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<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 20pt; color: black;"><strong>Matt 5:28 Mistranslated to be About Lust for Any Woman, Rather than only For Another Man's Wife in Context</strong></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">In <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+5%3A28&amp;version=KJV">Matthew 5:28</a>, this reads in the KJV from 1611 so that a man who lusts at any "woman" has committed "adultery" in his heart with her. The word the KJV translated as "woman" in Greek was gunaika &hellip; the accusative form of gune. It can mean woman or a "<strong>married</strong> woman."</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Here, the KJV chose to translate this as "woman," suggesting a lusting by any man for any woman constitutes adultery, with no exceptions.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">One could therefore read this as Jesus<strong> redefining</strong> adultery to be able to happen by any man lusting after either an unmarried or married woman even though adultery in the Law is only "coveting your neighbor's wife."</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">However, if one presumes Jesus used "adultery" in this verse to mean what the Torah-Law said previously, the right translation should have been "a wife." You cannot commit adultery in the Law by coveting / lusting an unmarried woman; it is only committed by coveting / lusting your "neigbhor's wife." (<a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=exodus+20%3A17&amp;version=KJV">Exodus 20:17</a>.)&nbsp;</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Nor is coveting / lusting conduct of an unmarried woman ever prescribed against in the Torah-Law. (In fact, it appears endorsed by the command to be "fruitful and multiply," as well as by&nbsp;the book of the Song of Solomon.)</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Thus, if the KJV translation is correct of Matt 5:28, Jesus would be changing the Law fundamentally. It would now be support for Paul's shocking view in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a> that even a married man should no longer have sexual relations with his wife -- to live as if he were not married. More on that in a moment.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">So did Jesus intend to change the meaning of adultery to encompass any man lusting any woman, even potentially for a man's own wife?</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Or did Jesus intend his audience to know that gunaika meant "a wife," and hence Jesus in context by referring to "adultery" was just paraphrasing the Torah command in the Ten Commandments at <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=exodus+20%3A17&amp;version=KJV">Exodus 20:17</a> on adultery?&nbsp;</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">On a defense of this explanation, see this 2 minute video at this <a href="https://vimeo.com/439370466/3fffdbfd96">link</a> (an excerpt of Remember the Commands YouTube at this <a href="https://youtu.be/iOXNiUQJDkc">link</a>.)</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">Did KJV Deliberately Mistranslate to Help Paul?</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">I will prove this choice of "woman" by the KJV in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+5%3A28&amp;version=KJV">Matt 5:28</a> was likely purposeful to support Paul's horrific views about what relations a Christian married man should have with his own wife in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a>.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Also, the mistranslation of Matthew 5:28 in the KJV has proven useful to justify salvation by faith alone. This is deduced because if Jesus' standard to be righteous is that no man can ever lust for <strong>any woman </strong>sexually which is obviously impossible, Paulinists tell us we supposedly must fall on grace alone to make up the necessary deficiency. We will find this message in Willard's <strong>The</strong> <strong>Great Omission</strong> in our discussion below.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">As we will prove here, "wife" is the true translation in Matthew 5:28. It was clearly ignored here solely or primarily to protect and advance Paul.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">We know it was deliberate because this 1611 translation was the <strong>first one</strong> in church history to render this as "woman." Specificaly, Jerome in the Vulgate Latin of 405 AD&nbsp; had <strong>wife</strong>. ("mulierem") (<a href="https://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/vul/mat005.htm#028">link</a>).&nbsp;Tyndale's English translation of 1534 -- from which the KJV borrowed verbatim 84% -- likewise had "<strong>wife</strong>" not "woman. See <a href="https://www.biblestudytools.com/tyn/matthew/5-28.html">link</a>.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">Greek Word At Issue</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Now the word at issue in Matt 5:28 is <strong>gunaika</strong> -- the accusative of gune. It is almost everywhere else in the KJV translated as "a wife." See <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matt.+5%3A31-32&amp;version=KJV">Matt. 5:31-32</a> (&ldquo;<strong>wife</strong>&rdquo;); <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Ephesians+5%3A22%2C33&amp;version=KJV">Ephesians 5:22,33</a> (&ldquo;"wives" &amp; "wife&rdquo;) and <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Romans+7%3A2-3&amp;version=KJV">Romans 7:2-3 </a>(&ldquo;a woman who has a husband.&rdquo;) See Strong's Concordance in BibleHub by opening Greek tab under Matt 5:28, then selecting gunaika; you can start at this <a href="https://biblehub.com/text/matthew/5-28.htm">link</a>.&nbsp;</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">In the nominative case -- gune -- the KJV translated it as "a wife" in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Cor.+7%3A4&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:4</a> KJV.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">Moreover, "married woman" is what obviously the Greek-educated hearer of Jesus' words would infer is the word meaning due to Jesus saying it is "adultery" which the Law repeatedly states involves "another man's wife" as an element of adultery.&nbsp; In other words, a "wife" or "married woman" is the only meaning in Matt 5:28 that fits the context of Jesus talking about "adultery."&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; color: #494a44;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">Why?</span><span style="font-size: 10.5pt;"><br /></span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">Because adultery by definition cannot be committed with an unmarried woman. (<a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=leviticus+20%3A10&amp;version=KJV">Lev. 20:10</a>, &ldquo;another man&rsquo;s wife&rdquo;; <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deut.+22%3A22&amp;version=KJV">Deut. 22:22</a> &ldquo;a woman married....&rdquo;) Adultery&nbsp; always requires a married woman to be involved. See also, <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=exodus+20%3A17&amp;version=KJV">Exodus 20:7.</a>&nbsp;And in every one of these verses it means another man's wife, not your own wife. For a supporting exposition in a 2 minute video from YT channel Remember the Commands, see this&nbsp;<a href="https://vimeo.com/439370466/3fffdbfd96">link</a>.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">We can also emphatically say that any fornication offenses (e.g., bestiality, sex with a close relative, etc.) -- unlike adultery -- were never triggered by "coveting" or "lust," but only by the <strong>act.</strong></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">Hence, the only proper translation of gunaika in Matthew 5:27-28 is "married woman" or "a wife," implying another man's wife by Jesus calling it "adultery."</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">The church translators had it correct until at least up through the translation of Tyndale in 1534. Jesus' listeners would simply think Jesus is quoting the seventh of the Ten Commandments.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">Did the KJV Intend Any Lust for Any Woman to be A Sin?</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Did the KJV translate "gunaika" as "woman" in Matthew 5:28 to suggest something horrific? That any lusting by a man of "a woman" was adultery -- a new meaning of that offense? And why would the KJV do so?</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="font-family: 'Times New Roman'; color: black;">The first obvious answer we will show here is that indeed the KJV -- edited by the Puritan party of Calvinism -- intended Jesus' meaning to convey this impression. The&nbsp; church under King James was shifting entirely to Paul, and his values on marriage. It did so despite Paul's views on sex and marriage being horrific and subject to scoffing and ridicule. By mistranslating Matthew 5:28 to say "woman," however, this would deflect a negative reaction to Paul's words in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a> where Paul says in the KJV</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-size: 18pt; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman'; color: #494a44; background: white;">&ldquo;the time is short: it remains that both those who have </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-size: 18pt; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="font-family: 'times new roman'; color: #494a44; background: white;"><strong>wives</strong> should <strong>live</strong> as though they <strong>have none</strong>."&nbsp;</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">Paul's point is even clearer later when he says he himself </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">has a right to take a wife in 1 Cor. 9:5. For in Greek, Paul </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">says he has a right to take a "<strong>sister</strong> wife" (not just a wife)</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">using the Greek root words for a sibling -- <strong>adelphen</strong> -- and</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> the word <strong>gunaika</strong> for wife. See "sister wife" in&nbsp;<a href="https://biblehub.com/1_corinthians/9-5.htm">KJV</a>. Other </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">translations obscure this truth by omitting "sister" and </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">replacing it with "believing" -- obviously to avoid the </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">implication that Paul repeats <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a> in 1 Cor. 9:5. See </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"><a href="https://biblehub.com/1_corinthians/9-5.htm">NIV</a>.&nbsp;</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">Paul was saying that because the time for Christ's return is </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">short, if you made the supposedly unwise decision to marry</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> (which decision Paul strongly discourages in several places</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> in his epistles as robbing time and attention from God), </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">you should act as if you never married your&nbsp;</span><span style="font-size: 18pt;">wife. This </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">means you must isolate yourself physically from&nbsp;</span><span style="font-size: 18pt;">your wife. </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">You must treat your wife as you would your own sister.</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">The Christian leading commentator&nbsp; -- Tertullian</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> --&nbsp; in 210 AD saw the meaning plain as day. Tertullian used </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"><a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a> to prove why remarriage after your spouse dies </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">should always supposedly be wrong:&nbsp;</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;">"How does<strong> he [i.e., Paul] call away from the enjoyment </strong></span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;"><strong>of marriage</strong> such as are <strong>still in the married position </strong></span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;">saying that the 'time is wound up' [<a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a>, "time is </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;">short" in KJV] if he calls back into marriage such as </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;">those who through death escaped marriage?"&nbsp;</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;">(Tertullian,&nbsp;</span><span style="font-weight: bold; background: white;">On&nbsp;</span><span style="font-weight: bold; background: white;">Monogamy</span><span style="background: white;">&nbsp;at PDF 78 / pg. <a href="https://babel.hathitrust.org/cgi/pt?id=njp.32101075296036&amp;view=1up&amp;seq=78">68 </a>of text, </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="background: white;">col.1)</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">Tertullian is not wrong in how he read Paul. This passage in</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> Paul led to the horrible view among many early Christians </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">that&nbsp;</span><span style="background: white;">a widower or widow should not ever remarry. This was</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> supported&nbsp;</span><span style="background: white;">by&nbsp;</span><span style="background: white;">Paul's equally horrific view that&nbsp;</span><span style="background: white;">a Christian </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">widow&nbsp;</span><span style="background: white;">under 60 loses her salvation -- suf</span><span style="background: white;">fers "damnation" -</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">- if she&nbsp;</span><span style="background: white;">remarries. See <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Timothy+5%3A9-12&amp;version=KJV">1 Tim. 5:9-12</a>&nbsp;</span><a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Timothy+5%3A9-12&amp;version=KJV" style="font-size: 18pt;">KJV.</a>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">(So Paul's preaching of&nbsp;eternal security only belongs to any</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">other Christian!)</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="color: #494a44; background: white;">This passage in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a> on celibacy within marriage fit </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="color: #494a44; background: white;">perfectly with Paul similarly saying 28 verses earlier&nbsp;</span><span style="color: #494a44;">"it is </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt;"><span style="color: #494a44;">good for a man not to touch a woman." (</span><a href="http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:1</a><span style="color: #494a44;">&nbsp;KJV.)&nbsp;</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">Why should a married man live with his wife as if they are not married, i.e., have no sexual relations and stop interacting as a married couple? Why should any man not touch a woman? What is Paul's rationale?</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">In context, Paul says that marriage is a distraction -- a </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">division of attention -- away from God, and you are better </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">off not marrying. But if you did so, that is you marry, that </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">is not a sin, but&nbsp;</span><span style="font-size: 18pt;">now your obligation is to "live as though" </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">you are <strong>not</strong>&nbsp;</span><span style="font-size: 18pt;">married to your wife. For a thorough </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="font-size: 18pt;">discussion, see&nbsp;</span><a href="/recommendedreading/99-paul-women-and-sex.html"><span style="background: white;">Paul on Women and Sex.</span></a></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">Paul's idea is an horrific violation of the Law which says </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">the company of a woman is good for a man -- "it is good </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">that he is not alone," and invites them to be "fruitful and </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">multiply." (See the article just linked.)</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;">&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">How can we sanction Paul's horrific view? Obviously the</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;"> KJV translators wished to make it appear Jesus endorses </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">Paul's view -- so that it would appear that Paul's view is </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">justified by the revamped Matthew 5:28.</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">Did the KJV Know Better?</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">To avoid this implication that even a married man could&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">violate Matt 5:28 by lusting for their own wives -- a</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">"woman," all the KJV had to do is translate gunaika</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">correctly as "a wife" -- its true meaning in context.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Then the meaning&nbsp;<span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">of "adultery" in the Law would retain its</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;"></span><span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">meaning in 5:28.&nbsp;</span><span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">This would mean&nbsp; you cannot "covet your</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;"> neighbor's wife." &nbsp;</span><span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">Jesus would be simply repeating one of </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">the ten c</span>ommandments in Matthew 5:28. It is not that hard</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">for a&nbsp;man to avoid lusting after his neighbor's wife. Nothing</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">of a&nbsp;<span style="font-size: 18pt; background-color: transparent;">momentous shift in the Law would be implied in Jesus'</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">words.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">But having Jesus say that lusting by a man of any "woman" is&nbsp;adultery creates a crime <strong>unknown</strong> in the Law. Jesus would be&nbsp;changing it, per the KJV, if now adultery was any man&nbsp;coveting any woman, so that even a married man lusting after his own wife thereby sins.&nbsp;But if this is ingested as true, the mistranslation fully&nbsp;matched Paul's outrageous position in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor 7:29</a>.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">The KJV knew that no one ever used its mistranslation for 1500 years. This means it deliberately refused to follow Tyndale's lead of rendering gunaika in English in 1534 as "a wife" here despite the KJV rendering gunaika many other times in the NT as a "wife." The KJV also refused to follow Jerome's lead for the prior 1100 years to render gunaika as "wife" in Latin in Matthew 5:28. Instead, the KJV backed away from the obviously correct translation present in both Tyndale's and Jerome's work.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">We can have little doubt the primary reason was to give some cover for Paul's outrageous principle in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a>.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">This brings to mind the valid point of Professor Richard Eisenman -- a non-Christian scholar but one not below telling us Christians a truth about how Jesus has been misrepresented by defenders of Paul who Paulinists use to redefine Jesus' true teachings. Eisenman in&nbsp;<strong>The New Testament Code</strong> (London: Watkins Publishing, 2006) at xxvii alludes to this ongoing problem from Paulinists which Eisenman often writes about:</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black; padding-left: 60px;">[I]f there had been things that had been done and said in his name [i.e., Jesus' name] that were not his; it is my view that he would expect - nay require - his most sincere, <span style="font-weight: bold;">ardent</span>, and dedicated <span style="font-weight: bold;">supporters</span> and followers to <span style="font-weight: bold;">find this out</span>, there being nothing worse than having things done in or <span style="font-weight: bold;">attributed to one's name</span> in either life or legacy that were <span style="font-weight: bold;">not one's own</span>. This would be his charge to them and their obligation.</p>
<p style="padding-left: 60px;">&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">Did the KJV know better and reject it deliberately?</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><br />The KJV of 1611 borrowed 84% of its translation word-for-word from Tyndale's New Testament of 1534. But notice how Tyndale - trained in Greek at Oxford University - translates this:</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black; padding-left: 30px;">But I say unto you that whoseover looks upon <strong>a</strong> <strong>wife</strong> lusting after her has committed <strong>adultery</strong> in his heart already. (<a href="https://www.biblestudytools.com/tyn/matthew/5-28.html">Link</a>.)</p>
<p style="padding-left: 30px;">&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">This speaks of a man adulterously lusting for "<strong>a</strong>" wife -- obviously not <strong>his</strong> own wife because Jesus says such lust is the same as &nbsp;"adultery" which by definition in Torah is for your "neighbor's wife."</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">That is, "wife" as the translation makes sense because "adultery" under the Law can only happen with another man's wife. So "adultery" in context dictates that gunaika -- the Greek word for a wife -- should be rendered as "wife" in English.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Here is what the KJV instead translates this as:</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0pt; margin-bottom: 7pt; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black; padding-left: 30px;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">28&nbsp;</span>But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on <strong>a woman</strong> to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">How is this justified besides that it props up <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a>?</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">What if it means that Jesus supposedly teaches us to regard His own teachings as impossible without grace for faith alone? That absent accepting grace due to unattainable standards of righteousness such as this King James' version would represent, we are invariably sinners incapable of ever consistently obeying this particular command?</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">Dallas Willard in his otherwise great book&nbsp;</span><span style="font-style: italic; background: white;"><strong>The Great </strong></span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="font-style: italic; background: white;"><strong>Omission</strong></span><span style="background: white;">&nbsp;(San Francisco: Harper 2006) says precisely that </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44;"><span style="background: white;">this is</span><span style="background: white;">&nbsp;Jesus' true point:</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="background: white;">Thus, for example, Jesus&rsquo; teachings in the Sermon on</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="background: white;"> the Mount (Matt 5-7) make references to various </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="background: white;">behaviors: &hellip; <strong>looking to lust</strong>...[which are] </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="background: white;">illustrations of what living from the Kingdom God </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="background: white;">[should mean]....[However] to live&nbsp;</span><span style="font-weight: bold; background: white;">in conformity</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="font-weight: bold; background: white;"> with them...is like to attempt the impossible</span><span style="background: white;">, and </span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="background: white;">will lead to doing things that&nbsp;</span><span style="font-weight: bold; background: white;">obviously are wrong</span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'times new roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: #494a44; padding-left: 60px;"><span style="font-weight: bold; background: white;"> and even ridiculous</span><span style="background: white;">. (</span><span style="font-style: italic; background: white;">Id</span><span style="background: white;">. at 105.)</span></p>
<p style="padding-left: 60px;">&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">What is Willard's solution? Faith alone. Willard says we will never be able to avoid this sin as Jesus supposedly redefined it, but this means, Willard says, we will have to gain access to Christ-likeness by a "gift of grace."</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">What does this mean? Willard says we will supposedly awaken by the gospel of grace to realize that we are "dead in our trespasses and sins" (an echo of Romans) to find the "love of God" and the "availability of <strong>life</strong> in His Kingdom through <strong>confidence</strong> in Christ." (Willard, id., at 106.)</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">So Willard says (a) "confidence" (faith) (b) makes available "life" (salvation) once we realize we can never measure up to this impossibly high standard in Matthew 5:28.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">(Strangely Willard says to try to obey Jesus's list of dos-and-dont's in the Sermon which he lists would be to do something "obviously wrong" and even "ridiculous." Strange indeed are the teachers of Pauline doctrine.)</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Willard has merely repackaged faith alone to say this passage drives us to repentance with no other option than to accept grace, and never assume we can have enough righteousness to ever live up to Jesus' standards. Willard discourages us from even trying to obey the do's and don'ts of this and other passages in the Sermon as "obviously wrong" and "ridiculous" to try.&nbsp;</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">How do we excuse compliance as wrong and ridiculous?</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><br />Willard says this grace and life is made possible by "the acceptance of Christ as savior," and not by actually achieving Jesus' alleged standard against lust in Matthew 5:28. <strong>Id.</strong></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="background-color: transparent; font-family: Verdana, Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 11px;"></span></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="font-weight: bold;">Conclusion</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Hence, it is very likely&nbsp;in Matthew 5:28 that the Puritan translators rendered gunaika as "woman" rather than its more common usage as "wife" -- which would match Jesus' use of the term "adultery" in the same sentence -- because the KJV <strong>knew this would make it appear Jesus supports the validity of Paul's statement&nbsp;in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a></strong>.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Incidentally, when I recently mentioned this article to my wife, she disclosed to me for the first time that an elder named L...ell in about 1996 while we belonged to a Presbyterian church (hence Calvinist like the Puritans) told her it is sinful for a husband to lust for his own wife based upon Matthew 5:28 in the KJV reading. Thus, Calvinist translators created guilt where none should ever have belonged, harming likely the conscience of millions of Christian men and women to feel guilt initiating sex in marriage.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">For now Matthew 5:28 reads literally that any man who lusts for any woman -- no exceptions -- is guilty of adultery -- an utterly new scope to the meaning of the word adultery. This would fit Paul's view in 1 Cor. 7:29 that such lust by a husband for his own wife is illicit -- we must live as if we have no wife. We allegedly must live with her as simply a sister.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">This mistranslation of Matt 5:28 has also been exploited often to advance faith alone, such as Willard does, which is exposed above.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><br />In fact, in 2013 I had a back-and-forth argument with Pastor Jonas - a pastor of a mega-church - where he tried to use Matthew 5:28 to prove to me that faith alone is the only way to attain Jesus' high standard to not even lust after any woman (implicitly even my wife!) He was trying to prove Jesus, and not Paul alone, believed we can only be saved by faith without any actual ability to ever reach Jesus' standards. <br /><br /></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Please see how Pastor Jonas in 2013 used this mistranslation to battle me to accept faith alone based solely on Matt 5:28, available at this <a href="/recommendedreading/543-paulinist-defenders-questions.html">link</a>. (Thanks to God, I had already studied Willard's similar effort, and previously rebutted it in my 2009 book <strong>Jesus' Words on Salvation</strong>, which I then used to rebut Pastor Jonas in our exchange.)</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Thus this mistranslation has the contemporary secondary corrupt purpose -- perhaps forseen by the KJV -- that it can be exploited to make it appear falsely that Jesus gives us an impossible command against lust for our girlfriends or wives. Of course, we will never achieve this even if we believed Jesus commanded this. Thus these theologians with a corrupted understanding insist this means we can only supposedly fall on grace by faith alone to overcome such an alleged sin. There is therefore supposedly no other way to be righteous in God's eyes if Jesus' standard of righteousness is impossible -- so Willard and Pastor Jonas expressly tell us.&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><br />Therefore, the "woman" mistranslation of Jesus' words helped also support Paul's preposterous view that we are saved by faith alone despite Jesus in Matthew 19 refuting that. And despite Jesus precluding faith alone to enter heaven in Mark 9:42-49.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Unfortunately, the mind-bending guilt that Matt 5:28 in the KJV has caused has in turn damaged the consciences of men and the women we love. We need to truly repent - re-think - about such passages.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><br />Finally, a famous street evangelist too -- who will go nameless -- also needs to stop using this mistranslation to <strong>guilt young men</strong> about what J<strong>esus never truly said</strong>. His famous guilt line, "have you ever lusted after a woman?" &nbsp;is always answered "of course," to which the street preacher always says, "Jesus [or the Bible] then <strong>judges you an adulterer</strong>." Then the faith alone gospel is offered as the only cure.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Thus, this street preacher openly claims Jesus supposedly condemns the very God-given desire which leads us to obey God's exhortation to be "fruitful and multiply." Sexual desire by a man for a female.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">As Eisenman said, followers of Jesus should not allow our Lord Jesus to be falsely portrayed. It is not the street preacher's fault. It is the fault of the Puritan translators assigned by King James to re-translate in effect Tyndale's English NT to match highly anti-marriage beliefs instilled via Paul.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">Please do not share any Bible quote of this passage that does not translate Matt 5:28 correctly. That means you have to quote <strong>Tyndale's</strong> Bible in English for this verse.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><strong>NOTES</strong>.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><strong>Other Mistranslations to Help Paul. </strong></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">We have collected a series of other mistranslations designed to help Paul in our collection entitled:&nbsp;<a href="/recommendedreading/429-mistranslations-to-help-paul.html">Mistranslation to Help Paul.</a>&nbsp; &nbsp;</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><strong>1 Cor. 7 29 Is Another Proof Paul Is Uninspired.</strong></p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><span style="background-color: transparent; font-size: 18pt;">The most common way to explain Paul's remark that married men should act as if they are not married is that Paul said this was because the time is short. See <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7 29</a>. But Paul proved wrong, and hence Paul defenders say to me that this passage can be ignored.</span></p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">But this 'explanation' then concedes Paul is not always inspired. Paul, they thus concede, did not realize that almost 2000 years would pass before the return of Jesus. Hence, many Paulinists say we men do not have to obey this message from Paul.</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;"><br />However, that is quite convenient. You believe Paul's words are all from God when when you like what he says. But if you don't like them, Paul is no longer constantly inspired in every word. However, if Paul is inspired, you have no choice but to believe Paul even foresaw people would not have seen the return of Christ yet by our era, but that in his mind was still a 'short' 2000 years. Thus this Pauline downplaying of <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:9</a> is no true explanation.&nbsp; Paulinists if true to belief in Paul's inspiration instead should believe they are having supposedly illicit relations with their wife, because that is what Paul says.&nbsp; But many don't because they selectively read Paul -- <strong>accepting only commands that relax concern about sin</strong>, and <strong>ignoring any principles of Paul that ratchet up what is sin</strong>.</p>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">However, the Paulinists's retreat is actually on the right path. No one need obey this instruction from Paul because Paul is not inspired in <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a>. But if Paul is not inspired here, on what basis can one conclude any other passage from Paul is inspired? There is no basis. For Paul does not quote a single revelation from Jesus or Yahweh to Paul to support anything Paul ever teaches. Hence, <a href="https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7%3A29&amp;version=KJV">1 Cor. 7:29</a> can be an eye opener for Paulinists to entirely break free from Paul, and re-embrace Jesus as their "sole teacher" and "sole pastor."</p>
<p style="margin-top: 0in; margin-right: 0in; margin-bottom: 0in; font-family: 'Times New Roman'; font-size: 18pt; color: black;">&nbsp;</p>
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