125-325 A.D.) Rejected Paul's Salvation Doctrine" on page 425. See "The Patristic Era Church Also Rejected Paul's Predestination Doctrine" on page 432. See "The Patristic Era Also Blasted Paul's Doctrine on Eating Idol Meat" on page 435. See "The Eastern Orthodox Church &amp; Paul" on page 438. See also Paul or James' Church: Who Was The Most Successful Evangelist?, available online exclusively at www.jesuswordsonly.com. . On Paul's docetism, and its rejection, see Chapter 13 -<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA317"> Was John's Epistle Identifying Paul As A False Prophet</a>?</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464301"></a>While the Orthodox do not engage in extreme <a name="marker=464300"></a>Mariology, they do have a potentially unhealthy attention on Mary. The Orthodox "do not view Mary as a Mediator and Co-redemptrix as does the Roman Catholic church, but it does view Mary as the perpetual virgin and as an intercessor to be prayed to. Orthodox theologians are quick to deny that Mary is to be worshiped...." (Bill Crouse, <em>The Orthodox Church</em> (C.I.M.)) However, it is obvious praying to any person for supernatural assistance other than God is having another god before the True God. It is idol-worship. It violates the First and Second Commandments.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464306"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#22325"></a>[to be added].</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464312"></a><a name="21029"></a>Roman Catholicism as we know it today was created after 325 A.D. After that date, the Roman Emperors authorized it to exert authority over all Christian churches in the Roman Empire. As a result, the papacy as we know it today arose sometime after 325 A.D. There is no denying that <a name="marker=464313"></a>Peter around 47 A.D. founded a branch church at Rome. He did the same earlier at Antioch. That gave Rome a co-equal claim with the church at Antioch to apostolic origin. This gave Rome a superior claim in the West over churches outside Antioch's influence. (Sixty-six churches were under Antioch's authority.) The Roman church did become a leader among its close neighbors. (See <a name="marker=464314"></a>Irenaeus, <em>Against Heresies</em>, 3:1:1 (A.D. 189); Eusebius, <em>History of the Church</em>, 6:14:1.) But was this a direct administrative control by infallible decree as we know today? No. Roman Catholic authorities try to prove the <a name="marker=464315"></a>papacy existed in the pre-325 period from two examples. However, even by these official Catholic accounts, both times the bishop of Rome tried to exert influence outside Rome, it was not appreciated. It is resisted. The first example is from Tertullian. <a name="marker=464316"></a>Tertullian ridicules the effort by the Roman bishop to be "bishop of bishops." This belies the authority was welcome or accepted. It certainly shows leaders at Carthage like Tertullian did not deem the Roman bishop's authority as infallible. The final example they cite is from Irenaeus, but it is more of the same. Rather than proving the papacy existed prior to 325 A.D., these two examples prove just the opposite. (See "The Pope," The Catholic Encyclopedia, http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/12260a.htm.) Another distinctive doctrine of the Roman Catholics is that Mary was sinless.This too materialized late. It was a doctrine rejected in the <a name="marker=464317"></a>so-called patristic age (125-325 A.D.) As the Catholic Encyclopedia concedes, "in regard to the sinlessness of Mary, the older Fathers are very cautious: some of them even seem to be in error on the matter." ("Immaculate Conception," C. Enc., http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07674d.htm.) Thus, what makes <a name="marker=464318"></a>Roman Catholicism distinctly Catholic arose after 325 A.D. There were many later accretions that we also think of as Catholic, but they did not pre-exist 325 A.D. These include the following familiar doctrines: purgatory as doctrine (593 A.D.); prayers to Mary and dead saints (600 A.D.); celibacy of priesthood (1079 A.D.); indulgences (1190 A.D.); purgatory as dogma (1439 A.D.) etc. Thus, Roman Catholicism as we know it today arose after 325 A.D. It cannot trace its distinctive papal office and unique doctrines back any farther in historical records.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=465889"></a>See [to be added] <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202.#15443"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=465824"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#32092"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=465877"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203.#40397"></a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=465883"></a>See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#16930"></a>of Appendix B.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=464374"></a>Jeremiah 31:31-34 (ASV) reads: "Behold, the days come, saith Jehovah [i.e. Yahweh], that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:...This is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith Jehovah: I will put my Law [Torah] in their inward parts, and in their heart will I write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people: and they shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know Jehovah [i.e., Yahweh]; for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith Jehovah: for I will forgive their iniquity, and their sin will I remember no more."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=464377"></a>As one Jewish commentator explains Jer. 31:31 et seq, it "implies no rejection of the Covenant of the Torah (aka `the Law') but rather that the Law shall be `inscribed in hearts' of the Jewish people, i.e., they will not have to study the Law, as before, but all of its details will be known `by heart' and practiced by every Jew...." (A Primer: Why Jews Cannot Believe in Jesus (2003) (available online.) Indeed, how could "inscribed in their hearts" mean what Paulinists claim it means instead--the Law was abrogated entirely?</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=464385"></a>See Dr. Renald Showers, The New Covenant, at http://www.ankerberg.com/Articles/biblical-prophecy/BP1102W1.htm (2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=464417"></a>Most Christian scholars of every stripe, including Calvin, agree Second Peter is a false addition to scripture. See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#25704"></a>of Appendix B. Even if written by Apostle Peter, it does not help Paul's case. Second Peter does not describe him as an apostle. While Second Peter does imply Paul's writings are "Scripture," that does not mean what one might suppose. The word Scripture corresponds to the Hebrew for Writings. The Bible of that era was: Torah (Law), Prophets &amp; Writings. The Writings section meant the book was not yet recognized as fully inspired. Thus, Daniel was kept in the Writings not the Prophets section as of Jesus' day. It was not yet recognized that Daniel's prophecies had come to pass. Thus, even if Peter implied Paul's writings were scripture, this does not carry with it the connotation we give the word scripture today.</p>
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<td valign="top" ><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times;">"I must approach this inquiry with uneasiness when I find [Paul] affirmed to be an apostle of whom in the list of apostles in the gospel I find no trace." (Tertullian)</span></td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Thirteen: Did John's Epistle Identify Paul As A False Prophet?</h2>
<p><span class="Apple-style-span" style="border-collapse: separate; font-style: normal; font-variant: normal; font-weight: normal; letter-spacing: normal; line-height: normal; orphans: 2; text-indent: 0px; text-transform: none; white-space: normal; widows: 2; word-spacing: 0px; font-size: medium; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; color: #000000;">
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<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';">Introduction</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464096"></a><a name="marker=464095"></a>John's First &amp; Second Epistle talk in words reminiscent of Revelation 2:2. John speaks in his first epistle about testing those who claim to have come from God. John says you can find them to be false prophets. John writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464097"></a>Dear friends, don't believe everyone who claims to have the Spirit of God. Test them all to find out if they really do come from God. Many false prophets have already gone out into the world (<a name="marker=464098"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 4:1 CEV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464099"></a>In John's epistles, John thereafter gives us several tests that his readers can use to know whether some alleged prophet comes from God.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464100"></a>His spirit [does not] say that Jesus Christ had <em><strong>truly human flesh</strong></em> (sarx, flesh). (<a name="marker=464101"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 Jn 4:2.)</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464102"></a>We belong to God, and everyone who knows God will listen to us [i.e., the twelve apostles]. But the people who don't know God <em><strong>won't listen to us</strong></em>. That is how we can tell the Spirit that speaks the truth from the one that tells<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464103"></a>lies. (<a name="marker=464104"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 4:6 CEV.)</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464105"></a>These people came from our own group, yet they were not part of us. If they had been part of us, they would have stayed with us. <em><strong>But they left,</strong></em> which proves that they did not belong to our group. (<a name="marker=464106"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 2:19 ASV.)</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464107"></a>Whoever transgresses [<em>i.e.</em>, goes beyond] and doesn't remain in the <em><strong>teachings of Christ</strong></em>, doesn't have God [<em>i.e.</em>, breaks fellowship with God]. He who <em><strong>remains in the teachings [of Jesus Christ]</strong></em>, the same has both the Father and the Son. (<a name="marker=464108"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>2 John 1:9 Websters.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464109"></a>Thus, John gives us several criteria to identify the false prophets even if they "claim to have the Spirit" of God:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464110"></a>They teach a heresy that Jesus did not come in truly human flesh (i.e., his flesh just appeared to be human flesh); or</li>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464111"></a>They do not listen to the twelve apostles; or</li>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464112"></a>They became a part of the apostles' group but left the apostles' group; or</li>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464113"></a>They do not remain in the teachings by the twelve of what Jesus taught.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464114"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464115"></a>As hard as it may be to believe, each of these four points in First and<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464116"></a>Second John apply to Paul.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';">Did Paul Refuse to Listen to the Apostles?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464119"></a>First, Paul did not listen to the<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464118"></a>twelve apostles. Paul rails in Galatians 2:1-9 at the three "so-called" apostolic pillars of the Jerusalem church (including John) (<a name="marker=464120"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Gal. 2:9). Paul says again they were "reputed to be something" (<a name="marker=464121"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Gal. 2:2,6), but "whatsoever they were it makes no difference to me; God does not accept a man's person [i.e., judge by their position and rank]." (<a name="marker=464122"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Gal. 2:6.) Paul then expressly declares that he received nothing from the twelve<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464123"></a>apostles.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464124"></a>I say [those] who were of repute [i.e., the apostles in context] <em><strong>imparted nothing to me</strong></em>, but contrariwise they saw that I was entrusted with the gospel of the uncircumcision. (<a name="marker=464125"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Gal. 2:7.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>Paul was<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464126"></a>boasting of his failure to take any information about Jesus's teachings from the original apostles at Jerusalem. He claimed his failure to do so was positive proof his message for Gentiles came direct from God. Paul puts a spin on his behavior that he would be a lesser figure in Christendom had he learned anything about Jesus from the twelve!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464128"></a>Please read all the commentaries you can on those verses. They all agree on this characterization of Paul's meaning. Read the verses yourself to verify the disdain Paul was expressing toward learning anything about Jesus from the apostles or the reputed pillars of the church--Peter, John, and James.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464129"></a>Now listen again to what John--one of the three mentioned by Paul as "seeming pillars"--had to say about this kind of behavior. John writes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a>We belong to God, and everyone who knows God will listen to us [<em>i.e.</em>, the twelve apostles]. But the people who don't know God <em><strong>won't listen to us</strong></em>. That is how we can tell the Spirit that speaks the truth from the one that tells lies. (<a name="marker=464131"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 4:6 CEV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a>John clearly would regard someone such as Paul who refused to learn from the twelve as someone who does not "know God." The fact Paul would not listen to the twelve (and was proud of it) allows us to realize Paul is one who "tells lies," if we accept John's direction.</p>
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<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="15088"></a>Paul's Admission of Parting Ways With the Apostles</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464136"></a>Paul also fits<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464135"></a>1 John 2:19 because he left their group. Paul admits this. However, Paul claims it was because the twelve apostles decided they would alone focus on Jews and Paul alone would go to the Gentiles.<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464137"></a>Paul's explanation is implausible in the extreme. Let's follow John's directive to "test" those who claim to have the Spirit. We will see Paul's<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464138"></a>admitted split from the twelve apostles is more proof that John is speaking of Paul in veiled terms.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464140"></a>In<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464139"></a>Galatians 2:9, Paul tells us:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464141"></a>and when they perceived the grace that was given unto me, James and Cephas and John, they who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship, that <em><strong>we should go unto the Gentiles</strong></em>, and <em><strong>they unto the circumcision</strong></em>;</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464142"></a>Does Paul's account, any way you mull it over, make sense? Not only are there issues of plausibility, but, if Paul is telling the truth, it means the twelve apostles were willing to violate the Holy Spirit's guidance to the twelve that Peter was the Apostle to the Gentiles, as is clearly stated in Acts 15:7.</p>
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<h2 class="Heading2" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464143"></a>God Already Appointed Peter the Apostle to the Gentiles</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464144"></a>The Holy Spirit had already showed the twelve that<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464145"></a>Peter (not Paul) was the Apostle to the Gentiles. At the<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464146"></a>Jerusalem Council, with Paul among those at his feet, Peter gets up and says he is the Apostle to the Gentiles in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464147"></a>Acts 15:7:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464148"></a>And when there had been much disputing, <em><strong>Peter rose up</strong></em>, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the <em><strong>Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe</strong></em>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464149"></a>Peter's statement in Acts 15:7 means God had spoken to him about his task to preach to Gentiles. We even have evidence what that included. God showed Peter visions of the unclean food so he would know to reach the Gentiles. As a result, Peter had converted<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464150"></a>Cornelius in Acts chapter 10.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a>If Peter sincerely believed "God made choice among us that" he was the apostle to the Gentiles in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464152"></a>Acts 15:7, why would Peter later give this mission up to Paul? Yet, Paul in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464153"></a>Galatians 2:9 clearly says Peter agreed Paul would go to the Gentiles and "<em><strong>they [i.e., Peter &amp; the Jerusalem leaders] unto the circumcision </strong></em>[i.e., Jews]."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464154"></a>What Paul claims happened makes no sense. If it happened by mutual agreement, then you would have to conclude Peter believed God changed his mind about Peter's role. This would require Peter to disregard God's choice a "good while ago" mentioned in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464155"></a>Acts 15:7 that he be the Apostle to the Gentiles. This is completely implausible.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a>Thus, to believe Paul, you have to believe God would change His mind who was to go to the Gentiles. Yet, for what purpose? Wouldn't two be better than one? Why would God cut out Peter entirely?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a>Furthermore, why would Peter diminish this Gentile ministry among the twelve that he initiated with Cornelius? Why would he put Paul alone as the leader to convert Gentiles? Moreover, there were Gentiles right in Jerusalem. How could the apostles sensibly divide up their mission field on the basis of Gentile and Jew?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464158"></a>The answer to all these paradoxes is quite obvious. Paul is putting a good spin on a division between himself and the home church. By claiming in a letter to Gentiles that he was still authorized to evangelize to them, they would believe him. They could not phone Jerusalem to find out the truth. Now listen to John's evaluation of what this really meant:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464159"></a>These people came from our own group, yet they were not part of us. If they had been part of us, they would have stayed with us. <strong><em>But they left</em></strong>, which proves that they did not belong to our group. (<a name="marker=464160"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 2:19 ASV)</p>
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<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="39509"></a>Did Paul Teach Jesus Did Not Truly Have Human Flesh?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a>Most Christians might concede the prior<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464163"></a>points from First John possibly apply to Paul. What most Christians would not concede as possible is that Paul also taught Jesus did not have truly human flesh.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a>Before we address this point, let's distinguish this next point from what has preceded. This `human flesh' issue is a completely independent ground to evaluate Paul. John could be talking about Paul on the issue of leaving their group (<a name="marker=464166"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 2:19) and not listening to the twelve (<a name="marker=464167"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 John 4:6), but not be addressing Paul on the `human flesh issue' in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464168"></a>1 John 4:2. One point does not necessarily have anything to do with the other.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a>That said, let's investigate whether this issue of `human flesh' in 1 John 4:2 applies to Paul as well.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464170"></a>To understand what teaching John is opposing when he faults as deceivers those who say "Jesus did not have human flesh," one must have a little schooling in church history. We today assume John is talking about people who say Jesus came in an imaginary way. This is not John's meaning.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464171"></a>The heresy that John is referring to is the claim Jesus did not have truly human flesh. Marcion's doctrine is an example of this viewpoint. Marcion came on the scene of history in approximately 144 A.D. John's epistle is written earlier, and thus is not actually directed at Marcion. Marcion helps us, however, to identify the precursor heresy that John is attacking. Marcion's doctrines are well-known. Marcion taught salvation by faith alone, the Law of Moses was abrogated, and he insisted Paul alone had the true Gospel, to the exclusion of the twelve apostles. (See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed at<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>.) Upon whom did Marcion claim his authority that Jesus only came in the appearance of human flesh? It was obviously Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464173"></a><a name="marker=464172"></a>Marcion said, according to Tertullian's derisive quote, that Jesus "was <em><strong>not what he appeared to be.</strong></em>..[saying He was]<strong><em> flesh and yet not flesh</em></strong>, man and not yet man...." (<a name="marker=464174"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Tertullian, <em>On Marcion</em>, 3.8.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464175"></a>Marcion was not denying Jesus came and looked like a man. Rather, Marcion was claiming that Jesus' flesh could not be human in our sense. Why? What did Marcion mean?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a>Marcion was a devout Paulinist, as mentioned before. Paul taught the doctrine that all human flesh inherits the original sin of Adam. (Romans chapter 5.) If Jesus truly had human flesh, Marcion must have been concerned that Jesus would have come in a human flesh which Paul taught was inherently sinful due to the taint of<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464177"></a>original sin. Incidentally, Paul's ideas on human flesh being inherently sinful was<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464178"></a><a name="marker=464179"></a>contrary to Hebrew Scriptures which taught all flesh was clean unless some practice or conduct made it unclean. (See, <em>e.g.</em>, Lev. 15:2 et seq.) In light of Paul's new doctrine, Marcion wanted to protect Jesus from being regarded as inherently sinful. Thus, Marcion was denying Jesus had truly human flesh.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464181"></a><a name="marker=464180"></a>Marcion's teaching on Jesus' flesh is known by scholars as<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464182"></a><em>docetism</em>. The word docetism comes from a Greek work that means appear. Docetism says Jesus only appeared to come in human flesh. Docetism also became popular later among Gnostics who taught salvation by knowledge and mysteries. (<a name="marker=464183"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Marcion taught salvation by faith in Jesus, so he is not Gnostic in the true sense.) The Gnostics were never the threat to Christianity that the Marcionites represented. Gnostics were simply writers who had no churches. The<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464184"></a>Marcionites, on the other hand, were successful in establishing a competing Paul-oriented Christian church system in most major cities that rivaled the churches founded by the twelve apostles. The Marcionites had church buildings, clergy, regular services, etc.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464185"></a>It was in this context that John's letter from the 90s A.D., in particular<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464186"></a>1 John 4:2, must be understood as condemning docetism. John's epistle became crucial later in defeating Marcionism. This victory did not decisively happen until the 400s. Marcionite churches survived even into the eighth century A.D., but they remained weak. They later even spawned the Armenian<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464187"></a>Paulicians. This group endured into the 1200s.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464188"></a>However, a mystery remains. John in the 90s A.D. is writing 50 years prior to Marcion's appearance on the stage of world history.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464189"></a>Then of whom was John speaking? Was it Paul who Marcion claimed as his mentor in all things? Did Paul teach docetism?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464191"></a>Yes. <strong><em>Heretical<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464190"></a>docetism is found expressly in Paul.</em></strong> For Paul writes Jesus only appeared to be a man and to come in sinful human flesh.<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><img src="/chapter 13html-2.gif" align="RIGHT" />(<a name="marker=464201"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Rom. 8:3 <strong><em>"likeness</em></strong>" or "appearance" of "sinful human flesh;"<a href="#pgfId=464204" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>1</a><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>see also<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464205"></a>Phil. 2:7 "<em><strong>appeared </strong></em>to be a man".)<a href="#pgfId=464208" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a>Specialists in ancient Greek who are Christian struggle to find no heresy in Paul's words in both passages.<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464210"></a>Vincent is one of the leading Christian scholars who has done a Greek language commentary on the entire New Testament. Here is how Vincent's Word Studies tries to fashion an escape from Paul uttering heresy. First, Vincent explains Paul literally says in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464211"></a>Romans 8:3 that Jesus came in the likeness of the flesh of sin. Vincent then says had Paul not used the word likeness, Paul would be saying Jesus had come in "the sin of flesh," which "would [then] have represented Him as partaking of sin." Thus, Vincent says Paul does not deny Jesus came in the flesh (<em>i.e.</em>, Paul is not denying Jesus' humanity), but rather Paul insists that Jesus came only in the likeness of sinful flesh.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464213"></a>My answer to<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464212"></a>Vincent is simple: <strong><em>you have proved my case</em></strong>. Vincent is conceding the Greek word <em>homomati</em> (which translates as <em>likeness</em>) means Jesus did not truly come in the flesh of sin. Vincent is intentionally ignoring what this means in Paul's theology. To Paul, all flesh is sinful. There is no such thing as flesh that is holy in Paul's outlook. For Paul, you are either in the Spirit or in the flesh. The latter he equates with sin. (Gal. 5:5,16-20.) So Paul is saying Jesus only appeared to come in sinful human flesh. In Paul's theology of original sin (Rom. ch. 5), this is the same thing as saying Jesus did not come in truly human flesh. It only appeared to be human (sinful) flesh. Paul was completely docetic. That is how Marcion formed his doctrine: straight from Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464215"></a>Furthermore, when you compare Romans 8:3 to<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464214"></a>Philippians 2:7, there is no mistaking Paul's viewpoint. In<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464216"></a>Philippians 2:7, Paul this time says Jesus came in the "likeness (<em>homomati</em>) of men," not flesh of sin. Following Vincent's previous agreement on <em>homomati</em>'s meaning, this verse says Jesus did not truly come as a man. He just appeared as if he was a man. Vincent again struggles desperately to offer an interpretation of Philippians 2:7 that avoids Paul being a heretic. Vincent ends up conceding "<em><strong>likeness of men </strong></em>expresses the fact that His Mode of manifestation <strong><em>resembled what men are</em></strong>." When you strip away Vincent's vague words, Vincent concedes<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464217"></a>Paul teaches Jesus only appeared to be a man. Thus, he was not truly a man. This means Paul was 100% docetic. Listen to John's evaluation of the false prophets:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464218"></a>His spirit [does not] say that Jesus Christ had <strong><em>a truly human flesh</em></strong> (sarx, flesh). (<a name="marker=464219"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>1 Jn 4:2.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464220"></a>Was Marcion really that far from Paul? As Tertullian summarized Marcion's view, we hear the clear echo of Paul. Marcion taught Jesus "was not what he appeared to be...[saying He was] flesh and yet not flesh, man and not yet man...." (<a name="marker=464221"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span></a>Tertullian, <em>On Marcion</em>, 3.8.)</p>
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<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';">John's Epistles Are Aimed At A False Teacher Once at Ephesus</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464223"></a>The likelihood that John's epistles are veiled ways of talking about Paul gets stronger when we look at other characteristics of the heretic John is identifying in his first two epistles. Historians acknowledge that John's epistles are written of events "almost certainly in Asia Minor in or near Ephesus."<a href="#pgfId=464226" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>3</a><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>John's concern, Ivor Davidson continues, was about someone in that region who said Jesus was "not truly a flesh-and-blood human being." To counter him, John also later wrote in his Gospel that the Word "became flesh" (John 1:14.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464227"></a>Who could John be concerned about who taught docetism in that region of<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464228"></a>Ephesus? Again the answer is obviously Paul. For it was Paul who wrote in<a name="marker=464229"></a>Romans 8:3 and<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464230"></a>Philippians 2:7 that Jesus only appeared to come as a man and in sinful human flesh. Paul must have carried the same message with himself to Ephesus. John's focus in his epistles is obviously on the same person of whom Revelation 2:2 is identifying was "a liar" to the Ephesians.<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464231"></a>John has the same person in mind in the same city of<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464232"></a>Ephesus. John's intended object must be Paul.</p>
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<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';">Did Papias Understand John's Epistle Message Was Against Paul?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464234"></a>The only later figure whom we confidently can conclude knew Apostle John is<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464235"></a>Papias. He was John's pupil. Papias appears to have understood Apostle John was criticizing Paul. The surviving fragments of the writings of Papias, bishop of Hierapolis (130 A.D.) "do not contain any quotation from Paul" even while quoting John's Gospel and 1 Peter.<a href="#pgfId=464238" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>4</a><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>This and other evidence led Christian scholar Charles M. Nielsen to argue that Papias was writing "against a growing `Paulinis' [<em>i.e.</em>, Paulinism] in Asia Minor circa 125-135 A.D., just prior to full blown Marcionism [<em>i.e.</em>, Paul-only-ism]."<a href="#pgfId=464241" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>5</a><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>Nielsen contends Papias' opponent was Polycarp, bishop of Smyrna, who favored Paul. (We have more to say on Polycarp in a moment.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464242"></a>Thus, in Papias--a bishop of the early church and close associate of Apostle John--we find a figure who already is fighting a growing Paulinism in pre-Marcion times. This allows an inference that Apostle John shared the same concern about Paul that we identify in John's letters. Apostle John then passed on his concern to Papias. This led Papias to fight the "growing Paulinis" (<em>i.e.</em>, Paulinism) in Asia Minor--the region to which Ephesus belonged.</p>
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<h2 class="Heading2" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 18pt 0pt 4pt; font-size: 11pt; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464244"></a>What About<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464243"></a>Polycarp? Did He Know John Yet Accept Paul?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464245"></a>A word on Polycarp is necessary. Polycarp's surviving epistle holds high praise for "glorious Paul." However, it is still not Pauline in a thematic sense. There is no grace teaching in them. There is no salvation-by-faith alone doctrine in them. Regardless, the surviving epistle does highly praise Paul. At the same time, it is often said that Polycarp knew Apostle John. If so, and these Johannine Epistles were written by Apostle John negatively about Paul, as I contend above, then why does Polycarp have such high praise for Paul?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a>It is a good question. However, it turns out that Polycarp did not likely know Apostle John. Thus, the question becomes irrelevant. It rests on a faulty assumption that Polycarp knew Apostle John.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464247"></a>How did we arrive at the commonly heard notion that Polycarp was associated with Apostle<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464248"></a>John? It comes solely from<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464249"></a>Ireneaus and those quoting Ireneaus such as Tertullian. However, there is strong reason to doubt Irenaeus' claim.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464250"></a>Irenaeus wrote of a childhood memory listening to Polycarp tell of his familiarity with Apostle John. However, none of the surviving writings of Polycarp make any mention of his association with Apostle John. Nor is such an association mentioned in the two biographical earlier accounts of Polycarp contained in <em>Life of Polycarp</em> and <em>The Constitution of the Apostles</em>. Yet, these biographies predate Irenaeus and thus were closer in time to Polycarp's life. Likewise, Polycarp's own writings show no knowledge of John's Gospel. This seems extraordinarily unlikely had John been his associate late in life. As a result of the cumulative weight of evidence, most Christian scholars (including conservative ones) agree that Ireneaus' childhood memory misunderstood something Polycarp said. Perhaps<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464251"></a>Polycarp was talking of a familiarity with John the Elder rather than Apostle John.<a href="#pgfId=464254" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>6</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464255"></a>Thus, it is not likely that Polycarp knew Apostle John personally in a period after these Johannine Epistles. Also, technically speaking, we have no dates on Polycarp's epistle . Thus, we do not know if his "glorious Paul" comment came before or after John's epistles. Thus, even if there were some association between John and Polycarp, we cannot be sure whether Polycarp's positive view of Paul continued after that association began.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464256"></a>Accordingly, there is no clear case that someone associated with John after he wrote his epistles had a positive opinion of Paul. To the contrary, the only person whom we confidently can conclude knew John in this time period--Papias--was engaged in resistance to rising Paulinism, according to Christian scholars.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464257"></a>Thus, John's letters appear to reveal even more clearly who was being spoken about in Revelation 2:2. John's true friends (<em>i.e.</em>, Papias) had the same negative outlook on Paulinism at that time.</p>
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<div>
<h1 class="Heading1" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 34pt 48.024pt 8pt 0pt; font-size: 14pt; font-style: italic; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';">Conclusion</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>Accordingly, when John's epistles tell us the four characteristics of a false prophet and teacher who left associating with the twelve apostles, they <em><strong>fit Paul like a glove</strong></em>. Scholars agree that John is identifying a false teacher who once had been at Ephesus who taught Jesus did not come in truly human flesh. This too fits Paul like a glove. Paul expressly taught Jesus did not come in human flesh--it only appeared that way. John in his epistle is thus pointing precisely at Paul without using Paul's name.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464261"></a>John, in effect, tells us in<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464260"></a>1 John 4:2-3 to regard Paul as uninspired and a liar, no matter how appealing Paul's theological arguments may sound.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464262"></a>Given what we find in 1 John 4:1-3, is it then really any coincidence that by the hand of the same John,<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464263"></a>Revelation 2:2 depicts someone as a liar who told the Ephesians he was an apostle but he was not? Or is it really<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464264"></a>coincidence that John's hand wrote<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464265"></a>Revelation 2:14 which refers to a Balaam figure in the apostolic New Testament era who teaches it is<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464266"></a>permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols? Balaam, remember, was a prophet converted from evil to a Holy Spirit-filled prophet of God by his experience of seeing an angel on the Road to Moab. Yet, Balaam later apostasizes by teaching it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols.<span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="marker=464267"></a>Paul likewise followed the identical pattern.<a href="#pgfId=464270" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>7</a><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>Apostle John like ourselves can read where <strong>three times Paul says it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols</strong>. John is not so unaware that he could not have known of whom Jesus was speaking when referencing an apostolic era Balaam.<a href="#pgfId=464278" class="footnote" style="color: blue; text-decoration: underline;"><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span>8</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a>Accordingly, when we turn to John's epistles, we hear John talk about false prophets in terms that uniquely fit Paul:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464281"></a>A recent figure at Ephesus said Jesus only appeared to have human flesh.</li>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464282"></a>A recent figure once had been part of the apostolic church but who later took a route exclusive of the twelve apostles.</li>
<li class="Bulleted" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -13.745pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 13.745pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464283"></a>A recent figure had been at Ephesus and did not accept the teachings of Jesus from the twelve, and instead transgressed them.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464285"></a>John always omits names, even as John in his own Gospel never refers to himself by name. John refers to himself as the "apostle whom Jesus loved." John prefers we use deduction and context for us to deduce of whom he speaks.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 36pt; margin: 0pt; font-size: 12pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=464295"></a><img src="/chapter 13html-3.gif" align="RIGHT" />Yet, the fact Revelation 2:2, 14 and John's epistles are referring to Paul is shocking to most Christians. It is even more shocking because you can deduce Paul is being identified by relying alone on Scripture you have read for years.</p>
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<p><span class="Apple-style-span" style="border-collapse: separate; font-style: normal; font-variant: normal; font-weight: normal; letter-spacing: normal; line-height: normal; orphans: 2; text-indent: 0px; text-transform: none; white-space: normal; widows: 2; word-spacing: 0px; font-size: medium; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; color: #000000;">
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464204"></a>In Romans 8:3, Paul writes: "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, sending his own Son in the likeness [i.e., appearance] of sinful flesh and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh." (ASV)</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464208"></a>Of course, like Marcion, Paul does not dispute that Jesus was the Godhead who appeared in a "body" (somatikos). (Col. 2:9.) A body does not imply human flesh. Yet, Robertson believes that Col. 2:9 disposes with the docetic theory. Yet, Robertson describes this theory as "Jesus had no human body." This is not a precise description, at least of Marcion's docetism. Rather, docetism says the body in which Jesus lived lacked human flesh. It just appeared to be human flesh. Robertson's analysis thus lacks precise focus on what is docetism.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464226"></a>Ivor J. Davidson, <em>The Birth of the Church: From Jesus to Constantine A.D. 30-312</em> (Tim Dowley Ed.) (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker, 2004) at 162.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464238"></a>"Papias," The Catholic Encyclopedia.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464241"></a>Rev. (Lutheran) D. Richard Stuckwisch "Saint Polycarp of Smyrna: Johannine or Pauline Figure?" <em>Concordia Theological Quarterly </em>(January-April 1997) Vol. 61 at 113, 118, citing Charles M. Nielsen, "Papias: Polemicist Against Whom?" <em>Theological Studies</em> 35 (September 1974): 529-535; Charles Nielsen "Polycarp and Marcion: A Note," <em>Theological Studies</em> 47 (June 1986): 297-399; Charles Nielsen, "Polycarp, Paul and the Scriptures," <em>Anglican Theological Review</em> 47 (April 1965): 199-215.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464254"></a>Rev. (Lutheran) D. Richard Stuckwisch "Saint Polycarp of Smyrna: Johannine or Pauline Figure?" <em>Concordia Theological Quarterly</em> (January-April 1997) Vol. 61 at 113 et seq. (agrees that Polycarp did not likely know Apostle John).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464270"></a>For a full discussion on the Balaam-Paul identification, see the chapter entitled<span class="Apple-converted-space"> Why Does Jesus Mention Balaam in Rev. 2:14.</span></p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: -12pt; margin: 3pt 0pt 0pt 12pt; font-size: 10pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span><span class="Apple-converted-space"> </span><a name="pgfId=464278"></a>See the chapter entitled<span class="Apple-converted-space"> Paul Contradict Jesus on Idol Meet</span>.</p>
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<p class="Quote" style="text-align: left; text-indent: 0pt; margin: 13pt 18pt 6pt 43.2pt; font-size: 11pt; color: #000000; text-decoration: none; vertical-align: baseline; text-transform: none; font-family: 'Times New Roman';"><a name="pgfId=458247"></a>"I must with the best of reasons approach this inquiry with uneasiness when I find one affirmed to be an apostle, of whom in the list of the apostles in the gospel I find no trace.... [Let's] put in evidence all the documents that attest his apostleship. He [i.e., Paul] himself, says Marcion, claims to be an apostle, and that not from men nor through any man, but through Jesus Christ. Clearly any man can make claims for himself: but his claim is confirmed by another person's attestation. One person writes the document, another signs it, a third attests the signature, and a fourth enters it in the records. No man is for himself both claimant and witness." (See Tertullian, Against Marcion (207 A.D.) quoted at 418-19 infra.)</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter Three: Must We Apply The Bible's Tests For a True Prophet to Paul?</h2>
<h3 class="Heading1">Test for Valid Prophets</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464128"></a> Only a true prophet from God can add text to the Bible. (Deut. 18:15.) The Bible itself lays out the tests for such authorized additions to the Bible. These tests are spelled out in Deuteronomy chs. 4, 12, 13 &amp; 18. A key test is that no prophet could be legitimate who tried to "diminish" (subtract) any command previously given. (Deut. 4:2; 12:32 (quoted in inset).) This was true even if they had "sign and wonders that came to pass." (Deut.13:1-5.) This is reiterated in Isaiah 8:20.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464131"></a> However, no Christian council or scholar has ever systematically applied the Bible's tests for false prophets to any writing in our New Testament. This is especially true when Paul's teachings are in question. Of course, this is partly because other than for Paul, there is no need to be concerned about canonicity. The apostles John and Peter along with bishops Jude and James never say anything remotely contradictory of Jesus. Yet, Paul is in a different category. Paul makes statements at apparent odds with Jesus. For example, Paul says the law is abolished while Jesus says this will not happen until heaven and earth pass away. Matt. 5:18.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a> If the issue of a conflict between Paul and Jesus is raised, one frequently hears a knee-jerk response. There is consternation that anyone would want to test the canonicity of Paul's writings. `How can we even consider throwing out half the New Testament!' There are murmurs of shocked dismay. Yet, such a response presupposes an affirmative answer to the very question posed: does Paul belong in the New Testament?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464133"></a> My answer to such a response is simple: if Paul truly belongs, then prove it! Simply use the Bible's test for adding to Scripture and show everyone that Paul passes its tests. Is this asking too much?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464134"></a> The Bible insists that a Christian demand an answer. We are duty bound to ask our Christian brothers: where is the proof that Paul is to be treated as an inspired prophet? Where is the case Paul has ever been tested and proven a true spokesperson of God by the rigorous demands of Deuteronomy chapters 12, 13 &amp; 18? No one wants to go there but the Bible commands it!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a>If these tests are to be ignored as to Paul in particular, then why do you think a decade prior to Paul's entry into Christian circles that <em><strong> Jesus emphasized repeatedly that false prophets were to come</strong></em>? (<a name="marker=464154"></a>Matt. 7:15, 24:11, 24.) Why do you think Jesus warned us these false prophets would come with true signs and wonders? So we would lower our guard and never apply Biblical tests for false prophets? Why would <strong><em>Jesus warn us these <a name="marker=464155"></a> false prophets would come in His name</em></strong>? (Mark 13:22-23). Wasn't Jesus trying to encourage distrust of Christians who claimed to have a prophetic office? How could we obey Jesus by refusing to apply the Biblical tests of a true versus a false prophet to Paul? Did Jesus provide us tests of orthodoxy so we would blindly accept someone like Paul who came with signs and wonders (<em>i.e.</em>, healings, jails opening in earthquakes, etc.)? Of course not. Jesus made no exception for Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464158"></a> The <a name="marker=464156"></a> Bereans in <a name="marker=464157"></a> Acts 17:10-15 knew this. They tested a sermon by Paul against Scripture. Yet, they had little written material available to them. By comparison, today we are privileged to examine all of Paul's letters. The Bereans only had a single sermon whose contents are unknown. But if Luke presents the Bereans as<em><strong> doing something appropriate</strong></em>, then why would we think we don't have to test Paul in the same manner? We <em><strong>cannot</strong></em> just trust the Bereans'<em><strong> one-time test resolved the issue for all time</strong></em>. Paul could become a <a name="marker=464159"></a> <strong><em>Balaam: an evil man converted into a true prophet who later apostasizes</em></strong>. (For further discussion on the Balaam issue, see heading below <em>Paul Could Still Be A Balaam Who Initially Has True Prophecy</em>.) Just because Balaam passed the test for a true prophet initially does not guarantee he remained forever a true prophet. Balaam apostasized later and became a false prophet. Accordingly, the Bereans' conclusion about Paul proves nothing. Rather, we need to follow their example of testing Paul to see whether he seduces us from following the commands from prior Scripture and known Prophets (including Jesus).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a> We thus have an inescapable command from God to test Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a> Moreover, we shall see Jesus reiterated these tests almost verbatim from Deuteronomy. He intended us specifically to use them to test the writings of anyone which the community wanted to add as inspired canon.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a> The first test of a valid prophet is they must make a specific prophecy using the name of the Lord. (<a name="marker=464166"></a> Deut. 18:20-22.) If the speaker will not say God told them this secret about the future, the alleged prophetic statement is insufficient to validate the speaker as a true prophet even if it came true. The reason for such strictness is the test has both a positive and negative side. On the positive, if valid, we treat such a speaker's words as from God. Thus, the speaker's words must squarely come within God's definition of valid prophecy. On the negative side, we must impose the death penalty if the speaker used God's name for a prophecy and it did not come true.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a> Therefore, if the speaker attributed as his source someone other than God,<em> e.g.</em>, an angel alone was his source, we cannot impose the death penalty on the speaker for false prophecy. We must follow Scripture strictly. In this example, the speaker did nothing worthy of death because he claimed his prophecy came from an angel alone, without God's voice confirming it. Thus, unless the would-be prophet says thus sayeth the Lord at some meaningful point as his source in conjunction with his prediction, he cannot be a prophet in the Biblical sense if his prediction just so happens to come true. For the same reason, if what he said proves false and he did not ascribe his source to God personally, we cannot kill him. Because he did not dare make the prophecy in the Lord's name, he suffers no penalty. No risk, no gain. No risk, no loss.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464168"></a> Likewise, if the event is easily predictable, such as the sun will come up or a plane will safely weather a storm, there is nothing highly improbable in such an outcome. The predicted outcome, while not guaranteed, is predictable. It has a significant probability it would have happened anyway. The Bible says such predictions are not prophetic material. Jeremiah chapter 28 tells us that predictable events are no basis to regard their prediction as true prophecy.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464172"> 1</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464173"></a> In summary, divine prophecy implies necessarily that the prediction must be something specific and highly improbable that only God would know. If it does not happen, the false prophet is to be killed. Of course, to repeat, the would-be prophet had to first use the words <a name="marker=464174"></a> thus sayeth the Lord or an equivalent, e.g., Jesus claimed to speak as I AM Himself (John 8:58). The speaker must clearly claim divine inspiration from God Himself for a highly specific and unlikely prediction. Otherwise, imposing a death penalty would be unjust. (<a name="marker=464175"></a> Deuteronomy 18:20-22.) However, once exposed as false prophecy, God says: "Thou shalt not be afraid of him." (<a name="marker=464176"></a> Deut. 18:22.) The necessity to follow this testing of their words comes from the command to not add to canon (Deut. 4:2) unless it passes the Bible's test for valid prophecy.</p>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1"><a name="pgfId=464177"></a>
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</h2>
<h3>Second Level Test: False Despite True Prophecy and Signs</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464178"></a> The Bible then has a second level test. Jesus clearly repeats this test. (<a name="marker=464179"></a> Matt. 7:15, <a name="marker=464180"></a> 24:11, 24.) It is set forth in Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:1-5. A false prophet can include someone who tries to "diminish" the words of a prior validated prophet. (Deut. 4:2.) While a valid prophet can add to Scripture (Deut. 18:15), he is invalid if he "diminishes" from prior Scripture. (Deut. 4:2.) Thus, the Bible warns that even if someone comes with what otherwise appears to be valid true prophecy, they are invalid if they "diminish" the words of a prior valid prophet. Deuteronomy 13:1-5 teaches if they come with true <a name="marker=464181"></a> "signs and wonders" which "come to pass," they are still a false prophet if they thereafter try to "seduce you from the way in which the Lord your God commanded you to walk." (<a name="marker=464182"></a> Deut. 13:5.) This is reiterated in Isaiah 8:20, which states: "To the Law [of Moses] and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them." (KJV). Thus, God tells us one who teaches contrary to the commands in the Law is a false prophet despite his having true prophecy and real signs and wonders. As Barnes comments on Isaiah 8:20: "By this standard all doctrines are still to be tried."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464184"></a> <a name="marker=464183"></a> Balaam is an example of this type of prophet. At one point he provides true prophecy that indeed came from God. He was filled by the Holy Spirit during those times. (<a name="marker=464185"></a> Numbers 24:1-2.) However, later he teaches people it is permissible to do acts which the Law flatly prohibits. He tells them they can eat meat sacrificed to idols and they can commit fornication. (Numbers 31:16; Rev. 2:14.) Thus, he is a false prophet under the <a name="marker=464186"></a> Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:1-5 test. Despite this kind of prophet being inspired for a time, you must ignore everything he thereafter said. You must brand him a false prophet once he ever tries to "seduce you from the way in which the Lord your God commanded you to walk." (<a name="marker=464187"></a> Deut. 13:5.) (For a full discussion on Balaam, see Chapter Seven.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464191"></a> Thus, Balaam went from a true prophet to a false prophet solely by the content of his teachings.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464193"></a> <a name="marker=464192"></a> God explains why he allows such men to speak prophetically and have signs and wonders "that come true." God allows them to come to seduce you as a test of your Love for God. The Lord explains this precisely in <a name="marker=464194"></a> Deuteronomy 12:32-13:5:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464195"></a> Whatever I command you, you shall be careful to do; you shall not add to<em><strong> nor take away from it</strong></em>. If a<strong><em> prophet</em></strong> or a dreamer of dreams arises among you and gives you a sign or a wonder, and <em><strong>the sign or the wonder comes true, concerning which he spoke to you</strong></em>, saying, `Let us go after other gods (whom you have not known) and let us serve them,' you shall not listen to the words of that prophet or that dreamer of dreams; for <strong><em>the Lord your God is testing you to find out if you love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul</em></strong>. You shall follow the Lord your God and fear Him; and you shall <em><strong>keep His commandments</strong></em>, listen to His voice, serve Him, and cling to Him. But that prophet or that dreamer of dreams shall be put to death, because he has <em><strong>counseled rebellion against the Lord your God</strong></em> who brought you from the land of Egypt and redeemed you from the house of slavery, <span style="text-decoration: underline;"><strong>to seduce you from the way in which the Lord your God commanded you to walk</strong>.</span> So you shall purge the evil from among you. <a name="marker=464196"></a> (ASV.)<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464406"> 2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464200"></a> If some would-be prophet seeks to "seduce" us "from the way in which the Lord your God commanded you to walk," you must reject him. His god cannot be the true God. His god must be an idol even if he calls on Yahweh. This is true even if he comes with <a name="marker=464201"></a> signs and wonders. God tells us to ignore such a prophet's words or otherwise we are joining his rebellion. Isaiah instructs us to apply a similar content-oriented test to determine a true prophet.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a> [Compare teachers] [t]o the Law and the Testimony [and], if they speak not according to this Word, it is because there is no light in them. (<a name="marker=464203"></a> Isaiah 8:20).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a> Norman <a name="marker=464204"></a> Geisler, a conservative Christian scholar and President of the Southern Evangelical Seminary in Charlotte, concurs on the essential meaning of Deuteronomy. He agrees that if Paul seduces us from following what God already commanded in previous Scripture, he must be rejected:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464206"></a> [A]ny teaching about God contrary to what the people already knew to be true was to be rejected....<em><strong>If the teaching of the apostle [Paul] did not accord with the teaching of the Old Testament, it could not be of God</strong></em>. (Norman Geisler, "The Canonicity of the Bible, Part One," <em>Baker Encyclopedia of Christian Apologetics</em> (Baker Book House: 1999).)[<a href="http://www.ankerberg.com/Articles/historical-Jesus/DaVinci/PDF/The-Canonicity-of-the-Bible.pdf">reprint</a> at 5, hosted at Ankerberg.com]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464207"></a> Thus, if any New Testament writer tries to seduce us from the way in which God commanded us to walk in the Hebrew Scriptures, the Bible brands him a false prophet. Geisler, a conservative defender of Scripture, agrees that Paul must be measured by whether his words accord with what God commanded in the original Hebrew Scripture.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464210"></a> Jesus says so likewise in <a name="marker=464208"></a> Matthew 7:15-23 and <a name="marker=464209"></a> 24:11, 24. So does Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:5.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464212"></a> As to Paul, the <a name="marker=464211"></a> Bereans were on the right path. They compared Paul to Scripture. (<a name="marker=464213"></a> Acts 17:11.) The Bereans simply did not have the later words of Paul. They did not have access to Paul's letters that we do. Paul's later words must be tested by Scripture that God delivered by the prophets before him. Paul's words must also be tested by the words of Jesus who is both Prophet and Lord.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464215"></a> <a name="marker=464214"></a> Before we examine this Deuteronomy test, let's see what test is commonly used instead.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1"><a name="pgfId=464216"></a>
<div></div>
</h2>
<h3>Does Paul Get A Free Pass Because of His Fiery Spirit, Zeal, and Long Acceptance?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464217"></a> When it comes to the question why was the canon put together to include Paul, Paulinists typically give unbiblical justifications. They retreat to a justification of inclusion based on our feelings, our perception of a good purpose, and long tradition. These grounds are set forth as an independent test which can validate something as canon despite the writing not otherwise satisfying the proper Biblical test.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a> For example, <a name="marker=464218"></a> Josh McDowell in his famous <em>Evidence that Demands a Verdict</em> says the <a name="marker=464220"></a> criteria for New Testament canon are: "Is it authoritative.... prophetic.... authentic.... dynamic? Was it received, collected, read and used...?"<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464223"> 3</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464224"></a> However, the only proper test in the Bible is whether the prophecy:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464225"></a> Was a predictive prophecy of an unlikely event;</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464226"></a> Was made in the name of the Lord;</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464227"></a> Came true; and </li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464228"></a> The would-be prophet's teachings at all subsequent times are 100% consistent with prior tested and tried Scripture, and do not negate any commands in such Scripture. </li>
</ul>
</div>
<div>
<h1 class="Heading1"><a name="pgfId=464229"></a>
<div></div>
</h2>
<h3>The Origin of McDowell's Test</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464230"></a> Where did the Josh McDowell test come from? Such a criteria to assess canon clearly first appears in a work called the <a name="marker=464231"></a><em> Shepherd of Hermas</em>. This work was written near 125 A.D. The Shepherd was part of Christian canon for about two hundred years thereafter. In the <em>Codex Sinaiticus</em> from the late 300 A.D. period, the <em>Shepherd</em> was printed right after the book of Revelation. Numerous church leaders said it was "divinely inspired."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464232"></a> The <em>Shepherd</em> taught in what it calls the <em>Eleventh Commandment</em> that "a true prophet" is someone who changes their hearers for the better, whose message is lofty, and who is meek and peaceable himself. By contrast, the false prophet will "shun" teaching the righteous. His listeners will be as empty as before they heard their message.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464235"> 4</a> Under this loose test of the prophetic, the <em>Shepherd</em> itself was allowed to pass into the NT canon for two hundred years of early Christianity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464236"></a> However, then in the late 300s, the <em>Shepherd</em> began to be dropped from canon productions. It was removed apparently because it said adultery could be forgiven. Tertullian had in the 200s insisted the book should be removed from canon for this reason. He said its position on adultery being a pardonable sin was impious. The <em>Shepherd</em> then disappears from Christian canons beginning in the 300s. It never returns.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464237"></a> This adultery-as-unpardonable principle may seem an odd criteria to determine canon. However, it is the very same reason why pious Christians in the 300s tampered with Jesus' words in John 7:53-8:11. This is the passage where Jesus pardons the woman accused of adultery. Most versions of John's Gospel in the era of the 300s removed this passage. Augustine in 430 A.D. skewers them for deleting the text. Augustine mentions his contemporaries wrongly thought Jesus could not forgive the woman charged with adultery.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464241"> 5</a> As a result of this deletion, most of us have read the NIV's note which says the most "reliable" manuscripts of that era omit the passage. While the manuscripts that delete this are generally reliable, this particular deletion is not itself reliable. What this demonstrates is the removal of the adultery passage in John coincides with the departure of the Shepherd from canon. The reasoning behind both changes are identical. A false Christian piety grew up in the 300s which not only threw out the Shepherd, but also deleted words of our Lord.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a> This history is important on the issue of canon formation. While the <em>Shepherd</em> properly was excluded from canon in the 300s, it was removed for the wrong reason. The right reason is that it was not prophetic. It lacked a predictive prophecy to validate it. Also, it contradicted Deuteronomy on how to define and recognize a prophetic statement. The <em>Shepherd</em> was a false prophetic work. Yet, the <em>Shepherd</em> was rejected on the wrong-headed notion that adultery was an unpardonable sin. The same wrong-headed thinking caused Jesus' words in John 7:53-8:11 to be cast off in the 300s by sincere well-meaning but misdirected Christians.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464244"></a> As a result, when the <em>Shepherd </em>was ejected, it already had spread its erroneous notion about what is prophetic. During those two-hundred early years (125-325 A.D.), the <em>Shepherd</em> was accepted as a divinely inspired message. It redefined the test of what is prophetic canon. Then when the <em>Shepherd</em> was ejected, it unfortunately did not cause anyone to re-evaluate the notion of how to define valid prophetic canon.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464245"></a> The <em>Shepherd</em>'s test of canon is the same as Josh McDowell's test quoted above. Under this test, we use our subjective impression of how authoritative it feels to us. We look to see if it has a positive effect, as we subjectively evaluate it.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464246"></a> If presence in canon implied early-on that a book was `inspired', then the clearest proof of the effect of the <em>Shepherd</em> on early canon lists is the presence of the Epistle to the Hebrews. It actually was written by <a name="marker=464247"></a> Barnabas.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464250"> 6</a> Then what explains its presence in the NT canon of that era even down to the present time? There is no prophecy in Hebrews. There is not even apostolic authority involved. The only test that justifies its inclusion comes from the Shepherd's loose canon test. The Epistle to the Hebrews is inspiring, lofty, and can change its hearers. Otherwise, it has nothing to justify any kind of inclusion in the NT canon. It passes the<em> Shepherd</em>'s test of prophetic. However, nothing from the word of God endorses the inclusion of the Epistle to the Hebrews in our NT canon.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3><a name="14479"></a> Did Paul Have A Predictive Prophecy in The Lord's Name Come True?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464253"></a> This leads us back to our main point. Under Deuteronomy, if we examine what belongs in the New Testament, there is no case to add anyone to canon except Jesus. He alone made a significant prophecy that came true, <em>i.e.</em>, the fall of the Temple at Jerusalem and His own resurrection.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464255"></a> <a name="marker=464254"></a> Paul, by contrast, has merely one arguable prophecy that came true. However, the claim for it is weak. In the middle of a terrible storm, Paul claimed an angel, without God simultaneously present in the vision, told him that no one would lose their life in a ship crash. However, he predicted the ship would be lost. (Acts 27:22-25.) Paulinists never cite this as an example of Paul's predictive prowess. This is because in the same context, Paul's lack of constant inspiration is also exposed. Why? Because when Paul brought the warning initially, he said the opposite.</p>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464273"></a> <a name="Marcion Faith alone"></a></p>
<div>
<map name="chapter 3html-4">
</map>
</div>
<p class="Body"><a name="pgfId=464292"></a> See Table 1 below.</p>
<table>
<caption>
<h6 class="TableTitle"><a name="pgfId=464276"></a> <a name="20618"></a> Paul's Words Are Not Always Prescient</h6>
</caption>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464280"></a> <em> Paul Predicts Loss of Life</em></p>
</th> <th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464282"></a> <em> Paul Predicts No Loss of Life</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464284"></a> Acts 27:10</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464285"></a> [A]nd said unto them, Sirs, I perceive (theoreo, perceive with the eyes, discern) that the voyage will be with injury and much loss, not only of the lading and the ship, but also of our lives.</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464286"></a></p>
</td>
<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464288"></a> Acts 27:22-24</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464289"></a> (22) And now I exhort you to be of good cheer; for there shall be no loss of life among you, but only of the ship.</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464290"></a> (23) For there stood by me this night an angel of the God whose I am, whom also I serve,</p>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464291"></a> (24) saying, Fear not, Paul; thou must stand before Caesar: and lo, God hath granted thee all them that sail with thee.</p>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464293"></a> More important, Paul claims the source of this second contradictory prediction is an angel who relays God's decision to save all on board. This takes away from it any claim that it is a prophecy at all. To be a prophecy that can be valid, it must take a risk of being a prophecy that is invalid. To be a prophecy of such kind, it had to be In the Name of God (Yahweh or `I am')<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464296"> 7</a> Somewhere, there must be a claim God was present giving confirmation of the angel's words. We read in Deuteronomy 18:20-22:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464297"></a> (20) But the prophet, that shall speak a word presumptuously in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, that same prophet shall die.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464298"></a> (21) And if thou say in thy heart, How shall we know the word which Jehovah hath not spoken?</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464299"></a> (22) when a prophet speaketh in the name of Jehovah, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which Jehovah hath not spoken: the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously, thou shalt not be afraid of him.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464300"></a> Thus, had Paul's prediction been false, Paul could not fall under the false prophecy penalty of death in the Mosaic Testament. This is because the prophet must claim the prophecy is going to come true in God's name:"Thus speaketh Yahweh...." or some equivalent.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464303"> 8</a> If it is attributed directly to an angel without God simultaneously present in the encounter, it does not qualify. By claiming instead it will come true and you use God's name, the prophet-claimant thereby takes the risk that if his words do not come true, then he can be regarded as a false prophet and be put to death. That's obviously why the old prophet in 1 Kings 13 carefully attributed his false prophecy to an angel alone. It spared his life.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464304"></a> This requirement of using God's name arises from practical reasons. If the `prophecy' had not come true, Paul would have been able to say `some darker angel' must have given him the message that proved untrue. `The angel deceived me.' There is wiggle room to avoid the death penalty if his prediction had proven untrue. Thus, to make a valid prophecy, one must by definition not only have a prophecy that comes true, but one must in advance say the message is directly from God. You cannot receive the reward of recognition as God's prophet unless one is willing to use His name initially in giving the prophecy. "No pain, no gain" embodies the principle. Thus, if one claims an angel gave it, and you do not claim it came with God's direct presence, it cannot be treated as a valid prophecy ab initio even if it later happens to come true.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a> This brings up a second problem with Paul's prediction about the storm as prophecy. Angels in the Hebrew Scripture make birth announcements and explain visions of the future with God present. They are heralds of a very limited nature. For example, in Daniel, they show and explain visions of the future with the "Son of Man" (Jesus) present. They speak God's words only when God is described as simultaneously present.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464308"> 9</a> Paul's attribution of predictive words to an angel without God present in the vision is therefore most peculiar.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464309"></a> In sum, the prediction Paul makes in Acts chapter 27 suffers from several defects:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464310"></a> It does not predict an outcome that is so highly unlikely that absent God's foresight it would be unimaginable.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464311"></a> It is not in the name of Yahweh or an equivalent expression. It is attributed to an angel without God present.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=464312"></a> It attributes to an angel a predictive statement that angels did not make in the Hebrew Scripture outside of birth announcements or in vision presentations with God simultaneously present.</li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464314"></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=466035"></a> Yet, even if we grant this one prophecy as validating Paul as a prophet, he could still become like Balaam who prophesied with the Holy Spirit but later apostasized. Thus, one cannot rest Paul's validity solely upon the claim this `angel-vision' mentioned in Acts chapter 27 is prophecy.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3>Paul Could Still Be A Balaam Who Initially Has True Prophecy</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464317"></a> To be a true prophet, Paul must prove also not to offer teachings that negate what came before. (Deut. 4:2; 13:1-5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464318"></a> Jesus was completely consistent with what came before. Jesus upheld every jot and letter of the Law, and insisted upon an ongoing necessity to teach and follow the Law. (<a name="marker=464319"></a> Matt. 5:18.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464320"></a> Consequently, Jesus' words qualify as (a) prophetic (i.e., predictive and confirmed); (b) valid (i.e., consistent with and never negating what preceded); and (c) in the name of I am because Jesus claimed to be I am. (<a name="marker=464321"></a> John 8:58.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464322"></a> By contrast, Paul's predictive statement is certainly not invoking Yahweh's name. Instead, Paul relied upon an angel alone. Even if Paul had a prophecy in God's name, there is a substantial question whether Paul's words were also valid, i.e., consistent with and not negating what preceded. Paul must be examined to determine if he started true, turned false and apostasized later. The example from history that proves this is a correct test of Paul is the story of Balaam. Despite Balaam prophesying with the Holy Spirit (Numbers 24:1-2) and believing in the Coming Messiah (Christ) to rule the world (Numbers 24:17), Balaam later apostasized and was lost!</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3>Balaam's Star Prophecy of Messiah (1290 B.C.)</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464324"></a> Most Christian commentators acknowledge the false prophet Balaam did originally give true Messianic prophecy in the <a name="marker=464325"></a> Star Prophecy. (See <em>Treasury of Scriptural Knowledge</em>, Wesley, Henry, JFB, and Gill.) This is why Matthew identifies the Magi following the star to Bethlehem. (Matt. 2:1, magos.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464326"></a> Let's see how amazing is Balaam's prophecy of Numbers 24:17 to realize how Balaam was a true prophet of Christ at one time but who later turned false. In Numbers 24:17, we read Balaam's words:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464327"></a> I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not nigh; there shall step forth a star out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel, and shall smite through the corners of Moab, and break down all the sons of tumult. (ASV).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464328"></a> Friedman, in the modern Jewish translation, renders the first key part "a star has stepped from Jacob...." (<em>Commentary on the Torah, supra</em>, at 511.) The "scepter" implied this star would identify a new king. The last part on someone ruling the "sons of tumult" was interpreted by ancient Jews as meaning "rule the world." The <em>Targum of Onkelos</em> from circa 150 A.D.--the Aramaic interpretation of the Law--restates this passage to have a Messianic application: "a king shall arise from the house of Jacob, and be anointed the Messiah out of Israel." Clearly, Numbers 24:17 was deemed a Messianic prophecy by Jews long before Jesus appeared.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464347"> 10</a></p>
<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464348"></a> Balaam Was Not Saved Despite Believing in Messiah To Come</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464350"></a> The fact Balaam uttered a <a name="marker=464349"></a> Messianic prophecy has important meaning in salvation doctrine. It answers the question whether believing in a Messianic prophecy and knowing about Christ, as did <a name="marker=464351"></a> Balaam, saves you. Balaam's destruction at Moses' request proves such belief alone did not save Balaam. Yet, indisputably, Balaam was one of the first under inspiration of the Holy Spirit to believe in and prophesy specifically about the Messiah. He saw Christ and believed in Him. Yet, Balaam later apostasized by teaching Jews that they could eat meat sacrificed to idols and they could fornicate. (Num. 31:8, 16; Rev. 2:14.) (See Ch. 7.) Balaam clearly became lost. (Rev. 2:14.)</p>
</div>
<div>
<h3 class="Heading2"><a name="pgfId=464355"></a> Why Do Paulinists Ignore Balaam's Prophecy?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464356"></a> Why would Paulinists not want to focus upon this amazing Messianic prophecy in Numbers 24:17? You rarely hear any discussion of it in Paulinist-oriented congregations. It actually is necessary to know about this story to make sense of why the Magi arrived at Bethlehem and why they were following a star. There is no excuse to not help people understand the Star of Bethlehem and its key role in the nativity.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464357"></a> This prophecy is ignored for three reasons. First, it shows how one of the most amazing inspired prophecies of Messiah came from a man who later apostasizes and is certainly lost. Such a possibility is denied by <a name="marker=464358"></a> eternal security advocates, relying principally on Paul for their teaching. Thus, any mention of Balaam's prophecy causes embarrassment to proponents of eternal security.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464359"></a> Second, the background on the Star Prophecy shows that people steeped in error and pagan practices, like the Magi, could still hold onto true Messianic prophecy of the Bible. Yet, believing in Messianic prophecy did not make them saved Christians. It likewise does not make someone a Christian who thinks they can believe the intellectual side of a prophecy with no change in the heart. The Magi's doctrines (<a name="marker=464360"></a> Zoroastrianism) taught them they were saved if they used the right verbal formula for belief, known as a mantra. They also believed they could pray to those in the afterlife. (Lucian, Mennipus 6-9.) Their teachings about mantras thereby violated the Law given to Moses, which preached salvation by repentance from sin, atonement, and faithfulness. Moreover, the Magi's teachings about talking to the dead also violated the Law given to Moses. (Deut. 18:11; cf. Isaiah 8:19; 19:3.) Thus, for those steeped in eternal security, it is difficult to mention the Magi were unsaved people who believed in Messianic Prophecies.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465387"></a> Lastly, the Magi (from Babylon) in Matthew 2:1 make us uncomfortable for another reason. Their presence proves how Jesus wanted us to understand the symbolism of Babylon in the Book of Revelation. The Magi of Babylon came from a culture steeped in a certain type of doctrinal error. They must have correctly worshipped the God of Daniel. First, Nebuchadnezzar acknowledged Yahweh. Lastly, King Darius also later specifically decreed that "the God of Daniel" was the true God and that his entire vast empire had to acknowledge this. (Dan. 4:34-37; 6:26). Thereafter, Daniel obviously had ample opportunity as the chief officer over the Magi to inculcate faith in the true God among the Magi. (Dan. 6:1-2.) Based on Matthew 2:1's mention of the magos (Greek for magi), there is every reason to be believe this Jewish component of Babylonian religion continued. Babylonian religion must have absorbed this as part of Zoroastrianism--a monotheistic religion. In it, Daniel's God must have continued to be their one true God for some significant period.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464429"></a> So what does Babylon represent? A pagan religion? No! <a name="marker=464365"></a> Babylon represents a faith with the right emphasis on the true God and the true Christ but adulteration by adding salvation and legal principles at odds with God's Law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465393"></a> How do we know the Magi had the right emphasis on the true Christ? That they were waiting for Messiah's birth?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464460"></a> Because Babylon's spiritual &amp; political leaders (the Magi) were clearly aware of Daniel's prophecy of Messiah's date for being cut-off (i.e., killed). (Dan. 9:25-26.) Daniel was the chief of the Magi, by appointment of the king (Dan. 6:1-2). Thus, Daniel's prophecy would be well-known by the Magi. This prophecy, uttered in 604 B.C., said the Messiah shall come and be cut-off after sixty-nine "periods of sevens" (viz., a sabbath cycle of seven years)<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=464446"> 11</a> -- 483 years -- from the "order to restore and to build Jerusalem." (Dan. 9:25-26.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464480"></a> The <em>Jewish Encyclopedia</em> says this order went forth in 444 B.C. Nehemiah "arrived in Jerusalem in 444 BCE with an appointment as governor of Judah... [and his] first action was to rebuild... Jerusalem [including the temple]." ("Nehemiah," <em>The Jewish Encyclopedia of Judaism</em> (1989) at 520.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464484"></a> What year could the Magi deduce Messiah's being cut-off?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465412"></a> The year 33 A.D. The Jewish calendar year is a lunar-based year. There are only 360 days in the "year" of which Daniel is prophesying. Daniel's prophecy of 483 lunar years thus represents 173,880 days (483 x 360). This equates to 476 solar years in our calendar. If you subtract 476 years from 444 B.C., you hit square on 33 A.D. How amazing!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465175"></a> Thus, from Daniel's prophecy, the Magi would know the date of the Messiah's being cut-off is 33 A.D. The Magi then could piece this together with the Star Prophecy of Balaam to determine his approximate time of birth.</p>
<h3 class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465431"></a> How did the Magi know of the Star Prophecy?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465325"></a> Again, the Magi no doubt were also trained by Daniel in the Messianic Star Prophecy from Numbers 24:16-19. Daniel mentions his continued use of the Law of Moses while living in Babylon. (Dan. 9:11-13.) Daniel would then have shared this Star Prophecy in the Law of Moses with his Magi.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465197"></a> Why would this Star Prophecy tell the Magi that a star's rising would mark the birth of the Messiah? After all, the word birth is not mentioned in Numbers 24:16-19?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465176"></a> For two reasons. First, a star rising (which for ancients included planetary conjunctions) was ordinarily claimed by the ancients to mark the birth of important future rulers. This is why the Romans understood the Star Prophecy in the First Century A.D. to signal such a birth. For example, Suetonius tried claiming a star in that period augured the birth of one of their own emperors who would rule the world in fulfillment of the Star Prophecy from the East.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=465281"> 12</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465204"></a> Second, history proves the Magi understood the Star Prophecy as a birth augur. Christian historians have traced the prophecy of Balaam after 600 B.C. within the Babylonian religion. Abulfaragius (1226-1286) in his <em>Historia Dynastarium</em><a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=465758"> 13</a> says that Zoroaster<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=465359"> 14</a> was a student of Daniel, and that Zoroaster taught the Magi that a new star would one day signal the birth of a mysterious child whom they were to adore.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%203html.html#pgfId=465447"> 15</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465203"></a> Thus, the Magi would understand the Star Prophecy to be talking of the birth of the same person who is cut-off in 33 A.D. in Daniel's Prophecy. Therefore, the Magi of Babylon would be naturally looking backwards one adult life-time (40 years approximately) prior to 33 A.D. This would identify the birth-time for this Messiah to be approximately 7 B.C. Thus, the Magi were on the look-out for this star precisely at about the time Jesus was born in about 3 B.C.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465319"></a> The Magi of Matthew 2:1 are thus following Balaam's Star Prophecy and Daniel's Messianic Prophecy to the letter. This is what squarely allows them to arrive at the right time in Bethlehem to give presents to the infant Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464503"></a> Yet, throughout Revelation, Babylon is synonymous with the harlot. What does this mean? God is telling us that Babylon, led by its Magi rulers, was a nation whose faith is like that of Balaam: it knew the true God and His Christ but it taught its people to violate God's commands. It taught salvation by mere mantras (<em>i.e.</em>, verbal formulas). Furthermore, it was a nation built on legal apostasy. In other words, Babylon had the correct faith in the true God and waited for the true Messiah and even rejoiced at finding Him. Otherwise, it had the wrong salvation principles and all its behaviors were contrary to God's Law. Babylon is thus depicted in Revelation as a harlot--prostituting itself to base desires.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464366"></a> Consequently, the lessons of Balaam for us are many. We need to examine how important it is that we can alone say the right mantra of faith, and be sincere, and want to know Christ, like the Magi did. But what happens if we trust a mantra (like the Magi did) to save us despite our rejection of the Law which "I Am" (Jesus) gave Moses?</p>
</div>
</div>
<div>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464368"></a> Balaam was a true prophet who was later convicted as a false prophet under Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:1-5. Balaam truly had the Holy Spirit when he blessed Israel and gave the Star Prophecy of Messiah. Moses expressly says so. Yet, Balaam is an apostate and lost. The Bible, through Moses and Jesus, tells us this too. Balaam's error was later telling Israel they could eat meat sacrificed to idols and they could commit fornication. (Rev. 2:14.) He diminished the Law. (Deut. 4:2.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464369"></a> The story of Balaam is proof that we cannot just assume that if someone like Paul gave a true prophecy one time that he has passed every test or that he can never apostasize later.</p>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464172"></a> See, <a name="marker=464171"></a> Jer. 28:8-9. As Knudd Jepperson (D.D., University Lecturer) points out on this verse: "The prophet who in the name of the Lord foretold misery and misfortune, however, would sooner or later be right. If the time had not yet come, one could rest assured that eventually there would be so much evil, that misery necessarily had to come." (Jepperson, On False And True Prophets in the Old Testament, at http://www.theonet.dk/spirituality/spirit95-6/prophesy.html (last visited 2005.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464406"></a> In context, Deuteronomy 13:1-5 does speak of the false prophet trying to lead them to `other gods.' Some assert this passage could never invalidate a person who uses Yahweh's name and teaches against the Law's validity. This view argues that using Yahweh's name for Law-less teaching somehow insulates the person from being viewed as a false prophet. This is erroneous. A seduction to disobey God's commands and to listen to the signs-and-wonder prophet is the same as trying to lead you to other gods--the prophet himself. He becomes a demi-god. His god, even if called Yahweh, cannot be the true Yahweh. In accord, Isaiah 8:20 demonstrates that the alleged prophet's validity turns on consistency with prior valid Scripture, starting with the Law of Moses and moving forward.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464223"></a> Josh McDowell, <em>Evidence that Demands a Verdict</em> (San Bernardino: Here's Life, 1979) Vol. 2 at 29.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464235"></a> See the <em>Eleventh Commandment</em> at http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/shepherd.html (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464241"></a> The NIV footnote reads: "The earliest and most reliable <a name="marker=464240"></a> manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have <a name="marker=464242"></a> John 7:53-8:11." This makes it appear this is a forgery. However, the NIV comment is misleading by lacking context. It is also patently false as to the claim "ancient witnesses" do not have the passage. First, the passage is in numerous uncials, including Codex D (Bazae Cantabrigiensis), G, H, K, M, U, and G. It also is in early translations such as the Bohairic Coptic version, the Syriac Palestinian version and the Ethiopic version, all of which date from the second to the sixth centuries. It is also in the Latin Vulgate (404 A.D.) by Jerome. Further, the passage is cited by a number of the patristic writers. Among them are Didascalia (third century), Ambrosiaster (fourth century), and Ambrose (fourth century). It is also in <em>Apostolic Constitutions</em>, which is a collections of writings from Antioch Syria that is dated between 220 A.D. and 380 AD. Augustine (430 AD) reveals that the reason some were deleting this passage in later manuscripts was because of its message that adultery could be forgiven. Augustine writes: "This proceeding, however, shocks the minds of some weak believers, or rather unbelievers and enemies of the Christian faith: inasmuch that, after (I suppose) of its giving their wives impunity of sinning, they struck out from their copies of the Gospel this that our Lord did in pardoning the woman taken in adultery: as if He granted leave of sinning, Who said, Go and sin no more!" (Saint Augustine,<em> De Conjug. Adult.</em>, II:6.). Thus, one can see in Augustine's day, there was a sentiment that Jesus' pardoning this woman of adultery was a wrong teaching. Augustine says this is why it was edited out of various copies of John's gospel.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464250"></a> Tertullian in about 207 A.D. points out that Barnabas is the author. Origen twenty years later claimed that the author is unknown.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464296"></a> God actually identifies Himself by two names and variations on the name. The first is Yahweh (and variants) and the second is "I am." See, Exodus 3:14 ("And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.") Jesus used this name for Himself. In John 8:58: "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was born, I am." Thus, everything Jesus predicts is in the name of the Lord since He was claiming to be I Am.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464303"></a> An example of a false prophecy in Scripture is Hananiah in Jeremiah 28:2, battling Jeremiah, the true prophet. In Jeremiah 28:2, Hananiah begins, "Thus speaketh Jehovah of hosts, the God of Israel, saying, I have broken the yoke of the king of Babylon." Thus, by invoking God's name as the direct source of the prophecy, Hananiah was taking the risk of being found a false prophet if he was wrong. Otherwise, Hananiah could not be taken seriously if a prophecy happened to come true.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464308"></a> When an angel appears to Gideon, God is present talking; the angel makes no prediction. (Judges 6:21-23.) An angel tells Manoah and his wife about their son Samson to be born. (Judges 13:9-21.) In Daniel, the prophet sees the "son of man" who receives kingdoms, and then a "man's voice" tells Gabriel to "make this man understand the vision." (Dan. 8:15-16.) The angel then explains the vision of the future.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464347"></a> The oracle of Balaam is quoted four times in the Dead Sea scrolls in conjunction with Messianic prophecies: the War Scroll (1QM 11.6-17); Damascus Document (CD 7.19-21); Messianic Testimonia (4Q175 1:9-13), and Priestly Blessings for the Last Days (1QSb 5:27). (See Wise, Abegg, &amp; Cook, <em>The Dead Sea Scrolls: A New Translation</em>.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464446"></a> This is often mistranslated as<em> weeks</em>. The word is <em>shebu'im</em>. In the feminine form, it means a "period of seven days." However, in the masculine, as is present here, it means simply "a time period of seven units" (e.g., month, year, sabbath cycle of seven years). See, <em>Theological Workbook of the Old Testament</em> (G.L. Archer, R.L. Harris, &amp; B.K. Waltke, eds.) (Chicago: Moody Press, 1992) (2 Vols.) at 2:899; G.L. Archer, "Daniel," <em>The Expositor's Bible Commentary </em> (Gabalein, Ed.)(Grand Rapids) Vol. 7 at 112.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 12.</span> <a name="pgfId=465281"></a> Suetonius in <em>Lives of the Twelve Emperors </em>says: "There had spread over all the Orient an old and established belief that it was fated at that time for a man coming from Judaea to rule the world. This prediction, referring to the emperor of Rome, as it turned out, the Jews took to themselves, and they revolted accordingly [in 66 A.D.]." (Suetonius, <em>Vespasian</em> 4.5.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 13.</span> <a name="pgfId=465758"></a> This is recorded by Oxford Professor, Thomas Hyde, in his masterpiece of 1700 A.D. entitled <em>Historia religionis veterum Persarum</em>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 14.</span> <a name="pgfId=465359"></a> Zoroaster, according to traditional and conservative modern practitioners of Zoroastrianism, lived around 580 B.C. He founded the Magi.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 15.</span> <a name="pgfId=465447"></a> George Stanley Faber (1773-1854)(Anglican theologian), <em>The Origin of Pagan Idolatry Ascertained from Historical Testimony and Circumstantial Evidence</em> ([London] F &amp; C. Rivingtons, 1816) Vol. 2 at 92.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Does Paul's Long Acceptance in NT Prove God's Will?</h2>
<h3>Hasn't God Implicitly Approved Our NT List?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464113"></a>Some raise an intriguing response to the entire notion of testing Paul's canonicity. If God intended for us to exclude Paul, why has it taken this long to address the issue? Would not God have corrected us earlier? If God is truly <a name="marker=464114"></a> sovereign, then <a name="marker=464115"></a> He would not have allowed this to happen. As Felgar has said,  "Is God not powerful enough to preserve the sanctity of His word?"</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464116"></a> This has superficial appeal, but it is at odds with the Bible itself.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464117"></a> For example, if a correct argument, then no true book of the Bible could long be separate from the Bible. God would have to supernaturally intervene promptly to re-affix the lost book to where it belongs.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464119"></a> Yet, the story in <a name="marker=464118"></a> 2 Kings <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Kings%2022:8&amp;version=ASV">22:8</a> et seq. refutes that God's sovereignty works this way. The Book of <a name="marker=464120"></a> <a name="marker=464121"></a> Deuteronomy was originally part of the inspired writings of Moses. He wrote it by hand. Yet, it was put in a corner of the Temple. It was then forgotten and lost. No one had made a copy. For 300 years Temple practices deteriorated. These practices bore no resemblance to what Deuteronomy required. Then Deuteronomy was found in a corner of the Temple. King Josiah had it read aloud. He realized how far Temple practices had fallen below the Bible standard. He tore his clothes in repentance. Deuteronomy was re-affixed to canon. Reformation began.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464122"></a> Thus, the inspired book of Deuteronomy was lost for hundreds of years at great damage to the community. If God's sovereignty means He must act as we suppose, then how could He not have acted sooner in supernatural ways to preserve His word? Why would generations lack His revealed word? Apparently, God's sovereignty does not work in the way we assume. Rather, the Israelites had a responsibility not to "diminish" the Law given to them (Deut. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=deut.%204:2&amp;version=ASV">4:2</a>). This meant, among other things, they had to preserve it properly in back-up print copies.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464123"></a> Furthermore, the Bible even tells us that inspired writings have been permanently lost. In <a name="marker=464124"></a> 1 Chronicles<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20chron.%2029:29&amp;version=ASV"> 29:29</a>, we read of three inspired writings which have been lost: "Now the acts of David the king, first and last, behold, they are written [in] a <a name="marker=464125"></a> Book of Samuel the Seer, and in the Book of Nathan the Prophet, and in the Book of Gad the Seer...." Adam Clarke admits these books are "now lost."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464126"></a> The Bible tells us the word Seer was the word used at one time to mean Prophet. (1 Samuel <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20sam.%209:9&amp;version=ASV">9:9</a>, "Beforetime in Israel...he that is now called a Prophet was beforetime called a Seer" ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a> The way these three books are described, Chronicles intends for us to understand they are all written by true prophets. <a name="marker=464128"></a> Clarke resolves the dilemma of how any prophetic work could be lost by asserting these were all uninspired, and not true prophets. Yet, that can only be based on (a) a willingness to deny the Bible's express claim that these were prophetic works and (b) a willingness to make an unsubstantiated presupposition about how God's sovereignty works. For the Bible says they are prophets/seers.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464130"></a> Thus, <a name="marker=464129"></a> Clarke is obviously assuming that works described by the Bible as written by prophets nevertheless must be uninspired simply because these works are now lost. Clarke is grounding this upon a presupposition that God's sovereignty would not allow a truly inspired work to be lost. This is pure supposition used to negate the plain meaning of the Bible itself. Chronicles clearly points to Nathan as a Prophet, and Gad and Samuel as Seers. To repeat, 1 Sam. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20sam.%209:9&amp;version=ASV">9:9</a> say the word seer has the same meaning as Prophet. The clear reading of Chronicles is that these prophetic titles were accurate. Thus, these three lost works were inspired by God because written by true Prophets. Otherwise the Bible would not have referred to them as such. Despite these works being prophetic, everyone must concede these three prophetic works have been lost. God's sovereignty did not protect us as we assume it should. Humans have personal responsibility to guard His word from loss.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464131"></a>
<div></div>
What About the Dilemma Caused by the Ethiopian Christians' Inclusion of the Book of Enoch?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464132"></a> Furthermore, if we hold to the view that God's failure to block Paul's inclusion in canon means God approves Paul, we have a dilemma posed by the Book of <a name="marker=464133"></a> Enoch. This is a book that has been included for 2000 years as inspired canon of the Ethiopian Christian Orthodox church. <a name="marker=464134"></a> Ethiopia went through long periods of being run by Christian Kings. Its church body consists today of 20,000 churches in a land of 58 million. The Book of Enoch was also part of universal Christianity's canon until 363 A.D. It was actually quoted by <a name="marker=464135"></a> Jude in our New Testament as the words of true prophecy (Jude <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=jude%2017&amp;version=ASV">17</a>). This gives strong support for the Ethiopian Christians' claim that the Book of Enoch belongs in canon.  <a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202html.html#pgfId=464139">1</a> [FN below/ or online <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=oNTXTaCLIoLWtQP59cm0Bw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;output=reader&amp;pg=GBS.PA28.w.1.2.0.1">link</a>.] However, in 363 AD at the <a name="marker=464140"></a> Council of Laodicea, the Book of Enoch was dropped by the Roman Catholic Church from the canon list for the `Old Testament.' No explanation was offered. It then disappeared in the Western Church while it remained canon in the Eastern church.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464634"></a> If God's sovereignty works the way Paulinists suppose, and they reject the Book of Enoch as non-canonical (as they frequently do by saying `canon is closed'), then they have a problem. They have to insist the Ethiopian Christians for 2000 years wrongly have added to Scripture. Likewise, the early universal Christian Church must have wrongfully treated the Book of Enoch as canon for over 300 years. Then if their position is that Christians in the early church and in Ethiopia have for long periods wrongfully added to Scripture, why cannot the Paulinists consider it possible that Paul's writings for 1,970 years were added wrongly to canon?<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202html.html#pgfId=464144"> 2</a> [Fn below or onlin <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=oNTXTaCLIoLWtQP59cm0Bw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;output=reader&amp;pg=GBS.PA28.w.1.2.0.1">link</a>.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">If you assume Enoch is non-canonical, God in His sovereignty allowed large communities (<em>i.e.</em>, Ethiopia &amp; early universal Christianity) wrongfully to add the Book of Enoch for very long periods of time. So if Enoch was wrongly added, then God for 2000 years has not yet intervened to correct the Ethiopians. Accordingly, the Paulinist must concede it is equally possible that a mistake was made about adding Paul to canon. If God did not prevent the Ethiopians from adding the Book of Enoch, there is no reason to believe God always prevents human error in assembling canon lists. Paulinists cannot infer our decisions on canon have God's sanction by the mere lapse of time or God's failure to act supernaturally.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464145"></a> If, on the other hand, Paulinists try to shift positions, and claim they now admit the Book of Enoch is canonical because Jude quotes it as prophetic, then they still have a similar dilemma. They would have to explain how God allowed the church of the West from 363 A.D. to the present era to diminish God's word by wrongfully excluding the Book of Enoch. God did not protect us in the West from a wrongful subtraction of the Book of Enoch from Scripture, contrary to how some suppose that God's sovereignty works.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464146"></a> Thus, regardless of how the Paulinist tries to escape the dilemma posed by the Book of Enoch, it defeats their position. The sovereignty of God does not dictate that He would prevent wrongful addition or wrongful diminishment of Scripture even for as long as 2000 years. God has left the question of canonicity in our hands. We can obey Him by testing claims that something is prophetic or we can disobey God and not test each book we add to His word. The history of the Book of Enoch proves God does not intervene to fix our errors. The fact we have a book that our Western tradition calls the New Testament does not prove God's agreement with our list.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464147"></a> Thus, we cannot infer a long presence of Paul in canon makes it God's choice rather than our own.</p>
<h3>
<div></div>
<a name="27395"></a> What About the Additions to the End of Mark's Gospel?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464150"></a> It is now recognized among most evangelical Christians that the verses after Mark 16:8 were improperly added. The last page of the folio in Greek was lost. In <em>The Westminster Study Edition of the Holy Bible</em> (Philadelphia: Westminster Press, 1948), the authors explain regarding this passage:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464151"></a> [T]his section is a later addition. The original ending appears to be lost. The best and oldest manuscripts of Mark end with ch. 16:8. [See this<a href="http://www.bible-researcher.com/endmark.html"> link</a>.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a> Beginning in the 400s, two different endings were employed after Mark 16:8. One is called the Longer Ending, which appears in the KJV. This includes a verse often used as a proof text that baptism is vital for salvation. We read in Mark 16:16: "He that believes and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believes not shall be condemned." Catholic authorities believe this section is canonical but admit the "vocabulary and style indicate it was written by someone other than Mark."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464153"></a> The other ending to Mark is known as the Shorter Ending. It exists in many other manuscripts and goes back in its tradition to the 400s as well, having been known to Jerome.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202html.html#pgfId=464156"> 3</a> [Fn below or online <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=oNTXTaCLIoLWtQP59cm0Bw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;output=reader&amp;pg=GBS.PA30.w.1.5.0">link</a>.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464157"></a> Thus, from approximately 400 A.D. to our 20th Century, we have had an addition to Scripture that has gone undetected and treated as canon even though it was certainly written three hundred years after Mark died.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464158"></a> If God's sovereignty works the way we suppose, God would not have permitted this addition to Scripture all these centuries. If God's sovereignty must protect us as we assume, God certainly would not allow an addition on a point so crucial as salvation, misleading numerous souls that water baptism was essential for salvation. However, obviously God's sovereignty does not work in the way we suppose. A long period of our tradition to include something as canon does not prove it belongs in inspired canon.<strong><a name="pgfId=464159"></a></strong></p>
<h3>
<div></div>
Tradition Is Invalid Grounds To Justify A Canon List</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464160"></a> This inference of canonicity from long acceptance, furthermore, violates Scripture itself. It is a lazy man's way to permit ongoing violation of God's commands. The fact is that the Bible presumes we can make mistakes in joining wrong books to canon. <em><strong>The Bible's command to not do so assumes we can add a non-prophetic work to Scripture.</strong></em> That is why God imposes on us the rigid tests to determine valid prophecy. Why else would such verses even exist in Deuteronomy chapters 4, 12-13 and 18 unless God intended for us to exercise the decision of what to add to canon? If God were going to do this work for us, He would not give us tests to do it ourselves. The commands would be pointless if we did not have to worry about them because God would anyway protect His word.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464161"></a> In fact, if God protected His word supernaturally, it would defeat God's purpose in allowing false prophets to even exist. God explains why He left it up to us to sift the true prophets from the false:<strong> it tests whether we love Him with our whole heart and mind</strong>. (<a name="marker=464162"></a> Deut. 13:3.) If God sovereignly intervened, and prevented mistakes regarding false prophets, God would thereby avoid the tests of our faith that God expressly says is His intention. God uses such tests and trials to strengthen, not weaken, our faith. (<a name="marker=464163"></a> James <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=james%201:3&amp;version=ASV">1:3</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464165"></a> We should also remember this <a name="marker=464164"></a> Sovereignty of God argument was speciously used to resist the Reformation. The papacy argued, in effect: how could the church be so wrong on indulgences if for so long God permitted it to err? <a name="marker=464166"></a> Luther in his <em>Epistle on Galatians </em>(1535) put his opponent's arguments this way: "Do you suppose that God would have left His Church floundering in error all these centuries?" [See this <a href="http://www.iclnet.org/pub/resources/text/wittenberg/luther/gal/web/gal1-01.html">link</a>.] Luther called this sophistry. Luther said it fundamentally misunderstands the correcting nature of Scripture itself if applied. Tradition means nothing. The true Bible text means everything, Luther replied.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464167"></a> Luther was correct. The false teacher will set up his teaching as a tradition that you must not allow others to contradict. To protect themselves, they will tell you to "avoid" or "stay away" from those who might bring correction to their doctrine. False teachers are afraid you will use Scripture to examine their teaching, claiming it is divisive and destructive of the faith of many. Of course it would be, because Scripture's correcting nature is destructive of false faiths. Rather than avoid others who come with doctrines contrary to what you believe, <em><strong>Apostle John tells you to try them</strong></em> whether they are from God (i.e., compare them to God's word):</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a> Beloved, believe not every spirit, but prove the spirits, whether they are of God; because many false prophets are gone out into the world. (<a name="marker=464170"></a> 1 John <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20john%204:1&amp;version=ASV">4:1</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464171"></a> You are to remain engaged in a dialogue with those whom you share disagreement. You can never know you have the truth if your teacher/leader frightens you to "avoid" or "stay away" from others who have different teachings. Only false prophets/teachers can benefit from instilling such fear among Christians.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464172"></a> Thus, tradition means nothing. The Sovereignty of God idea that makes tradition into dogma rests upon a false assumption of how God should protect His canon supernaturally. The Bible only supports that God expects us to protect and guard His word after delivered to us. We cannot avoid applying the tests of Deuteronomy chapters 4, 12-13 and 18 of what constitutes a false prophet on the assumption that God will always intervene to prevent erroneous inclusion of books into canon. A long period of acceptance by a large group of Christians proves nothing about God's divine plan. The history attached to the Book of Enoch for 2000 years stands as a constant reminder of the <a name="marker=464173"></a> folly of such a notion, whether one believes Enoch is canonical or not.</p>
<h3>Luther &amp; Calvin Both Rejected the Sovereignty of God Argument on Canon Inclusion</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Finally, both <a name="marker=464175"></a> Luther and Calvin would reject the idea God's sovereignty has protected the New Testament canon for all these thousands of years. They both claimed various books that now have been attached for 2000 years to the NT canon were erroneously included. Thus, nothing put forth in the JWO proposition runs afoul of the Sovereignty of God, even as Luther and Calvin understood that doctrine.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464177"></a> First, Luther in his 1522 <em>Preface to the New Testament</em> clearly said two books do not belong in the New Testament canon: the Book of Revelation and the Epistle of James. Luther said he could not see "the Holy Spirit" in the Book of Revelation. (See infra <a class="XRef" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2015.#21699"> </a> at page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA354#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">354</a>.) As to James' Epistle, because it "contradicts Paul," Luther said it could not possibly be inspired. (See <a class="XRef" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2011.#42313"> </a> infra at<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA238#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> 238</a>.) Luther printed both books as part of his New Testament simply for historical reasons. Thus, Luther did not regard almost 2000 years of inclusion<em> ipso facto</em> proves inspiration. Luther rejected the idea that God's sovereignty implies approval of our New Testament list on the assumption God would not have delayed so long to fix things.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464184"></a> Likewise, Calvin insisted that Second Peter was wrongfully included in canon. (See Appendix B; see also this <a href="/Recommended-Reading/second-peter-reference-to-paul.html">link</a> at www.jesuswordsonly.com.) The Second Epistle of Peter has a verse that troubled Calvin's doctrine of predestination. This probably motivated Calvin's antagonistic viewpoint. Calvin rested his disavowal Peter wrote this because it criticizes Paul as "one difficult to be understood." (<em>Id.</em>) Regardless of Calvin's motives, Calvin's position is valid. The inclusion of Second Peter is one of the most universally recognized flaws in the New Testament. This epistle was never recognized fully in any canon list until 367 A.D. It was expressly rejected by Eusebius in 325 A.D. as a pseudograph. It has several internal evidences of its pseudograph nature. Thus, Calvin's view that it is not true canon was legitimate.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464188"></a> More important, Calvin's view proves Calvin did not regard almost 2000 years of inclusion<em> ipso facto</em> proves inspiration. God's sovereignty does not imply approval merely by God not having supernaturally intervened for 2000 years to reassemble the canon list.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464190"></a> Thus, even though <a name="marker=464189"></a> Calvin and Luther surely would not want Paul excluded from canon, both Calvin and Luther would concede it is correct to test Paul's canonicity. There is no presumption that Paul belongs in the NT list merely by passage of time and a long tradition. The Bible demands testing Paul's inclusion by humans. The Bible sets forth those tests we humans are to apply. However, we humans love to shirk responsibility by attributing all events that support our errors to God. However, our Lord does not tolerate such a lazy servant. Let's get to work now and do the job that God commanded us to do: test Paul.</p>
<h3><strong><a name="24965"></a></strong><strong> Regardless, The Earliest Tradition Excluded Paul as Inspired Canon</strong></h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464193"></a> Furthermore, the actual history of <a name="marker=464192"></a> canon formation suggests God did tell the early Church that Paul was uninspired. The Ebionites of 65 A.D. asserted Paul was an apostate because of his position on the Law of Moses. The Ebionites insisted Paul's writings must be deemed heretical. Only the Hebrew version of Matthew's Gospel should be canon. (No other NT writing yet existed in 65 A.D.) The evidence strongly suggests that Ebionites was a term used for the Apostolic Jerusalem Church under James. The word Ebionites is an Hebraism meaning The Poor. Paul twice refers to collecting funds for The Poor at Jerusalem. However, this link between The Poor at Jerusalem and the Ebionites was obscured in our <a name="marker=464194"></a> New Testament by printing the poor in lowercase letters and not transliterating it to Hebrew as Ebionites.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202html.html#pgfId=464203"> 4</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464207"></a> Next, Paul was expressly identified by recognized Christian leaders as uninspired when Marcion caused a crisis in 144 A.D. <a name="marker=464208"></a> Marcion insisted Paul alone had the true gospel, not the twelve apostles. In response, the early universal Christian church said Paul is not an inspired author. This is clearly set forth in <a name="marker=464209"></a> Tertullian's <em>Against Marcion</em> from 207 A.D.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202html.html#pgfId=464215"> 5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464216"></a> Thus, from 65 A.D. to 207 A.D., God apparently did tell the church through James and Tertullian to reject Paul as lacking inspiration. God did not leave us ignorant. We may have simply chosen to ignore God's early messages through His agents. However, there is no time like the present to make amends for errors in our past. We must stop trying to shift responsibility to God for our decisions when we fail to obey God's commands to test the words of alleged prophets.</p>
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<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464460"></a> <em> Historical Note: Has Adding An Edifying Work To Canon Ever Been Mistaken As Proof of Inspiration?</em></p>
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<h6 class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464462"></a></h6>
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<p><a name="pgfId=464430"></a> Tertullian in <em>Against Marcion</em> (207 A.D.) thought Paul's words should be treated as edifying rather than as inspired material. Unfortunately, this original purpose for reading Paul along with the Gospels was forgotten in the ensuing centuries. Has the notion of inspired canon ever been shaped by a misunderstanding of the original intent in joinder? Yes. A similar oversight led Catholics in 1546 to decree the <em>Apocrypha</em> was inspired. However, when it was added to canon eleven centuries earlier, it was solely as edifying but non-inspired material. Catholic scholars now recognize that the original purpose by Jerome of adding the Apocrypha to the Bible's canon was forgotten over time. Its joinder originally did not mean to imply it was inspired material. Yet, confusion set in and now it is regarded as inspired material by Catholic authorities.<a class="footnote" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%202html.html#pgfId=464433"> 6</a></p>
<p> </p>
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<hr />
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464139"></a> Indeed, an argument exists that the Book of <a name="marker=464138"></a> Enoch was wrongfully excluded in the West after 363 A.D. It is a book filled with Messianic prophecies that Jesus fulfilled. For discussion, see What About the Canonicity of the Book of Enoch? (2005) available on-line at this <a href="/Recommended-Reading/recommendedreading.html">link</a>.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464144"></a> This number of 1,970 years reflects the evidence that the earliest apostolic church known as The Poor (Ebionites) rejected Paul's writings from the 40s though 70 A.D. See Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464156"></a> For this background, see Notes to New American Bible at <a href="http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/mark/mark16.htm">http://www.usccb.org/nab/bible/mark/mark16.htm</a> (last accessed 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464203"></a> See infra page <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;printsec=frontcover&amp;dq=jesus%20words%20only&amp;hl=en&amp;ei=oNTXTaCLIoLWtQP59cm0Bw&amp;sa=X&amp;oi=book_result&amp;ct=result&amp;output=reader&amp;pg=GBS.PA284.w.1.2.0">287</a> (evidence why Ebionites were the Jerusalem Church under James).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464215"></a> For extensive quotations from Tertullian, see <a class="XRef" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#42229"> </a> et seq.</p>
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<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464433"></a> Has overlooking Tertullian's writings on Paul led to a crucial misunderstanding on Paul's supposed inspiration? A similar lapse in memory happened among Catholics regarding Jerome's view of the Apocrypha which he combined with the inspired Bible text. The Apocrypha represented seven books within the Vulgate Bible prepared by Jerome in 411 A.D. Why did Jerome include this section? Jerome in a commentary on Solomon explained the Apocrypha was "for the edification of the people, not for the authoritative confirmation of doctrine." However, the memory of Jerome's original purpose faded in time. In 1546, the Catholic Council of Trent affirmed the Apocrypha as sacred, and it belonged to the Bible. The Apocrypha still is considered an official inspired portion of the Catholic Bible. Thus, the memory of the purpose of joining a noninspired writing to inspired texts was, after eleven centuries, forgotten. However, the scholars who wrote the "Canon" article for the New Catholic Encyclopedia concede what really happened: "The latter [i.e., the Apocrypha] he [Jerome] judged were circulated by the Church as good spiritual reading but were not recognized as authoritative Scripture. The situation remained unclear in the ensuing centuries...." Thus, in other words, such close association between edifying material and inspired material caused confusion among Catholic authorities over the centuries. Meanwhile, Catholics later adopted doctrines about Purgatory that solely had support in the Apocrypha. Hence, it became embarrassing for Catholicism to later eject this section as noninspired. And thus it stands. A joinder to edify the reader became conclusive proof the writing was inspired! Yet, we cannot judge the Catholics too harshly for this error. It appears identical to what we did with Paul. If Tertullian was a voice of orthodoxy on Paul, as it appears he most certainly was, then as of approximately 200 A.D., the church which first added Paul to canon close in time must have done so with Tertullian's views in mind. This would mean that such close association of Paul with inspired canon later caused us confusion. The early church's original purpose became "unclear [to us] in the ensuing centuries...." Then we, like the Catholics, superimposed our belief system about what canon means today on a prior era which viewed canon quite differently. This is apparently how Paul went from an edifying writer who had virtually no impact on doctrine in both the Eastern and Western church for fifteen centuries (see <a class="XRef" href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2016.#34087"> </a> et seq.) to a figure today whose every word is now hung upon by many as inspired text. Also, this episode of how the Apocrypha went from edifying material to inspired writ should remind us that the concept of canon has varied over time. We must not regard the mere fact something was joined as canon for centuries as proof that the item is anything more than reading material in church. Only if a writing is objectively prophetic material can it stand on its own and be deemed validly inspired.</p>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Chapter 12 The Ebionite Records of the Trial of Paul</h2>
<h3>Historical Evidence for The Trial Spoken Of In Revelation 2:2</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464122"></a>Apart from what we reviewed so far from the Bible, are there any historical records of a trial of Paul<a name="marker=464123"></a>? Yes, indeed there are.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464127"></a>According to <a name="marker=464124"></a>Eusebius (260-340 A.D.) and <a name="marker=464125"></a><a name="marker=464126"></a>Epiphanius (315?-403 A.D.), there was an early Christian group known as the Ebionites. They made findings judicial in character about Paul's background. These findings claimed both of Paul's parents were Gentile. Further, they found Paul was not circumcised until he was an adult. See below "Ebionite Charges Against Paul." Obviously, the implication of these findings was that Paul lied when he made claims to the contrary. (See<a name="marker=464134"></a>Philippians <a href="http://bible.cc/philippians/3-5.htm">3:5</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464135"></a>When Eusebius mentioned the Ebionites' findings, he launched attacks on the Ebionites, challenging their orthodoxy. Eusebius charged the Ebionites were heretics. They supposedly did not believe in the virgin birth.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464139"> 2</a> They also taught the Law had not been done away with. While it is likely true that the Ebionites believed Paul erred by abolishing the Law, the question of what they taught on the virgin birth account in Luke's Gospel may have been exaggerated or inaccurately portrayed. There are no clearly recognized writings of the Ebionites on these issues which actually have survived. Therefore, we cannot validate Eusebius' accusation. Nor did Eusebius quote any records of the Ebionites that could substantiate the charges. Thus, these accusations merely serve as ad hominem which do not resolve the claims of Paul's truthfulness about his heritage, as we shall see.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464147"></a>Regardless, we are obliged to re-weigh the facts. First, <a name="marker=464148"></a>Eusebius in particular appeared willing to exaggerate his attacks on the Ebionites. The reason was precisely because the Ebionites wanted Paul excluded from canon. Eusebius did not want Paul discredited. What was Eusebius' motivation in preventing Paul from being discredited? Was it to protect a true prophet or for political reasons? Eusebius was associated closely with Emperor <a name="marker=464149"></a>Constantine. <a name="marker=464150"></a>Eusebius was a promoter of the new-found powers of the bishop of Rome granted by Constantine's decrees. How would this potentially impact Eusebius' treatment of the Ebionites who attacked Paul?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464152"></a><a name="38888"></a>The answer is obvious. After Peter founded the church of Rome and left, Paul arrived and appointed <a name="marker=464153"></a>the first bishop of the church of Rome (Linus), according to <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Constitution of the Apostles</span> (ca. 180-200 A.D.) at 7:46. That means Paul appointed the very first pope of Rome--although the name pope for the bishop of Rome was not yet in use. (Peter never apparently used the label bishop to identify his status at Rome.) Thus, the validity of the lineage of the Roman church depended <a name="marker=464154"></a>crucially upon Paul. If Paul were discredited, it would discredit the Roman Catholic church virtually from inception.<strong><a name="pgfId=464155"></a></strong></p>
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Why No Other Ebionite Writings Survived</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464156"></a>We do not know the Ebionites' true views because we cannot find the <a name="marker=464157"></a>Ebionite works preserved in any library anywhere. Imperial Rome beginning with <a name="marker=464158"></a>Theodosius' reign (379-395) outlawed any religion <a name="marker=464159"></a>but that of the "bishops of Rome" (<span style="text-decoration: underline;">Codex Theod</span>. XVI, I, 2). This was enforced by the destruction of both public and private libraries in Roman territories. If any heretical material was found, the owner suffered the death penalty. This suppression of historical works was interpreted broadly. For example, in 371, Emperor Valens ordered troops to remove from private homes at Antioch (Syria) works on liberal arts and the law, not just heretical works. "Discouraged and terrorized people all over the eastern provinces of the Empire, wishing to avoid any possible suspicion, began to burn their own libraries."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464162"> 3</a> This grew worse under Theodosius. Then in 435 and 438, the emperors of Rome again commanded the public burning of unorthodox books throughout the empire.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464163"></a>So effective were these decrees, that there is not one single record written by an Ebionite that we can find preserved anywhere in any library. We know them only through the interpretation of their enemies. Our only records on the Ebionites' views are what Roman government authorities allowed to escape from the fire because the Ebionite's writings were quoted in the approved writings of Eusebius and Epiphanius.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464164"></a>Thus, it is not fair to judge the Ebionites solely from their enemies' writings. What Eusebius says needs to be taken with a grain of salt, particularly when bias can so easily enter and distort the analysis.<strong><a name="pgfId=464165"></a></strong></p>
<h3>
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<a name="25307"></a>A Fortuitous Discovery of Ebionite Writings?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464166"></a>Or is that all that we now have from the Ebionites? Did the world recently discover a treasure trove of their writings from which we can objectively measure their orthodoxy? A good argument has been recently made by Professor <a name="marker=464167"></a>Eisenman in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">James: The Brother of Jesus</span> that we have recovered some of the <a name="marker=464168"></a>Ebionites' writings among the Dead Sea Scrolls. How so?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464169"></a>Many of the sectarian works at the Dead Sea are written by a group who in Hebrew call themselves the Ebyonim or Ebion--The Poor. They even describe themselves as the "Congregation of the Poor."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464174"> 4</a> The Poor of the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS) claimed to be followers of "The Way," part of "The New Covenant" who found the "Messiah" who is called the "Prince of the Congregation" and "Teacher of Righteousness." He is gone, killed at the urging of the priests at Jerusalem. After the departure of the Messiah (who will return), the temporal leader who led the Poor was called the Just One<em>, i.e</em>., Zaddik in Hebrew.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464176"></a>Furthermore, their leader--the Zaddik--is in a struggle against the "Spouter of Lies" who seeks to seduce the New Covenant community from following the Law of Moses. The Poor (Ebion) reject the idea Habakkuk 2:4 means justification is by faith and insist its meaning is "justification by faithfulness." The DSS Ebion have two writings both called "Justification by Works" which reaffirm their rejection of the position of the "Spouter of Lies."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464177"></a>When we compare the Ebion of the Dead Sea Scrolls to what Eusebius describes as the Ebionites, the similarities are striking. The Christian sect of Ebionites seem to match the writings of the Poor (Ebyonim, Ebion) whose writings were found at the Dead Sea site of Qumram. These Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS) reflect ideas and thoughts that are unmistakably Christian.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464180"> <sup>5</sup></a> The question is whether the writings of The Poor found at Qumram pre-date or post-date Christ.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464183"></a>Unfortunately, this cannot be done by carbon dating the papers found at the Dead Sea. Such dates only tell us the date of the age of the paper. Carbon dating can not tell us the date of the writing on the paper. Yet, we have other reliable means to identify the date of the activity of the people whose writings were preserved at Qumram. Fifty-seven to sixty-nine percent of all the coins in the Dead Sea caves are from the period 44-69 A.D.--part of the Christian era. Thus, the only way to know whether Christians or non-Christians wrote these writings is to study the words on the pages of the DSS.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464185"></a><a name="30042"></a>Professor Eisenman finds significant proof the Dead Sea Ebyonim is a Christian group. For example, in the DSS, the temporal ruler of the Ebion who succeeds the killed Messiah (who will return) is called the Zaddik. Numerous ancient sources outside the DSS identify James the Just (the brother of Jesus) as The Zaddik. Translated, this means Just One. <a name="marker=464186"></a>Jerome by the 400s will call him James the Just. In Christian writings of that era, the name of James was rarely used. He was merely called the Zaddik or Just One.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464189"> <sup>6</sup></a> As we saw previously, James--the Zaddik--was the first bishop of Jerusalem after Jesus' resurrection.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464195"> <sup>7</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464196"></a>So is it then mere coincidence that the head of the Ebion of the Dead Sea Scrolls is called the Zaddik? Of course not. Professor Eisenman appears to have stumbled upon a major discovery.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464197"></a>If Professor Eisenman is correct, this means the Ebionites in Eusebius' writings are the Jerusalem Church under James. What Professor Eisenman then notes to corroborate this idea is that Paul refers twice to sending money to the poor at Jerusalem. Eisenman says this just as easily could be The Poor. (<a href="http://bible.cc/romans/15-26.htm">Rom. 15:26</a>; Gal. 2:9-<a href="http://bible.cc/galatians/2-10.htm">10</a>.) If we translate back Paul's words into Hebrew, he was saying <em>The Ebion</em> of Jerusalem was the name of the church under James. They were the Congregation of the Poor, just like we might call a church The Lighthouse Church. We do not see Paul's intent due to case size in the standard text which changes The Poor into the poor.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464200"> <sup>8</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464201"></a>What heightens the probability Professor Eisenman is correct is recent archaeology. The initial hypothesis was that the DSS were exclusively the writings of an Essene sect from the 200 B.C. era. This idea recently crumbled in 2004. Golb's contrary hypothesis that the DSS came from the Temple at Jerusalem between 65-70 A.D. has now been strongly confirmed by extensive archaeological digs under auspices of Israeli universities. These digs proved there was no community site of monks at Qumram. It was a clay plate factory. The initial inference of a large community of monks from the presence of a large number of plates misinterpreted the evidence. Second, we can now infer the scrolls were hidden in the mountains to protect the scrolls, and not because a large community had been involved in copying activity. In fact, archaeology now proves there was no copy center or Scriptorum, as originally claimed. None of the metal clips copyists use to guide copying were found at Qumram. A few ordinary pens and numerous coins were found. Yet, no metal clips of copyists. Not even a fragment of one!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464202"></a>The very nature of the scrolls likewise demonstrate that no monkish community was engaged in copying them. The <a name="marker=464203"></a>Dead Sea Scrolls, it turns out, are not only an eclectic collection of sectarian materials but also a cache with numerous copies of the Bible texts. This is just what one would expect to find from the Temple Library at Jerusalem had it been secreted away in advance of the Roman troops sieging Jerusalem prior to 70 A.D. The Essenes would not be expected, by contrast, to preserve several opposing strains of sectarian writings. One such strain is the writings of The Poor--The Ebion. On the other hand, we would expect to find Jewish Rabbis at Jerusalem wanting to keep copies of Christian writings for informational purposes at the Library of the Temple of Jerusalem. We would expect to find records of sectarian differences maintained by such a library.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464205"></a><a name="marker=464204"></a>Golb's argument has now essentially been vindicated. Golb made a scholarly case that the DSS are writings that were taken from the Temple at Jerusalem during the years of the Roman siege that finally prevailed in 70 A.D. Hiding them in these caves preserved them from the torches which in the end destroyed the Temple in 70 A.D. after a long siege.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464208"> 9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464209"></a>Thus, recent archaeological discoveries at Qumram establish that many of the documents can be potentially prepared in the Christian-era. We no longer are forced to disregard the Christian character of certain writings merely because of the Essene hypothesis which strangled DSS studies until now. Among the newer writings in the DSS, we find some in Hebrew written by a group calling itself The Poor--The Ebion. This transliterates very well as The Ebionites.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464212"><sup>10</sup></a><strong><a name="pgfId=464216"></a></strong></p>
<h3>
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Do The Dead Sea Scrolls Depict A Trial of Paul?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464217"></a>What is highly intriguing is a further theory of Professor <a name="marker=464218"></a>Eisenman about Paul. He claims the Poor's writings in the DSS speak of a trial of Paul. He says James is depicted as Paul's key antagonist in a heated confrontation where Paul spoke vigorously against James. Paul's effort was viewed as an attempt to split the group. Eisenman bases this on two DSS writings. The first is the Habakkuk Pesher, a commentary on Habakkuk 2:4--a favorite verse of Paul. The DSS author interprets the verse, however, to require faithfulness for salvation. The Pesher then rejects the idea that justification is without adding works to faith.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464219"></a>Professor Eisenman sensibly asks us how can we credibly believe this Pesher on Habakkuk 2:4 is directed at anyone else than Paul. As we shall see next, the DSS Poor are up in arms about "the spouter of Lies" who opposes the Zaddik. Are we to believe it is merely coincidence again the Ebion of the DSS just so happen to want to show Habakkuk 2:4--one of Paul's favorite proof texts--does not stand for an idea that Paul alone is known to have espoused? Eisenman concludes we are clearly witnessing deconstruction of Paul's doctrines in the DSS Ebion-ite materials.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464220"></a>It is the next document found among the Dead Sea Scrolls which is the key document to identify Paul as the object of a trial by the Poor (Ebyonim) of the DSS. This <a name="marker=464221"></a>faith-works discussion of the Habakkuk Pesher continues in a work by The Poor entitled the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span>. It says the contrary view on "works" justification is held by the "Spouter of Lies" who resists the "Zaddik." The "<a name="marker=464222"></a>Spouter of Lies" seeks to have the "Congregation of the New Covenant" depart from the Law. A heated public confrontation occurs between the Zaddik and the Spouter of Lies. You can find this <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> in any of the many compendiums of the DSS to verify this yourself.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464223"></a>Professor Eisenman claims this <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> is<strong><em> too uncanny a reference to Paul and James</em></strong> to claim it reflects a pre-Christian debate. It appears Professor Eisenman has the better case on this point as well. The DSS scholars who initially dominated the field tried to maintain this <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> is a pre-Christian document. They did so to serve their now discredited all-encompassing Essene theory.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464226"> <sup>11</sup></a> They ignored the contrary internal evidence in the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span>. This is one of the very few DSS documents that was found long before the 1950s and outside the Dead Sea area. When the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> was originally found in Egypt in the 1890s, its contents led pre-eminent historians to regard it as a Christian writing. George<a name="marker=464227"></a>Margoliouth of the British Museum said in 1910 and 1911 that the <a name="marker=464228"></a><span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> was written around the time of the destruction of the Second Temple (i.e., 70 A.D.), and was the work of the "Sadducean Christians of Damascus."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464231"> <sup>12</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464232"></a>Margoliouth's opinion was given long before the DSS discovery at Qumran in the 1950s. It antedated by forty years the premature fixation on Essenes of 200 B.C. as the authors of the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span>. This fact proves an objective assessment of the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> would lead to a different result. One would conclude objectively it is a work of Christians known as The Poor who were zealous for the Law (Zadokites=Sadducean).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464233"></a>We can also see this for ourselves. The <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span> identifies the community as The Poor or Ebion in Hebrew. They followed the Zaddik, a label which independent and reliable sources prove was the moniker of James. The enemy of the Poor was the <a name="marker=464234"></a>Spouter of Lies, who sought to seduce the New Covenant community from following the Law. The NT evidence strongly suggests that Paul was accused of lying about his apostleship and Paul knew this.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464237"> 13</a>The NT evidence likewise demonstrates the Jerusalem church under James was known as The Poor. (<a name="marker=464240"></a>Rom. 15:26; <a name="marker=464241"></a>Gal. 2:9-10.) Early church evidence also demonstrates a group called Ebionites (which is a transliteration meaning The Poor) were Christians who felt Paul was seducing wrongly the Christian community from following the Law.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464242"></a>Professor Eisenman thus has the better case on the Christian-era aspect of the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Damascus Document</span>. Then, if he is correct on its meaning, the DSS depiction of the Poor--The Ebion--perfectly and uniquely match the Ebionites of whom Eusebius spoke.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464243"></a>It then follows the Ebionites must be orthodox. They are to be equated with the Jerusalem church of The Poor under James. Eusebius must have engaged in distortion of their beliefs to serve his agenda of the 300s. Eusebius's purpose is self-evident. He wanted to discredit the Ebionites because of the <strong><em>centrality of Paul to the validity of the Roman Catholic Church</em></strong> (RCC). Many forget that after Peter's presumed founding of the church at Rome, it was Paul who had appointed the first bishop of Rome--Linus--of the <a name="marker=464244"></a>RCC.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464250"> 14</a> Today we call this bishop of Rome the pope. However, the Ebionites claimed Paul was to be ejected from canon as inconsistent with Jesus' position on the Law. If the Ebionites were right, this means the RCC was corrupted by Paul shortly after Peter founded the Roman church. Eusebius had no choice but to attack the Ebionites regardless of their high standing in the Church's recent memory. In fact, that high standing explains why Eusebius attacked them so vigorously.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464251"></a>Some believe it is inconceivable Eusebius could knowingly disparage the Jerusalem Church under James as legalists. However, even in our modern era, those wed to Paul make such a blatant disparagement of the Jerusalem church. Here is a quote of a fundamentalist Christian journal <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The New Birth</span> condemning freely the Jerusalem Church of the twelve apostles and James:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464252"></a>The gospel of the Jerusalem church became a perverted gospel once the Law Covenant was fulfilled and set aside as the governing covenant economy. And the <strong><em>Jerusalem church would not accept this fact, but continued stubbornly trying to keep the Law Covenant</em></strong>. It will be explained in this article that trying to keep both the Law Covenant along with the New Covenant <strong><em>perverted the gospel of Christ</em></strong> and annulled both covenants. It was<em><strong> necessary for the Lord to take Paul out into the wilderness apart from all the others</strong></em> and teach him directly the pure gospel of Christ, because the gospel of the Jerusalem church was now a perverted gospel, Gal 1:11-24. (<span>"Firstborn Sonship of Christ," </span><em>The New Birth</em><span> (February 2000) Vol. 25 No. 2.)</span></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464256"></a>All Eusebius was doing is precisely what <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The New Birth</span> was doing. Eusebius was putting Paul's view of the Law as the measure to test the orthodoxy of James and the Jerusalem church. Under Paul's criteria, the Jerusalem church (The Ebion) became the heretics. Paul's words proved to Eusebius and the New Birth that the apostolic church was heretical. It is thus entirely reasonable and permissible to infer Eusebius knew he was talking about the Jerusalem church of the twelve apostles when he labelled the Ebionites as heretical legalists. This is what justified Eusebius either falsely or in a misleading manner to charge the <a name="marker=464257"></a>Jerusalem Church with denying the virgin birth because its Hebrew version of Matthew lacked any account of the birth narrative.<strong><a name="pgfId=464258"></a></strong></p>
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The Reliability of The Ebionites Despite the One-Sided Charges Against Them</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464259"></a>Nevertheless, even if the Ebionites did not believe in the virgin birth as charged (see footnote 2 of this chapter for why this charge appears unfounded or does not involve true heresy), they still believed in Jesus' divinity and His resurrection. They were Jewish Christians. They simply did not regard the Law as abrogated. They still rested on the Saturday-<a name="marker=464260"></a>Sabbath. For this too they were condemned by Eusebius and Jerome later. Yet, resting on Saturday-<a name="marker=464261"></a>Sabbath was apostolic practice, as demonstrated by the <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Constitutions of the Apostles</span> dating at least to the early 200s. It was only in 363 A.D. that Constantine's bishops in the Roman Empire made it heresy and anathema to rest on the Saturday-Sabbath. The churches that form the modern Eastern <a name="marker=464262"></a>Orthodox church escaped this Roman decree. They were largely in territories that were not under the Roman Emperor's authority. As a result, the 250 million members of the Orthodox Church today and their members of twenty centuries past keep the Saturday-Sabbath while worshipping on Sunday.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464264"></a>Thus, <a name="marker=464263"></a>Eusebius (who was quoting Epiphanius) presented an illogical and weak case why we should ignore the Ebionites' investigation. Eusebius clearly engaged in the fallacy of ad hominem. The correct response was always to examine the plausibility of the Ebionite charges against Paul from independent evidence. It may very well be that the Ebionites are not only orthodox in every respect, but more so than ourselves because they were led by James and the twelve apostles.<strong><a name="pgfId=464266"></a></strong></p>
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<a name="39392"></a>The Ebionite Charge Against Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464267"></a>Early church historians preserved the Ebionite charge against Paul even while trying to dishonor the <a name="marker=464268"></a>Ebionites. This is the exact quote from <a name="marker=464269"></a><a name="marker=464270"></a><a name="marker=464271"></a>Epiphanius in the 300s:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464274"></a><a name="20239"></a>They declare that he (<a name="marker=464273"></a><strong><em>Paul) was a Greek.</em></strong>.. He went up to Jerusalem, they say, and when he had spent some time there, he was seized with a passion to marry the daughter of the priest. For this reason he became a proselyte and was circumcised. Then, when he failed to get the girl, he flew into a rage and wrote against circumcision and against the sabbath and the Law. (Epiphanius, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Panarion</span>, 30.16. 6- 9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464275"></a>The Ebionites thus say that Paul was not a Jew, but the son of two Gentile parents. He became circumcised as an adult when he fell in love with the daughter of a priest.<strong><a name="pgfId=464277"></a></strong></p>
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<a name="38789"></a>How Plausible Is The Ebionite Charge Against Paul?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464278"></a>There is independent evidence to corroborate the Ebionite charge that Paul was not a Jew in the strict <a name="marker=464279"></a>Jewish sense. It appears he was an Herodian Jew which to true Jews is not a true Jew at all:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464281"></a><a name="marker=464280"></a>Herod and his family tried to tell Jews he was Jewish, but true Jews did not accept Herod's claims. The Herodian lineage had foreign elements in it.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464282"></a>Herod the Great was a Roman collaborator ruling Judea as King prior to Jesus. He was put into power by the Romans lending him troops to subjugate Judea.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464303"></a></li>
<img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html-2.gif" />One of his sons, <a name="marker=464302"></a>Herod Antipas, succeeds him in the time of Christ to rule part of his kingdom.
</ul>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464305"></a>Saul/Paul in <a name="marker=464304"></a><a href="http://bible.cc/romans/16-11.htm">Romans 16:11</a> greets "Herodion, my kinsman<a name="marker=464306"></a>" [i.e., `my relative'] which is a name that a member of the Herodian family would use.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464309"> 16</a></li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464311"></a><a name="marker=464310"></a>Josephus, who as far as we know was not a Christian, mentions a <a name="marker=464312"></a>Saulus in his work <em>The Antiquities of the Jews</em>. In book XX, chapter 9, Josephus says Saulus is a member of the family of the successor, Herod (Antipas). Josephus says this Saulus sided with the High Priest in resisting a tumult by lower order priests over temple funds going to the High Priest. Josephus records this Saulus' activity was after Jesus' movement had already begun but before we know independently that Paul joined it. (<em>Antiquities</em>, XX 9.4.). This therefore puts the Saulus of Josephus in precisely the chronological position of <a name="marker=464313"></a>Saul (Paul) prior to his road to Damascus experience. Further, the Saulus of Josephus and the Saul of Acts both are collaborators of the High Priest (an appointee of <a name="marker=464314"></a>Herod). So when Josephus says Saulus was of the family of Herod, this is direct evidence that Saul-Paul was of the family of Herod.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464338"></a></li>
<img align="RIGHT" src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html-3.gif" />The most important fact is that Paul says he has <a name="marker=464339"></a>Roman citizenship from birth. (<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/22-28.htm">Acts 22:28</a> "I have been born a Roman citizen.") You would carry around proof on a small Libellus. Paul's claim was accepted in Acts. It has several implications.
</ul>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464340"></a>First, Roman citizenship was an honor from Rome which in the Judean region primarily only could be enjoyed by members of Herod's family or his closest allies. The list of Roman citizens was kept in Caesar's office in Rome. It was not a very long list. Most native-born Italians did not enjoy this privilege. In outlying provinces like Judea, it was dispensed to military allies and their families to give them special protection from Roman occupation forces. You could not torture or beat a Roman citizen.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464341"></a>Second, Roman citizenship from birth means Saul had to be given a Roman name from birth.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464344"> 17</a> It turns out that Paul is a Roman name.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464348"> 18</a></li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464349"></a>How did Paul happen to have a Roman birth name if he was truly Jewish? It cannot happen. A true Jewish family would not give their child a Roman name or even accept Roman citizenship from birth. This would represent defilement. Thus, Paul had to be from birth a non-Jew. However, his parents also named him Saul, which is a Jewish name. Thus, his parents aspired to be Jewish. This fits perfectly the Herodians. They would be non-Jews and Roman citizens, but they would also aspire to be Jewish.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464350"></a>Thus, in the Judea of that era, only Herodians would have a child with both a Roman and Hebrew name (Paul Saul) who would have Roman citizenship from birth (<a href="http://bible.cc/acts/22-28.htm">Acts 22:28</a>) and who would greet a "kinsman" (i.e., a relative) named Herodion. (Romans 16:11.) It thus is not a coincidence that Saul in Acts is a collaborator of the High Priest appointed by Herod. Nor is it insignificant that Saulus in Josephus is likewise a collaborator of the High Priest in precisely the time-frame of Saul-Paul prior to becoming a Christian. This then leads us to the unequivocal statement in Josephus that Saulus is a member of the Royal family of Herod Antipas.<a name="pgfId=464351"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464353"></a>In fact, Paul being an <a name="marker=464352"></a>Herodian `Jew' would explain the presence of Herod's foster brother as a member of the Christian church at Antioch. After Paul's Damascus Road experience, he went to Arabia for fourteen years. (<a name="marker=464354"></a><a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians+1%3A17-2%3A1&amp;version=NIV">Gal. 1:17-2:1</a>). At the end of that time, Paul emerges as a delegate from the Antioch church to go to Jerusalem for a ruling on circumcision. (<a name="marker=464355"></a><a href="http://bible.cc/acts/14-26.htm">Acts 14:26</a>, <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/15-2.htm">15:2</a>.) So who previously belonged to this church at Antioch?</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464356"></a>And there were certain in Antioch, in the assembly there, prophets and teachers;...Manaen also--<em><strong>Herod the tetrarch's foster-brother</strong></em>--and Saul (Acts 13:1).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464357"></a>Who recruited Herod's brother? Someone had to do this. Someone of the family of Herod would be in the best position to do so. Saul-Paul, with Roman citizenship, would have the uncommon status to permit social contact with Herod's brother. If Josephus' reference to Saulus means Saul-Paul, and he was thus a member of Herod Antipas' family, then Paul likely recruited Herod's brother.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464358"></a>This <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/13-1.htm">Acts 13:1</a> passage underscores once more the many uncanny links between Paul and Herod. The primary ones are:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464359"></a>Romans 16:11, the greeting to Paul's relative, "Herodion."</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464360"></a>Paul's service to the High Priest, who is appointed by Herod.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464361"></a>The apparent Saulus-Paul link in Josephus where Josephus says Saulus is from the family of Herod; and</li>
<li class="Bulleted"><a name="pgfId=464362"></a>As <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/22-28.htm">Acts 22:28</a> reveals, Paul has Roman citizenship from birth in the Judean region under Herodian control.<a name="pgfId=464363"></a></li>
</ul>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464364"></a>Paul was thus <strong><em>apparently an Herodian Jew</em></strong>, not a true Jew.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464365"></a>Therefore, the available evidence strongly vindicates the investigation by the Ebionites. The <a name="marker=464366"></a>Ebionites could in a strict investigation prove that Paul did not have Jewish parents according to the rabbinic definition. Thus, while the Ebionites' doctrines made them want to exclude Paul because of his position on the Law, this did not apparently bias the result. It appears their claims on Paul's background are so substantial that we could conclude Paul was not a true Jew even without knowing the Ebionite claim on Paul's background.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464367"></a>The significance of trusting the Ebionite charge, however, is this means they were proving Paul to be untruthful. Paul claimed he was born a Jew and circumcised on the eighth day. (<a name="marker=464368"></a><a href="http://bible.cc/philippians/3-5.htm">Phil. 3:5</a>.) This fits right in with <a name="marker=464369"></a>Rev. 2:2 where the false claimant to apostleship was proven a liar at Ephesus. It also fits the parallel statement by Jesus about those who "lie" and "<em><strong>say they are Jews but are not.</strong></em>" (<a name="marker=464370"></a>Rev. 3:9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464371"></a>Most important, the Ebionite charge has the characteristic of evidence one might bring up at a trial. It has a judicial ring to it. There is nothing polemical about it. No doctrines are involved. The charge purports to be the result of someone trying to find out more about Paul's background. Thus, it appears the Ebionites were involved in finding evidence to bring up at a trial regarding Paul.<strong><a name="pgfId=464372"></a></strong></p>
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Evidence of Peter's Testimony Against Paul in a Trial</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464373"></a>Additional evidence of a trial of Paul comes from a sermon collection called the <a name="marker=464374"></a>Clementine Homilies from 200 A.D. Scholars believe it contains a smaller fragment from an earlier Ebionite writing about a trial involving Paul with Peter as a star witness against Paul. This fragment is stuck inside a later story written to appear as if the opponent is someone called <a name="marker=464375"></a>Simon Magus. (This was apparently done to avoid the censor's hand.) Instead scholars deduce the original fragment was certainly talking about Paul. This can be validated by comparing what Peter says to how Paul responds in statements we find in Acts chapters 22 and 26.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464376"></a>Homily 17 and the Trial of Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464378"></a>In this section of the <a name="marker=464377"></a><em><span style="text-decoration: underline;">Clementine Homilies</span></em>, Peter asks Simon Magus publicly why would Jesus come to an enemy in a vision. Peter wonders why would Jesus spend years teaching the apostles to have their message supplanted by someone who merely claims to have had a vision of Jesus. These are all good questions even if the fragment were really directed at a confrontation of Peter with Simon Magus. But was it?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464379"></a>To answer that we need more background. This dialogue appears as Peter's testimony in a trial atmosphere. It is found in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Clementine Homilies</span>: Homily 17. Scholars say this fragment's original source must have been written by the Ebionites. Later, it was inserted into the Clementine Homilies as if directed at someone else called <a name="marker=464380"></a>Simon Magus. Scholars concur that its original context was written to tell what transpired when Peter was testifying against Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464385"></a>How do scholars deduce this? This fragment so clearly applies to Paul that it is inconceivable Simon Magus could involve all the same characteristics as Paul. As Alexander Roberts, the editor of <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Anti-Nicene Fathers</span>, explains: "This passage has therefore been regarded as <em><strong>a covert attack upon the Apostle Paul.</strong></em>"<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464388"> <sup>19</sup></a> Likewise, Robert Griffin-Jones, a pro-Pauline scholar, admits Paul is the true adversary in this passage: "Paul is demonized...in a fictional dispute [in the<span style="text-decoration: underline;"> Clementine Homilies</span>] in which Peter trounces him."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464392"> <sup>20</sup></a> Bart Ehrman concurs in this Homily that "Simon Magus in fact is a cipher for none other than Paul himself."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=465051"><sup> 21</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464393"></a>You can decide for yourself. Here is the excerpt that has convinced scholars the target is Paul. This is Peter's statement at this trial of one who said "he became His apostle" but Peter refutes:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464395"></a><a name="marker=464394"></a>If, then, our Jesus appeared to you in a vision, made Himself known to you, and spoke to you, it was as one who is <em><strong>enraged with an adversary</strong></em>; and this is the reason why it was through visions and dreams, or through revelations that were from without, that He spoke to you. But can any one be <em><strong>rendered fit for instruction through apparitions</strong></em>? And if you will say, `It is possible,' then I ask, `<strong><em>Why did our teacher abide and discourse a whole year to those who were awake</em></strong>?' And how are we to believe your word, when you tell us that He appeared to you? And how did He appear to you, when <strong><em>you entertain opinions contrary to His teaching</em></strong>? But if you were seen and taught by Him, and<strong><em> became His apostle for a single hour, proclaim His utterances, interpret His sayings, love His apostles, contend not with me who companied with Him</em></strong>. For in <em><strong>direct opposition to me</strong></em>, who am a firm rock, the foundation of the Church, you now stand. If you were not opposed to me, you would not accuse me, and revile the truth proclaimed by me, in order that I may not be believed when I state what I myself have heard with my own ears from the Lord, as if I were evidently<em><strong> a person that was condemned</strong></em> and in bad repute. But if you say that I am condemned, you bring an accusation against God, who revealed the Christ to me, and you inveigh against Him who pronounced me blessed on account of the revelation. But if, indeed, you really wish to work in the cause of truth, <strong><em>learn first of all from us what we have learned from Him</em></strong>, and, becoming a disciple of the truth, become a fellow-worker with us. (Ps-<a name="marker=464396"></a>Clementine Homilies 17,19.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464399"> 22</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464401"></a>Let's test the possibility that Peter did in fact deliver this speech, and Paul heard it. We will find evidence in the New Testament that <a name="marker=464402"></a>Paul was aware of this charge that Peter made, as recorded in the <em>Clementine Homilies</em>. Paul's knowledge of this charge can be proven in how Paul embarrassingly changed his accounts of his vision with Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464403"></a>The version in Acts chapter 22 is precisely the vision that Peter is addressing in Homily 17, as it lacks any positive words from Jesus toward Paul. This must be what pressures Paul later to change the account into what we see in Acts chapter 26. This account reverses the Acts chapter 22 account. It puts words in Jesus' mouth for the first time that are positive toward Paul. However, by Paul changing the accounts, he demonstrates a<strong><em> clear contradiction</em></strong> with the earlier version in Acts chapter 22. Thus, the Acts chapter 26 account eliminates the point Peter raises in the Clementine Homily 17. However, it does so at a great price--terrible embarrassment when the later version of Acts chapter 26 is compared to Paul's earlier vision account in Acts chapter 22. Only something precisely like Peter's speech in Homily 17 can explain such a risky reversal of the vision account. We next examine the evidence for this.<strong><a name="pgfId=464404"></a></strong></p>
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How Acts Mirrors the Clementine Homilies</h3>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464405"></a>Point One: Jesus Only Words Are Negative in Acts Chapter 22</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464406"></a>The main argument in Peter's Clementine speech was that Paul's vision of Jesus involved Jesus only talking negatively to Paul. In fact, Homily 17, chapter 18 is devoted to Peter proving from Scripture that visions of God are how God reveals himself to enemies, not allies. In that context, Peter's point is unmistakable. Paul's vision only contains negative statements from Jesus, invalidating it as a proof of Paul's authority.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464407"></a>Then we will see that the account of Paul's vision given in Acts chapter 22 is exactly what Peter describes in <em>Clementine Homily</em> 17:19. In the Acts 22:7-16 account, the only positive statements come later from a person named Ananias. They do not come from Jesus at all, just as Peter says in this<a name="marker=464408"></a>Clementine Homily. Jesus' only words are negative toward Paul, as we discuss in detail below.</p>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464409"></a>Point Two: Paul Lost A Trial Before Jewish Christians.</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464411"></a>Consider next that Paul <a name="marker=464410"></a>mentions in 2 Timothy chapter 4 having had to give a "first" <a name="marker=464412"></a>defense of himself from other Christians and no one came to his defense. This apparently relates to the fact that in 2 Timothy 1:15 Paul says all the <a name="marker=464413"></a>Christians in Asia (<em>i.e.</em>, modern Western Turkey, which includes Ephesus) abandoned him. This defense was thus put on inside a church-setting in Asia Minor. The verdict ended up that all Christians in proconsular Asia abandoned him, according to Paul's own words. (2 Tim. 1:15.) Paul then mentions he still regards he somehow escaped the "mouth of the lion..." at this defense he put on. What did he mean? Paul's words at <a name="marker=464414"></a>2 Timothy 4:14-17 are:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464415"></a>(14) Alexander the coppersmith did me much evil: the Lord will render to him according to his works: (15) of whom do thou also beware; for he greatly withstood our words. (16) At<em><strong> my first defence no one took my part, but all forsook me</strong></em>: may it not be laid to their account. (17) But... I was delivered out of the mouth of the lion. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464416"></a>These statements, all read together, point to Paul admitting he was tried by fellow-Christians in Asia Minor (where Ephesus was), he lost and was then forsaken by all those in that region. Yet, then how are we to understand his words "escaped the lion"? Was it by making up the Acts chapter 26 vision account on the spot?</p>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464417"></a>Point Three: The Lion represents Jewish Christians</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464418"></a>To understand how Paul "escaped" at this trial among Christians, although he lost, we must identify the <a name="marker=464419"></a>lion in 2 Timothy 2:17. Paul most likely meant his Jewish-Christian opponents.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464421"></a>While there is conjecture in <a name="marker=464420"></a>Jerome's writings that Paul meant Nero when he referred to the lion, Jerome was relying upon an apocryphal account of a Paul-Nero encounter. Nero has no nickname as lion. <a name="marker=464422"></a>Jerome does not explain why Paul would have used the label<em> lion</em> for Nero.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464425"> 23</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464427"></a>The more natural reading is that lion represents the Tribe of Judah, <em>i.e.</em>, the Jews. This also fits the historical context. Read this way, 2 Timothy 4:17 means Paul felt he somehow escaped the Judaizing Christians. Nevertheless, the verdict in Asia Minor was a severe loss to Paul of all influence in Asia Minor among Christians there. (2 Tim. 1:15.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464428"></a>Is lion a symbol of Judah? Yes. The lion is historically treated as a symbol of the tribe of Judah. It comes from the Bible. In Genesis 49:9, Judah is specifically called "a lion's whelp." In Numbers 24:9, the people of Israel are likened to a "lion." This symbol for the Tribe of Judah is repeated in Revelation 5:3, 5. Thus Paul's reference to the lion in 2 Timothy 4:17 is likely a reference to his Jewish-Christian opponents within the church.</p>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464429"></a>Point Four: Escaping With Some Legitimacy In Tact is Paul's Meaning</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464430"></a>How can Paul escape yet lose all support? Peter's attack in the Ebionite account of a trial versus Paul goes to Paul's legitimacy. If in Paul's vision account, Jesus had no positive words for Paul, and we must rely upon <a name="marker=464431"></a>Ananias (who is no prophet) to confirm Paul's legitimacy, then<em><strong> Paul loses all legitimacy</strong></em>. Peter's argument in the <em>Clementine Homilies</em> says Paul's authority stands on nothing positive from Jesus. If all we ever had was the Acts chapter 22 vision-account, Peter says Paul stands on nothing from Jesus to confirm Jesus ever had a positive feeling toward Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464432"></a>However, Paul could walk away from a trial he loses on whether he is an apostle (Rev. 2:2) if he walks away with some legitimacy. If Paul was at least viewed as having met Jesus who<strong><em> positively told him he would be a witness </em></strong>(not an apostle), it would be enough for Paul to survive as a legitimate authority among Christians. This is what the <a name="marker=464433"></a>vision account in Acts chapter 26 gives Paul, if the trial-judges believed Paul. Thus, at this trial, what Paul apparently means by saying he "escaped the lion" is that he was <strong><em>not stripped of all authority to teach and preach</em></strong>. He only could no longer call himself an apostle. (Rev. 2:2.) He salvaged a win on the only point that mattered to Paul up to that time. No one could disprove that Paul had seen Jesus and there were<em><strong> positive words for him</strong></em>. At least, no one could prove otherwise until Luke published Acts. There we see the vision account in Acts chapter 22 undercuts whether the Acts chapter 26 vision account ever took place. Let's next compare these two accounts to understand how Paul changed his accounts to save his legitimacy at a trial, but lost it for us when we critically compare the two versions.</p>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464434"></a>Point Five: The Vision Account in Acts 26 Solves The Problem Posed By The Vision Account in Acts 22</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464436"></a>First, in <a name="marker=464435"></a>Acts 22:10 Paul reports that at the time of the "<a name="marker=464437"></a>vision" he is criticized by Jesus and merely told to go into Damascus. There is<a name="marker=464438"></a>no word of approval at all from Jesus, just as Peter says in the Peter speech above in Homily 17. See this for yourself by reading next <a name="marker=464439"></a>Acts 22:7-16:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464440"></a>(7) And I fell unto the ground, and heard a voice saying unto me, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? (8) And I answered, Who art thou, Lord? And he said unto me,<em><strong> I am Jesus of Nazareth, whom thou persecutest.</strong></em> (9) And they that were with me beheld indeed the light, but they heard not the voice of him that spake to me. (10) And I said, What shall I do, Lord? And the Lord said unto me, Arise, and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do. (11) And when I could not see for the glory of that light, being led by the hand of them that were with me I came into Damascus. (12) And one <a name="marker=464441"></a>Ananias, a devout man according to the law, well reported of by all the Jews that dwelt there, (13) came unto me, and standing by me said unto me, Brother Saul, receive thy sight. And in that very hour I looked up on him. (14) And he [Ananias] said, The God of our fathers hath appointed thee to know his will, and to see the Righteous One, and to hear a voice from his mouth. (15) For thou shalt be a witness for him unto all men of what thou hast seen and heard. (16) And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on his name. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464442"></a>So imagine Peter has heard this same story from Paul, and only this story from Acts chapter 22. There is <strong><em>no word of approval from Jesus</em></strong>. Just condemnation. The only words ascribed to Jesus other than pure condemnation are these:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464443"></a>Arise, and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do. (Acts 22:10).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464444"></a>This Acts chapter 22 vision account gave Peter room to challenge the validity of Paul's commission from Jesus.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464447"> 24</a> No evidence is put forth by Luke that Ananias is a prophet somehow (<em>i.e</em>., predictive words to validate him). (Acts 9:12-17; 22:12.) Peter says in the above passage of the <a name="marker=464448"></a><em>Clementine Homilies</em> to his opponent (Paul): "If, then, our Jesus appeared to you in a vision, made Himself known to you, and spoke to you, it was as one who is enraged with an adversary; and this is the reason why it was through visions and dreams...." Peter must be referring to Paul's Acts chapter 22 version of the vision account. It was a brief vision, nothing more. Jesus was adversarial in tone.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464449"></a>In Peter's charge, Peter has not seen or heard the next account of the vision, which we can read in Acts chapter 26. This not only proves Paul is the intended target from the Clementine fragment, but it also gives the Peter speech <strong><em>immense authenticity and reliability</em></strong>. Because if the Peter speech never really happened, there is<strong><em> little reason why Paul would go out of his way to contradict and put a whole new spin on his vision experience</em></strong> when we see Acts chapter 26. The purpose of Paul's switch in Acts chapter 26 is clear: it <strong><em>erases the criticism of Peter recorded in the Clementine Homilies.</em></strong> In Acts chapter 26, Jesus appears now to have approving words during Paul's vision experience.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464451"></a>To see this, we must read<a name="marker=464450"></a>Paul's next account of his vision in Acts chapter 26. It is a very different account indeed. Paul, talking to <a name="marker=464452"></a>Agrippa, states in<a name="marker=464453"></a>Acts 26:14-18:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464454"></a>(14) And when we were all fallen to the earth, I heard a voice saying unto me in the Hebrew language, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me? it is hard for thee to kick against the goad. (15) And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest. (16) But arise, and stand upon thy feet: for to this end<em> have I appeared unto thee, to appoint thee a minister and a witness [Gk. martus] </em>both of the things wherein thou hast seen me, and of the things wherein I will appear unto thee; (17) delivering thee from the people, and from the <strong><em>Gentiles, unto whom I send thee</em></strong>, (18) to open their eyes, that they may turn from darkness to light and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive remission of sins and an inheritance among them that are sanctified by faith in me. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464455"></a>Do you see that verses 16-18 are new very positive statements by Jesus? (Also, please note, Jesus has still not once actually called Paul an apostle.) Do you likewise see this Acts chapter 26 version undercuts Peter's argument in the speech from the <a name="marker=464456"></a><em>Clementine Homilies</em>? Do you further see that Peter could not possibly have known of this Acts chapter 26 version at the time Peter confronts his opponent (obviously Paul) in the <em>Clementine Homilies</em>?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464457"></a>Thus, it makes the most sense that Acts chapter 26 reflects the account Paul first gave at trial in response to Peter's charge. This explains why Paul believes he "escaped" the mouth of the lion even though the result was that all Christians of Asia (Minor) abandoned Paul. (2 Tim. 1:15.) No one could disprove that Paul had some vision and there may have been positive statements by Jesus. These two vision accounts fell short of calling Paul an apostle. Paul lost the trial on that score. (Rev. 2:2.) Yet, in Paul's mind he won because he was not totally <a name="marker=464458"></a>de-legitimized.</p>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464459"></a>Point Six: Don't The Vision Accounts of Acts 22 &amp; 26 Conflict?</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464460"></a>In reflection on Paul's various vision accounts, ask yourself this: how plausible is it that the version in Acts chapter 26 just happens to allow Paul to side-step Peter's charge? Furthermore, is it really plausible that both versions (Acts 22 and 26) are true? No, it is not.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464462"></a>In the later version, <a name="marker=464461"></a>Acts 26:16, Paul says that Jesus tells him he is appointed to be a witness (martus, martyr). However, in the earlier version of <a name="marker=464463"></a>Acts 22:13-15, Jesus is harsh and then simply says Paul will be told "all" that he is to do when he gets into town. Then in town, and only then, Paul learns he is being appointed to be a witness. The identical words that Ananias' used in Acts chapter 22 are now transferred, in the next account in Acts chapter 26, into Jesus' mouth. The implausibility of both accounts being true stems from this verse in Acts chapter 22 where Jesus supposedly tells Paul:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464464"></a>Arise, and go into Damascus; and there it shall be told thee of all things which are appointed for thee to do. (<a name="marker=464465"></a>Acts 22:10).</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464466"></a>In this version from Acts chapter 22, Jesus himself says it is in Damascus that Paul will learn "all" of what to do. In the Acts chapter 26 version, everything that Paul was told in the Acts chapter 22 version in Damascus (which was in Ananias' mouth) is now given by Jesus before Paul even goes to Damascus. Both versions simply cannot be true. This is because<strong><em> 100% of what Ananias said in Acts chapter 22 is given by Jesus before Jesus in the vision departs in Acts chapter 26</em></strong>. So how can it be true that in Damascus Paul would learn for the first time "all things which are appointed for thee to do?" In the later account of Acts chapter 26, this 100% precedes Paul's trip to Damascus, <em><strong>making a liar out of Jesus in the Acts chapter 22 account</strong></em>. There Jesus said it would be given at Damascus. If you love the Lord Jesus more than Paul, the two stories are irreconcilable.</p>
<div>
<h4><a name="pgfId=464467"></a>Point Seven: Why Make A Contradictory Account of the Vision Experience?</h4>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464468"></a>This change between Acts chapter 22 and chapter 26 is what explains how Paul in his "first defense" was able to "escape the mouth of the lion," as he puts it in 2 Timothy 2:17. He apparently used this clever side-step. Paul simply made up more words of Jesus but this time words of approval before Jesus departs in the vision. Paul thereby made it <em><strong>appear Jesus is now a friend</strong></em>, and not an adversary. This explains why Paul's "first defense" spoken about in Second Timothy succeeded to some degree in Paul's mind even though "<em><strong>all in... Asia abandoned me</strong></em>." (<a name="marker=464469"></a>2 Tim. 1:15.) Paul felt he had success in holding onto some legitimacy even though the verdict was so bad that all in Asia Minor abandoned him. He must have felt his defense salvaged enough that he could believe he escaped the Jewish-Christian opponents that he faced. Thus, Paul apparently made up this Acts chapter 26 version of the Christ-vision on the spot. Paul was satisfied that in doing so he "escaped the mouth of the lion" even though he effectively lost and "all in...Asia abandoned me."</p>
</div>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464470"></a>Paul's Contradictory Vision Accounts Permit Skepticism About Paul</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464471"></a>Of course, this all depends on you having a certain skepticism about Paul. Yet, most of us evangelicals resist fervently this notion. For those of you having trouble reconsidering Paul's place in the New Testament canon, please consider the following clear-cut <a name="marker=464472"></a>contradiction between Paul's first two versions of his vision.</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464474"></a><a name="marker=464473"></a>Acts 9:7 And the men which journeyed with him stood speechless, <strong><em>hearing a voice</em></strong>, but seeing no man. (KJV)</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464476"></a><a name="marker=464475"></a>Acts 22:9 And they that were with me saw indeed the light, and were afraid; but<strong><em> they heard not the voice of him that spake to me</em></strong>. (KJV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464477"></a>Square these two if you can, but the Greek is identical. The men with him in one case heard (<a name="marker=464478"></a>Gk. <em>acoustica</em>) the voice, and in the other the men with him did not hear (Gk. <em>acoustica</em>) the voice. Scholars compliment <a name="marker=464479"></a>Luke for his honesty, showing us the contradiction. (Robertson's <em>Word Pictures</em>.) However, these scholars are not thinking how damning this is of Paul's credibility.<strong><a name="pgfId=464480"></a></strong></p>
<div>
<h3>
<div><img src="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html-1.gif" /></div>
The Validity of the Charges of Peter in Homily 17</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464481"></a>Even if the Peter charges in Homily 17 never took place at a real trial, it turns out that it still makes two arguments that are valid. This is interesting because it means in 200 A.D., people had already seen flaws in Paul's alleged appointment. It is not something first seen millennia later by me.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464482"></a>Peter's Charge That Paul Rejected the Apostles' Teachings</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464483"></a>An important point leaps off the page of the Peter confrontation with his antagonist in the <a name="marker=464484"></a>Clementine Homilies. John in 1 John told us, reminiscent of Revelations 2:2, to test every spirit to see whether it comes from God. There were several criteria he gave to tell the liars from the true. He said something very reminiscent of Peter's <a name="marker=464485"></a>remarks in the Clementine Homilies:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464486"></a>We belong to God, and everyone who knows God will listen to us [i.e., the twelve apostles]. But the people who don't know God won't listen to us. That is how we can tell the Spirit that speaks the truth from the one that tells lies. (1 John 4:6 CEV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464487"></a>Now compare this to Peter's charge against his antagonist (<em>i.e.</em>, Paul) previously quoted from the Clementine Homilies:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464488"></a>...love His apostles, contend not with me who companied with Him. For in direct opposition to me, who am a firm rock, the foundation of the Church, you now stand. If you were not opposed to me, you would not accuse me, and revile the truth proclaimed by me, in order that I may not be believed when I state what I myself have heard with my own ears from the Lord, as if I were evidently a person that was condemned and in bad repute. But if <em><strong>you say that I am condemned</strong></em>, you bring an accusation against God, who revealed the Christ to me, and you inveigh against Him who pronounced me blessed on account of the revelation. But if, indeed, you really wish to work in the cause of truth,<strong><em> learn first of all from us what we have learned from Him, and, becoming a disciple of the truth,</em></strong> become a fellow-worker with us. (Ps-<a name="marker=464489"></a>Clementine Homilies 17:19.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464490"></a>Peter had the same view as John. Peter tells Paul in the <em>Clementine Homilies</em> that if you were one of us, you would listen to us, rather than make us out to be liars. John says that "the people who don't know God won't listen to us." Peter is saying, in effect, by rejecting the twelve apostles and their teaching, which was based on a Message delivered personally from the Lord, Paul was rejecting Christ himself.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464492"></a>Now where did <a name="marker=464491"></a>John and Peter get that idea? Jesus in <a name="marker=464493"></a>Matthew 10:14-15 said:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464495"></a>(14) And whosoever <a name="marker=464494"></a>shall not receive you, nor hear your words, as ye go forth out of that house or that city, shake off the dust of your feet. (15) Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrah in the day of judgment, than for that city. (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464496"></a>Those who reject the twelve apostles were condemned by the Lord Jesus Himself. The words of the twelve apostles, if rejected, cause us to be at risk of the fire suffered by Sodom and Gomorrah. This is not because their words are prophetic, but because of the Message the twelve personally carried from Jesus. If rejected, it puts us at risk of judgment by fire.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464497"></a>Did Paul Admit He Rejected the Teachings of Peter?</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464499"></a>In Paul, we see hostility toward the <a name="marker=464498"></a>twelve apostles in many ways.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464502"> 25</a> The twelve "imparted nothing to me," says Paul. (<a name="marker=464510"></a>Gal. 2:6.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464511"></a>However, let us ask whether there is anything in Paul's writings that specifically corroborates this kind of hostility between Paul and Peter? Peter is claiming in the Clementine Homilies that Paul makes up a false charge to make Peter look like a liar. Paul makes it appear Peter does not know the Lord Jesus very well. Peter calls this an opposition to an apostle of Jesus Christ. It is a major effrontery that cannot stand. Peter warns Paul in effect that Paul is in danger of the Sodom and Gomorrah warning of Jesus. Did <a name="marker=464512"></a>Paul ever behave in an insulting way toward Peter from sources we all trust as true? Yes, and Paul admits it. (Actually he boasts about it.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464514"></a>In <a name="marker=464513"></a>Galatians 2:11-14, we read:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464515"></a>(11) But when Cephas [<em>i.e</em>.,<em><strong> Pete</strong></em>r] came to Antioch, I resisted him to the face, because<strong><em> he stood condemned</em></strong>. (12) For before that certain came from James, he ate with the Gentiles; but when they came, he drew back and separated himself, fearing them that were of the circumcision. (13) And the rest of the Jews dissembled likewise with him; insomuch that even Barnabas was carried away with their dissimulation. (14) But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Cephas [i.e., <strong><em>Peter</em></strong>] before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest as do the Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, how compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews? (ASV)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464516"></a>Paul boasts here of being able to condemn a true apostle of Jesus Christ. "I resisted him to the face, because he stood<strong><em> condemned</em></strong>." Then <a name="marker=464517"></a>Paul says he gave Peter a dressing down "before them all." Paul did this publicly, not in private.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464519"></a>In doing this, Paul <a name="marker=464518"></a>violates his own command to us: "Do not sharply rebuke an older man, but appeal to him as a father." (<a name="marker=464520"></a>1 Tim. 5:1.) Paul also violated Jesus' command: "if your brother sins, go and reprove him in private; if he listens to you, you have won your brother." (<a name="marker=464521"></a>Matthew 18:15.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464522"></a>Yet, who was right in this public rebuke by Paul of Peter? There is strong reason to believe<strong><em> Paul was wrong, not Peter</em></strong>.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464524"></a>Paul was teaching Gentiles that it was <a name="marker=464523"></a>permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. (See Chapter Paul Contradicts Jesus on Idol Meats.) The twelve apostles tacitly approved James condemning this in Acts chapter 15. Jesus condemns it three times in the Book of Revelation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464528"></a>Peter apparently discovered this practice by Paul. Peter then would have appropriately withdrawn from eating with Gentiles under Paul's infl<a name="marker=464529"></a>uence. Peter had to be obedient to Jesus who likewise condemned what Paul was permitting.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464530"></a>Thus, Paul admits in Galatians that he refused to follow the example of Peter's withdrawal from eating with Gentiles. Peter was probably simply obeying Christ. Now you as a Christian must choose: is Peter as an apostle of Jesus Christ somehow less authoritative than Paul who Jesus never once appointed as an apostle in three vision accounts? While most commentators assume Paul is in the right on the withdrawal issue, on what basis? Paul's say-so? Because Paul permits<a name="marker=464531"></a><a name="marker=464532"></a>eating meat sacrificed to idols but the twelve were misled in Acts chapter 15 to approve prohibiting it?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464533"></a>One must not be influenced by Paul's one-sided account. We can see Paul had an eating practice that made dining with Gentiles under his influence impossible. Jewish custom was to avoid violating food laws by simply not eating with Gentiles. This way they would not offend their host by either asking about foods presented or by refusing foods Gentiles offered. This is all that Peter was doing: being polite as well as conscientious.</p>
<h3><a name="pgfId=464534"></a><a name="19071"></a>Peter's Question Why Jesus Would Use Paul Aside from Apostles</h3>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464535"></a>Finally, Peter in the Clementine Homilies speech (previously quoted) asks his antagonist (Paul) a blunt question that remains valid even if Homily 17 were fictional:</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464536"></a>And how did He appear to you, when you <strong><em>entertain opinions contrary to His teaching</em></strong>? But if you were seen and taught by Him, and became His apostle for a single hour, proclaim His utterances, interpret His sayings, love His apostles.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464538"></a>Doesn't anyone else find it <a name="marker=464537"></a>incongruous that not a single utterance from Jesus' teachings in the Gospel accounts are found in Paul's many letters? For Paul, Jesus is just the divine messiah who dies, resurrects and we must trust in this fact. Apart from that, Jesus' teachings are <strong>completely absent in Paul</strong>. Peter thinks this is a major flaw.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464539"></a>What Peter brings out in the <em>Clementine Homilies</em> again can be corroborated by looking at Paul's writings. Paul admits in Galatians that after he was converted, he then began his work for fourteen years before he ever went back to Jerusalem to learn from the apostles who knew Jesus. (Gal. 2:1.) Paul admits that until that time, he only had a brief two week visit to Jerusalem three years after his vision. Paul emphasizes his lack of contact with the twelve by pointing out that in those two weeks he only met Peter and then briefly <a name="marker=464540"></a>James, the Lord's brother. Paul adamantly insists this is his sole prior encounter with the apostles within "<strong><em>fourteen years</em></strong>" (Gal. 2:1):</p>
<p class="Quote" style="padding-left: 30px;"><a name="pgfId=464541"></a>But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother's womb... To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately <strong><em>I conferred not with flesh and blood: Neither went I up to Jerusalem to them which were apostles before me</em></strong>; but I went into <em><strong>Arabia,</strong></em> and returned again unto Damascus. Then after three [more] years I went up to Jerusalem to see Peter, and abode with him fifteen days. But other of the apostles I saw none, save James the Lord's brother. Now the things which I write unto you, behold, before God, I lie not. Afterwards I came into the regions of Syria and Cilicia. (<a name="marker=464542"></a>Galatians 1:8-21)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=465090"></a>Peter in the Clementine Homily 17 thus asks a very good question. If Jesus spent a year with the apostles after the resurrection teaching them, Jesus obviously did so in order that their witness would be full and superior to others. Then it was incumbent on Paul to learn from them. Yet, by Paul's own<a name="marker=465091"></a>admission, Paul fails to do so for years. How then can Paul form the greater body of New Testament Scripture when his ideas are not based on Jesus' teachings? Isn't that a red flag right there? Christianity is being expounded by someone who never spent any extended time with Jesus, never trained under him, and whose writings are devoid of utterances of Jesus except a small unique aphorism and only one inaccurate quote from the Lord's <a name="marker=465092"></a>supper account.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=465096"> <sup>26</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead">Other respected thinkers have been astonished by Paul's lack of mentioning any lessons of Jesus. Albert <a name="marker=465122"></a>Schweitzer once said:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464570"></a>Where possible, he (Paul) avoids quoting the teaching of Jesus, in fact even mentioning it. If we had to rely on Paul, we should not know that Jesus taught in parables, had delivered the sermon on the mount, and had taught His disciples the `Our Father.' Even where they are specially relevant, Paul passes over the words of the Lord.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464573"> 28</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464574"></a>A modern Christian scholar, Hans van Campenhausen, agrees this deficiency in Paul's writings is a striking and glaring problem:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464575"></a>The most striking feature is that the words of the Lord, which must have been collected and handed on in the primitive community and elsewhere from the earliest days, played no, or at least no vital, part in Paul's basic instruction of his churches.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=464578"> 29</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464579"></a>Peter's point in the Clementine Homilies is likewise that Paul's failure to teach what Jesus teaches is the clearest proof that Paul is not following Jesus. It is a point well-taken.</p>
<p> </p>
</div>
<table>
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<th>
<h6 class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=465128"></a><em><span style="font-size: large;">Note: Peter to James, Preface to Clementine Homilies</span></em></h6>
</th>
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<td>
<p class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=465130"></a>"For some among the Gentiles have rejected my lawful preaching and <strong><em>have preferrred a lawless and absurd doctrine of a man who is my enemy</em></strong>. And indeed some have attempted, while I am still alive to distort my word by interpretation of many sorts,<strong><em> as if I taught the dissolution of the Law</em></strong> ... But that may God forbid! For to do such a thing means to<strong><em> act contrary to the Law of God which was made to Moses and was confirmed by our Lord in its everlasting continuance</em></strong>. For He said: `For heaven and earth will pass away, but not one jot or tittle shall pass away from the Law.'" <em>Letter of Peter to James</em>, 2.3-5 (presumed 92 A.D.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.html#pgfId=465161"><sup> 27</sup></a></p>
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<p> </p>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">1.</span> <a name="pgfId=464133"></a>For the quote, see <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2012html.#39392">See The Ebionite Charge Against Paul</a> section in this chapter.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">2.</span> <a name="pgfId=464139"></a>There is never any legitimate quote offered to prove the <a name="marker=464138"></a>Ebionites denied the virgin birth. Rather, what is offered as proof by Eusebius is primarily an argument from silence. The original Ebionite version of the Gospel of Matthew in Hebrew was missing what we all today see as the virgin birth narrative. From this absence, the charge was made that the Ebionites did not believe in a virgin birth. However, <a name="marker=464140"></a>Jerome ca. 400 A.D. validated the <a name="marker=464141"></a>Hebrew Matthew of the Ebionites. He cited several small variances from the Greek translation of the original Hebrew Matthew. None implied any unorthodox view. Thus, was the omission of the virgin birth narrative proof of heresy? No, because the same virgin-birth narrative is missing from Mark and John. Eusebius also tried to smear the Ebionites by claiming <a name="marker=464142"></a>Symmachus, a Jewish scholar, was one of them. Symmachus disputed apparently the accuracy of the Greek Matthew's translation in Matthew chapter 1 of <a name="marker=464143"></a>Isaiah 7:14 on the word virgin. Symmachus was correct. Therefore the fact this passage in Greek with its <a name="marker=464144"></a>erroneous translation of Isaiah 7:14 is missing in the Hebrew Matthew actually heightens the validity of the Ebionite Matthew as more authentic. Regardless, Symmachus was never a Christian, and was anti-Matthew. He could not possibly be an Ebionite. The Ebionites were pro-Matthew. The impetus to bring exaggerated charges against the Ebionites was due to their position on Paul. There is no substantial evidence, pro or con, to support the Ebionites denied a virgin birth. Even if they did, because John, Mark and probably the original Matthew omit this story, how can it be a core doctrine of the church? How could denying the virgin birth make one a heretic? Jesus could still be from "everlasting" (Micah 5:2)<strong><em> if God occupied Jesus conceived by Mary and Joseph</em></strong>. In fact, one could make the case that the <a name="marker=464145"></a>virgin birth account in Luke contradicts the prophecy that Jesus had to be of the lineage of David. (<a name="marker=464146"></a>Jeremiah 23:6.) If there was a virgin birth, then Jesus would be, as the Epistle of Hebrews says, of the Order of Melchisedek, with no human father. How could an adoption by Joseph truly satisfy the prophecy of Jeremiah 23:6? This perhaps was the problem raised by the Ebionites with Luke's virgin birth account. We may never know for certain. Yet, if the Ebionites disputed the virgin birth, it could not possibly make them real heretics.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">3.</span> <a name="pgfId=464162"></a>Clarence A. Forbes, "Books for the Burning," <span style="text-decoration: underline;">T<em>ransactions of the American Philological Society</em></span> 67 (1936) 114-25, at 125.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">4.</span> <a name="pgfId=464174"></a><a name="26842"></a>The <a name="marker=464173"></a>Dead Sea Scrolls identify the community as The Poor of Psalm 37 where "the congregation of the Poor...shall possess the whole world as an inheritance." (Psalm 37 in Dead Sea Scrolls Pesher 3:10.) Their self-identification is evident repeatedly in the Habakkuk Pesher. The Wicked Priest who killed the Zaddik will be "paid back in full for his wickedness against the `Poor' (Hebrew, ebyonim)." (Norman <a name="marker=464175"></a>Golb, Who Wrote the Dead Sea Scrolls?(1995) at 85.) The verbatim original was: "The Lord will render destructive judgment [on that Wicked Priest] just as he plotted to destroy the Poor." (lQpHab 12.2.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">5.</span> <a name="pgfId=464180"></a>For example, in the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS) there is the uncanny debate over justification by works vs. faith, centering upon a discordant view of <a name="marker=464181"></a>Habakkuk 2:4. The DSS writings advocate justification by works. Their "enemy" is one who espouses that the Law is no longer to be followed. "A similar vocabulary of justification was used by the [DSS]...[Paul's] invective in 2 Cor. 6:14 has close affinities with the [DSS] polemic." (Alan F. Segal, <em>Paul the Convert</em> (New Haven: Yale University Press, 1990) at 174.) Segal goes on to explain: "Paul reads <a name="marker=464182"></a>Habbakuk as contradicting the notion that Torah justifies. In the [DSS] the same verse was used to prove that those who observe the Torah...will be saved." Id., at 180. The DSS thus mirror uncannily the Paul v. James debate.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">6.</span> <a name="pgfId=464189"></a>"Jame's title was `the Just' or `the Just One, which Epiphanius tells us was so identified with this person as to replace his very name itself." (Eisenman, James: The Brother of Jesus, supra, at 375.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">7.</span> <a name="pgfId=464195"></a>[  ]</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">8.</span> <a name="pgfId=464200"></a>Eisenman, <em>James the Brother of Jesus</em> (Penguin: 1998) at 156.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">9.</span> <a name="pgfId=464208"></a>Norman Golb, <em>Who Wrote the Dead Sea Scrolls</em> (N.Y.: Scribner, 1995) at 11, 12, 30, 36. See also the archaeological report of 2004 by Magen &amp; Peleg that destroyed many myths about Qumram, proving it was not an Essene settlement. See, AP 8/18/04; S.F. Chronicle (9/6/04); Ha'aretz (Israel), July 30, 2004. Finally, this story is now being carried in mainstream publications. See Carmichael, "Archaeology: Question in Qumram," Newsweek (Sept. 6, 2005), available at http://msnbc.msn.com/id/5842298/site/newsweek. Newsweek mentions that "Magen &amp; Peleg set off what can only be called an academic revolution" which now corroborates "Norman Golb" who first argued what Magen &amp; Peleg now confirm. See also, "The Dead Sea Scrolls," http://virtualreligion.net/iho/dss.html ("After 10 years of excavation Magen &amp; Peleg conclude that the settlement at Qumran could not have been a monastery, but rather was a pottery factory which was vacated by its few inhabitants during the Jewish-Roman war.")</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">10.</span> <a name="pgfId=464212"></a>Scholars other than Eisenman are beginning to realize the Dead Sea Scrolls which were written by the Ebion are potentially related to the group known as the <a name="marker=464213"></a>Ebionites in Eusebius' writings. See, e.g.,the University of <a name="marker=464214"></a>Pennsylvania DSS conference of October 19, 2004 which mentions the Pesharim document from Cave 1, stating: "Column 12 raises the question as to whether the DSS community referred to itself as `the<a name="marker=464215"></a>Poor.' This could be important for early Christian studies, since...the Ebionites (Hebrew for `poor') was a name used by Jewish Christians later on." http:// ccat. sas. upenn. edu/ rs/rak/courses/427/ minutes04.htm (last visited 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">11.</span> <a name="pgfId=464226"></a>The traditional Essene theory is that every writing, even copies of the Bible, were all made by an Essene community living at Qumram. The new approach, based on archaeology and textual evidence, does not deny that some writings were Essene possibly, even if such a claim is purely speculative. (The word Essene never once appears in the DSS.) The real mystery is how all these writings, reflecting divergent views, all appear at Qumram. Golb's theory is the one that best fits all the facts. It is the only explanation for divergent views in the DSS. The Essene all-encompassing theory needs serious re-evaluation.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">12.</span> <a name="pgfId=464231"></a>G. Margoliouth, "The Sadducean Christians of Damascus," <em>The Athenaeum</em> (No. 4335) (Nov. 26, 1910) at 657-59; The Expositor Vol. 2 (1911) at 499-517.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">13.</span> <a name="pgfId=464237"></a>The verses which are apparently veiled criticisms of Paul in the NT always accuse him of lying. Revelation 2:2 says the ones who tell the Ephesians they are apostles but are not are "liars." When <a name="marker=464238"></a>Paul contradicts Jesus on the idol meat command, 1 John 2:4 tells us: "He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him." When Paul says he is a Jew, and the Ebionites say they found out Paul lied, Jesus says: "them that say they are Jews, and they are not, but do lie." (Rev. 3:9.) Paul was apparently aware of the accusation of being a <a name="marker=464239"></a>liar. He defensively insists often "I lie not." (Rom. 9:1; 2 Cor. 11:31; Gal. 1:20.) That this accusation was over his apostleship is evident in this quote from 1 Timothy 2:7: "I was appointed a preacher and an apostle (I speak the truth, I lie not)."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">14.</span> <a name="pgfId=464250"></a>[  ] The answer is obvious. After Peter founded the church of Rome and left, Paul arrived and appointed the first bishop of the church of Rome (Linus), according to Constitution of the Apostles (ca. 180-200 A.D.) at 7:46. That means Paul appointed the very first pope of Rome--although the name pope for the bishop of Rome was not yet in use. (Peter never apparently used the label bishop to identify his status at Rome.) Thus, the validity of the lineage of the Roman church depended crucially upon Paul. If Paul were discredited, it would discredit the Roman Catholic church virtually from inception. supra.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">15.</span> <a name="pgfId=464255"></a>"Firstborn Sonship of Christ," <em>The New Birth</em> (February 2000) Vol. 25 No. 2.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">16.</span> <a name="pgfId=464309"></a>See discussion in Prof. Robert Eisenman, "Paul as Herodion," JHC (Spring 1996) at 110 et seq., available online at http://www.depts.drew.edu/jhc/eisenman.html (last accessed 10-05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">17.</span> <a name="pgfId=464344"></a>"When a foreigner received the right of citizenship, he took a new name." The nomen "had to be nomen of the person, always a Roman citizen, to whom he owed his citizenship." Harold W. Johnston, <em>The Private Life of the Romans </em>(Revised by Mary Johnston) (Scott, Foresman and Company: 1932) ch. 2.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">18.</span> <a name="pgfId=464348"></a>Most Christians assume that Jesus changed Saul's name to <a name="marker=464347"></a>Paul in the same way Jesus changed Simon's to Peter. However, there is no mention of this in the three accounts of Paul's vision in Acts chs. 9, 22, and 26. In the middle of Acts, Luke starts referring to Saul as Paul, with no explanation. Nor does Paul explain in any of his letters why he uses the name Paul. It turns out that Paul is a Roman name. Saul is a Hebrew name. There is an apocryphal account that Paul took his name from a Roman official Paulus whom he converted. Yet, to be a citizen from birth, one must have a Roman name from birth. Paulus must have been it.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">19.</span> <a name="pgfId=464388"></a>The wording in Homily 17 where Peter says his opponent claims he "stands condemned" is interpreted as a clear allusion to Paul's telling Peter he "stands condemned" in <a name="marker=464389"></a>Gal. 2:11. Roberts then explains: "This passage has therefore been regarded as a covert attack upon the Apostle Paul."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">20.</span> <a name="pgfId=464392"></a>Robin Griffith-Jones, <em>The Gospel According to Paul</em> (San Francisco: Harper Collins, 2004) at 260.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">21.</span> <a name="pgfId=465051"></a>Ehrman, <em>Peter, Paul and Mary Magdalene</em> (Oxford: 2006) at 79.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">22.</span> <a name="pgfId=464399"></a>"The Clementine Apocrypha," <em>Anti-Nicene Fathers</em> (ed. Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson; rev'd A. Cleveland Coxe) Vol. VIII (Peabody, Mass.: Hendrickson Publishing Inc., 1994) at 269 et seq. This is available online at http://www.ccel.org/fathers2/ANF-08/anf08-61.htm#P5206_1525700. These Clementine Homilies were part of church history since the 200s, and even were frequently official readings in the early church. They purported to be written by <a name="marker=464400"></a>Clement, the bishop at Rome around 96 A.D. Scholars of today claim these letters were written around 200, and included within them the earlier tradition of the Ebionites, such as in this passage. Because they were not apparently written by Clement, in fact, they are now labelled The Pseudo Clementine Homilies.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">23.</span> <a name="pgfId=464425"></a>Jerome conjectures incorrectly that Paul means that he escaped "the lion" Nero. Jerome says that in Paul's first encounter with Nero he dismissed him as harmless. <a name="marker=464426"></a>Jerome says lion "clearly [is] indicating Nero as lion on account of his cruelty." (Jerome, <em>Lives of Famous Men</em>, ch. V.) However, Jerome is alluding to the Paul-Seneca correspondence as proof of the Paul-Nero encounter. However, most scholars find good reason to regard those letters as illegitimate, and this encounter as a highly improbable myth. Second, Jerome does not say Nero's nickname was lion, just that the label might fit him and be Paul's intention.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">24.</span> <a name="pgfId=464447"></a>If one ignores Peter's criticism in the Clementine Homily and insists this Acts chapter 22 account legitimizes Paul, one must recognize the only positive remarks come from Ananias. Then this means Paul's legitimacy depends 100% on the legitimacy of Ananias. However, there is no evidence from Luke in Acts or anywhere in the New Testament that Ananias is a prophet (i.e., by means of confirmed prophecy). As Gregg Bing unwittingly admits in "Useful for the Master," <em>Timely Messenger</em> (November 2004): "<strong><em>Ananias...was not an apostle, a pastor, or a prophet</em></strong>, as far as we know, but was simply what many would call an ordinary man." Peter in the Homily realizes that the validity of thinking Jesus spoke positively to Paul mistakenly ignores that Paul's positive commission in Acts chapter 22 solely comes from an uninspired non-prophet named Ananias.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">25.</span> <a name="pgfId=464502"></a>Paul sneers at the three "so-called" leaders at Jerusalem: James, Cephas (i.e., Simon Peter) and John, adding pejoratively that they "seemed to be pillars" (<a name="marker=464503"></a>Galatians 2:9). Paul then <a name="marker=464504"></a>boasts that he believes he is at their level: "For I suppose I was not a whit behind the very chiefest apostles" (<a name="marker=464505"></a>2 Corinthians 11:5). And in <a name="marker=464506"></a>2 Corinthians 12:11, Paul claims "in nothing am I behind the very chiefest apostles, though I be nothing." There is some textual and historical reasons to think Paul calls the twelve false apostles in <a name="marker=464507"></a>2 Cor. 11:12-23, viz. verse 13 "fashioning themselves into apostles of Christ." (Other than the twelve, who else claimed to be apostles other than Paul? No one that we know.) Another example of derogation involves the apostles' amazing gift of tongues (Acts 1). Paul ran down that gift, which had the effect of taking the lustre off the true apostles' gift of tongues. See <a name="marker=464508"></a>1 Cor 14:4-33. Finally, if the Galatians understood the twelve contradicted Paul in any way, Paul would be cursing them in Gal. 1:8-12. He warns the Galatians that even if an "angel from heaven" came with a different Gospel than Paul preached, let him be anathema (<a name="marker=464509"></a>cursed). In light of Paul's comments in chapter two of Galatians, it is fair to infer he meant to warn of even a contradictory message from the twelve and/or James.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">26.</span> <a name="pgfId=465096"></a>Paul in <a name="marker=465228"></a>1 Corinthians 11:24-25 quotes from the Last Supper at odds with Luke's account. See Luke 22:19-20. Luke says Jesus' body is `given' but Paul says it is `broken.' This<a name="marker=465230"></a>variance is significant. As <a name="marker=465231"></a>John 19:36 mentions, Psalm 34:20 says not a bone of His shall be broken. Paul's quote is thus contradictory of Luke as well as theologically troublesome. The aphorism is `better to give than receive.' Acts 20:35.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p><span class="footnoteNumber">27.</span> <a name="pgfId=465161"></a>Bart D. Ehrman, <em>Peter, Paul &amp; Mary Magdalene</em> (Oxford: 2006) at 79.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">28.</span> <a name="pgfId=464573"></a>Albert Schweitzer, <em>Albert Schweitzer Library: The Mysticism of Paul the Apostle</em> (John Hopkins University Press: 1998).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber">29.</span> <a name="pgfId=464578"></a>Hans van Campenhausen, <em>The Formation of the Christian Bible</em> (J. A. Baker, trans.) (Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1972) at 109.</p>
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<td valign="top" >Ebionites "thought that it was necessary to <strong><em>reject all the epistles of [Paul], whom they called an apostate from the Law.</em></strong>" Eusebius, <em>Church Hist</em> 3:26 325 AD</td>
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<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2><strong>Chapter One  Introduction</strong></h2>
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If A Later Prophet Diminishes A Prior Prophet, He Is A False Prophet</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463056"></a> The Bible commands us in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy+4%3A2&amp;version=NIV">Deuteronomy 4:2</a> to not "diminish" any of the words of prior Prophets. Thus, this prohibits adding prophets who contradict earlier prophets.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463073"></a> For example, because Jesus and Moses came before Paul, the principle of priority applies so that Jesus' and Moses' words are to be used to test the validity of Paul's words for inspiration.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463086"></a> The Bible also tells us to ignore prophets with signs and wonders that "come to pass" but whose words contradict or "diminish" the earlier validated prophets. If they "seduce us from following" the commands of God through His earlier prophets, God commands us to treat them as false prophets despite true "signs and wonders." (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2013:1-5&amp;version=NIV">Deut. 13:1-5</a>.) For more detailed discussion, see the chapter entitled <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA37#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Must We Apply The Bibles Tests For a True Prophet to Paul?” on page 37</a> [google-book link].</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463130"></a> Jesus was frequently concerned about the "signs and wonders" prophets to come who would mislead Christians. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%207:15-23&amp;version=NIV">Matt. 7:15-23</a>, viz., v. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%207:22&amp;version=NIV">22</a>;<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%2024:11&amp;version=NIV"> 24:11</a>, <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%2024:24&amp;version=NIV">24</a>.) Jesus warns of these false prophets again in <a name="marker=463110"></a> <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark%2013:22-23&amp;version=NIV">Mark 13:22-23</a>. They "shall show <a name="marker=463111"></a> signs and wonders to <a name="marker=463112"></a> seduce, if possible, even the elect." Jesus' words are quoting Deuteronomy 13:1-5, and thus He intended us to apply that passage to discern true from false prophets.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463120"></a> Jesus in <a name="marker=463119"></a><a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matt%207:15-24&amp;version=NIV"> Matthew 7:15-24</a> refers again to these same "signs and wonders" prophets. Jesus says He will deny He ever knew them even though on Judgment Day they are able to say they did "marvelous works in Your name," and many "prophecies in Your name." (<a name="marker=463121"></a> <a href="http://bible.cc/matthew/7-22.htm">Matt. 7:22</a>.) Jesus rejects them because they are workers of "<a name="marker=463122"></a> anomia." (<a name="marker=463123"></a> <a href="http://bible.cc/matthew/7-23.htm">Matt. 7:23</a>.) The correct translation choice for the Greek word anomia is not lawlessness. These signs and wonders prophets obviously come with the appearance of an angel of light, doing amazing signs and wonders, and even true prophecy. They are not going to be notorious workers of lawlessness. Such sinners could not deceive "if possible, the elect." Rather, Jesus' real meaning could only be the second Greek dictionary definition of anomia which is "negator of the Law (of Moses)."<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463143" class="footnote"> 1</a> [Footnotes are at bottom of this page.] The false prophet who will do many miracles and signs and wonders in Jesus' name will be one who is a "negator of the Law (of Moses)." Jesus is warning us that this false prophet to come is one who says he is a Christian, has sign and wonders, and preaches Christ, but he will be a "negator of the Law of Moses."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463054"></a> Thus, for example, even if Paul came with true signs and wonders, this does not make him a true prophet if his words diminish the Law of Moses, or otherwise contradict earlier validated prophets, such as Moses.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463375"></a> These are not radical propositions. What is radical is looking in the direction of Paul to see whether he can be validated Biblically. Mainstream Christian commentators say, for example, that the prophetic words of Moses and Jesus must be used to validate any `holy book' or person. For example, Muncaster states:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=463388"></a> Importance of prophecy is stressed in the Bible with commands to:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="ot;pgfId=463389&quot;"></a> 1. Test everything...including `holy books' and people.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=463393"></a> 2. Use prophecy...to determine if something is from God.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463398" class="footnote"> 2</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463400"></a> However, Mr. Muncaster would likely object that the Bible's test can ever be applied to test Paul's validity. In effect, most Christians operate on the assumption that the Bible's prophetic words can only test those with whom we disagree. Most Christians appear to believe if we like someone's doctrine and we assume it is Holy and from God, we do not apply the Bible's test to validate them as a new prophet. Yet, this practice of Christians is itself a violation of God's command to test everything by the word of God. We must compare what Paul said to the words of every verified prophet that preceded Paul. To survive God's tests, Paul must not only have true prophecy in God's name of unlikely events, he must never seduce us not to follow a single command God gave previously. God commands us to be able to defend Paul's inclusion in the Bible as much as any other writer.</p>
<h2><strong><a name="marker=461855"></a></strong><strong> Canon History: Additions to Scripture Have Not Been Scrutinized</strong></h2>
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<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=456690"></a> We often take for granted that every book in the New Testament has been scrutinized by some responsible council or group to satisfy a Bible-based test for inspiration. Yet, it is mere presupposition with no basis in history.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=456265"></a> The first recognized semi-official New Testament list of books assembled by anyone took place in 397 A.D.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=462392" class="footnote"> 3</a> That year, three African bishops agreed on a list identical to our current list. (See <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PR21#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Appendix B: How the Canon Was Formed</a> [google-books link].) The list was expressly stated to be <a name="marker=462772"></a> tentative. The bishops wanted to consult with the bishop across the sea (i.e., apparently Rome). These three bishops did not tell us the criteria they used to form their list. It is a mystery. They did not purport to say this list was true for all of Christendom.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=462412"></a> Moreover, there was no long tradition that accepted their list of 397 A.D. The prior informal lists and even the earliest printed canon (Codex Sinaiticus, late 300s) included Christian writings that were inexplicably dropped in 397 A.D. In particular, this is true regarding the book entitled the <a name="marker=461856"></a> Shepherd of Hermas. It previously had been identified closely with canon for 200 years. It was dropped in 397 A.D. (This is not to suggest it is canon. It lacks any legitimizing prophecy.) Thus, the 397 A.D. list suddenly dropped previously accepted books, but without any explanation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=462354"></a> The 397 A.D. list also added items previously routinely ignored. In particular, most of the `canon' lists prior to 397 A.D. excluded <a name="marker=461857"></a> Second Peter as an obvious pseudograph. For some unexplained reason, these three bishops in 397 A.D. suddenly accepted Second Peter. Second Peter still appears in our common New Testament despite its extremely unlikely authenticity. Even <a name="marker=463745"></a> Calvin (a Reformation leader from the 1500s) said it was a forgery. Calvin provided a very elaborate analysis to prove this.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463171" class="footnote"> 4</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464094"></a> The next attempt to determine canon was in 1522. Luther published a version of the New Testament (NT) with a commentary introducing the entire set. Even though Luther's NT list simply adopted the list from 397 A.D., Luther declared two books uninspired. This was explained in his 1522 <em>Preface to the New Testament</em>. These two supposedly uninspired works were the Book of Revelation and the Epistle of James. His reasons had a lot to do with his adherence to Pauline doctrine. (See “<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA237#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Luthers Admission of James Direct Conflict with Paul” on page 237-38</a> [google-books]. For detailed discussion on <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA354#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Luthers view of Revelation, see page 354</a> [google-book])</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458513"></a> In response, the Roman Catholic Church (RCC) gave its first publicly official list in the mid-1500s at the Council of Trent. It based this list on tradition, citing the expressly tentative list of 397 A.D. from the three bishops of North Africa. At the <a name="marker=461860"></a> Council of Trent (1545-1563), the Council endorsed our current 27 books of the New Testament. They are the same as in the Protestant New Testament. The fact there actually was never a church-wide decision earlier may be surprising, but this is undisputed fact. In "The Canon," the <em>New Catholic Encyclopedia</em> even admits:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=462441"></a> According to Catholic doctrine, the proximate criterion of the biblical canon is the infallible decision of the Church. This decision was not given until rather late in the history of the Church at the Council of Trent. [See this <a href="http://www.justforcatholics.org/a108.htm">link</a>.]</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=462455"></a> Soon thereafter, a false impression was given to Christians that our New Testament had been as rigorously tested as had the works in the Hebrew Scriptures. This misleading impression was given by the simple step of printing as one volume the New Testament with the Hebrew Scriptures labelled as the `Old Testament.'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459211"></a> Accordingly, it was just assumed that our New Testament was also long ago rigorously tested by the same Biblical standard that Jews used to add new prophetic works. All of us assume someone sat down to ensure each work in the New Testament satisfies the Biblical criteria for canon. Those criteria are predictive prophecy in the name of the Lord combined with the fact nothing that preceded it has been negated. (Deuteronomy chs. 12, 13 &amp;18.) Yet it is a totally unsupportable idea. It is an exercise that one can never find has been performed in a systematic analysis by any person, council, or church in Christian history.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459361"></a> This is also obvious from history. First, the criteria used to compile the list of 397 A.D. was never explained. Second, when Roman Catholicism in the<a name="marker=461862"></a> 1545-1563 Council of Trent finally affirmed this 397 A.D. list as the `official' list, it likewise gave no justification other than tradition and its own authority.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=460164"></a> Thus, there has never been any responsible voice that employed Biblically-mandated criteria to discern why should any book of the New Testament be included. When we examine the lists leading up to 397 A.D., this is even more evident. Books are attached one day and excluded the next. There is neither rhyme nor reason. As<a name="marker=461863"></a> Ludlow notes in <em>The Unity of Scripture</em> (2003):</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=460152"></a> With regard to most books it was a question of [the church] explaining why it had what it had, rather than deciding on what it should have. No council sat down to choose the texts according to some pre-established set of criteria, just as a selection committee might decide on the sort of person they want to fill a post, before interviewing the candidates. Rather, there is some sense in which the canon chose (or formed) the Church, rather than the Church chose (or formed) the canon....[W]hat seems to be happening...is that the Church is formulating reason or explanations for why it has what it had, not criteria for choosing what it should have in the future.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=460205" class="footnote"> 5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463654"></a> This is how we ended up today with the notion that the sole basis for what we decide is Scripture is how it sounds to us. Here is the official Orthodox Presbyterian Church's (OPC) sole explanation of how we know something is Scripture from God.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=463660"></a> Q. 4. How doth it appear that the Scriptures are the Word of God?</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=463663"></a> A. The Scriptures manifest themselves to be the Word of God, by their majesty and purity; by the consent of all the parts, and the scope of the whole, which is to give all glory to God; by their light and power to convince and convert sinners, to comfort and build up believers unto salvation: but the Spirit of God bearing witness by and with the Scriptures in the heart of man, is alone able fully to persuade it that they are the very word of God.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463688" class="footnote"> 6</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463656"></a> This is a completely impoverished explanation. This Catechism lesson on how to determine Scripture offers no Bible-based justification for adding to God's words. It is all how it sounds to us, e.g., it appears to us to have power to `convert sinners.' In the next section, we will see the reason for this weak explanation. We will discover why no Christian can say prophetic inspiration was ever the sole grounds for everything we included in the New Testament. This embarrassing fact is what led to this above deficient explanation of how Scripture is determined.</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">What the Lists Prove About Criteria for Canon</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463233"></a> The history of canon formation, detailed in Appendix B, demonstrates clearly that no coherent criteria was ever being used to assess what is and what is not approved reading in churches. Up through 397 A.D., texts come and go without explanation. Some are discarded for wrong reasons at various points. Completely erroneous letters, such as Second Peter, somehow worm their way into our current canon. Works such as The Epistle to the Hebrews are ascribed to no one, then to Paul, then not to Paul. It is ignored, then accepted, then ignored again, but then finally accepted.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463234"></a> Applying the Biblical-test for inspiration is never explicitly done in the period leading up to 397 A.D. The focus is on genuineness--whether the author identified truly authored the work. Yet, no test of whether the work passes the Biblical-test of the prophetic is ever considered.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463235"></a> With genuineness the key issue, we then find some books are rejected as non-genuine on flimsy arguments.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463236"></a> For example, politics seem to enter the fray regarding Revelation by John. It is easily accepted as genuine in the first three lists beginning from 170 A.D. to 325 A.D. However, then Eusebius raises doubts sometime around 325 A.D. The Book of Revelation is dropped at the Council of Laodicea in 363 A.D. (assuming the records are accurate), only to be re-attached in 397 A.D. without any explanation.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463237"></a> Proof of the lack of any consistent criteria of acceptance is also evident from looking at the early list from the Muratorian Fragment (170 A.D.?-350 A.D.). This list included the <em>Apocalypse of Peter</em>. No one considered that work afterward as canon. Another example is that in 380 A.D., the Syrian Apostolic Canon adopted a blatant forgery--the <em>Constitution of the Apostles</em>. No one else gives it any credibility then or now. Why do they come and go? No one knows.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463238"></a> Furthermore, the lack of institutional memory affected the evaluation of various books' genuineness. For example, the Epistle of Jude was included in the very early Muratorian list of 170/350 A.D., but then is repeatedly disputed in the 300s period on grounds that Jude was not cited earlier. Yet now we know it was in the early Muratorian list itself. James was disputed on the same ground, but we find the ancient presbyters did cite it early on. Thus, books are being discarded for brief periods as non-genuine for wrong reasons, showing a lack of institutional record-keeping.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463239"></a> From this history of canon-formation in Appendix B, it is abundantly and shamefully evident there is a lack of diligence about determining what is genuine. Nor is anyone paying any attention to the issue of inspiration. They are preoccupied with determining what is genuine, and not doing a very good job on that score either.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463240"></a> This failure to focus on the question of inspiration is even more evident when lists are set forth in council rulings, such as Laodicea in 363 A.D. or Carthage in 397 A.D. Despite their semi-official nature, no explanation is attached to the otherwise long council records purporting to explain why the list is true. There is never any defense to justify the decision.</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">How Can The Question of Inspiration Be Ignored?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463241"></a> It is hard to imagine how this issue of inspiration has been ignored for Paul's letters. It is easy to understand for John and Peter who do not claim inspiration in their letters. Likewise, Jude does not make any claim to inspiration. Nor does James make such a claim in his epistle. Nor does Barnabas who authored Hebrews claim inspiration. Luke, for his part, disavows affirmatively he is writing under inspiration. Instead, Luke affirms he has investigated like an historian the events involving Jesus. (Luke 1:1-4.) As the Catholic Encyclopedia's article on "Canon of the New Testament" states, the New Testament lacks "a strong self-witness to Divine inspiration."<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463244" class="footnote"> 7</a> That is to put it mildly.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463329"></a> However, Paul is a different case. He certainly repeatedly stakes out a claim that the Lord directly gave him a message. (E.g., <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor%2014:27&amp;version=NIV">1 Cor. 14:37</a>; <a name="marker=463433"></a> <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20tim%202:11&amp;version=NIV">1 Tim. 2:11</a>; <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor%202:13&amp;version=NIV">1 Cor. 2:13</a>; <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20thes%204:1-8&amp;version=NIV">1 Thess.4:1-2,8</a>; <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20thes%202:13&amp;version=NIV">1 Thess. 2:13</a>; <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Eph%204:17&amp;version=NIV">Eph. 4:17</a>. cf.<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor%207:25&amp;version=NIV"> 1 Cor. 7:25</a>, <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor%207:40&amp;version=NIV">40</a>.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463428"></a> If the intent in putting the NT together early on was simply as a reading list, then we can understand why the issue of inspiration was not being addressed. That appears to be the real explanation for the origin of the canon: it was a reading list. However, Paulinist<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463601" class="footnote"> 8</a> scholars insist there was something more implied in the lists other than that they were to be read in church. Yet, is there any evidence that the issue of the Biblical-test for inspiration was addressed ever in the history of any Christian denomination?</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">No Scholarly Discussion Anywhere of Inspiration</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463246"></a> With the exception of Eusebius around 325 A.D. saying Jesus' words on the fall of the temple of Jerusalem prove Jesus was a Prophet, there is never any discussion why we should believe anyone else in the NT is inspired. Never once will you find a discussion based on the Bible-test of inspiration (Deut. ch. 12-13, 18) why Paul, James, Jude, the author of Hebrews, Peter or John in their Epistles would be treated as inspired (as opposed to edifying). No one thinks it is worth a moment's attention to ask for prophetic credentials.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463469"></a> Thus, Battifol, a Catholic scholar, correctly recognizes "the Judaic notion of inspiration did not at first enter into the selection of the Christian Scriptures." Later, he explains the NT writings which we accept today were merely "assimilated" as "Scripture" with the `Old Testament,' without any explanation.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463249" class="footnote"> 9</a> Thus, the most fundamental question of all has never been addressed anywhere in church history!</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463250"></a> This error is then perpetuated today by scholars who realize one can never find any early or later analysis for the lists being developed.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463253" class="footnote"> 10</a> They resort to claims that the books of the New Testament are somehow self-authenticating. These works' own existence allegedly forced themselves upon us by some magical power. This is the view of <a name="marker=463254"></a> Metzger, whose book on canon formation is regarded as the modern standard of how to defend the formation of the Christian canon. Yet this is his ultimate reasoning:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=463255"></a> In the most basic sense neither individuals nor councils created the canon; instead they came to perceive and acknowledge the self-authenticating quality of these writings, which imposed themselves as canonical upon the church.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463258" class="footnote"> 11</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463259"></a> Thus, Metzger says the New Testament works "imposed themselves" upon the community as authentic without any testing.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463260"></a> However, the Bible teaches us that books do not impose themselves on us as authentic. We are duty bound to test them, under <a name="marker=463261"></a> Deuteronomy 4:2 and chs. 12 &amp; 13. There is a complete absence in Christian history of even once such a rigorous testing ever being applied to explain the selection of any current NT book.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463262"></a> What Metzger regards as the books imposing themselves on us, as if they had a life and force of their own, is simply one way to describe a <a name="marker=463263"></a> credulous church's shameful behavior of accepting works without testing their prophetic authority.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463264"></a> Books do not authenticate or impose themselves. Rather, a community decides, by testing or by laziness, that books are accepted. Our Christian history has all the earmarks of a lazy church who disobeyed Jesus' warnings to beware of false prophets to come. We were duty bound to authenticate the works being submitted for canon approval using the Biblical-tests of Deuteronomy chapters 4, 12, 13, and 18. Metzger's statement thus becomes an <a name="marker=463265"></a> excuse for the most fundamental omission of all by the early church: testing what is canon by the Bible's own test.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">Jesus' Words Alone Pass the Test of Canonicity</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461567"></a> However, if we apply the test we were supposed to apply, it turns out that Jesus alone passes the rigorous test of Deuteronomy ch. 12, 13, and 18. <a name="marker=461864"></a> Jesus' prophecy of the fall of the Temple of Jerusalem (Matt. 24:2; Luke 21:33)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463474" class="footnote"> 12</a> and of His own resurrection (John 13:19) make His words that of a prophet satisfying the tests of Deuteronomy. This is true whether His words are in the gospels or the book of Revelation. All Jesus' words are therefore inspired. (And more so because of who He truly was.) We trust the Holy Spirit then inspired the twelve apostles to recollect Jesus' words accurately, as Jesus told them the Spirit would do. (John 14:26.) Thus, the apostolic gospels are all reliable Scripture.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=456289"></a> However, no other New Testament figure than Jesus uttered fulfilled prophecy "in the name of the Lord" of highly unlikely events. That includes Paul.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=456802"></a> Yet, when someone proposes to treat Jesus' Words Only as the inspired part of the New Testament, they receive resistance. Why?</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=456296"></a> No one would mind treating Jesus as the sole inspired prophet of canon if it meant pushing aside writings other than Paul. None of the epistles of John or Peter suggest new doctrines that would be lost if they were eliminated as inspired canon. So the resistance has a different explanation.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">The Authority of the Twelve Apostles (Of Which Paul Is Not Numbered in the Bible).</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464784"></a> Let me pause to note here the authority retained by the epistles of John and Peter, and the bishop-letters of James and Jude. First, Jesus taught us to heed the twelve apostles' words as authoritative messengers (apostoli means messenger) rather than as teachers. He would not even let them call themselves teachers. (Matt. 23:8-11.) But they carried a very important message. Jesus, speaking to the twelve, warned that whoever would not "receive you, nor hear you" shall be in danger of judgment. (Matt. 10:14-15.) The message they carried was so important that if rejected, the listener would be in danger of judgment. Jesus said the message they were to deliver was to teach the nations "to observe (tereo) all things whatsoever I commanded you." (Matt. 28:19-20.) Thus, we heed the twelve apostles not because every word from them is as an inspired prophet. Rather, it is because they are putting forth the teachings and commandments of the inspired Prophet.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464801"></a> <a name="16722"></a> Then this command of Jesus to heed the twelve applies to their appointed bishops, such as James and Jude when they too carried the teachings of Jesus.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464807"></a> The twelve apostles had a second role given by Jesus: they were judges. In this capacity, their judicial decisions are binding in heaven. (Matt. 16:19.) This did not extend to the twelve apostles a constant prophetic authority. Their every word did not become thereby inspired legislation from God. We would say a judge who starts to legislate is an activist judge violating the scope of his office's authority. Likewise, the twelve apostles did not have authority to legislate merely because they had judicial authority to `bind and loose.'</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464689"></a> Let's review this with some care because it has been a source of misunderstanding by Catholics and Protestants.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464688"></a> The twelve apostles had authority from Jesus to "bind and loose." (Matt. 16:19.) This is a clear reference to the power of a judge. In court, a judge could let go of a criminal defendant by ordering the "loosing" of a leather strap. A judge could also order his arrest and condemnation by "binding" him with such a strap. This fits exactly the role Jesus said the apostle would have in the regeneration: the twelve apostles would be the "twelve judges" sitting on "twelve thrones" over the "twelve tribes." (Matt.19:28.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464707"></a> Thus, when the eleven adjudicated Judas's transgression, they remedied this by having Matthias replace Judas. Matthias would become the twelfth. This finding and remedy were in the nature of a judicial decision that would be binding in heaven. (Acts 1:26.) Such a decision was not as a law-giver whatsoever. It was a judicial determination of transgression and its remedy of replacing Judas. (John 20:22-23.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464683"></a> Thus, it is very important to realize Jesus never told us the apostles' personal writings are on par with inspired canon. The apostles like elders in Jesus' day had authority over God's people, but like elders in Jesus' day, they were to be tested by prophetic inspired canon. When a conflict arose, we were to obey the inspired canon, not the elders. (Matt. 15:6.) Thus, the Epistles of John, Peter, Jude and James stay, but if they contradict Scriptures provable as prophetic, then Jesus commands us to follow the higher authority of inspired Scripture. In the case of these four authors, I know of nothing they ever said that contradicts the words of a validated prophet.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1"><a name="pgfId=461608"></a>Paul Alone Must Be Tested by Deuteronomy's Test for False Prophets.</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461609"></a> Returning to the point at issue, what motivates the resistance to the proposition of using Jesus' Words Only (JWO) as the test of orthodoxy? It principally comes from a desire to protect Paul. There is no concern to protect the inspired status of the Epistles of John, Peter, James or Jude. This is true because none of these writers ever claimed inspired status for their own epistles. If we denied inspired status to them now, we would not be taking away anything the authors of those writings claimed for their epistles.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461613"></a> By contrast,<a name="marker=461940"></a> Paul repeatedly made the claim that thus sayeth the Lord belonged on his lips. (E.g., 1 Cor. 14:37; <a name="marker=458601"></a> 1 Tim. 2:11; 1 Cor. 2:13; 1 Thess.4:1-2,8; 1 Thess. 2:13; Eph. 4:17. cf. 1 Cor. 7:25, 40.) It is Paul alone who made statements that he was, in effect, speaking as a prophet. This is why we are duty-bound to apply to Paul the test for a true prophet under Deuteronomy chapters 12, 13 &amp; 18.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458621"></a> Why do so many find protecting Paul so important? Because if we accept Jesus as the sole prophetic authority in the New Testament, we have a dilemma. Paul had many novel and unusual lessons of what the gospel represents. If Paul is no longer on par with Jesus, then Pauline salvation doctrine would lose its grip and legitimacy. A different salvation doctrine would emerge.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=463334" class="footnote"> 13</a> If we only had Jesus, then Jesus' message on initial justification by <a name="marker=461878"></a> repentance from sin would emerge unmolested. (<a name="marker=457334"></a> Luke 18:10 et seq.; Mark 9:42 et seq.) If Jesus' message had sole emphasis, salvation would be a process that requires ongoing <a name="marker=462777"></a> repentance from <a name="marker=463521"></a> sin to stay justified with God and be saved. (<a name="marker=461880"></a> 1 John 1:9; <a name="marker=461881"></a> John 15:1-6.) We would no longer have the freedom to sin without losing salvation, contrary to what Paul is viewed to teach. (<a name="marker=457335"></a> Rom. 8:1; 10:9; Eph. 2:8-9.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=457007"></a> Instead, if we relied upon Jesus' words without any constraint to make them fit Paul's doctrines, we would have to trust Jesus' promise of salvation for endurance and obedience in keeping His words. (John 8:51; <a name="marker=463000"></a> Matt. 10:22.) If we had Jesus' words alone, then Jesus' doctrine would emerge that we have only two choices: we can go to heaven maimed (i.e., having repented from sin) or hell whole (i.e., not having repented from sin). (Mark 9:42 et seq.) Jesus' message is not comforting at all to those engaging in sin after becoming a Christian. We will lose the assurance we are still saved despite our unrepentant sinning. To some, this assurance is the essence of saving faith. If we lose Paul, then we lose the very gospel that comforts us. We would then be forced to accept Jesus' very different and uncomfortable gospel.</p>
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<div>
<h2 class="Heading1"><a name="marker=461885"></a> Jesus' Words Only Is A Valid New Testament Test for Canonicity</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458062"></a> Some people respond to the JWO proposition by saying you cannot test Paul by the standard for a true prophet in the `Old Testament.' It is old. We are under the new. They do not see this is based on a fallacious presupposition that Paul is inspired. The very notion that the old is nullified and no longer valid comes from Paul. We cannot rely upon a teaching of Paul that discards the very source for testing him. This is precisely what a false prophet would love to do: come with a false message and then give you a reason to disregard the Bible's standard for determining whether he or she is a true prophet. Thus, this idea that we cannot use the `Old Testament' to measure Paul rests on a fallacious presupposition that we can rely upon Paul's doctrine. (He alone declared the Law abolished and defunct. See Chapter 5.) Such a response fallaciously assumes the validity of Paul, which is the very question at issue.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458635"></a> Regardless, even if Paul could conflict with the `Old Testament' and still be a true prophet, Paul could not be valid if he conflicts with Jesus. There are three passages that set this up as an additional standard that Paul must pass to be truly canonical. This New Testament standard requires consistency with Jesus' words.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461220"></a> The following New Testament (NT) passages support the proposition that (a) we need only teach Jesus' Words in the NT era and (b) any author who contradicts Jesus' words is uninspired.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458082"></a> First, Jesus commands us to teach His teachings. He did not authorize us to come with Paul's distinct teachings. In <a name="marker=461886"></a> Matthew 28:19-20, Jesus says we are to "make disciples of all the nations... teaching them to obey (tereo) all things whatsoever I commanded you."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463534"></a> Jesus thus commanded us to teach "whatsoever I commanded," not anyone else's teachings. Jesus also said He was to be our sole teacher; we should not call anyone else our teacher. (Matt. 23:8-11.) Clarke explains this means "To him [Jesus] alone it belongs to guide and lead his Church....Jesus is the sole teacher of righteousness. It is he alone...that can illuminate every created mind." [See this google-books link, <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=RCwNAAAAYAAJ&amp;lpg=PA106&amp;ots=2C13i1ynn8&amp;dq=Jesus%20is%20the%20sole%20teacher%20of%20righteousness.%20It%20is%20he%20alone...that%20can%20illuminate%20every%20created%20mind&amp;pg=PA106#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Clarke Commentary 1844 on verses 8 &amp; 10</a>.] Thus, Jesus' words are the sole source of NT teaching. No one else can share this honor:</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=462826"></a> <a name="20753"></a> Apostle John explains this principle. He says if we go "beyond" <a name="marker=461970"></a> Jesus' teachings, we do not have God when so speaking. John writes in <a name="marker=461887"></a> 2 John 1:8-11 (Websters' Bible):</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=458123"></a> (8) Watch yourselves, that we [i.e., the twelve apostles] don't lose the things which we have accomplished, but that we receive a full reward. (9) Whoever transgresses [or goes beyond]<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=465057" class="footnote"> 14</a> and doesn't remain in the teaching of Christ, doesn't have God. He who remains in the teaching [of Jesus Christ], the same has both the Father and the Son.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458154"></a> The phrase "teaching of Christ" in the Greek means clearly "Christ's doctrine." It does not mean teachings about Christ.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=462607" class="footnote"> 15</a> Canon is to be tested by the words of Jesus, not whether we like your words about Jesus. Any teacher who contradicts Jesus offers `no light' at all.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=462593"></a> Apostle John therefore is warning that if you go beyond or overstep those teachings from Jesus, John can lose his reward. You are following doctrines of men, not God. You are following those who do not have God, <em> i.e</em>., they lack the Holy Spirit when so teaching. You can become lost and, if so, John will lose his reward. To go beyond the teachings of Christ, transgressing them, includes teaching something that contradicts Jesus. Anyone who blatantly contradicts Jesus and disobeys Him lies when he says he "knows" Jesus.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=462840" class="footnote"> 16</a> Thus, everyone claiming to be a prophet who came after Jesus must therefore be subject to the test of<a name="marker=461888"></a> 2 John 1:9. If Paul teaches contrary to Jesus, Apostle John says Paul does not "know" Him and Paul is a "liar."</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461224"></a> Accordingly, if Paul goes beyond the teaching of Christ, and contradicts Him, then if we follow Paul, not Jesus' words, we are at great risk. If it causes us to break fellowship with God, our Lord will deny we know Him. Adhering to Paul's word, if contrary to Jesus, runs a terrible risk. These principles also prove that Paul is as much subject to this test of 2 John 1:9 as anyone. Hence, even if Paul can explain away the Hebrew Scriptures as the Old Testament and entirely eliminated (he cannot), Paul has to prove he does not transgress Our Lord's words.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461070"></a> To discharge our duty under Matthew 23:8-11 and 2 John 1:8-11, the examination must be thoroughly objective and neutral. If anything, we need to err on the side of favoring protecting Jesus' words over Paul's words. The reason is that Jesus tells us to love Him above any human being.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=461197" class="footnote"> 17</a> Also, we receive a special assurance of "eternal life" if we should have "obeyed" (tereo) Jesus' words. (John 8:51.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461129"></a> How are we to apply the "Sole Teacher" test to Paul and remain objective, unaffected by a presupposition that Paul is valid? Here is a test true to the "Sole Teacher" test:</p>
<ul>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=461099"></a> The Christian must resist the temptation to bring two texts into harmony when their affirmations do not agree, if he or she is convinced that such a synthesis is incompatible with the word meaning and historical context of each competing passage. If you disobey this, be careful that you are not putting your love for Paul above your love for Jesus Christ. (<a name="marker=461891"></a> Matt. 10:37.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=461156"></a> The Christian must do this no matter how painful it may be to admit a contradiction by Jesus of something Paul says. If you disobey this, be careful you are not again putting your love for Paul above your love for Jesus Christ.</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=461208"></a> In case you are unsure, err on the side of excluding Paul precisely because Jesus told you to have a priority of love for Him anyway. (Matt. 10:37.)</li>
<li class="Bulleted"> <a name="pgfId=463559"></a> Remember always there is never any risk following Jesus' words only. There is only risk in not following Jesus' words and accepting contradictory notions.</li>
</ul>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">Is It Too Radical To Be A Strict Fundamentalist?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459383"></a> The key to being a conservative fundamentalist is to know and to be able to prove what is Scripture. It is not established by tradition. It is not established by presuppositions. Rather, it is established by testing each book we affix to Scripture by the revealed word of God that came before. It must fit the prior Prophetic words before it is accepted as Scripture.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459510"></a> The premature and presuppositional addition of Scripture is what the Bible prohibits. That is spiritual liberalism. The gullible addition to God's word is spiritual liberalism at it worst. Such a liberal textual approach does not depend on Biblical-tests for additions. It depends rather on how nice it sounds, or how long it has been accepted. However, one cannot presuppose inspiration because you like the writer's thoughts. That is the worst reason to accept something as inspired. Man was snared in the garden by new and seductive words from the serpent who by subtle commentary changed and added to God's words. This led to taking the fruit of the forbidden tree of knowledge. Adam and Eve had a liberal understanding on how to test new messages.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459506"></a> So the questions presented here are the most fundamental and conservative questions you can possibly ask. And the most important. Fundamentalism is not something we should just preach to the Mormons. We must look at the beam in our own eye before we try to remove the speck from their eye. We need to test our own assumptions within the evangelical Protestant community by the same rigor we want others to examine their own history and additions to canon.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">Didn't The Twelve Apostles Already Make This Determination?</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458170"></a> Many respond to JWO by asking: `didn't the twelve apostles accept Paul?' In <a name="marker=461909"></a> Acts 9:28 and <a name="marker=461910"></a> 15:4, they received Paul. They counted him a beloved brother. (<a name="marker=462496"></a> Acts 15:5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458174"></a> Yet, this evidence is inadequate to prove they accepted Paul as either a thirteenth apostle or as a prophet. In fact, in that encounter with the twelve apostles in Acts chapter 15, <a name="marker=461911"></a> Paul is not proclaiming any inspiration or even apostleship. Not once will you find such a statement in the Acts account. Rather, Paul comes with a question from the church of Antioch. He wanted to find out what the twelve apostles would decide about the issue of circumcision.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463569"></a> Had Paul in Acts chapter 15 been saying instead that he had a revelation from Jesus that answered the question, we would have a different situation. The twelve would have needed to examine whether Paul had a prophetic office. If they did, then we would have some basis to conclude their acceptance of Paul was after applying the Deuteronomy test. But that is not what is going on at all. Paul is a mere messenger of a question. In presenting the question, Paul never suggests he has an authority on par with the apostles to give an answer. Paul, like the twelve apostles are doing, waits for James, the Lord's brother, to reach a final decision. (See “<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA232#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">James Is the Head Bishop of the Church” on page 232</a> [google-books link].)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458178"></a> In fact, the issue of Paul's possible apostasy (<em>i.e.</em>, contradicting the Law of Moses) does not arise in Acts until later, but the investigation is not completed. This is clearly presented in <a name="marker=461912"></a> Acts 21:18-26. This passage is probably the most overlooked significant passage in the New Testament.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458639"></a> In Acts 21:18-26, Luke describes <a name="marker=461913"></a> James' encounter with Paul a couple of years after the Jerusalem council. James says he has heard rumors that Paul is teaching the law is no longer binding on Jews who come to Christ. James then reassures Paul that he knows Paul would never teach such a thing. In that context, James says he wants Paul to prove in the eyes of others that Paul is not teaching this. Paul can do this by going through the public gestures required to fulfill the Nazirite vow from the book of Numbers chapter six. James then reiterates that his decision in the earlier Jerusalem council--circumcision was not for Gentiles--only applied to Gentiles. James explains this earlier ruling was not meant to imply that Christian Jews did not have to circumcise their children. Paul then complies, and does the public acts to keep the vow from Numbers. Paul never once suggested that indeed he held the view that the Law of Moses was no longer binding on Jews who come to Christ. Yet, we all know that Paul's letters precisely teach this. Paul does so in particular in Romans chapter 7. (For proof of this, read the chapter entitled: “<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=RA1-PA71#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Did Paul Negate the Laws Further Applicability?” on page 71</a> [google-books link].)</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=458198"></a> Thus, the New Testament leaves the validity of Paul's teachings as an unresolved issue as of Acts chapter 21. It was being examined. However, James had insufficient data. The Jerusalem Bishop, James, must never yet have seen any of Paul's letters. For clearly, Paul's letters directly affirm that Jews in Christ are "released" from the Law of Moses. (Romans 7:2.) In Acts chapter 21, James assumed the rumor to this effect was false. We are left wondering what will be the outcome when James and the twelve find out what <a name="marker=463506"></a> Paul was truly teaching.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">If Paul Is Like Balaam, It Matters Little If the Apostles Approved of Him Initially</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=459410"></a> Furthermore, even if the apostles knew and approved of Paul as a true prophet of God, this does not mean Paul could not change and become like <a name="marker=463513"></a> Balaam. Who is Balaam? In the lifetime of Moses, <a name="marker=462770"></a> Balaam was a diviner who was converted to a prophet of God by his meeting an angel on the Road to Moab. Later, Balaam is filled with the Holy Spirit and utters prophetic messages direct from God, according to Moses' account in the Book of Numbers. Yet later Balaam apostasizes by teaching the Israelites that it was permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. Because Balaam seduced the Israelites from following the Law, he became a "false prophet" under the standards of <a name="marker=461914"></a> Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:5. In other words, Balaam apostasized against the Law of Moses, and hence became a false prophet.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461383"></a> Jesus Himself in Revelation 2:14 said His church was threatened from within by a New Testament "Balaam." Thus, it was a realized risk within the early New Testament church.</p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=463355"></a> Furthermore, there is strong reason to believe Jesus was identifying Paul as Balaam in <a name="marker=461915"></a> Revelation 2:14. Jesus said this NT Balaam says it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols. It is an undisputed fact that Paul three times teaches it is permissible to eat meat sacrificed to idols.<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=459413" class="footnote"> 18</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=461387"></a> Therefore, even if early on the apostles accepted Paul, this does not end the analysis. You still have the possibility a true prophet turned false, like Balaam (or like the old prophet in 1 Kings 13:1-26), using the standards in Deuteronomy 4:2.</p>
</div>
<div>
<h2 class="Heading1">Our Core Duty Remains To Test Paul</h2>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464611"></a> The possibility that Paul is like Balaam brings us, of course, back to our core duty. We have to be able to prove Paul passes the test of Deuteronomy chapters 12, 13 and 18 because we are commanded to do this. We cannot rely upon supposition or conjecture about what the apostles did or did not do. We must see the proof in the writings of Paul that he can pass this Biblical test before we can add to Scripture anything Paul wrote. Jesus' words can be scrutinized to this very day, and Jesus can be proven to pass Deuteronomy's tests with flying colors. (This includes Jesus' prophecy on the fall of the Temple and on His own resurrection). Then why should we not be able to test Paul the same way?</p>
<div>
<table>
<tbody>
<tr>
<th>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=464614"></a> <em> Historical Note: </em></p>
<p class="CellHeading"><a name="pgfId=465222"></a> <em> What Was Defective In The Pharisees' Teaching?</em></p>
</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>
<h6 class="CellBody"><a name="pgfId=464616"></a> <em> --Was It Legalism? Or Anomia (Negation of the Law)?--</em></h6>
</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464618"></a> Jesus excoriated the Pharisees for shallow teaching which undermined the Law of Moses, including: (1) teaching selectively from the Law only the lesser commands (such as tithing), leaving the more weighty matters of the Law untaught (Matt. 23:23); (2) teaching traditions which if followed led to the violation of the Law of Moses (Matthew 15:2-9)(certain korban payment negating duty to honor your parents); and (3) expressly teaching that certain wrongs under the Law were acceptable behavior (e.g., adulterous lust was permissible if no adulterous act followed).(Matt. 5:27-28.)<a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/master3recover%20-ch%201%20latest%20html.html#pgfId=464621" class="footnote"> 19</a></p>
<p class="BodyAfterHead"><a name="pgfId=464388"></a> Josephus in 93 A.D. said the Sadducees likewise faulted the Pharisees for taking people's focus off the Law of Moses:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;" class="Quote"><a name="pgfId=464389"></a> What I would now explain is this, that the Pharisees have delivered to the people a great many observances by succession from their fathers, which are<em><strong> not written in the Law of Moses</strong></em>; and it is for this reason that the Sadducees reject them, and say we are to esteem those observances that are in the written word, but are not to observe what are derived from the tradition of our forefathers. (Josephus Flavius, <em>Antiquities of the Jews</em> 13.10.6 (13.297) [<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=TgpMAAAAYAAJ&amp;dq=the%20Pharisees%20have%20delivered%20to%20the%20people%20a%20great%20many%20observances%20by%20succession%20from%20their%20fathers%2C%20which%20are%20not%20written%20in%20the%20Law%20of%20Moses&amp;pg=PA482#v=onepage&amp;q=the%20Pharisees%20have%20delivered%20to%20the%20people%20a%20great%20many%20observances%20by%20succession%20from%20their%20fathers,%20which%20are%20not%20written%20in%20the%20Law%20of%20Moses&amp;f=false">Vol. I at 482</a> column 2 /google-books link.]</p>
</div>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 1.</span> <a name="pgfId=463143"></a> See “Why Anomia Means Negator of Mosaic Law” on <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA60#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">page 60</a> (google-books) below.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> <a name="pgfId=463398"></a> Ralph O. Muncaster, <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Bible Prophecy Miracles: Investigation of the Evidence</span> (Mission Viejo: Strong Basis to Believe, 1996) at 5.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> <a name="pgfId=462392"></a> Neither Catholics nor Protestants agree the list from the Council of Laodicea<a name="marker=462391"></a> of 363 A.D. is authentic. The evidence is that it was authentic, in my view. (See www.jesuswordsonly.com at this <a href="/images/stories/Lessons/es%20app%20on%20enoch.pdf">link</a>.) However, if you go by the traditional view, then the first church-wide council of any denomination to determine a list and promulgate it was not until the Roman Catholic Council of Trent in the mid-1500s.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> <a name="pgfId=463171"></a> <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#25704" class="XRef"> </a> “The Special Question of Second Peter” on <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PR36#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">page xix</a> (google-books) of Appendix B below.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> <a name="pgfId=460205"></a> Morwenna <a href="http://huss.exeter.ac.uk/theology/staff/ludlow/">Ludlow</a>, "Criteria of Canonicity and the Early Church" in John Barton and Michael Wolter (eds.), <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Unity of the Scripture and the Diversity of the Canon</span> (Berlin and New York: Walter de Gruyter, 2003) at 69-93. [Addition: For similar discussion from Ludlow, see this google-book <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=dEGmqDiYEI8C&amp;lpg=PA139&amp;ots=J-oYzH0hyQ&amp;dq=Morwenna%20Ludlow%20Criteria%20of%20Canonicity%20and%20the%20Early%20Church%2069&amp;pg=PA139#v=onepage&amp;q=Morwenna%20Ludlow%20Criteria%20of%20Canonicity%20and%20the%20Early%20Church%2069&amp;f=false">link</a> to a Ormand Rush, <em>Eyes of Faith</em> (2009) at 139 which says Ludlow says in the early church "that no specific application of carefully articulated criteria seems to be taking place."]</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> <a name="pgfId=463688"></a> <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Larger Catechism of the Orthodox Presbyterian Church</span> (68th General Assembly of the OPC) at <a href="http://www.opc.org/documents/wlc1-50.html">http://www.opc.org/documents/wlc1-50.html</a> (accessed in 2005).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 7.</span> <a name="pgfId=463244"></a> <a href="http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm">http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm</a> (last accessed 8/27/05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 8.</span> <a name="pgfId=463601"></a> A Paulinist does not mean every Christian who believes Paul is inspired. Rather, a Paulinist is someone whose doctrines conform to Paul, not Jesus, when there is an apparent conflict.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 9.</span> <a name="pgfId=463249"></a> "Canon of the New Testament," in the <em>Catholic Encyclopedia</em> (<a href="http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm">http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm</a>)(last accessed 8/27/05).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 10.</span> <a name="pgfId=463253"></a> The article "<a href="http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03274a.htm">Canon of the New Testament</a>," in the<em> Catholic Encyclopedia</em> is most illuminating in this regard. One can see various theories put forth today why a work was accepted as New Testament canon. Some say it is because the work can be linked to an apostle as the voice behind the writing. But this is not true in Jude's case, nor in Barnabas' work (Hebrews), nor of Luke. In light of this, we are left concluding the criterion must have been a work's "evangelical character." We are thus reduced to a completely subjective criterion: does it fit the evangelistic message we prefer? This is the worst reason to accept something as canon. The only thing never considered is to ask whether a Biblical standard for inspiration was applied. If we asked the proper question, the answer comes back in the negative. Everyone knows several NT works on their face must no longer be regarded as inspired because they lack any validating prophecy.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 11.</span> <a name="pgfId=463258"></a> Metzger, <em>The New Testament: Its Background, Growth and Content</em> (New York: Abingdon Press, 1965) at 276.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 12.</span> <a name="pgfId=463474"></a> For reasons explained elsewhere, the Hebrew Matthew was likely written before 65 A.D. See  <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/Appendix%20B%20in%20correct%20format.#31791" class="XRef"> </a> See <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PR21#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">page xx</a>i [google-books] of Appendix B.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 13.</span> <a name="pgfId=463334"></a> For a thorough comparison of Jesus' versus Paul's salvation doctrine, see the chapter entitled <a href="file://///tsclient/C/Writings%20in%20Process/JWO%20Redo%20Formatting/Final%20Framemaker%20Archive/chapter%2017.#42313" class="XRef"> </a><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA427#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">Does It Matter If We Rely Only Upon Jesus?” on page 447</a> et seq.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 14.</span> <a name="pgfId=465057"></a> The Textus Receptus has proagwn, but the UBS GNT has parabainwn. The word proagwn in the TR means go before or lead forth. It doesn't make much sense. Thus, some translate this as run ahead to fit the context. It appears the UBS GNT variant is more accurate while still similar in meaning. The word parabaino means "to go aside" or "to go beyond." Judas fell because he parabaino-ed (Acts 1:25.) A good paraphrase would be overstepping, exceeding or going beyond the bounds.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 15.</span> <a name="pgfId=462607"></a> Some try to claim Paul can contradict Jesus and still be canonical as long as Paul's teaching about Christ is correct. However, the verse is talking about the teachings of Christ in a way that means by Jesus, not about Him. The Greek format is identical to all similar references to teachings by someone yet in these other contexts we would never misconstrue it means teachings about these people, e.g., "doctrine of the Pharisees" (Matt. 16:6, 12); "the apostle's doctrine" (Acts 2:42); "doctrines of men" (Matt. 15:9); "doctrine of the Nicolaitans" (Rev. 2:15); etc.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 16.</span> <a name="pgfId=462840"></a> John explains: "He that saith, I know him, and does not keep on obeying (tereo) His commandments, is a <a name="marker=462849"></a> liar, and the truth is not in him." (<a name="marker=462848"></a> 1 John 2:4.) Here, tereo is in the present participle active.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 17.</span> <a name="pgfId=461197"></a> Matthew 10:37 says: "He that loveth father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; and he that loveth son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 18.</span> <a name="pgfId=459413"></a>See the chapter <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=3VFnsDuxBPcC&amp;lpg=PP1&amp;dq=jesus'%20words%20only&amp;pg=PA127#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">“Why Does Jesus Mention Balaam in Rev. 2:14?” on page 131</a> (google-books link).</p>
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<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 19.</span> <a name="pgfId=464621"></a> "People had come to believe that one could lust after a [married] woman, as long as the act of fornication was not committed. But Jesus showed that this understanding was foreign to the actual command by Moses." Robert A. Hawkins, "<a href="http://www.acu.edu/sponsored/restoration_quarterly/archives/1960s/vol_12_no_1_contents/hawkins.html">Covenant Relations of the Sermon on the Mount</a>," <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Restoration Quarterly</span> Vol. 12, No. 1 (explaining Matt. 5:27-28).</p>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
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<h2>Commentary on Matthew 24:24-27</h2>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Many apply this passage to everyone but Paul. We will demonstrate that this is correctly interpreted today, but simply is never applied to examine Paul as much as anyone else who claims to be in contact with a private vision of Jesus today.</span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Reverand Joseph Benson in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The New Testament of Our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ</span> (1854) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=DoVIoy1vE2wC&amp;dq=lightning%20imposter%20jesus&amp;pg=PA197#v=onepage&amp;q=lightning%20imposter%20jesus&amp;f=false">187</a> says Jesus in chapter 24 warns us of "imposters." Also when Jesus says they would show signs, Benson says this was to "vouch his mission," explaining:</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">As it was to little purpose for a man to take upon him the character of the Christ, or even of a prophet, without miracles to vouch his mission." <em>Id. </em></span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><em></em>Yet, saying this, Benson does not apply this to undermine Paul's supposed authority, for it rested solely upon signs and wonders.</span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, Benson says it was a "common artifice and pretence of these imposters to show signs and wonders, the very words of Christ in this prophecy...." <em>Id.</em></span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For example an article from December 2011 explains:</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"> Every Cult and false religion, claim that their “messiah”is the real returned Christ. There seems to be more Jesus than you can shake a stick at!  “Will the real Jesus, please stand up!” But we know that when He appears we will all know:</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="color: #ff0000; font-size: 12pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">And many false prophets will arise and lead many astray.  For false Christs and false prophets will arise and perform great signs and wonders, so as to lead astray, if possible, even the elect. See, I have told you before hand. So, if they say to you, Look, he is in the wilderness, do not go out. If they say, Look,he is in the inner rooms, do not believe it, for as the lightning comes from the east and shines as far as the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man.</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">(<strong>Matthew 24:11, Matthew 24:24-27</strong>)</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Beware and run from ANYONE who says that they know(physically) where the messiah is, and they can take you to see him. They are liars, and the truth of God is not with them.</span></span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This article is called "<a href="http://www.standinginthelastdays.org/apps/blog/entries/show/10672521-the-cry-of-every-cult">The Cry of Every Cult</a>" (December 2011).</span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Some comment about the Harry Potter books, that it is deceiving us with claims of "signs and wonders" in their main characters.  In Connie W. Neal's <span style="text-decoration: underline;">The Gospel according to Harry Potter</span> (Westminster 2002) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=PfG4EopR77UC&amp;lpg=PA101&amp;dq=matthew%2024%3A24-27%20wilderness&amp;pg=PA100#v=onepage&amp;q=matthew%2024:24-27%20wilderness&amp;f=false">100</a>, it says "Jesus also directly warned us against false prophets who would come producing signs and omens, with the result of leading people astray." She then quotes Matt 24:24-27.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Again, no one applies this criteria to Paul that he had signs and wonders, making claims to know Jesus after the resurrection by a wildnerness experience outside Damascus.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Some limit Jesus' remarks to just the period leading up to 70 AD while most commentators agree it includes that period as well as afterwards up to the Second Coming. For example, <span>Hendriksen writes: "The prophetic material found in this sixth discourse has reference not only to events near at hand (see, for example, verse 16) but also to those stretching far into the future, as is clear from 24:14, 29-31....By the process of prophetic foreshortening, by means of which before one's eyes the widely separated mountain peaks of historic events merge and are seen as one...two momentous events are here intertwined, namely, a. the judgment upon Jerusalem (its fall in the year A.D. 70), and b. the final judgment at the close of world's history."</span><sup><a href="http://www.reformedonline.com/view/reformedonline/Tribulation.htm#N_2_"> </a> (</sup><span>William Hendriksen, </span><em>The Gospel of Matthew</em><span> (Grand Rapids: Baker, 1973) at 846.)</span></span></p>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This view is held by the vast majority of commentators (e.g., John Calvin, David Dickson, Matthew Henry, James Moffat, William Manson, R. C. H. Lenski, William Hendriksen, R. V. G. Tasker, David Hill, etc.).</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"<span>Similarly, some interpreters think of the discourse as having a double fulfillment. Our Lord's words (we are told) apply simultaneously to the generation that witnessed the destruction of the temple (A.D. 70) and a future generation that witness the second coming of Christ." (<a href="http://www.reformedonline.com/view/reformedonline/Tribulation.htm">Reformed Online</a>.)</span></span></p> </td>
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<h2>Dave's Question How We Know What Is True</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">David asks:</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">I was wondering how a person can trust that the men who recorded the word's of Jesus can be trusted? I mean if Paul got it wrong how can we hold out hope that the other NT writers were writing under inspiration? How can we discern between the false and the true? (September 1, 2010)</span></p>
<h2>My Response</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Well, we rely upon the Bible's standard for testing prophecy. In Jesus Words Only, we prove that Jesus was a prophet with predictions on the Temple's fall and His own resurrection. Under standards in Deuteronomy, this proves Jesus a prophet (besides His other attributes of divinity, Messiahship, etc.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So if Jesus prophesies that the 12 apostles will recollect with inspiration Jesus words, as is recorded by John, then that prophecy will too be true. See heading "Jesus Words Alone Pass Test of Authenticity."</span><a href="/JWO/chapteroneintroduction.html" style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/JWO/chapteroneintroduction.html</a></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, the 12, including Matthew and John, when remembering Jesus's words do so under inspiration. Jesus's words in Revelation are in the same category because these are also recorded by John, a true Apostle of Jesus.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The word "Apostolos" in Greek means "messenger."  So when serving as a messsenger of Jesus' message, there is 100% inspiration.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But Jesus did not tell us to treat each of the 12 as prophets individually when they spoke. The letters of John never claim inspiration. We can retain them for reading and edification because they do not contradict Jesus. See link above, heading "The Authority of the 12 (of which Paul is not numbered).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The apostles were treated as 3d tier authority in the early church ... what was called Scripture/Writings in those days contrasted with Law and Prophets which were higher tier authority.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">For this forgotten distinction, and looser standard to include items in canon in existence at the beginning of Christianity, see <a href="/JWO/carlstadt-research.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/JWO/carlstadt-research.html</a></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The problem with Paul is that we can even assume he started as true and valid, but that is not the sole determinant factor. The Bible teaches us to test, like the Bereans were doing, Paul's words against the inspired words of Moses and a Prophet of even higher stature -- Jesus. If Paul contradicts either, even if Paul were at one time a true prophet, the Bible says a true prophet now must be regarded as a false prophet. Deut. 13:1-5. The example of Balaam is discussed in JWO ch. 1 cited above. See<br /><a href="/JWO/chapteroneintroduction.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/JWO/chapteroneintroduction.html</a></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">God says He allows false prophets to test whether we love him with our whole heart and mind and soul. Deut. 13:1-5.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But some fear if we find one true prophet turned false then who can we trust. But the real question is whether a true prophet was false by contradicting the standard God set for testing whether true prophets turned false -- whether they seduce you from following the way God set with Moses -- See Deut. 13:5. Paul clearly does so. <a href="/JWO/chapter-five-jwo.html">http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/JWO/chapter-five-jwo.html</a></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, none of our trust in the inspiration of the words of Christ is undermined. Rather, by testing Paul we show to God our greater love for our Lord and God Almighty, as God says he allows false prophets to even exist as a test whether we love the Lord God with all our heart, mind and soul.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Did that help?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Doug</span></p>
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<td valign="top" >"Paul is the apostle of the heretics." Tertullian,<em> Adversus Marcion</em> 3:5 (207 A.D.)</td>
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<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2><strong>Why Did God Have To Send Prophets to Paul Not To Go Jerusalem if Paul Truly Was In Prophetic Connection to Christ?</strong></h2>
<h2>Introduction</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: __; font-size: 12pt;">The events recorded in Acts 21 and 24 about the trip of Trophimus and Paul to Jerusalem provide us proof that Paul was not in prophetic communication with the true Risen Lord Jesus. This is proven because Paul defied two separate prophetic messages <em>not to go to Jerusalem</em> in Acts 21:10-11 and 21:4, as Luke describes them. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">In Acts <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts%2021:3-4&amp;version=KJV">21:4</a> (KJV), we read:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"><sup class="versenum">4 </sup><span>And finding disciples, we tarried there seven days: <strong><em>who said to Paul through the Spirit, that he should not go up to Jerusalem</em></strong>.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;">The implication is so clear that pro-Paul commentators confess the only choice is to deny the literal meaning. Adam Clarke, the famouse Methodist commentator said:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-size: 12pt; font-family: 'times new roman', times;"> <span></span><strong>Who said to Paul through the Spirit - </strong><span>We cannot understand this as a command from the Holy Spirit not to go up to Jerusalem, else </span><strong><em>Paul must have been highly criminal to have disobeyed it</em></strong><span>. </span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: __; font-size: 12pt;">In Acts 21:10-11, Agabus "the prophet" gave a message to corroborate and explain why Paul should not go. As Frederick Watson in <em>Inspiration</em> (London: 1906) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=vtGSDPaiRNYC&amp;dq=Watson%20Inspiration&amp;pg=PA137#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">137</a> notes: “St. Paul did not follow the guidance of the <strong><em>true prophet Agabus [i.e., Acts 21:10-11], not to go up to Jerusalem, though other disciples speaking in the Spirit had said the same</em></strong>.” </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But if Paul were truly listening to the true Jesus, how could Paul possibly have defied the Holy Spirit in this way?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul-admirers have no answer. They are befuddled: "I am not sure why Paul was so intent on going to Jerusalem,<em><strong> ignoring the warnings of the Holy Spirit </strong></em>and his friends." ("<a href="http://awaitingawhiterobe.blogspot.com/2011/03/agabus-fallible-prophet-part-2.html">Agabus the Fallible Prophet?</a>" March 29, 2011.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">We shall see precisely why God sent twice commands to Paul through others not to go to Jerusalem. Much was at stake for God-Yahweh. For on this trip, Paul's companion---Trophimus---defiled the Temple of Jerusalem.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">These events prove Paul was never in connection with the true Jesus. <em><strong>For why did God have to speak through the prophet Agabus and other believers to try to persuade Paul to not go to Jerusalem?</strong></em> Wouldnt the Christ of Pauls revelation have told Paul not to do so if that Christ was the true Christ? And if the true Christ spoke in agreement with His Father, as He must, then Paul certainly would not have gone to Jerusalem. Only a false Christ would keep quiet or encourage Paul to go ahead anyway. </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, the "Jesus" Paul thought he met on the wilderness way to Damascus (Acts 9:1-3)--when Jesus said already He would not appear after He departed them in any wildnerness location (Matt 24:24-27)--could not be the true Jesus we all know and love.</span></p>
<h2>Background on Events</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Ezekiel had said an uncircumcised Gentile in the Temple represents an abomination. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Ezekiel%2044:9&amp;version=NIV">Ezekiel 44:9</a>.) Jesus in Matthew 24:15 refers to Daniels prophecy of an abomination standing in the Temple as still in the future. Jesus says “this is the abomination” spoken by Daniel.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Did this later happen?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Yes. For an abomination of the Temple took place in 58 AD when an Ephesian named Trophimus—Pauls travelling companion—defiled the Temple. See Acts 21:29, 24:6, 13, 18; 25:7-8. This happened after God spoke to companions of Paul to tell Paul not to go to Jerusalem. Paul went anyway, bringing Trophimus along.</span></p>
<h2>Prophetic Messages To Others to Tell Paul Not To Go To Jerusalem</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Luke records in Acts  Acts <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/21-4.htm">21:4</a> (NLT) that: “We went ashore, found the local believers, and stayed with them a week. These <strong><em>believers prophesied through the Holy Spirit that Paul should not go on to Jerusalem</em></strong>.”</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Frederick Watson in <em>Inspiration</em> (London: 1906) at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=vtGSDPaiRNYC&amp;dq=Watson%20Inspiration&amp;pg=PA137#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false">137</a> similarly notes: “St. Paul did not follow the guidance of the<strong><em> true prophet Agabus [i.e., Acts 21:10-11], not to go up to Jerusalem, though other disciples speaking in the Spirit had said the same</em></strong>.”  Paul-enthusiasts try put a good spin on this, making Paul look heroic: "Through the Holy Spirit, they warned Paul not to go to Jerusalem.  (<a href="http://biblia.com/bible/niv/Acts%2021.4" class="lbsBibleRef" data-reference="Acts 21.4" data-version="niv">Acts 21:4</a>)  However, this <em><strong>did not deter them </strong></em>from traveling on." ("<a href="http://www.bibletrektoday.com/tag/prophet-agabus/">Prophet Agabus</a>.")</span></p>
<h2>God's Reasons</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">But we must ask: why was God concerned? Paul had taught the Ephesians like Trophimus that God “has broken down the middle wall of partition” at the Temple—meaning the barrier to Gentiles entering, “having abolished in his flesh... the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances....” (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Eph.%202:14-15&amp;version=NIV">Eph. 2:14-15</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">God knew Trophimus would rely upon Pauls doctrine that the Wall was no longer a barrier. Thereby, God foresaw Trophimus would enter, causing an abomination similar to the one prophesied by Daniel.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Did Trophimus indeed violate the middle wall? Luke says the Jews “supposed” Paul was directly responsible for having brought Trophimus into the prohibited area of the Temple because they earlier saw Paul together with Trophimus in Jerusalem. (Acts 21:28-29.) Trophimus was indeed a close companion of Paul. (Acts 20:4; 2 Tim.4:20.) Yet, Paul said his accusers merely found him (Paul) purifying himself in the Temple. (Acts 24:18.) This was the only inadequacy Paul cited to the charge that he (Paul) was responsible for Trophimus profaning the Temple. See Acts 21:28 (Paul “brought Greeks also into the temple, and.... defiled this holy place.”)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Hence, Paul never denied Trophimus entered the Temple. Paul simply provided an alibi for the time Trophimus violation happened that Paul was at a ceremonial bath.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">What else can explain Trophimus action? Paul also taught that uncircumcision was now nothing in Gods sight. (1 Cor 7:19.) And Paul further taught “God does not live (<strong>katoikei</strong>) in Temples made by human hands.” (Acts 17:24.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So an Ephesian like Trophimus listening to Paul easily could assume it was safe to enter beyond the middle-wall at the Temple. In fact he could believe it was now even his right in Christ to do so.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">However, Jesus taught the Temple in Jerusalem was the House where the LORD God dwelled. See Matt 23:21 (“swears by the Temple and the one who dwells (<strong>katikounti</strong>) in it”); Lk 2:49 (“my fathers house”) / 19:45-46.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Jesus even taught that Daniels prophecy of an abomination standing in the Temple was in the future. (Matt 24:15-16.) But Paul taught that God does not “live” in such a temple made from human hands. (Acts 17:24.) And Paul told Ephesians that the middle wall was now no longer a barrier to entry. See, Eph. 2:14-15.</span></p>
<h2>God's Purpose of Sending Prophets to Paul</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This is evidently why God, to deflect Pauls journey, <strong>told true believers to tell Paul not to go to Jerusalem</strong>. (Acts 21:4.) </span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Despite such inspired warnings, Paul went anyway. (Acts 21:15; <a href="http://bible.cc/acts/21-24.htm">21:24</a>.). The abomination by Trophimus happened on that trip by Paul to Jerusalem.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This event has significant repercussions on our tracking whether Jesus warned us about Paul. For this story reveals very telling evidence that proves Paul never met Christ on the "way" to Damascus. For if Paul truly did so, then<strong> why did God have to speak through Agabus and other believers to try to persuade Paul to not go to Jerusalem?</strong> Wouldnt the Christ of Pauls revelation have told Paul not to do so? And that would have sealed the issue for the true God of Heaven? Only a false Christ would keep quiet or tell Paul to go anyway. But the true Christ would have said the same thing to Paul as the prophets twice sent to Paul, and the true Christ thus would have prevented the abomination. Hence, <strong>Paul could not possibly have known the true Christ</strong>.</span></p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Thus, the other Christ whom Paul assumed was Jesus kept silent or told Paul to go to Jerusalem. That other Christ let the Trophimus-Paul journey continue to Jerusalem, with disastrous results—the abomination that desolates stood in the Temple. And hence, we know Luke recorded these prophecies of God to Agabus and others were true, and Paul could not have truly been in prophetic communication with the true Jesus, or otherwise, Paul would not have gone.</span></p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<p>For detailed information on the importance of Paul's influence in Trophimus defiling the Temple, see our article "<a href="/Recommended-Reading/trophimus.html">Trophimus</a>."</p>
<p>Other Paul-fans admit their puzzlement:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Reviewing the passages from <a href="http://biblia.com/bible/esv/Acts%2019.21" class="lbsBibleRef" data-reference="Acts 19.21" data-version="esv" target="_blank">Acts 19:21</a> through <a href="http://biblia.com/bible/esv/Acts%2021.10" class="lbsBibleRef" data-reference="Acts 21.10" data-version="esv" target="_blank">Acts 21:10</a>, it seems clear that<strong><em> it was Paul and not the Holy Spirit </em></strong>that had determined that he would go to Jerusalem before starting his next ministry journey in Rome.... However, I am not sure why Paul was so intent on going to Jerusalem, ignoring the warnings of the Holy Spirit and his friends. ("<a href="http://awaitingawhiterobe.blogspot.com/2011/03/agabus-fallible-prophet-part-2.html">Agabus the Fallible Prophet?</a>" March 29, 2011.)</p>
<p><span>Why didn't God go further and reveal Paul as a false prophet to the believers who warned Paul not to go to Jerusalem? God would not tell them Paul was a false prophet because God's purpose in allowing false prophets is to test believers to see whether they love Him with their whole heart, mind and soul, for they should (a) recognize anyone who disobeys prophetic messages others know are given him through them is not following God; or (b) not follow anyone who teaches you against following the Law -- the proof one is a false prophet -- which Paul certainly did teach. See Deuteronomy 13:1 5.</span></p>
<h3>Whitewash Attempts in Major Commentators</h3>
<p>Presupposing Paul cannot violate the Holy Spirit's command, Barnes recognizes the dilemma the literal text involves. So he re-reads the passage to be about "if" you go Paul, be warned of dangers, rather than how it literally reads as a flat prohibition:</p>
<p> </p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="text-decoration: underline;"><span>Adam Clarkes Commentary on the Bible<span style="text-decoration: underline;"></span><span style="text-decoration: underline;"></span></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><strong>Who said to Paul through the Spirit - </strong>We cannot understand this as a command from the Holy Spirit not to go up to Jerusalem, else <strong><em>Paul must have been highly criminal to have disobeyed it</em></strong>. Through the Spirit, must either refer to their own great earnestness to dissuade him from taking a journey which they plainly saw would be injurious to him - and so Bp. Pearce understands this place; or, if it refer to the Holy Spirit, it must mean that if he regarded his personal safety he must not, at this time, go up to Jerusalem. The Spirit foretold Pauls persecutions, but does not appear to have forbidden his journey; and Paul was persuaded that, in acting as he was about to do, whatever personal risk he ran, he should bring more glory to God, by going to Jerusalem, than by tarrying at Tyre or elsewhere. The purport of this Divine communication was, “<strong><em>If thou go up to Jerusalem the Jews will persecute thee; and thou wilt be imprisoned</em></strong>, etc.”</p>
<p> </p>
<p class="MsoNormal">John Gill is the same, re-reading the passage that it must mean something else because Paul would never violate the Holy Spirit:</p>
<p class="MsoNormal"> </p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span style="text-decoration: underline;"><span>John Gills Commentary</span></span><span><span style="text-decoration: underline;"></span><span style="text-decoration: underline;"></span></span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><span><strong>who said to Paul through the Spirit, that he should not go up to Jerusalem</strong>; not that the Spirit of God in these persons contradicted his own impulse in the apostle, by which he was moved to go to Jerusalem, see <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Act_20:22</span>. The sense is, that these disciples, by the spirit of prophecy, knew that if the apostle went to Jerusalem, many evil things would befall him; wherefore of their own spirit, and out of love to him, they advise him not to go.”</span></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">However, Luke was more likely willing to show the good and the bad of Paul.</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h2>Did Paul Have An Enormous Self-Image?</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul said many things that are so far from humble that one must truly wonder. It appears Paul had an enormous ego. This is important in many ways, but in particular to determine whether Habakkuk 2:2-6 is a prophecy about Paul, a<a href="/JWO/habakkuk-prophecy-about-paul.html">s we contend elsewhere</a>. For Habakkuk prophesies of an end-times figure, a man of pride, who like SHL (the spelling of Paul's name Saul) gathers all nations / Gentiles to himself in competition with the true God's plans for His people.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Let's begin by looking at <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Colossians+1%3A24&amp;version=NIV">Colossians 1:24 NIV</a> which has Paul affirm Jesus' affliction for the church is lacking which Paul makes up by his own affliction for the church. Here are a couple of pertinent versions:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>24</sup> Now I rejoice in what I am suffering for you, and I fill up in my flesh <strong><em>what is still lacking in regard to Christs afflictions</em></strong>, for the sake of his body, which is the church. (NIV)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Now Im happy to be suffering for you. <em><strong>Im completing what is missing from Christs sufferings with my body</strong></em>. Im doing this for the sake of his body, which is the church. (<a href="http://www.jrdkirk.com/2011/07/10/christs-insufficient-sufferings/">Col 1:24, CEB</a>)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">As Robert Roberg says in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Did Paul Preach Another Gospel?</span> (2009) at 58:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul apparently felt Yahshua had failed in some respect and God chose Paul to finish the work of salvation.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul defenders admit the issue. David May in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Colossians</span> (2000) at 71 asks: "</span>Does it suggest that <em>Jesus</em>' sufferings were <em>insufficient</em> to bring salvation and that Paul is in the process of making up for [this deficiency]?" While Paul-defenders engage in blanket denials that this was Paul's meaning, e.g., "in this verse, Paul is not saying that Christ's death was <em>insufficient" </em>(<span style="text-decoration: underline;">NKJV Study Bible</span> (2008) at 1887), they do not give articulate reasons to think Paul is saying anything else. They typically explain that Paul does not mean Christ's sufferings were "insufficient" to save us, but instead only that Christians must "encounter trials and difficulties in promoting the kingdom." (<em>New Englander</em> (1844) Vol. 2 at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=0uUXAQAAIAAJ&amp;dq=col.%201%3A24%20jesus%20insufficient%20work&amp;pg=PA581#v=onepage&amp;q=col.%201:24%20jesus%20insufficient%20work&amp;f=false">581</a>.) However, none of that explanation wrestles in what sense was Paul "completing" the sufferings of Christ which were otherwise "lacking" or "missing" something. Thus, a plain reading of Col 1:24 presents an obvious spiritually prideful statement from Paul that he was making up in his own sufferings that which was not complete in that given by Christ for us. This will not be the last prideful statement we find from Paul.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul also viewed that his spirit was wherever believers gathered, much like Jesus said where two or more are gathered together, He is with us. While in Jesus' case, as the Shekinah dwelled in Jesus, this was justified. In Paul's case, not so much. Paul claimed his presence in spirit authorized their gathering to hand one over to Satan to destroy the flesh:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>3</sup><span> For my part, even though I am not physically present, <strong><em>I am with you in spirit</em></strong>. As one who is <strong><em>present with you in this way</em></strong>, I have already passed judgment in the name of our Lord Jesus on the one who has been doing this. </span><sup>4</sup><span> So <strong><em>when you are assembled and I am with you in spirit</em></strong>, and<strong> the power of our Lord Jesus is presen</strong>t, </span><sup>5</sup><span> hand this man over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh,</span><sup>[<a title="See footnote a" href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%205:3-5&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-28460a">a</a>]</sup><sup>[<a title="See footnote b" href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%205:3-5&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-28460b">b</a>]</sup><span> so that his spirit may be saved on the day of the Lord. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%205:3-5&amp;version=NIV">1 Cor. 5:3-5 NIV</a>.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul likewise does not tell his followers to listen to the words of Jesus, but instead to stand fast in what Paul taught in his epistles or in person:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>15</sup> So then, brothers and sisters, <strong><em>stand firm and hold fast to the teachings</em></strong><sup>[<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20thess%202:15&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-29677a" title="See footnote a">a</a>]</sup> we passed on to you, <strong><em>whether by word of mouth or by letter</em></strong>. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20thess%202:15&amp;version=NIV">2 Tim. 2:15 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">In a similar vein, Paul made his teaching the criteria whether one would associate with another one who was a Christian rather than what Christ taught (which is never quoted in Paul's letters):</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>6</sup> In the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, we command you, brothers and sisters, to keep away from every believer who is idle and disruptive and <em><strong>does not live according to the teaching</strong><sup><strong>[<a title="See footnote a" href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20th%203:6&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-29685a">a</a>]</strong></sup><strong> you received from us.</strong></em> (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20th%203:6&amp;version=NIV">2 Thess 3:6 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul made it very clear that "my gospel...about Jesus Christ" -- Paul's Gospel rather than the "Christ's gospel" -- is the one that saves and which God endorses:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>25</sup> Now to him <strong><em>who is able to establish you in accordance with my gospel</em></strong>, the message I proclaim <strong><em>about Jesus Christ</em></strong>, in keeping with the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past, (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=romans%2016:25&amp;version=NIV">1 Cor. 16:25 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Rather than tell people to follow Jesus, as Jesus taught (Matt 4:19 "follow me"), Paul said:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>16</sup>I call upon you, therefore, become <strong><em>ye followers of me</em></strong>; (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%204:16&amp;version=YLT">1 Cor. 4:16 YLT</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul viewed that he was set apart at birth to reveal Jesus "in me" -- as if Jesus fully dwelled in Paul, like the Father dwelled in Jesus:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>15</sup><span> But when<em><strong> God, who set me apart from my mothers womb and called me by his grace</strong></em>, was pleased </span><sup>16</sup><span><em><strong> to reveal his Son in me</strong></em> so that I might preach him among the Gentiles, my immediate response was not to consult any human being. </span><sup>17</sup><span> I did not go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before I was, but I went into Arabia. Later I returned to Damascus. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%201:15-17&amp;version=NIV">Gal. 1:15-17 NIV</a>.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul said likewise Jesus dwelled in himself:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>20</sup> I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but <strong><em>Christ lives in me</em></strong>. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%202:20&amp;version=NIV">Gal. 2:20 NIV</a>)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul also taught the world was crucified unto Paul, and Paul was crucified unto the world:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>14</sup><span> May I never boast except in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, through which</span><sup>[<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%206:14&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-29203a" title="See footnote a">a</a>]</sup><span> the world has been crucified to me, and I to the world. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%206:14&amp;version=NIV">Gal. 6:14 NIV</a>.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul explains he means he has crucifixion wounds in his flesh, apparently meaning his sufferings are equivalent to the sacrificial work of Christ on the cross:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>17</sup> From now on, let no one cause me trouble, for <strong><em>I bear on my body the marks of Jesus</em></strong>. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%206:17&amp;version=NIV">Gal. 6:17 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This may explain Col 1:24 where Paul says Jesus' work was not complete until Paul completed it in his own flesh. See above. It also adds clarity to what Paul means by saying "I am crucified with Christ...for Christ lives in me." <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%202:20&amp;version=NIV">Gal. 2:20 NIV</a>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Also, Paul put down the apostles of Jesus, and placed himself above them, and proclaimed he strove to win favor by doing miracles but was disappointed that they did not commend him:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>11</sup><span> I have made a fool of myself, but you drove me to it. I ought to have been commended by you, for I am <strong>no</strong></span><span><strong>t in the least inferior to the “super-apostles,”</strong></span><sup>[<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20cor.%2012:11-12&amp;version=NIV#fen-NIV-29034a" title="See footnote a">a</a>]</sup><span> even though I am nothing. </span><sup>12</sup><span> I persevered in demonstrating among you the marks of a true apostle, including signs, wonders and miracles. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20cor.%2012:11-12&amp;version=NIV">2 Cor. 12:11-12 NIV</a>.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul gives a litany of boasts in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20cor.%2011:21-29&amp;version=NIV">2 Corinthians 11:21-29 NIV</a>, apparently sore about not being commended by the so-called 'super-apostles':</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>21</sup><span> To my shame I admit that we were too weak for that!</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Whatever anyone else dares to boast about—<strong><em>I am speaking as a fool</em></strong><strong><em>I also dare to boast about.</em></strong> <sup>22</sup> Are they Hebrews? <strong><em>So am I.</em></strong> Are they Israelites? <em><strong>So am I.</strong></em> Are they Abrahams descendants? <strong><em>So am I. </em></strong><sup>23</sup> Are they servants of Christ? (<strong><em>I am out of my mind to talk like this.</em></strong>) <em><strong>I am more.</strong></em> I have <em><strong>worked much harder,</strong></em> been in prison <em><strong>more frequently</strong></em>, been flogged <strong><em>more severely</em></strong>, and been exposed to death again and again. <sup>24 </sup>Five times I received from the Jews the forty lashes minus one.<sup>25</sup> Three times I was beaten with rods, once I was pelted with stones, three times I was shipwrecked, I spent a night and a day in the open sea, <sup>26</sup> I have been constantly on the move. I have been in danger from rivers, in danger from bandits, in danger from my fellow Jews, in danger from Gentiles; in danger in the city, in danger in the country, in danger at sea; and in danger from false believers. <sup>27</sup> I have labored and toiled and have often gone without sleep; I have known hunger and thirst and have often gone without food; I have been cold and naked. <sup>28</sup> Besides everything else, I face daily the pressure of my concern for all the churches. <sup>29</sup> Who is weak, and I do not feel weak? Who is led into sin, and I do not inwardly burn?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul said it best what this reflects -- he talks "as a fool" and he is "out of my mind to talk like this."</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul was unrestrained equally another time, with similar boasting, even insisting God's grace was "with me" in his much harder labors than others:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><span> </span><sup>9</sup><span> For I am the least of the apostles and do not even deserve to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. </span><sup>10</sup><span> But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace to me was not without effect. No, <em><strong>I worked harder than all of them</strong></em>—yet not I, but the <strong><em>grace of God that was with me</em></strong>. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%2015:9-10&amp;version=NIV">1 Cor. 15:9-10 NIV</a>.)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">If God was truly with Paul, we wonder if Paul would have suffered from such lack of humility, right?</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Yet, it never stops with the Corinthians. Paul also wrote them:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>18</sup> I thank God that I speak in tongues<em><strong> more than all of you</strong></em>. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%2014:18&amp;version=NIV">1 Cor. 14:18 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Despite our Lord's telling us to call no man father -- meaning a spiritual father, Paul ascribes that to himself in speaking with the Corinthians:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>15</sup> Even though you have ten thousand guardians in Christ, you do not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus <strong><em>I became your father through the gospel</em></strong>. (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20cor.%204:15&amp;version=NIVUK">1 Cor. 4:15 NIV</a>.)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Paul also haughtily mocked men who quite harmlessly sought to be circumcised, and to teach others to do likewise to please God. Even if unnecessary if applied to themselves (which is unclear in context), did they deserve the following slam from Paul?</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;"><sup>12</sup><span> I wish that the people who are upsetting you would go all the way; let them go on and <em><strong>castrate themselves!</strong></em> (<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%205:12&amp;version=GNT">Gal. 5:12 Good News Bible</a>. <a href="http://bible.cc/galatians/5-12.htm">ISV</a> <a href="http://bible.cc/galatians/5-12.htm">God's Word</a>)</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This verse is typically mollified so that you would barely know it says "castrate themselves" in most editions. The NIV, NASB come close, saying "emasculate" themselves. The New Living is "mutilate themselves." But the ASV is they should "go beyond circumcision." A nice euphemism.</span></p>
<h2>Conclusion</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">It appears quite clear that Paul had an extremely elevated opinion of himself. In other words, Paul was clearly a proud man. This fits in well with our view that the prophecy of Habakkuk 2:2-5 is about Paul -- a prophecy of an end-times figure who is a "proud man" who gathers as SHL (Paul's name) all "nations" (Gentiles) to himself whose "faith" the "just shall live by" but who is working at cross-purposes with God. See our article "<a href="/JWO/habakkuk-prophecy-about-paul.html">Is Habakkuk 2:2-5 A Prophecy About Paul</a>?"</span></p>
<h2>Study Notes</h2>
<p>S. asked me to investigate Col. 1:24 on 4/8/2012 as follows:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span>I have not seen on your site the subject of Colossians 1:24 addressed. I find this to be a sticking point that Paul's admirers cannot answer. In that verse Paul says that Yahushua's sufferings were "lacking" and that his own sufferings make up for it. When confronted with this verse, most will say that we all suffer as "christians," but they can not give an answer when bluntly asked, "were Yahushua's sufferings lacking?" They can not answer because they know that they were not.</span></p>
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<h2>Early Church View of Law given Moses</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Tertullian in 207 A.D. was the voice of orthodoxy when he wrote <em>Against Marcion</em>.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Marcion advocated in 144 A.D. a Paulinist movement, claiming Paul alone was the apostle to the Gentiles, and the Jesus portrayed by the 12, including Matthew and John, was for a different dispensation. Marcion insisted the Law given Moses did not apply in the NT. Marcion relied upon a truncated version of what looks like Luke's gospel.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Tertullian blasted Marcion's claim the Law was abrogated in Tertullian's 207 A.D. classic entitled <em>Against Marcion</em>. Here are references to this discussion from Tertullian, <em>The Five Books of Quintus Sept. Flor. Tertullianus Against Marcion</em> (trans. Peter Holmes) (Edinburgh: T&amp;T Clark, 1868).</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">First, Tertullian rebuts Marcion's claim that Christ did away with the Law by discussing Jesus' instruction to the leper to follow the Law's requirement for giving thanks for a healing. Tertullian writes:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">The law about lepers had a profound meaning as respects* the forms of the disease itself, and of the inspection by the high priest. The interpretation of this sense it will be our task to ascertain. <strong><em>Marcion's labour</em></strong>, however, is <strong><em>to object</em></strong> to us the <em><strong>strictness of the law</strong></em>, with the view of <strong><em>maintaining that here also Christ is its enemy</em></strong>—forestalling its enactments even in His cure of the ten lepers. ....<em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=HMIUAAAAQAAJ&amp;dq=marcion&amp;pg=PA326">326</a>.</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Forasmuch, then, as He was Himself the veritable High Priest of God the Father, He inspected them according to the hidden purport of the law, which signified that Christ was the true distinguisher and extinguisher of the defilements of mankind. However, what was obviously <em>required by the law He commanded should be done</em> : " Go," said He, " show yourselves to the priests." ' Yet why this, if He meant to cleanse them first 1 <strong><em>Was it as a despiser of the law</em></strong>, in order to prove to them that, having been cured already on the road, the law was now nothing to "them, nor even the priests ? Well, the matter must of course pass as it best may,6 if anybody supposes that Christ had such views as these !7 But there are certainly better interpretations to be found of the passage, and more deserving of belief: how that they were cleansed on this account, <strong><em>because they were obedient</em></strong>, and went as the law required, when they were commanded to go to the priests; and it is <em><strong>not to be believed</strong></em> that persons who <strong><em>observed the law</em></strong> could have found a cure from<em><strong> a god that was destroying the law</strong></em>. <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=HMIUAAAAQAAJ&amp;dq=marcion&amp;pg=PA327">327</a>-28.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Second, Tertullian proves Jesus did not do away with the Law because He told the rich man that obeying the Law's precepts was the key to eternal life. Remember, here if Paul were a true authority in the church, Tertullian would have had to address Paul's opposing thesis upon which Marcion explicitly relied, but Tertullian ignores Paul and simply cites Jesus' words in rebuttal that the Law remain and Jesus simply supplemented but did not supplant them:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">When afterwards " a certain man asked him, ' Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life ?'" [Jesus] inquired whether he <em>knew </em>(that is, in other words, whether he <em>kept) </em>the <strong><em>commandments of the Creator</em></strong>, in order to testify that it was<em><strong> by the Creator's precepts that eternal life is acquired</strong></em>. Then, when he affirmed that from his youth up he had kept all the principal commandments, [Jesus] said to him : " One thing thou yet lackest: sell all that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven; and come, follow me."<span class="gstxt_sup">1</span> Well now,<strong><em> </em></strong><span class="gstxt_hlt"><strong><em>Marcion</em></strong></span><span class="gstxt_hlt">, </span>and all ye who are companions in misery, and associates in hatred with that heretic, <strong><em>what will you dare say to this</em></strong>? Did <strong><em>Christ rescind the forementioned commandments</em></strong>: " Do not kill, Do not commit adultery, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother?" Or did He both keep them, and then add<span class="gstxt_sup">3</span> what was wanting to them ? This <strong><em>very precept</em></strong>, however, about giving to the poor, was very largely <strong><em>diffused through the pages of the law and the prophets</em></strong>. This vainglorious observer of the commandments was therefore convicted of holding money in much higher estimation [than charity]. This <strong><em>verity of the gospel then stands unimpaired</em></strong> : " I am <strong><em>not come to destroy the law and the prophets, but rather to fulfil them</em></strong>."<span class="gstxt_sup">6</span> He also dissipated other doubts, when He declared that the name of God and of the Good belonged to one and the same being, at whose disposal were also the everlasting life and the treasure in heaven and Himself too—whose<strong><em> commandments He both maintained and augmented with His own supplementary precepts</em></strong>. He may likewise be discovered in the following passage of Micah, saying : " He hath showed thee, O man, what is good ; and what doth the Lord require of thee, but to do justly, and to love mercy, and to be ready to follow the Lord thy God ?"<span class="gstxt_sup">7</span> Now Christ is the man who <strong><em>tells us what is </em></strong><em><strong>good, </strong></em><strong><em>even the knowledge of the law</em></strong>. " Thou knowest," says He, " the commandments." <em>" </em>To do justly"— "Sell all that thou hast;" "to love mercy"—"Give to the poor;" " and to be ready to walk with God"—" And come," says He, " follow me." <em>Id.</em>, at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=HMIUAAAAQAAJ&amp;dq=marcion&amp;pg=PA332">332</a>-33.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Note here Tertullian also quoted from within the famous Matthew 5:17-19 -- that Jesus says He did not come to abrogate the Law but to fulfill it, and not one jot or tittle will be taken away until a new heavens and earth.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Incidentally, Tertullian has another book I believe is falsely attributed to him -- <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Adversus Judeos</span> -- <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Against the Jews</span>.  It appears unfinished and a thief tried to complete it. What betrays this work is not authentic is that it contains portions completely opposite of what we read above. Tertullian in this work now claims Jews are replaced by Christians, the OT is defunct, including Sabbath. For information on this, see "<a href="http://www.tertullian.org/works/adversus_judaeos.htm">Against the Jews</a>." There are silly anachronisms that prove a much later hand than one living in the 200s was involved. For example, the hand supposed that the Romans had not yet conquered Britain as of the 200s when Tertullian lived, when it was already 200 years in their hands in Tertullian's day. <em>Id.</em> Thus, there is every reason to believe this work was created in the 300s when distancing Christianity from Judaism became government policy by Rome, especially Constantine. The English translation is found at this<a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=OqU2_18eYz8C&amp;lpg=PA271&amp;dq=Tertullianus%20against%20the%20jews&amp;pg=PA272#v=onepage&amp;q&amp;f=false"> link</a>. Unworthy of Tertullian are claims that Abraham and Enoch did not keep Sabbath, which is (a) unproven and (b) unlike Tertullian's normal reasoning from <em>proof</em> in the text. See <em>Id.</em>, ch. 4.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">A similar fraud was written in Tertullian's name -- <span style="text-decoration: underline;">De Idolatria</span>. There Tertullian says supposedly: "<span>Even the </span><em>Jewish</em><span> celebrations, which once were agreeable to God, are now forbidden." <em>Id.</em>, Section VI, paraphrased at <a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=h5Gp4EmSqyUC&amp;lpg=PA223&amp;dq=tertullian%20against%20the%20jews%20fraudulent&amp;pg=PA223#v=onepage&amp;q=tertullian%20against%20the%20jews%20fraudulent&amp;f=false">223</a>. This says, in effect, God intends all Jewish festivals to cease - which clearly is a Roman doctrine of the 300s, not a Christian one of the early 200s. Again, this is an obvious adulteration to promote the 'antiquity' of evolving later orthodoxy.</span></span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">This proves that when statements as Tertullian in <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Against Marcion</span> do survive with are contrary to later orthodoxy -- those words upholding the Law -- despite Rome's later effort vigorously to do away with Jewish legal rules in the 300s, means there were just too many copies of <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Against Marcion</span> to successfully alter it in the 300s. Those portions of <span style="text-decoration: underline;">Against Marcion</span> are thus unquestionably authentic.</span></p>
<h2>Church Pre-205 AD Followed Law Given Moses</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Tertullian was defending practices that were still ongoing in the 200 AD period -- observance of Sabbath, Passover, etc.</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Historian W. D. Davies explained how Jewish Christianity still predominated by this juncture:</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">"Everywhere, especially in the East of the Roman Empire, there would be Jewish Christians whose outward way of life would not be markedly different from that of the Jews. They took for granted that the gospel was continuous with [the religion of Moses]; for them the New Covenant, which Jesus had set up at the Last Supper with His disciples… did not mean that the covenant made between God and Israel was no longer in force. They still observed the feasts of Passover, Pentecost and Tabernacles; they also continued to be circumcised, to keep the weekly Sabbath and the Mosaic regulations concerning food. According to some scholars, they must have been so strong that right up to the fall of Jerusalem in ad70 they were the dominant element in the Christian movement" [W.D. Davies, "Paul and Jewish Christianity," <em>Judeo-christianisme </em><span>(</span>1972) at 72, quoted in Samuele Bacchiocchi, <em><a href="http://books.google.com/books?id=bomKPQAACAAJ">From Sabbath to Sunday: A Historical Investigation of the Rise of Sunday Observance in Early Christianity</a></em> (2000) at 151).</span></p>
<h2>Post-205 AD Still Following The Law</h2>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">By the time Chrysostom wrote in the late fourth century, he could berate Christians in Antioch who were observing the Feast of Trumpets (Rosh Hashana), the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) and the Feast of Tabernacles (Succoth) with the Jews. ("<a href="http://www.vision.org/visionmedia/article.aspx?id=1040">Pulpit of Preconceived Ideas</a>," <em>Vision</em> (2011).)</span></p>
<h2>Contrast The Pauline Era of Today</h2>
<p><span><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">Anders Branderud tells of his conversion to Christianity among modern evangelicals in Stockholm who came from international missions. As he read the Bible, he thought to obey Sabbath and stop eating pork. But this led to his exclusion:</span></span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">My argumentation of that Christians shall follow some of the directives of the Torâh created a conflict with the Christian leaders of the Word of Life Christian Bible school. They called me to a meeting and after that I stated that I wont change my mind, they told me that I have to quit. (<a href="http://www.followyeshua.com/teachings-of-ribi-yehoshua-aram-yeshua/the-historical-yeshua-how-i-found-the-teachings-of-yeshu/">Follow Teachings of Jesus.com</a>)</span></p>
<p><span style="font-family: 'times new roman', times; font-size: 12pt;">So obeying practices followed by the 12 apostles (even Peter never ate non-kosher foods, as he explains in Acts 11 in the Holy Spirit lesson to accept Gentiles) is now, due to Paul's doctrine, grounds to exclude you from Bible college. Amazing!</span></p> </td>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
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<h1 class="Appendix-Title">The Easter Error: Wrong Name &amp; Time</h1>
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<h2 class="Heading1"><br />
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Jesus' Command Of A Passover Remembrance</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix">The Hebrew word for Passover is <em>Pesach</em>. The King James Bible translates the word for Passover in Greek (Pascha) with the word Easter in Acts 12:4. The King James translators thus believed Easter was synonymous with Passover. Why was this? To find the answer, we need to go back to what early Christians understood (and everyone but English-speaking Christians still understand) was the context in which Jesus intended the communion command to be fulfilled.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">We English-speaking Protestants are generally ignorant of Jesus' intention behind the "remembrance of me" command at the Passover dinner before He was crucified. (Luke 22:19.) As explained below,<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=914376"><sup> 1</sup></a> the command from Jesus was supposed to be part of the Passover service that his Jewish apostles were to keep and celebrate annually. When Jesus said "do this in remembrance of me," He did not envision a new ceremony called Communion. When He did likewise with the cup of wine, Jesus was not envisioning a new second step to what we call Communion. Rather, Jesus was saying when you "do this," that is, recite remembrances as the head of the table shares the unleavened bread and as each table-participant drinks from the Cup of Redemption in the Passover Dinner, the participants were henceforth to now do this in remembrance of Jesus. The story of Jesus' sacrifice for our sins would now be added as a remembrance at these two junctures of the Passover Dinner.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">This explains why the early church practiced Passover. The Bishop of Smyrna, Polycarp (died 155 A.D.), asserted Passover observance was directly handed to him by the apostles. Polycarp also said he was taught by them to keep it on 14 Nissan, exactly as prescribed as the day for Passover in the Law given Moses.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=913470"> <sup>2</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">It may surprise an English-speaking evangelical to learn this, but it was this apostolic practice which explains why the Catholics and Orthodox still keep Passover each year. We find the Catholics in Italy call it Pasqua. In the Orthodox church, Pascha. Among Catholics it is an eight day period.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=913474"> <sup>3</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">In fact, even in the evangelical Protestant church outside English-speaking lands, the celebration week ending with Resurrection Sunday still retains its correct name of Passover, e.g., Pascua in Spanish; Paschen in Dutch, Pâques in French, etc. I first learned this by living abroad in Costa Rica. I was puzzled why Protestant Christians there called Easter Pascua. That's how I stumbled across this issue.</p>
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<h2 class="Heading2">The Law of Passover</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix">The Passover Season was comprised of two parts: a Passover dinner and a week-long Feast of Unleavened Bread. The Passover dinner was celebrated at a dining-room table in a house (Exodus 12:46) besides at the Temple (Deut. 16:2). The home-observance was typically led by the head of a family. The house had to be cleaned of all scraps of unleavened bread in preparation for passover and the feast of unleavened bread. The sojourner (Gentile sharing community with the Jews) was enjoined only not to eat unleavened bread in this season. Exodus 12:19. Otherwise, the sojourner did not have to keep the Passover dinner or celebrate the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Yet, if the sojourner chose to keep the Passover dinner, he had to be circumcised first. Exodus 12:49. Thus, it was an honor that a sojourner could share in, but it was not a requirement to do so.</p>
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<h2 class="Heading2">How the Timing Was Changed From 14 Nissan</h2>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Why does Passover in the Catholic, Orthodox, and Evangelical Protestant communities no longer coincide with the Jewish day of observance of Passover?<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=914993"> <sup>4</sup></a> Why in particular is this true even if they retain the name Passover as the festival-season they celebrate?</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">At the Council of Nicea in 325, Passover's day of celebration was changed at the urging of the Emperor of Rome. He specifically demanded it be a different day other than 14 Nissan so as to spite the Jews. Emperor Constantine's ostensible reasons were all blatantly grounded on a virulent anti-semitical tirade!<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=913480">5</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">However, there were actually some other competing considerations not specifically mentioned in the records from the Council of Nicea. The true Passover could fall in March. However, the new chronology guaranteed Passover would land in April. Why was this important? Because in that era, the English and Germanic name for April was<strong><em> Eostremonat</em></strong> or <strong><em>Ostaramonath</em></strong> respectively. What did this name mean? In April, the pagans celebrated the festival of Osiris. It was her month. In Britain, her name was<strong><em> Eastre</em></strong>. There is no dispute this is the origin of the name for <strong><em>Easter</em></strong>. In the Eighth century, a Christian monk and historian, Bede, explained why English-speaking lands persisted in calling the Passover by the name Easter. He explained: "Eosturmonath, which is now interpreted as the paschal month, was <strong><em>formerly named after the goddess Eostre, and has given its name to the festival [Passover in Britain</em></strong>]."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=913484"> <sup>6</sup></a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Thus, there was a more compromising rationale and purpose to Constantine's change. He desired to appease pagan citizens. This is why Constantine would not tolerate those who wanted to retain the apostolic practice of keeping Passover on 14 Nissan. These were known as Quatordecimans, i.e., 14-ers in Latin. Like we call the gold-rush enthusiasts 49ers, these adherents were called the 14ers. Because Constantine was able to heavily influence doctrine, the Roman Catholic church now inflicted excommunication on all Quatordecimans. This resulted in all kinds of civil penalties, e.g., inability to inherit, etc.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=913488"> <sup>7</sup></a> This is how the true apostolic practice of observing 14 Nissan as the true day for Passover was wiped out in the Roman territories. Yet, the name Passover continued to be used. This is why the feast is still called Passover in all of Christendom except in English-speaking lands.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Thus, it was the British who solely refused to observe Passover under any name other than that of their goddess Eastre. She would have a priority over Passover. The Catholic church tolerated this in Britain. This was simply inherited by the Protestant English Church without any re-examination. As a result, Protestants in English-speaking lands came to completely forget the very context in which the drama of the Resurrection was to be recreated each year: it was the PASSOVER week, which starts with the Passover Dinner and continues in what is called the Feast of Unleavened Bread.</p>
<div></div>
<big><span style="font-weight: bold;">Jesus' Intention to Transform the Passover Dinner</span></big>
<p class="BodyAppendix">But why did the early apostolic church follow Passover? Because Jesus commanded a change within the Passover Dinner. (Luke 22:19.) It was not something new called Communion. Jesus instead was adding a memorial to step four of the traditional Passover Seder where the unleavened bread is broken. He added another memorial at a later juncture where the Cup of Redemption was drunk. At each point, the bread and wine are shared by the head of the table with a recitation of certain traditional remembrances. Thus, the early church had to know this was the true nature of Jesus' command regarding Communion. This is why the apostles kept Passover, as Polycarp affirmed.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">How do we know this was Jesus' meaning? First, the Passover ceremony had been standardized for millennia prior to Jesus Christ. It had fifteen clearly defined steps. We have Gospel-confirmation there had been no significant change in the fifteen steps by Jesus' day. The record in the Gospels shows Jesus followed six of the fifteen steps in exactly identical order. The only thing not mentioned are the steps involving the meal itself in the middle. While those steps are not mentioned, the six steps mentioned in the Gospels do not vary in the slightest from the traditional Passover seder even as it is kept to this very day by Jews.<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=913494"> 8</a> The dinner's outline was never enacted as a law in the Bible or otherwise, yet one can see Jesus went through it step-by-step in the First Century A.D.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Therefore, we know that Jesus was first saying at step four, we need to change something. This is when we eat the unleavened bread. It was at that point that Jesus commanded we were to "do this in remembrance of me." (Luke 22:19.) Next, Jesus clearly henceforth was associating the Passover Cup of Redemption with Himself: "this is the cup of the New Covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you." (Luke 22:20.) Our Redemption was now from His blood, symbolized by that cup.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">What else confirms Jesus' intent to modify the Passover Seder? His remembrance terminology in Luke 22:19 also fits in with the nature of the Passover Seder. The head of the table leads the participants in a series of remembrances of the work of God with the people of Israel. It includes not only the Passover but the bitter herbs the people of Israel ate in the desert. There is a remembrance too that Elijah will come back before Messiah, and so on. All Jesus was saying was He wanted to add one more work of God to the list of remembrances which were already being recounted at every Passover.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Now hopefully you can understand why it was so imperative to retain Passover within the early church. This is why Roman Catholicism and the Orthodox Church continued the observance of Passover all these centuries. To rid ourselves of Passover's observance completely would be to rid ourselves of the very context in which at least a Jewish Christian was to obey the commandment of Jesus to "do this in remembrance of me." (Luke 22:19.) If our intent is to enjoy the privilege of Passover, then our persistent use of the word Easter for Passover has a negative effect. It has led to ignorance. What else explains an otherwise brilliant and famous commentator like Gill actually saying: "the passover was... abolished, and not to be observed by Christians." (Commentary on Acts 20:6.) Due to the Easter moniker for Passover, no one within English-speaking Christianity has any footing to even begin to suspect Gill is wrong. At least for the Jewish-Christian, Jesus intended they "do this in remembrance of me," i.e., share the bread and wine at Passover with a remembrance of Jesus' work on the cross. For the Gentile Christian who exercises the privilege to keep Passover, then he must follow Jesus' revision to that dinner celebration.</p>
<big><span style="font-weight: bold;"> The Orthodox Confront English-speaking "Easter" Terminology</span></big>
<p class="BodyAppendix">This background now allows you to understand why the Orthodox Church in English countries cannot fathom the practice of calling this feast Easter. As Michael Harper, an Orthodox `father,' notes: "This is a much more important subject than a mere dispute about words." Harper acknowledges that virtually no one realizes the original pagan goddess worshipped in April was named Easter. Yet, it is this very meaninglessness of the name Easter which effectuated a loss of the real meaning of the season. This is how we lost the content of what we were trying to do -- amend the Passover service to remember Jesus while we simultaneously remembered all the other works of God which were part of the Passover dinner. Harper explains the Orthodox' Church's viewpoint on this phenomenon among English-speakers:</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;">[There is a] constant temptation to drop the word Pascha and for clarity (and sometimes charity) use the western word Easter. But perhaps the time has come for us to make a stand against this. In our increasingly secular and pagan society the use of a pagan word, of which no one knows the meaning, is hardly suitable to describe the greatest day in the Christian year. When most people knew the Christian meaning of the word Easter [as Passover] one could perhaps make out a case for using the word. But not today!<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=914028"> 9</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">In other words, if we did retain the substance of Passover practice within our Easter-observance, perhaps you could say using Easter as a name is harmless. But now the word Easter obscures rather than highlights what we are trying to celebrate to honor Jesus' command to revise the Passover ceremony.</p>
<div></div>
<big><span style="font-weight: bold;"> Any Imperative To Reform?</span></big>
<p class="BodyAppendix">There is absolutely no dispute factually that the early apostolic church kept Passover. There is no dispute that universal non-English speaking Christianity has always kept Passover, whether Protestant, Orthodox or Catholic. There is no dispute that it was only in 325 A.D. that this observance was moved from 14 Nissan to a date that coincides instead always with a date in April. (This is because the Christian Passover-Easter is measured in relation to the vernal equinox.) There is no dispute that the current date does not coincide with the Passover in God's Law. There is no dispute that the only reason English-speaking Christianity lost the memory of the Passover festival was due to the stubborness of Englishmen. By the time of the Eighth Century, as recorded by Bede, the British Christians preferred to worship under their pagan goddess' name of Eastre.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">With these indisputable facts, what should a Christian do? First, assuming Passover is something still to be observed, it is impermissible to move the timing.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">When King Jeroboam moved the feast of tabernacles by one month from the time specified in the Law, the way this is described shows God's displeasure. (1 Kings 12:33.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=914814"> 10</a> The Spanish Reina Valera is the closest to the correct translation. Jeroboam selected a "month he invented in his heart." (Reina Valera.) The Hebrew is bada, which means "to invent." (Strong's #908.) Cf. "devised in his own heart" (ASV KJV); "fixed by him at his pleasure" (BBE); "of his own choosing" (CEV).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">What did Jesus likewise teach when we invent our own traditions in place of God's commands?</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;">(6) And ye have made void the word of God because of your tradition. (7) Ye hypocrites, well did Isaiah prophesy of you, saying, (8) This people honoreth me with their lips; But their heart is far from me. (9) But in vain do they worship me, Teaching as their doctrines the precepts of men. (Matt. 15:6-9 ASV.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Thus, moving Passover, if we observe it, to anything other than 14 Nissan is vain (empty) worship, so says the Lord Jesus Christ. It is moved solely by tradition. Jesus says God does not accept vain worship. Jesus was alluding to the second commandment which says "do not use the Lord's name in vain."</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Nor can one ignore that Daniel says what will mark "another" who "puts down three rulers" (Dan. 7:24) is that he "shall wear out the saints of the Most High; and he shall think to change the times and the Law; and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and half a time." Dan 7:25. Thus, God gives us an idea that this "other" acts wrongly by changing the "times and the Law."<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=915118"> 11</a> If this is so, then how can moving the date for Passover as provided in the Law given Moses be correct? As the Psalmist says, "Your royal laws cannot be changed." (Ps. 93:5.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">The remaining question, and the most important, is whether Jesus intended the apostles to keep Passover.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">First, in broad terms, it is undisputed that the command to keep the Passover applied to Jews. It was optional for sojourners (Gentiles), but if they elected to keep it, they had to be circumcised. Thus, only if God abrogated the Law as to Jews can one say Jesus did not intend the apostles to keep Passover.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">There are some fundamentally difficult passages to overcome if we contend God intended to abrogate the Law (Torah) in the New Testament. The New Testament was prophesied to "inscribe the Law (Torah) on our hearts." (Jeremiah 31:31-33.) When a Redeemer is sent to Israel to create a new covenant, God promises that "these words that I have given you" (the Law) "will be on your lips and on the lips of your children and your children's children forever." (Isaiah 59:21 NLT.)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=915244"> 12</a> When His Servant (Messiah) comes, God "will magnify the Law (Torah), and make it honorable." (Isaiah 42:21 ASV/KJV.) Jesus, for His part, did everything possible to put the Law given Moses on our lips and in our hearts forever. Jesus said immediately after just referring to the "Law (given Moses) and the Prophets" (Matt. 5:17):</p>
<p class="QuoteAppendix" style="padding-left: 30px;">Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. (Matt. 5:19 KJV)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">In an identical spirit, Jesus excoriated the Pharisees for a shallow teaching of the "less weighty matters of the Law," but leaving the "weightier matters of the Law undone." Matt. 23:23. Jesus attacked the Pharisees' oral traditions which made of none effect the written commandments of God given Moses. Matt. 15:6-9 (the Pharisees taught that a special korban payment which they invented would excuse later having to honor one's parents if they fell into poverty -- in violation of one of the Ten Commandments.) Jesus did everything He could to elevate obedience to the Law given Moses. Jesus' critiques all reveal the Pharisees had a shallow defective Law-negating doctrine. The people merely assumed the Pharisees were teaching the Law because the people were told by the Pharisees what the Law was. Bible-texts were not ubiquitous as they are now. But Jesus said this supposition about the Pharisees was untrue.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Moreover, if the New Testament somehow abrogates the Law, including the Law of Passover, this would contradict God's repeated emphasis that "these ordinances" of the Law shall be "everlasting for all generations." (Ex. 27:21; 30:21; Lev. 6:18; 7:36; 10:9; 17:7; 23:14, 21, 41; 24:3; Num. 10:8; 15:15.)</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Luther reluctantly came to accept Jesus intended the Law given Moses remains the rule of life for the Christian. While Luther originally subscribed to an anti-Law position in his Commentary on Galatians, Luther eventually made an about face. He insisted the Law, in particular the Ten Commandments, applies to Christians. (Shorter/Longer Catechisms (1531-32); Antinomian Theses (1537); cfr. Commentary on Galatians (1531).)<a class="footnote" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.html.htm#pgfId=914918"> 13</a></p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Thus, it would appear that Jesus at least intended His Jewish apostles to keep Passover. It remained an honor for a Gentile to keep it.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">What confirms this is that Polycarp, Bishop of Smyrna, said the apostles themselves personally taught him to keep Passover. If Polycarp were lying, it makes no sense that there is such a strong universal memory (other than in English-speaking lands) that the festival we call Easter is everywhere else called Passover, and is universally kept.</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Finally, Jesus' command to "do this in remembrance of Me" during the Passover dinner has one obvious meaning. Jesus gave two remembrances that would be spoken of when the apostles "do this"-- distribute the unleavened bread and share the Cup of Redemption at Passover. The context defines what do this meant. The later tradition of what we do on Sunday in Communion does not define what Jesus meant by do this. To think Jesus meant "do this" in a vacuum of a Sunday church communion service which observance is itself nowhere commanded in Scripture is replacing tradition for what is the import of Jesus' command. He clearly assumed that the apostles would keep the Passover dinner, as the Law mandated upon a Jew. It is within this context the apostles would fulfill His remembrance-commands of the communion cup and wine. To use tradition to avoid the import of Jesus' command would be "empty" worship. Jesus specifically said worship is vain when tradition replaces commandments of God. (Matt. 15:6-9.) This includes commandments from Our Lord to remember Him when we `do this' (i.e., keep passover sharing of the bread and wine).</p>
<p class="BodyAppendix">Thus, we should re-examine our own practice of Easter: do you know it is Passover that we are attempting to celebrate? If not, that is the first sign of an empty and vain worship. Do we know we are being told to exchange unleavened bread and a Cup of Redemption as remembrances at a Passover dinner at home if we are electing to keep the Passover season as a Christian? If not, that is a second sign of an empty and vain worship. Finally, are we troubled in the slightest that we are worshipping Christ under the name of a pagan goddess albeit a long forgotten association? If not, then that is a final sign that our worship has become so empty and so vain that even the clear historical taint of idol-worship does not concern us.</p>
</div>
</div>
</div>
<hr />
<div class="footnotes">
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 1.</span> <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/Easterhtml.htm#34955"> See Jesus' Intention to Transform the Passover Dinner</a> elsewhere on this page.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 2.</span> Of this there can be no doubt. Polycarp (martyred 155 A.D.) spoke of Christians keeping Passover at 14 Nissan, which he claimed he learned from Apostle John (whom he claimed to know as a child) and other apostles. Eusebius records that Polycarp went to Rome to convince the bishop of Rome to change back to apostolic practice. Eusebius says the bishop of Rome could not "persuade Polycarp not to observe what he had always observed with John, the disciple of our Lord, and the other apostles with whom he associated." (Eusebius, Ecclessiastical History, Ch. XXIII.) Likewise, passover for Christians on 14 Nissan was recorded in the Apostolic Constitution which dates somewhere between 220 A.D. and the late 300s.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 3.</span> "In the Roman Catholic Church, Easter is actually an eight-day feast called the Octave of Easter." ("Easter," Wikipedia, at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Easter (last accessed 1/7/07).)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 4.</span> For reasons too complex to narrate, the Orthodox do not agree with the Catholic date for Passover.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 5.</span> Emperor Constantine at the Council of Nicea in 325 A.D. stated the ostensible rationale for the change. He thought it imperative Passover not be held on the same day as Jews keep Passover. Constantine stated victoriously at the Council: "It was, in the first place, declared improper to follow the custom of the Jews in the celebration of this holy festival....Let us, then, have nothing in common with the Jews, who are our adversaries.... avoiding all contact with that evil way.... Therefore, this irregularity must be corrected, in order that we may no more have any thing in common with those parricides and the murderers of our Lord.... no single point in common with the perjury of the Jews." (Theodoret's Ecclesiastical History.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 6.</span> He wrote in Latin: "Eosturmonath, qui nunc paschalis mensis interpretatur, quondam a dea illorum quae Eostre vocabatur et cui in illo festa celebrabant nomen habuit." (Venerable Bede: The Reckoning of Time Faith Wallis (trans.) (Liverpool University Press, 1999) at 54.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 7.</span> The Quatordecimans were vigorously routed out by Roman Catholicism which deemed them heretics for refusal to move Passover to a day of man's choosing. See "Quatordecimanism," http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quartodeciman (last accessed 1/7/07). A subsidiary issue was that Catholics insisted that the Resurrection celebration must always coincide with a Sunday. The Quatordecimans disagreed. If you kept 14 Nissan as Passover as a memorial each year, the celebration of the Resurrection does not always fall on a Sunday. Why? Because 14 Nissan is not always a Thursday in our solar calendar as it was in the year Jesus was crucified. (The Jews used a lunar calendar which is why variances will creep in from year-to-year.) There is no doubt this was the day of Passover in the year of Jesus' crucifixion. The Passover Sabbath falls on 15 Nissan regardless of the day that the weekly Sabbath may fall. (Exodus 12:16; Lev 23:7; Num 28:16-18.) The Gospels say Jesus was crucified and died just before the Passover Sabbath. This is called the "day of preparation." (Matt. 27:62.) This was a reference to just before the beginning of 15 Nissan. Thus, when Jesus resurrected Sunday, Jesus would be three days and three nights in the grave, as He predicted. (Matt. 12:40.) But if you accept a memorial of Passover as 14 Nissan, but tolerate the Catholic idea of always celebrating the Resurrection on a Sunday, then because of the variance in the solar versus lunar calendars involved, sometimes Sunday will be less than three days and more than three days from 14 Nissan. Anyone knowing Jesus' prophecy will suspect Jesus was a liar. (Sometimes atheists spot the inconsistency, and they hurl this back as proof that Jesus was a liar.) Thus, the Quatordecimans were additionally trying to argue Sunday was an inappropriate day to celebrate the Resurrection in a week in which you were observing the Passover correctly on 14 Nissan. Such Sunday-observance combined with Passover on 14 Nissan would leave the faith open to attack by making Jesus appear to be a liar. The Quatordecimans had a compromise solution. They suggested, to simplify things, that the resurrection should be celebrated on 14 Nissan (with the Passover) even though technically the Resurrection did not fall on Passover. Look at the validity of the Quatordecimans' concerns even among Protestants. We Protestants like Catholics persist in calling the Friday before Easter Sunday the "Good Friday." Good Friday commemorates the crucifixion. Now do the math! Three days and three nights later is Monday, not Sunday.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 8.</span> There are fifteen points covered in a standard Passover Seder. When you correlate John, Matthew and Luke, steps one through four are mentioned in exact parallel; steps five through twelve (i.e., the particulars of the meal) are omitted; and then steps thirteen and fourteen are repeated again in identical parallel to the standard service. (See http://home.earthlink.net/~lionlamb/PassoverSeder.html.) What Jesus was saying in context was He wanted step four (the bread) and step thirteen (the wine) to now be done "in remembrance of Me."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 9.</span> See Michael Harper, It IS Pascha not Easter! http://www.antiochian-orthodox.co.uk/pascha.htm (accessed 1/5/2007).</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 10.</span> Keil &amp; Delitzsch explain this was an "arbitrary alteration of the Law." They explain: "Jeroboam also transferred to the eighth month the feast which ought to have been kept in the seventh month (the feast of tabernacles, Lev 23:34.)."</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 11.</span> Daniel shows this other's activity is viewed negatively by saying in Daniel 7:26 "But the judgment shall be set, and they shall take away his dominion, to consume and to destroy it unto the end." Then in turn the kingdom taken from him "shall be given to the people of the saints of the Most High: His kingdom is an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve and obey him." (Dan. 7:27.)</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 12.</span> All commentators agree Isaiah 59:21 is a promise of the New Covenant. Barnes says "these words" or "my words" means God's truth previously given "for the guidance and instruction of the church." Clarke says this means the "words of Jesus." But this overlooks the tense, which is a past tense. "These words" are words given prior to the coming of the Redeemer. Keil &amp; Delitzsch concur, but they try to claim the prior "words" are the words of a covenant given to Abraham in Genesis 17:1 et seq. No one wants to accept the simplest solution: Isaiah is saying the same thing as Jeremiah. God intended the Law is on the lips and in the hearts of all those who belong to the New Covenant.</p>
</div>
<div class="footnote">
<p class="Footnote"><span class="footnoteNumber"> 13.</span> See <a class="XRef" href="file:///C:/JWOPDF/Lessons/chapter%205.htm#20427"> </a> et seq., viz., at 106.</p>
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<h2>Eisenman on Paul in the New Testament Code</h2>
<p>This is a review of Robert Eisenman's treatment of Paul in his work <em>The New Testament Code</em> (London: Watkins Publishing, 2006) -- a voluminous work exceeding 1000 pages. It has numerous references to Paul. We shall review the major references.</p>
<p><strong>Page 569</strong></p>
<h3>Apostolic Credentials, Boasting and 'the Apostles of Surpassing Degree' in Paul</h3>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">....The notices we have just encountered above, about persons dogging Paul's footsteps with a contrary doctrine, are rife throughout Paul's letters and he repeatedly and often bitterly complains, as we have seen, about just that sort of thing. FN 44. Yet specialists are either still unwilling or unable to determine who these ubiquitous 'some' or 'certain ones', he is constantly complaining about, are. For instance, in 1 Corinthians 9:1-2 he asserts:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 60px;">Have I not seen Jesus Christ our Lord? Are you not my work in the Lord? Even if I were not an Apostle to others, I should still be an Apostle to you, who are the seal of my apostleship in the Lord. This is my answer to those who would examine me. [Eisenman's translation.]</p>
<p style="padding-left: 60px;">[Compare: Am I not an apostle? am I not free? have I not seen Jesus Christ our Lord? are not you my work in the Lord? <span>If I be not an apostle unto others, yet doubtless I am to you: for the seal of my apostleship are you in the Lord.</span> [KJV 2000]</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Paul's wounded pride here is self-evident. So is his feeling of inferiority to those above him whom he refers to in 2 Corinthians 11:13-15, as already underscored as well, by phrases such as 'Super Apostles,' 'Hebrews,' and finally, as we have several times had occasion to remark, even 'pseudo Apostles, dishonest workment transforming themselves into...Servants of Righteousness, whose End shall be according to their works' (once again, in this last, note the purposeful play on 'Jamesian' doctrine). Not only is the terminology like 'Servants of Righteousness' clearly reflected in the Dead Sea Scrolls, but the whole phraseology plays off of the unmistakeablly 'Jamesian' approach to 'works Righteousness.' FN 44.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">**** [<strong>Page 570</strong>]</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">Continuing on the subject of Apostolic Credentials in 2 Corinthians 3:1, Paul asks rhetorically, his wounded pride and feelings of inferiority again painfully evident, 'Do we begin again to commend ourselves to you?' Then, alluding to the ever-recurring issue of not having official 'written letters of Apostolic appointment from James (much like a rabbi or some churchmen have today), a theme which actually permeates the run-up in 2 Corinthians 10:9-18 to his evocation in 11:13 above of the 'dishonest workmen transforming themselves into Apostles of Christ' jib:</p>
<p style="padding-left: 60px;">Unlike some (clearly implying the Hebrew 'Super Apostles'), we need no letters of recommendation either to you or from you.'</p>
<h2>My Analysis</h2>
<p>Eisenman has a very incisive approach to various statements by Paul, highlighting that a theme runs through Paul that Paul knows he lacks apostolic credentials blessed by the church of Jerusalem led by the 12 apostles. As proof, Eisenman cites 2 Cor. 10:19-18 that Paul is glad the Corinthians accept him without any letters of recommendation. Second, 1 Cor. 9:1-2 where Paul said his credentials were those who accepted him became, by their very existence, a "seal" or proof of his apostleship. Eisenman ties these very cogently together to prove Paul's self-awarness that he lacked apostolic credentials.</p>
<p>In Progress.</p> </td>
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<td valign="top" >"Jesus said 'A disciple is not above his teacher.' (Matt. 10:24.) Yet<em><strong> we make Paul, the disciple, greater than the teacher</strong></em>." (Bercot, <em>Common Sense</em>, 1992)</td>
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<h2>Acts 15</h2>
<h3>Walter (6/9/2010)</h3>
<p>Hi, Douglas,<br />Greetings in the name of our Lord, Jesus.....peace to you and yours. <br />I have a research question and having problems finding meaningful analysis:<br />Acts 15:10 -What was Peter really saying?<br />Is he agreeing with Paul? What am I missing? Please advise.</p>
<h2>My Response</h2>
<p>Peter in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%2015:10&amp;version=YLT">Acts 15:10</a> says:<br /><br />[10] Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear?<br /><br />You ask was Peter agreeing with Paul. The answer is yes. But what Peter agreed to is only what Jesus taught: <strong><em>exaggerated interpretations of the Law </em></strong>given Moses <strong><em>beyond its express scope</em></strong> places <strong><em>undue burdens on people</em></strong>, both Jews and Gentile. Luke 11:46; Mark 7:6-9. Peter was not agreeing to an entire rejection of the Law (which no one in this passage declares). Peter rejects the exaggerated application of the Law "which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear."</p>
<p>To see this, you start with verse 5 of Acts 15. There were some Pharisees who insisted Gentiles be circumcised if they converted. But that was not a command in the Law applicable to Gentiles. Instead, the circumcision command<strong><em> only applied to the sons of Israel.</em></strong> (Lev. <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Leviticus%2012:2-3&amp;version=YLT">12:2-3</a>, "speak unto the sons of Israel".) The Law had distinct commands for Israel versus foreigners/sojourners. While foreigners/sojourners (Gentiles by definition) were commanded many things in common in the Law, there were many distictions between the two. Yet, the circumcision was <em><strong>not one of the commands God imposed on Gentiles in the Law</strong></em>.</p>
<p>The same reasoning that exaggerated this circumcision command to Gentiles was the same exaggeration by the Pharisees which taught the Jewish people to wash their hands before eating. The Pharisees portrayed this rule as supposedly a command from God which made you a sinner if you did not do it. Jesus faulted the Pharisees for putting undue burdens on the people such as handwashing which were mere traditions of men. (See <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark%207:6-9&amp;version=YLT">Mark 7:6-9</a>.)</p>
<p>Jesus similarly speaks about the religious leaders doing this in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=luke%2011:46&amp;version=YLT">Luke 11:46</a>: "You burden people with loads that are hard to carry." This is very reminiscent of what is the issue in Acts 15. James even says "to not make it more difficult" for Gentiles to become disciples. (Acts 15:19.)</p>
<p>Now go back to<a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%2015:10&amp;version=YLT"> Acts 15:10</a>. The term "yoke" symobolizes doctrines. Jesus said "take my yoke" and "learn from me." It meant a set of commands/teachings.</p>
<p>Hence, in Acts 15:10 when Peter says "why put a yoke on the neck on [Gentile] disciples," he means why put a <strong><em>set of teachings </em></strong>on yourself. What characterizes these teachings? He says "Neither our father nor we are able to bear."There are only 2 choices what this means.</p>
<p>Either he meant the yoke were teachings that exaggerated commands in the Law beyond what the Law required. This in context fits because verse 5 speaks of the fact the Pharisees exaggerated the circumcision command beyond Israelites. And James in <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts%2015:19&amp;version=YLT">Acts 15:19</a> speaks of not putting unnecessary burdens on Gentiles.</p>
<p>However, some opt for the other alternative that Peter supposedly meant circumcision was a yoke to Jews, and why would we want to impose on Gentiles circumcision when 'we [Jews] could not bear it.'</p>
<p>However, it is unlikely Peter meant circumcision was a yoke on Jews now cast off. Peter uses the term "yoke" which to repeat here means metaphorically a set of teachings, not a single command. Also, if Peter's remarks were construed to imply God was <em><strong>abrogating circumcision also as to Jews</strong></em>, then two incongruities arise.</p>
<p>First, James was participating in this Acts 15 meeting, but in Acts 21 James tells Paul that the ruling on circumcision in Acts 15 did not mean Jews were freed from compliance with the circumcision duty. Thus, it seems James assumed Peter did not refer to circumcision by reference to the yoke too burdensome for even Jews to bear. Also, if Peter meant circumcision was done away for Jews and Gentiles, we have a supervening injuction from God to regard Peter as an apostate. See Deut. 13:1-5 and <a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah%208:20&amp;version=YLT">Isaiah 8:20</a>. I would make the effort to read Peter in a manner that reasonably avoids that consequence as long as it is textually possible. And that is by reading yoke to mean exaggerated interpretions of the Law in favor of expanding burdens.</p>
<p>In sum, yes, Peter was agreeing with Paul (a) circumcision was not for Gentles; and (b) in the general principle that exaggerated commands were not something that Jews could bear, and 'why would we want to do the same thing to Gentiles?'</p>
<p>I hope this helped.</p>
<p>Doug</p>
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<h3>Recommendations</h3>
<p><a href="/Audio/music-store-manager.html">Only Jesus</a> (great song by Big Daddy)</p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/justjesus0ece-20">Just Jesus: His Living Words (2011)</a></p>
<p><a href="http://astore.amazon.com/jesusonchurchstructure-20">Jesus' Words on Church Structure</a> by S. Rives</p>
<p><a href="http://www.jesusfocusedpublishers.com/"></a></p>
<p> </p> </div>
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<h2>Erica's Email of September 5, 2007</h2>
<div>HI,</div>
<div></div>
<div>It is nice seeing your book out there!</div>
<div></div>
<div>I came to the same conclusion about Paul a few years ago and I have since been shunned by a family member. I presented her (a Christian) with my research on Paul.  I asked her if she read the Bible-based facts what I wrote and she didn't.</div>
<div></div>
<div>How did you first come to realize Paul was not a follower of Jesus?</div>
<div></div>
<h2>My Response to Erica September 7, 2007</h2>
<div></div>
<div>
<div>Hi Erica,</div>
<div>Thank you for writing. I think the<em><strong> Parable of the Sheep and the Goats turned my mind around</strong></em>. I could not reconcile it to Paul. Much other frustration preceded that, as I tried to translate Paul from the Greek  to see whether translations were the problem. While I found translators skewed Paul to sound more Pauline, there was a core language in <em><strong>the original Greek that permitted no escape</strong></em>. Thus, compelled by what I knew Paul said in Greek and what Jesus said in the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats, I began thinking<strong><em> 'why are we dealing with Paul?.</em></strong>' Then one thing led to another.</div>
<div></div>
<div>What led you to question Paul?</div>
<div></div>
<div>Incidentally Erica, I have a new book ...It is free online --it is called<em> Jesus' Words on Salvation</em>. You can download it chapter by chapter at <a href="/../" target="_blank"> www.jesuswordsonly.com</a> -- and you will see the link for the new book.</div>
<div></div>
<div>Hope to hear from you soon back.</div>
</div>
<div>Doug</div>
<div></div>
<h2>My Second Response of September 8, 2007</h2>
<div></div>
<div>
<div>Hi Erica,</div>
<div>I want to congratulate you for suffering shunning by a family member. You should read Soren Kierkegaard. He was like us -- he saw through Paul. (Read my article online about <a href="/Recommended-Reading/kierkegaard.html">Kierkegaard</a>).</div>
<div></div>
<div>Kierkegaard had a theory that one way to become a Christian (perhaps the best proof of it) is when you suffer defending the validity ofJesus against any challenger (such as Paul). Jesus said you will inherit the earth if you suffer for righteousness sake for <strong><em>His</em></strong> sake. So it is great!</div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div>I suffer ridicule from friends. Unbeknowst to them, it has the opposite affect than they suppose. I drive harder to make sure my points and arguments are that much stronger, and irrefutable. This is a battle to vindicate Jesus, and it will take courage!</div>
<div></div>
<div></div>
<div>Blessings to you,</div>
<div></div>
Doug</div> </td>
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