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Grace As Used by Paul and Jesus: The Difference

I have written an article on the true meaning of Grace as Favor, and how Jesus used the same word Paul uses translated "as grace" four times in Luke's Gospel, and one can see Jesus' means the simple concept of favor. Then, in context, Jesus taught that exceptional achievement was the means of grace. That is, the means of favor with God. See Grace or Favor in the Bible.

I was encouraged to do this research by what Nancy wrote me as a proposed article, and I am posting it here for all to consider.

Spiros Zodhiates in his Complete Word Study Dictionary of The New Testament writes in his definition of charis, Strong's 5485, translated "grace" at least 88 times in Paul's writings, "God's grace insures that those who have been TRULY REGENERATED will persevere until the end of life."  

I know this denominational teaching WELL, and also know JESUS taught it is by His Father's spirit (also admitted by Paul in Romans 8:9) and not by "grace".  Zodhiates continues, saying this ENTIRE WORK is called sanctification, a WORK OF GOD (okay for Him to work just not us even though we are created in His image) 'whereby we are renewed in the whole man and are ENABLED to die daily unto sin and live unto righteousness' AS IS STATED BY the Westminster Shorter Catechism" !!!!!!!!!!!!

And Zodhiates then references four of PAUL'S SCRIPTURES. He states earlier this regeneration is the work of the Holy Spirit but "the maintenance of this condition requires AN UNBROKEN AND IMMENSE SUPPLY OF GRACE," and even though he says "the soul must persevere" to maintain this endless supply of grace, Zodhiates never, of course, calls it REPENTANCE!!!  

QUESTION:  Has anyone ever heard, much less taught, a message about what JESUS has to say about this Greek word, charis, translated "grace" by Paul 88 times, and always DEFINED "UNMERITED favor"?  It is so interesting, because when you look up the word Grace in Strongs, it appears as though Jesus never used the word even one time; and especially interesting since we Christians base our salvation on being SAVED "by grace through faith" -- AND NOTHING ELSE!!!!  

However, digging a little deeper (which it seems no one these days has time to do because they are too busy with their FACE in the wrong BOOK) ????-- when you look up the NUMBER --5485-- in Wigram Englishman's Greek Concordance of the New Testament -- we find JESUS did actually use the word FOUR times:  Luke 6:32, 33, and 34 and Luke 17:9!!!  

[Editor Note: Luke 6:32-34 reads -- with CHARIS' translation rendered in Red:

32 “If you love those who love you, what benefit is that to you? For even sinners love those who love them.33 And if you do good to those who do good to you, what benefit is that to you? For even sinners do the same.34 And if you lend to those from whom you expect to receive, what credit is that to you? Even sinners lend to sinners, to get back the same amount. (Luke 6:32-34 ESV.)

Luke 17:9 reads: "Does he thank the servant because he did what was commanded?" Other translations say 'is the master "thankful" - give grace - because the servant did what was commanded?'

Cf.Matt 5:46 "For if you love those who love you, what reward do you have? Do not even the tax collectors do the same?"

When you do good to get good, you are not going to be treated with any favor by God. This implies when you do good solely to obey and thus not for selfish advantage, then Jesus says this is when you will receive God's favor -- grace. It is MERITED FAVOR, not unmerited favor by self-seeking kindress or good-looking acts. END OF EDITOR'S NOTE]

And INTERESTINGLY ENOUGH, the way Jesus uses it would not be defined as "UNMERITED FAVOR."  In fact, the key to uncovering the exact DEFINITION would be Matthew 5:46!!!!  AMAZING!!!!  An exhaustive study of the Hebrew word translated "grace/favor" -- Strong's 2580 -- AGREES WITH JESUS -- who only TEACHES HIS FATHER'S DOCTRINE, John 7:16.  

This "grace/favor" begins with Noah, Genesis 6:7, who "found grace in the eyes of the Lord" and the next verse, I believe, explains WHY:  BECAUSE "he was a just man and perfect in his generations, and Noah walked with God".  Further, Genesis 6:22 states, "Thus did Noah according to all that God commanded him, so did he."  7:1 continues, "And The Lord said unto Noah, Come thou and all the house into the ark; for thee have I seen righteous before me in this generation."  7:5 continues, "And Noah did according unto all that the Lord commanded him."  I recently heard this taught that Noah was only able to obey because God's "GRACE" made him do it, therefore, "UNMERITED" grace!!!!!  PROOF!!!!

Ezekiel 14:14, regarding the surety of judgment for the house of Israel, "though these three men, Noah, Daniel, and Job, were in it, they should deliver but their own souls BY THEIR RIGHTEOUSNESS, saith the Lord God."  Nothing about faith according to Grace according to the Westminster Shorter Catechism.  It took quite a bit of ink to print it off but it took even more time to read.  Nothing short about it!!  Just one more comment on the above subject of Grace according to Jesus, Peter gives a comparable DEFINITION of this interesting Greek word in first Peter 2:19, he begins, "For this (is) THANKWORTHY" ( could that possibly mean WORTHY of thanks or REWARD) "if a MAN for conscience toward God" -- his willingness to conform to God's will -- obedience based on DECISION -- "endure grief, suffering wrongfully."  And continuing through verse 25 which concludes, "For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now RETURNED" -- requires REPENTANCE -- "unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls."  REPENTANCE not GRACE!!!!!  And definitely NOT -- ACCORDING TO -- the Westminster Shorter Catechism.  Kindest regards, Nancy (10/23/2014)

Amazing work. God's Holy Spirit is a fiery arrow... Don't you all think? Nancy has the quiver and the bow. The Almighty is pulling back and letting it go through her vibrant words. Thanks Nancy 

EMAIL ON ISSUE

A correspondent asked about the meaning of grace in the New Testament. I responded that Jesus in Luke used the term 4 times, but it is translated so we don't see this and how differently Jesus used the term versus how Paul used it. The word GRACE means FAVOR. It can be earned or it can be unearned. Jesus uses it to mean EARNED FAVOR and Paul uses to mean UNEARNED FAVOR. Here is what I wrote explaining this to a correspondent:

Finally, a little lesson about Grace as Jesus used it 4 times in Luke …. A contributor to my site found this. Jesus’s words are never translated as “Grace” but that is the word  -- the same as Paul’s – CHARIS in Greek. This is in Luke 6:32, 33, and 34 and Luke 17:9!!! 

 Jesus understood in these 4 passages that grace means MERITED FAVOR. So Jesus says, what grace do you receive if you love those who love you, because even heathen do so. Hence, you did not merit favor (grace) for such a deed, as it serves your self-interest. But if you do something worthy of favor – GRACE, Jesus says you will receive GRACE, i.e., God's favor. So now you know why CHARIS is rendered as THANKS, BENEFIT, CREDIT rather than GRACE, and thus you don’t see Jesus used GRACE opposite of PAUL. Just a tidbit. Here is a link to the contributor’s article [i.e., the article above.]